hardMultiple Choice
PK0-005 Practice Question: During a risk assessment, a project manager…
During a risk assessment, a project manager calculates a risk score by multiplying the probability of occurrence (0.6) by the potential impact ($50,000). The risk score is 30,000. The project manager then identifies a response strategy that reduces the probability to 0.2. After the response, the remaining risk is calculated. What is the residual risk score?
⚠ Common exam trap
PK0-005 often tests whether candidates mistakenly use the original probability or the complement of the new probability instead of the updated probability value when calculating residual risk.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
$10,000
Residual risk is the remaining risk exposure after a response strategy has been applied. The original risk score was 0.6 × $50,000 = $30,000. After the response reduces probability to 0.2, the residual risk score is 0.2 × $50,000 = $10,000. The impact value stays the same because the response only changed the probability of occurrence.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
$40,000
Why it's wrong here
Residual risk is the reduced probability multiplied by impact: 0.2 × $50,000 = $10,000, so $40,000 misreads the arithmetic. It tempts because subtracting the $10,000 reduction from the original $50,000 impact yields $40,000, confusing impact reduction with probability reduction.
- ✗
$20,000
Why it's wrong here
Residual risk is the recalculated exposure after treatment: 0.2 × $50,000 = $10,000, so $20,000 misreads the arithmetic, perhaps by halving the impact instead of applying the reduced probability. $20,000 would be correct only if the response cut impact rather than probability.
- ✗
$30,000
Why it's wrong here
$30,000 is the original inherent risk score (0.6 × $50,000), not the residual after the response lowers probability to 0.2. It tempts because it is the figure already calculated in the stem, but residual risk requires recomputing with the mitigated probability, giving $10,000.
- ✓
$10,000
Why this is correct
Residual risk equals revised probability multiplied by impact: 0.2 × $50,000 = $10,000. The response strategy reduced occurrence probability from 0.6 to 0.2 while impact stayed constant, so the recalculated score directly satisfies the stem's post-response residual risk requirement.
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Written and reviewed by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
Last reviewed September 2026 · checked against the official CompTIA exam blueprint
This PK0-005 practice question is part of Courseiva's free CompTIA certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PK0-005 exam.