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CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 (PK0-005) — Questions 601675

980 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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601
Multi-Selecthard

A project manager is evaluating earned value metrics for a project. The CPI is 0.8 and the SPI is 0.9. Which TWO conclusions can the project manager draw?

Select 2 answers
A.The project is ahead of schedule
B.The project is behind schedule
C.The project is under budget
D.The project is over budget
E.The project is on schedule
AnswersB, D

Correct: SPI < 1 means schedule efficiency is less than planned.

Why this answer

CPI < 1 indicates over budget; SPI < 1 indicates behind schedule.

602
MCQeasy

In a user story, which component describes the benefit or value that the feature will provide?

A.Feature
B.Role
C.Benefit
D.Acceptance criteria
AnswerC

The benefit is the reason or value.

Why this answer

The standard format is 'As a [role], I want [feature], so that [benefit]'. The 'so that' clause captures the benefit.

603
MCQmedium

A project manager is reviewing the communication plan and notices that stakeholder A is listed as 'Responsible' for a task in the RACI matrix. According to RACI, what does 'Responsible' mean?

A.The person who provides expert input
B.The person who needs to be informed of progress
C.The person who performs the work
D.The person who must approve the task
AnswerC

Correct; responsible does the work.

Why this answer

In RACI, 'Responsible' means the person who does the work to complete the task. 'Accountable' is the person who signs off.

604
MCQmedium

A project team is executing the project plan when a key stakeholder requests a significant change to the scope. The change control board has approved the change. What should the project manager update next?

A.Project management plan and scope baseline
B.Risk register
C.Communications plan
D.Issue log
AnswerA

Upon approval, the project management plan and the scope baseline must be updated to incorporate the change.

Why this answer

After a change is approved by the change control board, the project manager must update the project management plan and the scope baseline to reflect the new scope.

605
MCQhard

In a matrix organization, a project manager needs to acquire a team member from a functional department. The functional manager is reluctant to release the resource due to other work. What is the best way for the project manager to address this?

A.Negotiate with the functional manager for the resource
B.Hire an external contractor
C.Assign the task to another team member
D.Escalate to the project sponsor immediately
AnswerA

Negotiation is key in matrix structures.

Why this answer

In a matrix organization, the PM must negotiate with the functional manager for resources.

606
MCQmedium

A project manager is updating the project schedule and notices that the critical path has changed due to a delay in a key task. Which document should the project manager update first to reflect this change?

A.Risk register
B.Stakeholder register
C.Project schedule
D.Issue log
AnswerC

The project schedule is the primary document for tracking task durations and dependencies.

Why this answer

The project schedule is the document that directly reflects the sequence, dependencies, and timing of tasks, including the critical path. When a delay causes the critical path to change, the schedule must be updated first to capture the new start and finish dates, float values, and path dependencies. This ensures the project manager has an accurate baseline for assessing impacts and communicating changes.

Exam trap

The PK0-005 exam often tests the principle that the project schedule is the primary document for time-related changes, and candidates mistakenly update the issue log or risk register first because they confuse a schedule delay with a risk or issue that needs logging.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the risk register is used to document identified risks, their probability, impact, and response plans, not to record a confirmed delay that has already occurred. Option B is wrong because the stakeholder register lists stakeholders and their engagement levels, but it does not contain task timing or critical path information. Option D is wrong because the issue log tracks problems that need resolution, but the primary action for a schedule change is to update the schedule itself, not the issue log, unless the delay itself is an unresolved issue requiring a separate entry.

607
MCQhard

A project manager is reviewing the schedule and notices that the critical path has been affected by a delay in a non-critical task. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A.The task had a negative float
B.The task's duration was underestimated
C.The task was a predecessor to a critical task
D.Resource leveling caused the delay
AnswerC

If a non-critical task is a predecessor to a critical task, its delay can push the critical task, thereby affecting the critical path.

Why this answer

A non-critical task has float, but if it is a predecessor to a critical task, its delay can consume float and eventually impact the critical path.

608
MCQmedium

A construction project is nearing the end of the executing phase. The project manager is preparing for the closure phase. During a review, the project manager discovers that two deliverables have not been formally accepted by the client due to minor quality issues. The team has already started demobilizing resources. What should the project manager do to properly close the project?

A.Correct the quality issues and obtain sign-off from the client before closing.
B.Close the project and rely on the warranty period to fix issues later.
C.Proceed with administrative closure and archive all project documents.
D.Transfer the deliverables to the client with a note that minor issues remain.
AnswerA

Ensures deliverables meet acceptance criteria.

Why this answer

The correct action is to resolve the quality issues and obtain formal acceptance before proceeding to closure. Option A is correct because all deliverables must be formally accepted by the client to close the project or phase. Option B is wrong because closing without acceptance can lead to legal and financial liability.

Option C is wrong because administrative closure requires that all deliverables are accepted. Option D is wrong because transferring deliverables with noted issues does not constitute acceptance and may result in rejection.

609
MCQhard

A project manager is reviewing the project's critical path. Two tasks on the critical path have float of zero, and a third task has a float of three days. The sponsor asks to compress the schedule by two days. Which action should the PM take?

A.Apply fast-tracking to the task with three days of float.
B.Apply crashing only to tasks on the critical path with zero float.
C.Reduce the scope of tasks with the largest float.
D.Add resources to all tasks on the critical path.
AnswerB

Crashing critical path tasks with zero float directly reduces project duration.

Why this answer

Schedule compression must focus on the critical path to reduce project duration. Tasks with zero float are on the critical path, so crashing them (adding resources or overtime) can directly shorten the schedule. The task with three days of float is not on the critical path, so compressing it would not reduce overall project duration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates mistakenly think any task with float can be compressed to reduce schedule, but only tasks on the critical path with zero float directly impact project duration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because fast-tracking a task with float (non-critical path) does not reduce the critical path duration; it only affects non-critical activities. Option C is wrong because reducing scope of tasks with the largest float does not address the critical path and may not achieve the required two-day compression. Option D is wrong because adding resources to all critical path tasks is inefficient and may cause unnecessary cost or resource conflicts; only specific tasks on the critical path should be crashed to achieve the compression.

610
MCQeasy

A project team uses planning poker to estimate user stories. What is the purpose of this technique?

A.To define the Definition of Done
B.To assign tasks to team members
C.To reach a consensus on effort estimates
D.To create a Gantt chart
AnswerC

Correct. Planning poker helps the team agree on relative sizing.

Why this answer

Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique where team members discuss and vote on story point estimates to reach agreement.

611
MCQeasy

A project manager receives a change request from a stakeholder. What is the first step the project manager should take?

A.Submit the change to the change control board
B.Perform an impact analysis
C.Implement the change immediately
D.Update the project baseline
AnswerB

Impact analysis is the first step in change control.

Why this answer

The first step is to perform an impact analysis to assess the effects of the change before submission to the CCB.

612
MCQmedium

A company is managing multiple projects simultaneously. One project focuses on upgrading the IT infrastructure, another on developing a new customer portal, and a third on training staff on new software. These projects are grouped together because they all contribute to the same strategic goal of digital transformation. According to CompTIA Project+, how is this grouping best described?

A.Project
B.Operations
C.Portfolio
D.Program
AnswerD

A program consists of related projects managed together to achieve a common strategic goal.

Why this answer

A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

613
Matchingmedium

Match each project management knowledge area to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Ensuring the project includes all required work

Managing timely completion of the project

Planning, estimating, budgeting, and controlling costs

Ensuring the project meets its intended objectives

Identifying, analyzing, and responding to project risks

Why these pairings

The correct matches are: Scope Management with its definition about including all work, Time Management with timely completion, and Cost Management with budgeting and cost control. Common confusions include swapping definitions between these knowledge areas, especially because they are closely related.

614
MCQmedium

A project manager needs to communicate the project's progress to stakeholders with high power and low interest. According to the power/interest grid, which communication approach is most appropriate?

A.Manage closely with frequent detailed reports.
B.Keep informed with regular status reports.
C.Keep satisfied with periodic high-level updates.
D.Monitor with minimal communication.
AnswerC

Correct: Keep satisfied with minimal but sufficient info.

Why this answer

Stakeholders with high power and low interest should be kept satisfied. They need sufficient information to ensure satisfaction but not overwhelmed with details.

615
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is reviewing a change request to modify the project scope. Which TWO items should be updated in the project management plan if the change is approved?

Select 2 answers
A.Risk register
B.Scope baseline
C.Lessons learned register
D.Schedule baseline
E.Issue log
AnswersB, D

Correct. The scope baseline must be updated to reflect the approved change.

Why this answer

When a change is approved, the project baselines (scope, schedule, cost) and the project management plan are updated. The scope baseline and schedule baseline are part of the plan. The change log is also updated, but it is not part of the project management plan itself.

616
MCQmedium

A project manager is evaluating a change request that would increase the project cost by 10% but reduce schedule by 15%. The change control board approves the change. What should the project manager update?

A.Risk register
B.WBS
C.Project plan and baselines
D.Issue log
AnswerC

Correct action after change approval.

Why this answer

Approved changes require updating the project management plan and baselines (cost, schedule).

617
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is calculating the cost performance index (CPI) for a project. The earned value (EV) is $50,000 and the actual cost (AC) is $60,000. What does the CPI indicate? (Select TWO correct statements.)

Select 2 answers
A.The project is over budget.
B.The project is under budget.
C.The project is getting $1.20 worth of work for every $1 spent.
D.The project is getting $0.83 worth of work for every $1 spent.
E.The project is on schedule.
AnswersA, D

Correct. CPI < 1 means over budget.

Why this answer

CPI = EV/AC = 50000/60000 = 0.83. A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over budget. The project is spending more than planned for the work performed.

618
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is creating a WBS. Which two best practices should be followed? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Ensure each element is a deliverable
B.Decompose to work packages
C.Assign durations to elements
D.Include project activities
E.Include only high-level scope
AnswersA, B

WBS focuses on deliverables.

Why this answer

The WBS should be decomposed to work packages, and each element should represent a deliverable, not an activity.

619
MCQmedium

A project has an EV of $40,000, PV of $50,000, and AC of $45,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

A.1.25
B.0.80
C.0.89
D.1.11
AnswerC

Correct: CPI = EV/AC = 40000/45000 = 0.89.

Why this answer

CPI = EV/AC = $40,000/$45,000 = 0.89.

620
MCQmedium

A project manager is selecting a methodology for a project with well-understood requirements and low expected change. Which methodology is MOST appropriate?

A.Agile
B.Scrum
C.Hybrid
D.Predictive (Waterfall)
AnswerD

Waterfall works well with stable requirements.

Why this answer

Predictive/waterfall is suitable for stable requirements and low change, as it follows a sequential plan-driven approach.

621
MCQeasy

A project manager needs to track the start and end dates of tasks as well as dependencies. Which tool should be used?

A.Gantt chart
B.Control chart
C.Fishbone diagram
D.Pareto chart
AnswerA

A Gantt chart displays tasks, durations, and dependencies over time.

Why this answer

A Gantt chart is the correct tool because it visually displays task start and end dates along a timeline, and it can explicitly show dependencies between tasks using arrows or linking lines. This makes it ideal for project scheduling and tracking progress against planned dates.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse a control chart (used for quality control) with a Gantt chart because both involve 'chart' and tracking, but control charts track process variation over time, not task schedules or dependencies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a control chart is used in statistical process control to monitor process stability over time, not to track task dates or dependencies. Option C is wrong because a fishbone diagram (Ishikawa diagram) is a cause-and-effect tool used for root cause analysis, not for scheduling or dependency tracking. Option D is wrong because a Pareto chart is a bar chart that displays the frequency of problems or causes in descending order, used for prioritization, not for tracking task timelines or dependencies.

622
MCQhard

A project has many stakeholders with varying interests and influence. Which document should the PM use to plan how to engage them?

A.Stakeholder engagement plan
B.Communication plan
C.Stakeholder register
D.RACI matrix
AnswerA

This plan outlines approaches to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project.

Why this answer

The stakeholder engagement plan is the correct document because it specifically outlines strategies and actions to manage stakeholder expectations, interests, and influence throughout the project lifecycle. Unlike a communication plan, which focuses on the logistics of information distribution, the engagement plan addresses how to actively involve stakeholders based on their power, interest, and influence levels. This aligns with PMI's guidance in the PMBOK Guide for the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the stakeholder engagement plan with the communication plan, but the engagement plan is broader and includes strategies for managing influence and expectations, not just the mechanics of sending updates.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Communication plan) is wrong because it focuses on the 'what, when, how, and to whom' of information distribution, not on the broader strategies for engaging stakeholders with varying interests and influence. Option C (Stakeholder register) is wrong because it is a static repository of stakeholder identification and classification data (e.g., name, role, power/interest grid), not a dynamic plan for engagement activities. Option D (RACI matrix) is wrong because it is a responsibility assignment tool that maps tasks to roles (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed), not a document for planning stakeholder engagement strategies.

623
MCQmedium

A project to build a website is expected to take 6 months with a fixed budget. During planning, the team determines that the requirements are well-understood and unlikely to change. Which methodology is most appropriate?

A.Kanban
B.Predictive
C.Agile
D.Scrum
AnswerB

Correct. Predictive is suitable for stable requirements.

Why this answer

Predictive (waterfall) methodology works best when requirements are clear and stable. It uses sequential phases and fixed scope.

624
MCQmedium

A software development project is using an agile methodology. The product owner is frequently changing requirements during sprints, causing the team to miss sprint goals. The project manager has a good relationship with the product owner. The team is frustrated and morale is dropping. The project manager needs to address this issue while maintaining stakeholder satisfaction. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A.Coach the product owner on agile principles and the impact of changes.
B.Escalate to the project sponsor.
C.Implement a formal change control process for all changes.
D.Ask the team to work overtime to accommodate changes.
AnswerA

Educates without conflict.

Why this answer

The project manager should first coach the product owner on agile principles, specifically the impact of changing requirements during sprints. In agile, the product owner is responsible for prioritizing the backlog, but changes should not be introduced mid-sprint as they disrupt the team's commitment to sprint goals. By leveraging the good relationship, the project manager can educate the product owner on the importance of sprint stability, which directly addresses the root cause without escalating or overcomplicating the process.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse 'agile embraces change' with 'unrestricted mid-sprint changes,' leading them to choose a formal change control process (Option C) or escalation (Option B), when the correct first step is education and collaboration with the product owner.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because escalating to the project sponsor is premature; the project manager should first attempt to resolve the issue directly with the product owner through coaching, as the sponsor is typically involved for higher-level or unresolved conflicts. Option C is wrong because implementing a formal change control process contradicts agile principles, which embrace change but within defined boundaries (e.g., backlog refinement, not mid-sprint); a rigid process would reduce stakeholder satisfaction and slow down the team. Option D is wrong because asking the team to work overtime to accommodate changes is a short-term fix that ignores the root cause, further lowers morale, and violates agile's emphasis on sustainable pace.

625
MCQmedium

A project manager is evaluating two potential projects. Project A has an NPV of $50,000, and Project B has an NPV of -$10,000. Which project should be selected based on NPV?

A.Both projects
B.Project B
C.Project A
D.Neither project
AnswerC

Positive NPV indicates profit.

Why this answer

A positive NPV indicates a profitable project; a negative NPV indicates a loss. Select Project A.

626
MCQmedium

In a RACI matrix, which role is ultimately accountable for the successful completion of a task?

A.Consulted
B.Informed
C.Responsible
D.Accountable
AnswerD

Correct. Accountable (A) is the final decision-maker.

Why this answer

In a RACI matrix, 'A' stands for Accountable, meaning the person who is ultimately answerable for the task. There should be only one 'A' per task.

627
MCQmedium

A project manager is tracking the completion of key deliverables against the project schedule. Which tool should they use to display only major milestones without showing detailed dependencies or tasks?

A.Network diagram
B.Milestone chart
C.Gantt chart
D.Burndown chart
AnswerB

Milestone charts display only key events.

Why this answer

A milestone chart is specifically designed to show key events or milestones, not detailed tasks or dependencies.

628
MCQmedium

A change request to add a new feature has been submitted. After impact analysis, the change control board (CCB) approves the change. What should the project manager do next?

A.Reject the change request
B.Escalate to the sponsor
C.Implement the change and update baselines
D.Conduct another impact analysis
AnswerC

Approved changes must be integrated into the project.

Why this answer

After approval, the project manager must implement the change, which includes updating all relevant baselines (scope, schedule, cost) and communicating the change to stakeholders.

629
MCQeasy

In a power/interest grid, stakeholders with high power and low interest should be managed with which approach?

A.Keep informed
B.Keep satisfied
C.Monitor
D.Manage closely
AnswerB

Keep satisfied is appropriate for high power, low interest stakeholders.

Why this answer

Stakeholders with high power but low interest need to be kept satisfied to maintain their support without overwhelming them with information.

630
MCQmedium

A change request to add a new feature is submitted. The project manager performs an impact analysis and presents it to the Change Control Board (CCB). The CCB approves the change. What is the next step?

A.Document the change in the lessons learned
B.Implement the change and update the project baselines
C.Reject the change and inform the requester
D.Update the risk register
AnswerB

Correct: Approved changes are implemented and baselines updated.

Why this answer

After approval, the change must be implemented and project baselines (scope, schedule, cost) updated to reflect the approved change.

631
MCQhard

A project has a CPI of 0.8 and an SPI of 1.1. Which statement describes the project's performance?

A.Under budget and behind schedule
B.Over budget and behind schedule
C.Over budget and ahead of schedule
D.Under budget and ahead of schedule
AnswerC

Correct. CPI < 1 is over budget; SPI > 1 is ahead of schedule.

Why this answer

Over budget and ahead of schedule. CPI of 0.8 (<1) indicates the project is over budget, while SPI of 1.1 (>1) indicates it is ahead of schedule. Option A is incorrect because it states under budget and behind schedule, which is the opposite of both.

Option B is incorrect because it states behind schedule, but the SPI shows ahead of schedule. Option D is incorrect because it states under budget, but the CPI shows over budget.

632
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of the planning phase in the project life cycle? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Developing the project charter
B.Creating the work breakdown structure (WBS)
C.Delivering project deliverables
D.Performing risk identification
E.Obtaining final acceptance
AnswersB, D

WBS is created during planning.

Why this answer

The planning phase involves creating detailed plans and defining scope, schedule, cost baselines.

633
MCQeasy

Which document contains information such as issue ID, description, owner, priority, status, and resolution date?

A.Issue log
B.Risk register
C.Work breakdown structure
D.Change log
AnswerA

The issue log contains all the fields listed.

Why this answer

The issue log is used to track and manage issues throughout the project. The risk register tracks risks. The change log tracks changes.

The WBS is a decomposition of deliverables.

634
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is selecting tools for an Agile project. Which TWO tools are commonly used for Agile project management? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Trello
B.Microsoft Project
C.Jira
D.Smartsheet
E.PERT chart
AnswersA, C

Correct. Trello is a Kanban-based tool popular for Agile.

Why this answer

Jira and Trello are both popular Agile project management tools that support Scrum and Kanban methodologies.

635
MCQmedium

During project execution, a stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project cost by 10%. The project manager documents the change and submits it to the change control board (CCB). After review, the CCB approves the change. Which document should the project manager update first?

A.Change log
B.Project schedule
C.Risk register
D.Project scope statement
AnswerA

The change log documents the approval and is the first document to update.

Why this answer

The change log is the first document to update because it serves as the official record of all change requests, including their status and approval decisions. Once the CCB approves a change, the project manager must log the approval in the change log before updating other documents like the schedule or scope statement, as those updates depend on the change being formally recorded.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often think the project schedule or scope statement should be updated immediately after approval, but the exam tests the correct sequence where the change log must be updated first to maintain a formal record of the decision.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the project schedule should be updated only after the change is logged and its impact on the schedule is assessed; updating it first would bypass the formal tracking process. Option C is wrong because the risk register is updated when a change introduces new risks or modifies existing ones, not as the immediate first step after CCB approval. Option D is wrong because the project scope statement is updated only after the change is approved and logged, as scope changes require formal baseline updates that depend on the change log entry.

636
MCQmedium

During project planning, the team identifies high uncertainty that could affect the schedule. Which document should the project manager create or update?

A.Change log
B.Lessons learned
C.Risk management plan
D.Project charter
AnswerC

The risk management plan defines how to handle risks; it should be created during planning to address uncertainty.

Why this answer

The risk management plan is the correct document to create or update when high uncertainty could affect the schedule because it defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, responded to, and monitored throughout the project. This plan includes the risk register and risk response strategies, which directly address schedule uncertainties by establishing a structured approach to handling potential impacts. In the PK0-005 context, the risk management plan is a key component of the project management plan that proactively manages uncertainty rather than reacting after the fact.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the risk management plan with the risk register or assume that uncertainty is handled by updating the project charter, but the charter only authorizes the project and does not contain detailed risk response planning.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the change log is used to record approved changes to the project baseline, not to plan for or manage uncertainty that has not yet occurred. Option B is wrong because lessons learned document what was learned during or after the project, not forward-looking planning for high uncertainty. Option D is wrong because the project charter authorizes the project and defines high-level objectives, but it does not contain detailed risk management procedures or responses to schedule uncertainty.

637
MCQhard

A company is considering a project with an initial investment of $100,000 and expected annual cash inflows of $30,000 for 5 years. The discount rate is 10%. What is the approximate Net Present Value (NPV)? (Present value of annuity factor for 5 years at 10% is 3.791)

A.$50,000
B.-$13,730
C.$150,000
D.$13,730
AnswerD

Correct. $30,000 * 3.791 = $113,730; $113,730 - $100,000 = $13,730.

Why this answer

NPV = Present value of inflows - Initial investment. PV of inflows = $30,000 * 3.791 = $113,730. NPV = $113,730 - $100,000 = $13,730.

638
MCQhard

A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $200,000. The earned value (EV) is $100,000 and the actual cost (AC) is $120,000. If the cost performance is expected to continue, what is the estimate at completion (EAC)?

A.$240,000
B.$200,000
C.$220,000
D.$180,000
AnswerA

EAC = BAC/CPI = $200,000 / (100,000/120,000) = $200,000 / 0.8333 = $240,000.

Why this answer

The estimate at completion (EAC) when cost performance is expected to continue is calculated using the formula EAC = BAC / CPI, where CPI = EV / AC. Here, CPI = $100,000 / $120,000 = 0.8333, so EAC = $200,000 / 0.8333 = $240,000. This formula assumes the same cost efficiency will persist for the remainder of the project.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the EAC formula for continued cost performance with the formula for atypical variances (EAC = AC + (BAC - EV)), leading them to incorrectly select $220,000.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because it assumes no cost variance, using EAC = BAC, which is only valid if the project is on budget (CPI = 1.0). Option C is wrong because it incorrectly adds the cost variance (AC - EV = $20,000) to BAC, representing a flawed EAC = AC + (BAC - EV) formula that does not account for continued performance. Option D is wrong because it subtracts the cost variance from BAC, which would imply cost performance is improving, not continuing as stated.

639
MCQmedium

A project has three activities on the critical path. Activity A has a duration of 5 days, Activity B has a duration of 3 days, and Activity C has a duration of 4 days. What is the total float for any activity on the critical path?

A.3 days
B.0 days
C.12 days
D.4 days
AnswerB

Critical path activities have zero float.

Why this answer

Activities on the critical path have zero float by definition.

640
Multi-Selecteasy

A project manager is creating a project schedule. Which THREE items are typically included in a schedule baseline?

Select 3 answers
A.Actual start and end dates
B.Approved start and end dates for activities
C.Activity dependencies
D.Resource assignments
E.Milestones
AnswersB, C, E

Part of the baseline.

Why this answer

The schedule baseline includes the approved start and end dates, milestones, and activity dependencies. It is not updated with changes until approved.

641
MCQmedium

You are managing a marketing campaign project. The team uses a project management software that includes a resource management module. You notice that several team members are overallocated, and project tasks are at risk of delay. The software allows you to view resource capacity and assignments, but the data is not being updated regularly. You need to ensure resource conflicts are identified and resolved quickly. Which action should you take?

A.Reassign tasks from overallocated resources to under allocated ones immediately
B.Enable the software's automatic resource leveling feature
C.Establish a weekly review of resource utilization and hold team leads accountable for updates
D.Only monitor the critical path tasks for resource conflicts
AnswerC

Regular reviews ensure conflicts are identified and resolved proactively.

Why this answer

Establishing a recurring review of resource utilization ensures ongoing monitoring and early conflict detection, and holding team leads accountable ensures data is updated regularly. Option A is wrong because reassigning tasks without analysis may cause further imbalance. Option B is wrong because automatic leveling might not consider project priorities or dependencies.

Option D is wrong because focusing only on critical path tasks ignores resource conflicts on non-critical tasks, which can still delay the project.

642
MCQhard

A project has just completed the closure phase. Which activity is performed to formally obtain confirmation from the customer that the project deliverables have been accepted?

A.Conduct a lessons learned session
B.Obtain formal sign-off on project deliverables
C.Create the final project report
D.Perform a project handover
AnswerB

Formal acceptance from customer.

Why this answer

Formal sign-off on project deliverables is the process of obtaining confirmation from the customer that deliverables meet the acceptance criteria. Option A is incorrect because a lessons learned session captures knowledge for future projects, not formal acceptance. Option C is incorrect because the final project report summarizes project performance, not acceptance.

Option D is incorrect because project handover is the transfer of deliverables, but formal sign-off is the explicit acceptance.

643
MCQmedium

During project execution, a team member reports that a key deliverable will be delayed because a required component is out of stock. The project manager updates the issue log and meets with the team to evaluate alternatives. Which project management process is being performed?

A.Close Project or Phase
B.Direct and Manage Project Work
C.Perform Integrated Change Control
D.Monitor and Control Project Work
AnswerB

This process involves executing the work and managing issues as they arise.

Why this answer

The scenario describes the project manager updating the issue log and meeting with the team to evaluate alternatives for a delayed deliverable. This is the core of the 'Direct and Manage Project Work' process, which involves executing the project management plan, performing activities to produce deliverables, and managing issues as they arise. The PM is actively directing the work by addressing the issue and exploring options, not yet controlling or changing baselines.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'Direct and Manage Project Work' (which handles issues and alternatives during execution) with 'Monitor and Control Project Work' (which is about tracking and reporting performance), because both involve addressing problems but at different stages of the project management process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Close Project or Phase' is performed at the end of a project or phase to finalize all activities, not during execution to handle a supply shortage. Option C is wrong because 'Perform Integrated Change Control' is used to review and approve change requests that impact baselines, but the PM is only evaluating alternatives and has not yet submitted a formal change request. Option D is wrong because 'Monitor and Control Project Work' focuses on tracking, reviewing, and reporting progress against the plan, not on actively directing the work or managing issues as they occur.

644
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are examples of resource leveling techniques?

Select 2 answers
A.Fast tracking
B.Splitting tasks
C.Crashing
D.Delaying tasks
E.Adding resources
AnswersB, D

Splitting tasks allows resources to work on other tasks temporarily.

Why this answer

Resource leveling adjusts the schedule to resolve over-allocation. Delaying tasks and splitting tasks are common leveling techniques. Fast tracking and crashing are schedule compression techniques.

Adding resources does not level; it may overload further.

645
MCQhard

A project team is evaluating cloud providers for a SaaS application. The provider must guarantee 99.99% uptime and support data sovereignty requirements. Which service level agreement (SLA) clause is most critical to review?

A.Data encryption standards
B.Financial penalty for downtime
C.Incident response and escalation procedure
D.Data residency and location clauses
AnswerD

These clauses specify where data is stored, meeting sovereignty requirements.

Why this answer

The question explicitly requires the provider to support data sovereignty, which mandates that data must be stored and processed within specific geographic boundaries. The SLA clause on data residency and location clauses (Option D) directly addresses this by defining where data centers are located and whether data can be moved across borders. Without this clause, the provider could store data in jurisdictions violating legal or regulatory requirements, making it the most critical clause to review.

Exam trap

The PK0-005 exam often tests the distinction between security controls (encryption) and legal/regulatory compliance (data residency), leading candidates to mistakenly choose encryption standards when the core requirement is geographic data control.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because data encryption standards, while important for security, do not address the geographic location of data storage or processing required for data sovereignty. Option B is wrong because financial penalties for downtime relate to uptime guarantees (99.99%), not data sovereignty; they compensate for service outages but do not enforce where data resides. Option C is wrong because incident response and escalation procedures focus on how issues are handled after they occur, not on the proactive requirement to keep data within specific jurisdictions.

646
MCQmedium

During risk management, a team identifies a risk with a 20% probability of occurrence and a potential cost impact of $50,000. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of this risk?

A.$10,000
B.$50,000
C.$40,000
D.$20,000
AnswerA

Correct calculation.

Why this answer

EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.20 × $50,000 = $10,000. EMV is used to quantify risks in monetary terms.

647
MCQmedium

A project manager reviews the following change request log: - CR-001: Adds 2 weeks to the schedule. - CR-002: Low-priority enhancement; no schedule impact. - CR-003: Reduces schedule by 1 week to offset delays from other changes. - CR-004: Urgent but high-risk; could cause additional delays. Based on the change request log, which of the following actions should the project manager take to maintain the project schedule?

A.Implement CR-004 immediately
B.Approve CR-003
C.Prioritize CR-002
D.Reject CR-001
AnswerB

Approving CR-003, which reduces the schedule by one week, is the best action to offset delays and maintain the schedule.

Why this answer

Based on the change request log, CR-001 adds 2 weeks to the schedule, CR-002 is a low-priority enhancement with no schedule impact, CR-003 reduces the schedule by 1 week to offset delays from other changes, and CR-004 is an urgent but high-risk change that could cause additional delays. To maintain the project schedule, the project manager should approve CR-003 because it directly reduces the schedule and helps compensate for delays caused by approved changes.

Exam trap

Examine the schedule impact of each change request before approving; even positive impacts should be evaluated for risk.

648
MCQmedium

A project manager is developing the project charter and needs to identify high-level risks. Which document should be used as an input?

A.Business case
B.Risk register
C.Stakeholder register
D.Lessons learned
AnswerA

Business case provides high-level risks and justification for the project, used as input to the charter.

Why this answer

The business case is a key input to the project charter because it provides the justification for the project, including high-level risks that could affect the project's viability. The project manager uses the business case to identify these risks early, ensuring they are documented in the charter before detailed planning begins.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the risk register (a planning output) with the business case (a pre-project input), leading them to select Option B instead of recognizing that high-level risks are derived from the business case before detailed risk management begins.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the risk register is created during the planning process, not as an input to the charter; it contains detailed risks identified after the charter is approved. Option C is wrong because the stakeholder register is developed after stakeholder identification, which occurs after the charter is initiated, not as an input to it. Option D is wrong because lessons learned are historical records from past projects, which can inform risk identification but are not a required input for developing the project charter.

649
MCQhard

A project manager is preparing a status report for stakeholders. The project is currently in the execution phase. Which key performance indicator should be included to show how efficiently the project is using its budget?

A.BAC
B.EAC
C.SPI
D.CPI
AnswerD

CPI = EV/AC, indicates budget efficiency.

Why this answer

The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is the correct KPI because it directly measures cost efficiency by comparing the earned value (EV) to the actual cost (AC). A CPI greater than 1 indicates the project is under budget, while a CPI less than 1 indicates over budget. This aligns with the question's focus on how efficiently the budget is being used during the execution phase.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between CPI (cost efficiency) and SPI (schedule efficiency), and candidates may confuse SPI as a measure of budget performance because both are performance indices.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (BAC) is wrong because the Budget at Completion is a static total budget figure and does not measure ongoing efficiency; it only represents the original planned budget. Option B (EAC) is wrong because the Estimate at Completion is a forecast of total project costs, not a measure of current budget efficiency. Option C (SPI) is wrong because the Schedule Performance Index measures schedule efficiency (time), not budget efficiency.

650
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the project status report, what is the cost variance (CV) and what does it indicate?

A.CV = -$5,000; over budget
B.CV = -$15,000; over budget
C.CV = -$10,000; over budget
D.CV = $5,000; under budget
AnswerB

Correct calculation and interpretation.

Why this answer

The cost variance (CV) is calculated as earned value (EV) minus actual cost (AC). From the exhibit, EV = $25,000 and AC = $40,000, so CV = $25,000 - $40,000 = -$15,000. A negative CV indicates the project is over budget, meaning costs have exceeded the value of work performed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may misread the exhibit or incorrectly compute CV by subtracting EV from AC (AC - EV) instead of EV - AC, leading to a positive value that falsely suggests under budget performance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because CV = -$5,000 would require EV - AC = -5,000, but with EV = $25,000 and AC = $40,000, the correct calculation yields -$15,000, not -$5,000. Option C is wrong because CV = -$10,000 would result from EV - AC = -10,000, which does not match the given EV and AC values. Option D is wrong because a positive CV of $5,000 would indicate being under budget, but the actual calculation shows a negative CV, meaning the project is over budget.

651
MCQeasy

A project manager is reviewing the risk response plan for a critical project deliverable. Based on the exhibit, which issue exists with the current risk response setup?

A.The risk response plan should include contingency reserves for each category.
B.The risk owner should be assigned for each risk, not for the response.
C.The risk response plan does not specify a trigger for each risk.
D.The configured limit of 2 risks per category does not match the actual number of risks logged.
AnswerD

Correct. The configured limit of 2 risks per category is contradicted by the 3 risks found in the log, indicating enforcement failure.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows a risk response plan with a configured limit of two active risk responses per category. However, the risk log displays three risks in one category, indicating that the limit is not being enforced correctly. This mismatch between the planned configuration and the actual tracking is the direct issue, making option D correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on the details of risk response types or ownership, but the real issue is a simple count mismatch between the configured limit and the actual number of risks logged in the exhibit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `delaycompress` defers compression until the next rotation cycle, but it does not prevent compression of the most recent rotated log; it simply delays it by one cycle. Option B is wrong because `reload` is often preferred over `restart` for services like Apache or Nginx to avoid downtime; the postrotate script using `reload` is valid and not inherently an issue. Option C is wrong because logrotate can operate on time-based schedules (e.g., daily, weekly) without requiring a size-based directive; the absence of a size trigger is not a problem unless the requirement specifies size-based rotation.

652
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is updating the risk register. Which TWO fields are typically included in a risk register?

Select 2 answers
A.Priority
B.Issue ID
C.Trigger
D.Risk score
E.Resolution date
AnswersC, D

Triggers are warning signs that a risk is about to occur, commonly recorded in the risk register.

Why this answer

Common risk register fields include risk ID, description, owner, probability, impact, risk score, response strategy, residual risk, and trigger.

653
MCQmedium

A project manager needs to document the process for submitting and approving change requests. Which document should the project manager create?

A.Change management plan
B.Risk register
C.Lessons learned
D.Project charter
AnswerA

Change management plan outlines the change control process.

Why this answer

The change management plan is the correct document because it specifically defines the process for submitting, reviewing, approving, and tracking change requests. This plan outlines the roles, responsibilities, and procedures for managing changes to project baselines, ensuring that all modifications are controlled and documented.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the change management plan with the project charter, mistakenly thinking the charter includes detailed change procedures, when in fact the charter only provides high-level authorization and the change management plan is a separate, detailed document.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Risk register) is wrong because it is used to document identified risks, their probability, impact, and response strategies, not the process for handling change requests. Option C (Lessons learned) is wrong because it captures knowledge gained during the project for future improvement, not the procedural steps for change approval. Option D (Project charter) is wrong because it authorizes the project and defines high-level objectives, scope, and stakeholders, but does not detail the change request workflow.

654
MCQmedium

During a project status meeting, a stakeholder complains that the project is not delivering the expected business value. The project manager reviews the business case and finds that the project is on track per the approved scope. What should the project manager do?

A.Explain that the project is on track and ignore the complaint.
B.Escalate to the project sponsor.
C.Review the business case with the stakeholder to realign expectations.
D.Add features to increase business value.
AnswerC

Clarifies expected value.

Why this answer

The stakeholder's perception of business value may differ from the approved scope. The project manager should review the business case with the stakeholder to clarify the agreed-upon objectives, success criteria, and expected value, thereby realigning expectations without scope creep. This approach maintains stakeholder engagement and ensures the project remains within its defined boundaries.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse stakeholder satisfaction with scope compliance, leading them to either escalate prematurely (Option B) or add features (Option D), when the correct action is to realign expectations through the business case.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ignoring the complaint fails to address stakeholder concerns, which can erode trust and lead to unresolved conflicts that may derail the project. Option B is wrong because escalating to the project sponsor is premature; the project manager should first attempt to resolve the issue directly with the stakeholder through communication and clarification. Option D is wrong because adding features to increase business value would constitute scope creep, violating the approved scope and potentially causing budget overruns and schedule delays.

655
MCQhard

A large government project is in the initiation phase. The project charter has been drafted, but there is disagreement among key stakeholders about the project's objectives. Some stakeholders want to maximize functionality, while others want to minimize cost. The project manager must lead the effort to resolve this. Which of the following is the BEST approach?

A.Proceed with the charter as written, as it has been signed by the sponsor.
B.Facilitate a meeting to prioritize requirements and reach consensus.
C.Conduct a cost-benefit analysis and present the results to stakeholders.
D.Divide the project into phases, starting with a small pilot to gather data.
AnswerB

Facilitation helps stakeholders find common ground.

Why this answer

The project manager's role during the initiation phase is to align stakeholders on project objectives. Facilitating a meeting to prioritize requirements and reach consensus directly addresses the disagreement between maximizing functionality and minimizing cost, ensuring the project charter reflects agreed-upon goals before proceeding.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that a signed charter is final and cannot be revisited, but the trap here is that stakeholder alignment is a prerequisite for a valid charter, not a post-signature assumption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because proceeding with a charter that has unresolved stakeholder disagreement risks project failure due to misaligned expectations, even if the sponsor has signed it. Option C is wrong because a cost-benefit analysis provides data but does not resolve the fundamental conflict between functionality and cost; stakeholders may still disagree on how to interpret the results. Option D is wrong because dividing the project into phases and starting a pilot delays the resolution of core objective conflicts, which should be addressed upfront to avoid rework and scope creep.

656
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of gold plating? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Adding a feature the customer requested after scope approval
B.Including an additional reporting module that was not specified
C.Removing a feature to reduce cost
D.Using higher quality materials than specified to improve durability
E.Correcting a defect found during testing
AnswersB, D

Correct. Adding unspecified functionality is gold plating.

Why this answer

Gold plating is adding extra features beyond requirements. It can be well-intentioned but adds unnecessary scope.

657
MCQmedium

A project manager is using a tool to track project tasks, dependencies, and resource assignments. The team needs to see the critical path and adjust schedules when tasks are delayed. Which tool should the project manager use?

A.Pareto chart
B.RACI matrix
C.Gantt chart
D.Kanban board
AnswerC

Gantt charts display tasks, durations, dependencies, and critical path, enabling schedule adjustments.

Why this answer

The Gantt chart is the correct tool because it visually displays project tasks, their dependencies, durations, and resource assignments along a timeline. It explicitly shows the critical path (the longest sequence of dependent tasks) and allows the project manager to adjust schedules dynamically when tasks are delayed, making it ideal for schedule management and impact analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a Kanban board's visual workflow management with the scheduling and dependency-tracking capabilities of a Gantt chart, leading them to pick Kanban when the question explicitly requires critical path and schedule adjustment features.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Pareto chart is a quality control tool that uses the 80/20 principle to prioritize defects or causes, not to track task dependencies, resource assignments, or the critical path. Option B is wrong because a RACI matrix defines roles and responsibilities (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) for tasks, but it does not show task durations, dependencies, or a timeline, so it cannot display the critical path or support schedule adjustments. Option D is wrong because a Kanban board visualizes workflow and work-in-progress limits using columns (e.g., To Do, In Progress, Done), but it lacks a timeline, task durations, and dependency links, making it unable to calculate or display the critical path.

658
MCQhard

A project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.1. What does this indicate about the project's performance?

A.Over budget and ahead of schedule
B.Over budget and behind schedule
C.Under budget and ahead of schedule
D.Under budget and behind schedule
AnswerA

CPI <1 over budget, SPI>1 ahead of schedule.

Why this answer

CPI < 1 means over budget; SPI > 1 means ahead of schedule.

659
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is creating a project charter. Which TWO components are typically included in a project charter? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Detailed budget
B.Business need
C.Task assignments
D.Communication plan
E.High-level risks
AnswersB, E

Business need justifies the project and is included in the charter.

Why this answer

The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources. The business need (option B) is a core component because it justifies why the project is being undertaken, linking it to organizational strategy. High-level risks (option E) are also included to identify potential uncertainties at the outset, without requiring detailed analysis, which aligns with the charter's purpose of providing a broad overview.

Exam trap

The PK0-005 exam often tests the distinction between high-level and detailed components, so the trap here is that candidates confuse the project charter with the project management plan, selecting detailed items like budget or communication plan that belong to later phases.

660
MCQeasy

A project team is experiencing conflicts between two key members. The project manager wants to resolve the issue quickly to avoid delays. Which conflict resolution technique involves the project manager making a decision without discussion?

A.Collaborating
B.Compromising
C.Forcing
D.Smoothing
AnswerC

Forcing is a quick, unilateral decision-making technique.

Why this answer

The forcing technique (also known as 'competing') involves the project manager imposing a decision unilaterally without input or discussion from the conflicting parties. This approach is appropriate when a quick resolution is needed to avoid project delays, as the question states. It does not seek consensus or compromise but rather asserts authority to move forward.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between forcing and compromising, where candidates mistakenly choose compromising because they think it is the 'fairest' approach, but the key phrase 'without discussion' directly points to forcing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because collaborating requires all parties to work together to find a win-win solution, which involves discussion and time, contradicting the need for a quick resolution. Option B is wrong because compromising involves each party giving up something to reach a mutually acceptable solution, which still requires negotiation and discussion. Option D is wrong because smoothing (or accommodating) downplays the conflict and emphasizes areas of agreement, but it does not involve the project manager making a unilateral decision without discussion.

661
MCQeasy

Which of the following best describes a mandatory dependency in a project schedule?

A.A dependency that is required by the project team based on best practices.
B.A dependency that involves a third-party vendor outside the project.
C.A dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work and cannot be changed.
D.A dependency that can be changed if the project manager decides to reorder tasks.
AnswerC

Correct. Mandatory dependencies are hard logic.

Why this answer

Mandatory dependencies, also known as hard logic, are inherent in the nature of the work and cannot be changed. For example, you must build the foundation before erecting walls.

662
MCQmedium

A project manager is assigned to a new software development project. The requirements are well understood and unlikely to change. The project team is collocated and has experience with similar projects. Which life cycle approach is MOST appropriate for this project?

A.Predictive (waterfall)
B.Agile
C.Hybrid
D.Iterative
AnswerA

Correct. Predictive life cycle is suitable for stable requirements and well-understood work.

Why this answer

Predictive (waterfall) is best when requirements are stable, the team is experienced, and the work is well understood. Agile is for evolving requirements; hybrid would be overkill; iterative is not as structured as predictive for stable requirements.

663
Drag & Dropmedium

Order the steps for creating a project schedule.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Schedule development follows: define activities, sequence, estimate resources, estimate durations, then develop the schedule.

664
MCQmedium

In the context of risk management, what is a trigger?

A.The person responsible for monitoring the risk.
B.The residual risk after a response is implemented.
C.An event that indicates a risk is imminent or has occurred.
D.The strategy to respond to a risk if it occurs.
AnswerC

Correct. A trigger is a warning sign.

Why this answer

A trigger is an event or condition that indicates that a risk is about to occur or has occurred. It serves as a warning sign that the risk response plan should be activated.

665
MCQhard

During a project kickoff meeting, the team identifies several potential risks. The project manager decides to document them in a structured format. Which project document should the project manager use to record and track these risks throughout the project?

A.Brainstorming
B.Nominal group technique
C.SWOT analysis
D.Risk register
AnswerD

The risk register is designed to log, assess, and monitor risks.

Why this answer

The risk register is the formal project document used to record identified risks, their analysis, planned responses, and status throughout the project lifecycle. In the PK0-005 context, it is the definitive tool for tracking risks from identification through closure, ensuring all risks are managed systematically.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse risk identification techniques (brainstorming, nominal group technique, SWOT analysis) with the document used to record and track risks, leading them to select a technique instead of the risk register.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas, not a document for recording and tracking risks. Option B is wrong because the nominal group technique is a structured group decision-making method, not a document for risk tracking. Option C is wrong because SWOT analysis is a strategic planning tool used to identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, but it is not a living document for ongoing risk recording and tracking.

666
Multi-Selecthard

A company is deploying a new web server. Which TWO security measures should the project manager include in the project plan? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.UPS
B.Load balancer
C.RAID array
D.Firewall rules
E.TLS certificate
AnswersD, E

Firewall rules restrict unauthorized access to the web server.

Why this answer

Firewall rules are essential for controlling inbound and outbound traffic to the web server, protecting it from unauthorized access and attacks. A TLS certificate enables HTTPS encryption, ensuring data confidentiality and integrity between clients and the server. Both are critical security measures that should be included in the project plan for a new web server deployment.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse high-availability or infrastructure components (UPS, load balancer, RAID) with security measures, but the question specifically asks for security measures, not availability or performance features.

667
MCQhard

A project manager is leading a software development project. The client requests a feature change that will add two weeks to the schedule and increase costs by $10,000. The project manager evaluates the impact and presents options to the change control board. The board approves the change but the project sponsor expresses concern about the budget. What should the project manager do next?

A.Cancel the change until the sponsor is satisfied
B.Update the project management plan and baseline to reflect the change
C.Proceed with the original plan and ignore the sponsor's concern
D.Escalate the sponsor's concern to the change control board
AnswerB

After approval, the plans and baselines must be updated.

Why this answer

The change control board (CCB) has approved the change, making it an authorized modification. The project manager must now update the project management plan and baseline to formally incorporate the approved change, ensuring the schedule and budget reflect the new scope. The sponsor's concern is noted but does not override the CCB's decision; the PM should address the concern through communication and reporting, not by halting the process.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the sponsor's concern with a veto power, but the CCB has final authority over change approval; the PM's duty is to implement the decision and manage stakeholder expectations, not to re-open the decision.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because canceling an approved change unilaterally violates the change control process and undermines the CCB's authority; the PM must follow the approved decision. Option C is wrong because ignoring the sponsor's concern is poor stakeholder management and could lead to future budget issues, but proceeding with the original plan after a change is approved would cause a misalignment between the plan and actual work. Option D is wrong because the CCB has already made its decision; escalating the sponsor's concern back to the CCB is redundant and bypasses proper communication channels—the PM should instead discuss the budget impact with the sponsor directly.

668
MCQhard

A project manager is reviewing the risk register and sees a risk with high probability and high impact. The risk response strategy chosen is to purchase insurance. This is an example of which risk response strategy?

A.Avoid
B.Accept
C.Transfer
D.Mitigate
AnswerC

Insurance transfers financial risk to the insurance company.

Why this answer

Transfer involves shifting the impact of a risk to a third party, such as through insurance.

669
MCQhard

During a risk assessment, a project manager calculates a risk score by multiplying the probability of occurrence (0.6) by the potential impact ($50,000). The risk score is 30,000. The project manager then identifies a response strategy that reduces the probability to 0.2. After the response, the remaining risk is calculated. What is the residual risk score?

A.$40,000
B.$20,000
C.$30,000
D.$10,000
AnswerD

Residual risk = probability (0.2) x impact ($50,000) = $10,000.

Why this answer

Residual risk is the risk remaining after implementing the response. The new probability is 0.2, impact remains $50,000, so residual risk score = 0.2 * 50,000 = 10,000. The initial risk score was 30,000, but the question asks for the residual risk score after the response.

670
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a new HR system. The project manager wants to ensure that all requirements are gathered up front and the scope is fixed. Which project management methodology is MOST appropriate?

A.Predictive (waterfall)
B.Hybrid
C.Kanban
D.Agile
AnswerA

Correct. Predictive is best for fixed scope and stable requirements.

Why this answer

Predictive/waterfall works well when requirements are clear and scope is fixed from the start. Agile is for changing requirements; hybrid is a mix; Kanban is for flow.

671
Multi-Selecthard

A project manager is analyzing quality control data and wants to identify whether process variation is due to special causes or common causes. Which TWO tools would be most helpful?

Select 2 answers
A.Histogram
B.Run chart
C.Cause-and-effect diagram
D.Control chart
E.Pareto chart
AnswersB, D

Run charts can show non-random patterns indicating special causes.

Why this answer

Control charts (with UCL/LCL) distinguish between special and common cause variation. Run charts can also show trends but may not have control limits. Cause-and-effect diagrams identify root causes, Pareto charts prioritize, histograms show distribution but not special causes.

672
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO documents should be updated when a change request is approved?

Select 2 answers
A.Change log
B.Status report
C.Risk register
D.Project baseline
E.Stakeholder register
AnswersA, D

The change log records all change requests and their status.

Why this answer

The change log is updated to record the approval, implementation details, and closure of the change request, providing an audit trail. The project baseline (e.g., scope, schedule, cost) must be updated to reflect the approved change, ensuring all future work and variance analysis are measured against the revised baseline.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the risk register with the change log, thinking that all approved changes automatically update the risk register, when in fact the risk register is only updated if the change introduces or modifies a specific risk.

673
MCQmedium

A project is in the planning phase and the team is determining the sequence of activities. Which project life cycle phase follows planning?

A.Closing
B.Executing
C.Initiating
D.Monitoring and controlling
AnswerB

Executing comes after planning.

Why this answer

The typical project life cycle phases are initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing. Executing follows planning.

674
MCQmedium

A project has a Net Present Value (NPV) of -$5,000. What does this indicate?

A.The project is not financially viable
B.The project will generate a profit of $5,000
C.The project should be accepted because NPV is positive
D.The payback period is less than 5 years
AnswerA

A negative NPV suggests the project may not be worthwhile.

Why this answer

A negative NPV means the project's costs exceed its benefits, indicating it is not financially viable.

675
Multi-Selecteasy

A project manager is creating a lessons learned document. Which TWO are typical components of lessons learned? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Recommendations for future projects
B.Budget variance
C.Project success factors
D.Team member performance reviews
E.Stakeholder satisfaction survey results
AnswersA, C

Recommendations are a key component of lessons learned.

Why this answer

Lessons learned documents are forward-looking artifacts that capture actionable insights to improve future project execution. Recommendations for future projects are a standard component, as they translate past experiences into specific guidance for planning, risk management, and process adjustments in subsequent initiatives.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse operational artifacts (like budget variance or survey results) with the reflective, improvement-oriented components of lessons learned, leading them to select metrics-based options instead of the correct forward-looking recommendations and success factors.

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