980 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed
A project manager is evaluating a risk with a probability of 30% and an impact of $50,000. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?
EMV = 0.30 × 50,000 = 15,000.
Why this answer
EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.30 × $50,000 = $15,000.
A project team is entering the Storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which TWO characteristics are typical of this stage?
Correct: Storming involves disagreements and competition.
Why this answer
Storming is characterized by conflict, competition, and challenges to authority as team members express differing opinions.
A project manager notices that a task on the critical path is delayed by 3 days. Which tool should the project manager use to determine the impact on the project completion date?
Network diagram shows dependencies and critical path; impact can be recalculated using forward/backward pass.
Why this answer
The network diagram (specifically the critical path method, CPM) is the correct tool because it visually maps task dependencies and identifies the critical path. A 3-day delay on a critical path task directly extends the project completion date by 3 days, as there is no float. The project manager can use the network diagram to trace the impact through dependent tasks and confirm the new end date.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse a Gantt chart's visual timeline with the ability to analyze critical path impacts, but only a network diagram (or CPM chart) provides the dependency and float data needed to quantify the delay's effect on the project completion date.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because a Gantt chart shows task durations and overlaps but does not explicitly highlight the critical path or calculate float; it is a scheduling visualization tool, not an impact analysis tool. Option C is wrong because a risk register logs identified risks, their probability, and impact, but it is not used to calculate schedule delays from actual task slippage. Option D is wrong because a work breakdown structure (WBS) decomposes deliverables into work packages and does not show task dependencies, durations, or the critical path.
Which THREE documents are typically finalized during the project closure phase?
Lessons learned are documented during closure.
Why this answer
The lessons learned document is finalized during project closure to capture what went well and what could be improved, serving as a knowledge base for future projects. It is a key output of the closing process group, ensuring organizational process assets are updated.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse documents created in initiation or planning (like the project charter or stakeholder register) with closure documents, assuming all project artifacts are finalized at the end.
A project manager is assigned to a new project that involves developing a mobile application. The project sponsor wants to ensure that the project delivers value to the organization. Which project management concept should the project manager apply to align the project with strategic goals?
Business case justifies project and links to strategic goals, ensuring value alignment.
Why this answer
The business case is the foundational document that justifies the project by linking it directly to organizational objectives and strategic goals. For a mobile application project, the business case would articulate how the app supports the company's strategic direction (e.g., increasing market share, improving customer engagement, or generating new revenue streams). Without a clear business case aligned with strategy, the project risks delivering a technically sound product that fails to provide business value.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse tactical project management activities (like stakeholder analysis or risk management) with the strategic alignment function of the business case, leading them to select a technically correct but strategically incomplete answer.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because stakeholder analysis identifies interested parties and their expectations, but it does not inherently align the project with strategic goals; it is a communication and engagement tool, not a strategic alignment mechanism. Option C is wrong because creating a risk register manages potential threats to project objectives, but it does not define or ensure that the project's purpose is tied to organizational strategy; risk management is a downstream activity. Option D is wrong because developing a detailed project scope statement defines the boundaries of the work, but scope is derived from the business case and strategic goals, not the other way around; scope alone cannot guarantee strategic alignment.
A project has a budget of $500,000 and is 40% complete. The actual cost incurred is $250,000. What is the cost variance?
Correct. CV = EV - AC = 200k - 250k = -50k.
Why this answer
Cost variance (CV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Actual Cost (AC). EV is 40% of the $500,000 budget, which equals $200,000. AC is $250,000, so CV = $200,000 - $250,000 = -$50,000.
A negative CV indicates the project is over budget.
Exam trap
CompTIA often tests the direction of the variance sign, tricking candidates into thinking a positive variance is always good, but here the actual cost exceeds earned value, so the correct variance is negative.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because -$20,000 would result from incorrectly calculating EV as 46% of the budget or miscomputing the difference. Option C is wrong because $20,000 (positive) would imply the project is under budget, which is the opposite of the actual over-budget condition. Option D is wrong because $50,000 (positive) would result from subtracting AC from EV in the wrong order (AC - EV) or mistakenly treating the variance as favorable when it is unfavorable.
A project manager works in an organization where team members report to both a functional manager and a project manager. The project manager has moderate authority and shares resource control with the functional manager. Which type of organizational structure does this describe?
Correct. Balanced matrix gives the project manager moderate authority and shared resource control.
Why this answer
In a balanced matrix structure, the project manager has moderate authority and shares resources with functional managers.
A project to deploy a new CRM system is in the execution phase. The team frequently encounters integration issues because the development environment does not match the production environment. The project manager has not enforced change control, and team members have made undocumented changes to the development environment. What should the project manager do first?
Establishing change control helps prevent future undocumented changes and allows assessment of current issues.
Why this answer
The immediate priority is to establish a formal change control process to prevent further undocumented changes, which are the root cause of the environment drift. The project manager must then assess the impact of previous undocumented changes to understand what modifications were made, how they affect integration, and what steps are needed to align the development and production environments. This approach addresses the process failure first, enabling controlled remediation rather than continuing with a broken process or halting work without a plan.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates may choose Option B (halt all development) because it seems decisive, but the PMI and CompTIA PK0-005 emphasize first addressing the process failure (change control) before taking disruptive actions, as halting without assessment wastes time and does not resolve the underlying issue.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because continuing development while ignoring undocumented changes will compound integration issues, leading to rework and potential production failures; documenting issues for later review does not fix the current misalignment. Option B is wrong because immediately halting all development without first assessing the impact of undocumented changes or implementing a change control process creates unnecessary downtime and does not provide a path to resolution. Option D is wrong because reassigning developers to fix integration issues without changing the process treats symptoms rather than the root cause; without change control, the same environment drift will recur, and the team will remain unable to prevent future undocumented changes.
A project team uses planning poker to estimate user stories. The product owner describes a story that involves integrating with a third-party API. The team discusses unknowns and then votes. The estimates are 5, 8, 13, and 20 story points. What should the team do next?
Correct – discuss outliers to reach consensus.
Why this answer
When estimates vary widely, the team should discuss the outlier reasons, then re-vote. This is standard planning poker practice.
During project executing, the team is developing a communication plan. Which THREE factors should the project manager consider when determining the communication needs of stakeholders?
Correct. The method is essential to ensure effective communication.
Why this answer
A communication plan considers stakeholder information needs, including their required information, preferred frequency, and method of communication. Organizational culture and project complexity are also relevant.
A project team is decomposing the project scope into smaller, manageable components. Which rule ensures that the WBS includes 100% of the work defined in the scope?
Correct rule.
Why this answer
The 100% rule states that the WBS captures all deliverables and work.
A project manager uses a diagram to identify the most frequent causes of defects in a process. The diagram displays bars in descending order and a cumulative line. Which quality tool is being used?
Pareto charts display bars in descending order and a cumulative line to show the most significant factors.
Why this answer
A Pareto chart is a bar chart where bars are ordered from highest to lowest frequency, often with a cumulative line, to highlight the 'vital few' causes (80/20 rule). A fishbone diagram shows potential causes but not frequency. A control chart tracks variation over time.
A scatter diagram shows correlation between two variables.
A project manager wants to measure the percentage of work completed compared to the planned schedule. Which metric should be used?
SPI = EV/PV, showing percentage of work completed vs planned.
Why this answer
The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is the correct metric because it directly compares the Earned Value (EV) to the Planned Value (PV), providing a ratio that indicates whether the project is ahead of, on, or behind schedule. An SPI greater than 1.0 means the project is ahead of schedule, while less than 1.0 indicates it is behind. This aligns with the project manager's goal of measuring work completion against the planned schedule.
Exam trap
CompTIA often tests the distinction between a raw EVM value (like EV or PV) and a performance index (like SPI or CPI), so the trap here is confusing the absolute value of Earned Value with the ratio that actually measures schedule performance.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B (Cost Performance Index) is wrong because it measures cost efficiency by comparing Earned Value to Actual Cost, not schedule performance. Option C (Earned Value) is wrong because it represents the budgeted cost of work performed, which is a raw value, not a ratio or percentage relative to the plan. Option D (Planned Value) is wrong because it is the authorized budget for work scheduled to be completed by a given date, not a metric that shows the percentage of work completed versus the schedule.
A project manager has just received approval for the project charter. What is the next primary activity in the initiation phase?
Identifying stakeholders is performed during initiation, right after the charter is approved.
Why this answer
After the project charter is approved, the next step is to identify stakeholders, which is a key process in the initiation phase. The WBS, schedule, and risk responses are planning phase activities.
A project sponsor is reviewing a proposal for a new project. The expected cash flows are: Year 0: -$100,000; Year 1: $30,000; Year 2: $40,000; Year 3: $50,000. The discount rate is 10%. Which of the following is the Net Present Value (NPV) of the project?
Correct calculation gives approximately -$2,103.
Why this answer
NPV = -100,000 + 30,000/(1.10)^1 + 40,000/(1.10)^2 + 50,000/(1.10)^3 = -100,000 + 27,273 + 33,058 + 37,566 = -2,103. Negative NPV means the project is not profitable at 10% discount rate.
A project team is creating a work breakdown structure (WBS) for a software development project. The project manager wants to ensure that all deliverables are identified and decomposed into manageable work packages. Which tool should the team use to represent the hierarchical decomposition of the work?
The WBS is the correct tool for hierarchical decomposition of project work.
Why this answer
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the correct tool because it is specifically designed to represent the hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables into manageable work packages. This aligns directly with the project manager's goal of identifying all deliverables and breaking them down for the software development project.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates may confuse the WBS with a Gantt chart (Option D) because both are used in project planning, but the Gantt chart focuses on scheduling and dependencies, not hierarchical decomposition.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because a RACI chart is used to assign roles and responsibilities (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) for tasks, not to decompose work hierarchically. Option B is wrong because a risk register is a document that lists identified risks, their analysis, and response plans, not a tool for structuring work packages. Option D is wrong because a Gantt chart is a bar chart that illustrates a project schedule over time, showing task dependencies and durations, not the hierarchical decomposition of deliverables.
A project manager is reviewing the project charter and notes that a specific software platform must be used for the deliverable. The project sponsor has mandated this technology due to organizational standards. In which category of constraint should this requirement be documented?
Mandated technology choices are technical constraints.
Why this answer
Technical constraints are imposed technology choices or architectural decisions that limit the project team's options. The mandated software platform is a technical constraint.
A project is in the execution phase, and the project manager receives a change request to add a new feature that is not in the scope statement. The change request has been approved by the change control board. What must the project manager do next?
The PM must adjust plans and baselines to incorporate the change and keep the project aligned.
Why this answer
Once the change control board (CCB) approves a change request, the project manager must formally integrate the approved change into the project by updating the project management plan and the associated baselines (scope, schedule, cost). This ensures that all future project work, performance measurement, and reporting are aligned with the new approved scope, maintaining the integrity of the project's control processes as defined in the PMBOK Guide.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse the sequence of the change control process, thinking a stakeholder meeting to discuss impact is still needed after CCB approval, when in fact the approval itself confirms the impact has been accepted and the next step is to update the plan and baselines.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because conducting a meeting with stakeholders to discuss the impact of the change should occur before the change is approved, not after; the CCB has already approved the change, so the impact has been assessed and accepted. Option C is wrong because deferring an approved change to the next phase violates the CCB's decision and disrupts the project's planned execution, as the change is already deemed necessary and approved for the current phase. Option D is wrong because ignoring an approved change and continuing with the original scope directly contradicts the CCB's authority and the formal change control process, leading to scope creep and misalignment with stakeholder expectations.
Which document formally records the deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints of a project?
Correct. The scope statement includes all listed components.
Why this answer
The scope statement is the document that defines all these elements, establishing the baseline for what is included and excluded from the project.
Which of the following BEST describes the role of a project sponsor?
Sponsor provides resources and supports the project at executive level.
Why this answer
The project sponsor is the executive-level individual who provides the financial resources and organizational authority for the project. They champion the project at the highest levels, remove roadblocks, and ensure alignment with business strategy, but they are not involved in the day-to-day management or quality assurance tasks.
Exam trap
The PK0-005 exam often tests the distinction between the project sponsor's strategic, funding role and the project manager's tactical, execution role, leading candidates to confuse sponsor duties with those of the project manager.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because performing quality assurance is a function of the quality management team or a quality assurance specialist, not the project sponsor. Option B is wrong because managing the project team is the responsibility of the project manager, who leads and directs the team's daily work. Option C is wrong because overseeing day-to-day project activities is the role of the project manager or a project coordinator, not the sponsor, who focuses on strategic oversight and funding.
A project sponsor is reviewing a project that has a Net Present Value (NPV) of -$15,000. What should the sponsor recommend?
Negative NPV means the project is not financially viable.
Why this answer
A negative NPV indicates the project is not expected to be profitable; it should be rejected. Positive NPV is profitable. IRR and payback period are different metrics.
A project manager is developing the project schedule. Dependencies include: Task A starts after Task B finishes; Task C must be completed before Task D can start; Task E can start when Task F starts. Which dependency types are being used?
First two are FS, third is SS.
Why this answer
The three dependency types described map exactly to Finish-to-Start (FS), Finish-to-Start (FS), and Start-to-Start (SS). 'Task A starts after Task B finishes' is FS; 'Task C must be completed before Task D can start' is also FS; 'Task E can start when Task F starts' is SS. These are the standard dependency definitions used in project scheduling per PMI guidelines.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse 'starts after finishes' with Start-to-Start (SS) or Start-to-Finish (SF), failing to recognize that 'starts after' implies the predecessor must finish first, which is the definition of Finish-to-Start (FS).
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because it lists all three dependencies as Start-to-Start (SS), but the first two dependencies are clearly Finish-to-Start (FS), not SS. Option C is wrong because it incorrectly identifies the third dependency as Start-to-Finish (SF), but 'Task E can start when Task F starts' is Start-to-Start (SS), not SF. Option D is wrong because it claims the second dependency is Finish-to-Finish (FF), but 'Task C must be completed before Task D can start' is a classic Finish-to-Start (FS) relationship, not FF.
A project manager is developing the project management plan. The sponsor requests detailed cost estimates for each work package, but the activities have not yet been defined. What should the project manager do?
Activity definition must precede detailed cost estimation to ensure accuracy.
Why this answer
Detailed cost estimates require that activities are defined first, as per the typical planning process sequence (e.g., PMBOK). Without activity definition, the project manager cannot accurately estimate costs for each work package. Option A is wrong because analogous estimating provides rough estimates, not detailed ones, and is used when little information is available—not suitable for this scenario.
Option B is wrong because a rough order of magnitude estimate is not detailed and does not meet the sponsor's request for detailed cost estimates. Option D is wrong because breaking down work packages into activities is part of activity definition, which has not yet been done; bottom-up estimates should follow activity definition, not precede it.
A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $200,000. The earned value (EV) is $100,000, and the actual cost (AC) is $120,000. What is the estimate at completion (EAC) assuming the current cost performance index (CPI) will remain the same?
Correct – EAC = BAC/CPI = $200,000 / 0.8333 = $240,000.
Why this answer
CPI = EV/AC = 100,000/120,000 = 0.8333. EAC = BAC/CPI = 200,000/0.8333 = 240,000.
Refer to the exhibit. What should the project manager do first?
The PM should first evaluate the change's effects on scope, schedule, and budget.
Why this answer
Upon receiving a change request, the PM should review it and assess the impact before taking further action. Implementing immediately is premature; updating the plan occurs after approval; informing the sponsor may happen but not first.
During project closing, which TWO activities are typically performed?
Correct: archiving is part of closing.
Why this answer
Project closing includes formal acceptance from the sponsor and archiving project documents. Releasing resources is also part of closing, but it's one of the two correct answers here.
A project team is identifying risks. They gather a group of experts who provide anonymous responses to a questionnaire. The facilitator aggregates the responses and shares them, then the experts revise their answers. Which technique is being used?
The Delphi technique fits the description of anonymous expert rounds.
Why this answer
The Delphi technique uses anonymous questionnaires and rounds of feedback to achieve consensus among experts.
A project sponsor asks for a document that outlines the high-level scope, objectives, and key stakeholders of a new project. Which document should the project manager provide?
The project charter is the formal authorization document with high-level information.
Why this answer
The project charter is the correct document because it formally authorizes the project, defines the high-level scope, objectives, and key stakeholders, and is issued by the project sponsor. It serves as the foundational agreement between the sponsor and the project manager, aligning with PMI's PMBOK Guide for initiating a project.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse the project charter with the scope statement, but the scope statement is a detailed planning document created after the charter, while the charter is the high-level authorization document requested by the sponsor.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because the scope statement provides detailed scope, deliverables, and acceptance criteria, not the high-level overview requested by the sponsor. Option C is wrong because the project management plan is a comprehensive document that includes baselines and subsidiary plans, developed after the charter is approved, not the initial high-level document. Option D is wrong because the work breakdown structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of work packages, used for planning and tracking, not for outlining high-level scope and objectives.
A project manager is assigned to a project that has already been chartered. The project sponsor has provided the project charter and initial budget. The project manager is now in the planning phase. During the first planning meeting, the team identifies a major risk: a key supplier may go out of business before the project ends. The project manager needs to proceed. Which of the following is the NEXT step?
Formal risk management begins with documentation and planning.
Why this answer
The project manager is in the planning phase, and the first step when a risk is identified is to formally document it in the risk register. After adding the risk, the team should analyze it and develop a response plan. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's risk management process, which requires recording risks before taking action.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse immediate action (Option A) with proper risk management, or they think escalation (Option D) is always required for major risks, when in fact the risk register is the correct first step per PMI methodology.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because immediately switching suppliers without analysis could introduce new risks, such as higher costs or contractual penalties, and bypasses the proper risk management process. Option B is wrong because deferring risk treatment violates the proactive risk management principle; risks should be addressed during planning to avoid reactive firefighting later. Option D is wrong because escalation is reserved for risks outside the project manager's authority or threshold; the project manager has the tools (risk register, response planning) to handle this risk without sponsor intervention at this stage.
Which TWO techniques are used in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process? (Choose two.)
Quantitative technique to determine which risks have the most impact.
Why this answer
Sensitivity analysis is a quantitative technique used to determine which individual risks have the most potential impact on project outcomes by varying one risk factor at a time while holding others constant. Expected monetary value (EMV) calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen, using probability and impact values to quantify risk exposure. Both are core tools in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process as defined in the PMBOK Guide.
Exam trap
CompTIA often tests the distinction between qualitative and quantitative risk analysis techniques, and the trap here is that candidates confuse the probability and impact matrix (a qualitative tool) with quantitative methods like EMV or sensitivity analysis, because both involve probability and impact values but serve different process groups.
A project manager is selecting two documents that are essential for defining project scope. Which TWO documents should they choose?
The WBS decomposes the project scope into work packages.
Why this answer
The WBS breaks down the work into manageable components, and the scope statement defines the project scope, deliverables, and boundaries. The risk register lists risks, the communication plan defines communication, and the RACI matrix assigns responsibilities.
An agile team uses story points for estimating effort. During sprint planning, the team's average velocity is 30 story points per sprint. The product owner wants to commit to 35 story points for the upcoming sprint. What should the team do?
Correct – use velocity to set realistic expectations.
Why this answer
Committing to more than the historical velocity increases risk of incomplete work. The team should use velocity to size the sprint backlog realistically.
During project closing, which activity involves obtaining formal acceptance from the customer or sponsor that deliverables meet requirements?
Formal acceptance confirms deliverables are accepted.
Why this answer
Formal acceptance is obtained from the customer or sponsor during closing, often via a project acceptance form.
The project team is experiencing conflicts over task assignments. Which document should the project manager reference to clarify roles and responsibilities?
RACI chart clarifies responsibility for tasks.
Why this answer
A RACI chart (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed) is the correct document for clarifying roles and responsibilities in a project. It explicitly maps each task to team members, defining who does the work, who has final authority, who provides input, and who needs updates. This directly resolves conflicts over task assignments by removing ambiguity about ownership and accountability.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse the Communication plan (which manages information flow) with the RACI chart (which manages task ownership), leading them to pick a document that addresses stakeholder updates rather than role clarity.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B (Communication plan) is wrong because it defines how, when, and what information is shared among stakeholders, not who is responsible for specific tasks. Option C (Project schedule) is wrong because it focuses on task durations, dependencies, and timelines, not on assigning roles or responsibilities. Option D (Risk register) is wrong because it catalogs potential risks, their impacts, and mitigation strategies, not the assignment of tasks or authority.
A project manager is evaluating the financial viability of several proposed projects. The steering committee wants to select projects that maximize return over time. Which TWO financial metrics should the project manager use to compare long-term profitability? (Select TWO).
NPV calculates the present value of future cash flows; positive NPV indicates profitability.
Why this answer
Net Present Value (NPV) and Internal Rate of Return (IRR) are discounted cash flow methods that account for the time value of money and are used for long-term profitability comparisons.
A project manager is creating a visual timeline that displays tasks as horizontal bars, shows dependencies between tasks, and highlights the critical path. Which tool should the manager use?
Correct. A Gantt chart is a timeline bar chart that shows dependencies and can highlight the critical path.
Why this answer
A Gantt chart displays tasks as bars, shows dependencies via arrows, and can highlight the critical path. The other options do not provide all of these features.
Which project management process group involves obtaining formal acceptance of the project deliverables and archiving project documents?
Closing includes formal acceptance, lessons learned, and archiving.
Why this answer
Closing includes formal acceptance, lessons learned, and archiving project documents.
A project manager is reviewing earned value data: PV = $150,000, EV = $120,000, AC = $130,000. Which THREE statements are correct?
SPI = EV/PV = 120000/150000 = 0.8.
Why this answer
SV = EV - PV = 120,000 - 150,000 = -30,000 (negative, behind schedule). CV = EV - AC = 120,000 - 130,000 = -10,000 (negative, over budget). SPI = EV/PV = 0.8 (less than 1, behind schedule).
CPI = EV/AC = 0.923 (less than 1, over budget).
Which TWO documents are typically included in the project management plan?
The scope management plan is a subsidiary plan within the project management plan.
Why this answer
The scope management plan and schedule management plan are both subsidiary plans that form part of the project management plan. They define how the project scope and schedule will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and verified throughout the project lifecycle. These are required by the PMBOK Guide and are included in the project management plan documentation.
Exam trap
CompTIA often tests the distinction between 'management plans' (which are part of the project management plan) and 'project documents' (like the risk register, WBS dictionary, or project charter) that are separate artifacts, leading candidates to mistakenly include supporting documents as part of the plan.
A project has a mandatory dependency between two activities: the foundation must be poured before the walls can be erected. This dependency is based on the physical nature of the work and cannot be changed. What type of dependency is this?
Mandatory dependencies are hard logic, required by the nature of the work.
Why this answer
Mandatory dependencies, also known as hard logic, are inherent in the nature of the work and cannot be altered. Discretionary dependencies are best practices but can be changed. External dependencies involve factors outside the project.
Resource constraints relate to limited availability.
A project team is analyzing potential risks. They gather experts who provide anonymous responses to a questionnaire, and then the facilitator shares a summary for further rounds of feedback. Which risk identification technique is being used?
The Delphi technique involves anonymous expert feedback through multiple rounds.
Why this answer
The Delphi technique uses anonymous expert feedback through multiple rounds to reach consensus.
A project team is in the storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which behavior is most likely observed?
Correct: Storming involves conflict and questioning.
Why this answer
In the storming stage, team members may challenge each other and the project manager, leading to conflicts as they establish roles.
A project manager is analyzing project performance using earned value management. Which THREE metrics are used to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC)?
AC is used in EAC = AC + (BAC - EV)/CPI etc.
Why this answer
EAC can be calculated using BAC/CPI, or AC + ETC, but ETC often uses CPI. So BAC, AC, and CPI are directly involved. EV is not directly in the formula.
During project execution, a stakeholder requests a change that will increase costs. Which document should the PM update first?
All changes must be formally documented in a change request form before assessment.
Why this answer
When a stakeholder requests a change that increases costs, the project manager must first document the change using a change request form. This initiates the formal change control process, ensuring the request is evaluated for impact on scope, schedule, budget, and quality before any updates are made to other documents. The change request form is the primary artifact for capturing and tracking proposed changes in project management.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse the change request form with the risk register, thinking that any cost increase must be a risk event, but the change request form is the correct first step to formally document and evaluate the proposed change before any risk analysis occurs.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because the communication plan defines how information is distributed to stakeholders, not how changes are formally requested or documented. Option B is wrong because the project charter is a high-level authorization document created during project initiation; it is not updated for individual change requests during execution. Option D is wrong because the risk register is used to identify, assess, and track risks, not to document requested changes; a change request may later be evaluated for risk impact, but it is not the first document to update.
Refer to the exhibit. Which change request(s) require formal approval from the change control board?
CR001 specifically requires approval.
Why this answer
Only CR001 has 'Approval Needed' marked as Yes, indicating it requires formal CCB approval. CR004 does not require approval per the log.
In which organizational structure does the project manager have the least authority?
In a functional structure, the PM has little to no authority.
Why this answer
In a functional organization, resources report to functional managers, and the project manager has limited authority.
In an Agile project, the team uses story points to estimate effort. During sprint planning, they select user stories from the product backlog and assign them to the sprint. What is the resulting list of items committed for the sprint called?
The sprint backlog includes items committed for the current sprint.
Why this answer
The sprint backlog is the set of product backlog items selected for the sprint, along with a plan for delivering them. The product backlog is the full list of requirements; burndown/burnup charts track progress.
A project manager identifies a risk that a key team member might leave during the project. To reduce the impact, she cross-trains other team members. Which risk response strategy is being applied?
Cross-training reduces the impact of losing a team member.
Why this answer
Mitigation reduces the probability or impact of a risk. Cross-training reduces impact.
During project execution, a stakeholder requests a new feature that was not included in the original scope. The project manager initiates a change request. What is the next step in the integrated change control process?
Correct. Impact analysis must be performed before CCB review.
Why this answer
After a change request is submitted, the next step is to evaluate its impact on the triple constraint (time, cost, scope) before sending it to the Change Control Board.
Which THREE are valid types of project termination? (Choose three.)
The project's deliverables become part of ongoing operations.
Why this answer
Addition is a valid type of project termination where the project is formally closed and its deliverables are absorbed into the ongoing operations of the organization, often becoming a new functional unit or product line. This is distinct from extinction, where the project ends because its objectives have been met, and starvation, where the project is terminated due to lack of resources or funding. In the context of the PMI framework and the PK0-005 exam, addition represents a successful transition from project to operations.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse 'integration' (a knowledge area or process) with a termination type, or they mistakenly think 'substitution' is a valid termination method when it is not listed in the official CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) objectives.
A project has a planned value (PV) of $50,000, earned value (EV) of $40,000, and actual cost (AC) of $45,000. What is the schedule variance (SV) and cost variance (CV)?
Correct: SV negative indicates behind schedule; CV negative indicates over budget.
Why this answer
Schedule variance (SV) is calculated as EV - PV = $40,000 - $50,000 = -$10,000, indicating the project is behind schedule. Cost variance (CV) is EV - AC = $40,000 - $45,000 = -$5,000, indicating the project is over budget. Option D correctly states both negative variances.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse the formulas for SV and CV, swapping the order of subtraction (e.g., using PV - EV for SV or AC - EV for CV), leading to incorrect positive values instead of the correct negative ones.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because it incorrectly calculates SV as -$5,000 (likely confusing it with CV) and CV as -$10,000 (reversing the values). Option B is wrong because it correctly calculates SV as -$10,000 but incorrectly calculates CV as +$5,000 (using AC - EV instead of EV - AC). Option C is wrong because it incorrectly calculates SV as +$10,000 (using PV - EV instead of EV - PV) and CV as +$5,000 (using AC - EV instead of EV - AC).
In earned value management, the project has an EV of $50,000, PV of $60,000, and AC of $55,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?
CV = EV - AC = 50k - 55k = -5k.
Why this answer
CV = EV - AC = $50,000 - $55,000 = -$5,000, indicating the project is over budget.
During project initiation, the project sponsor provides the project manager with a document that authorizes the project and assigns the project manager. This document also outlines high-level scope, budget, and timeline. Which document is this?
The charter authorizes the project and the PM.
Why this answer
The project charter is the formal authorization document that gives the PM authority and outlines high-level constraints.
Which THREE of the following are key components of a project management plan?
The scope baseline (scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary) is part of the plan.
Why this answer
The scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost baseline are key components of the project management plan. The risk register is a project document, not part of the plan itself. Lessons learned are created after project closure.
A project manager is managing a construction project. The scope is well-defined, but the customer is open to minor changes during execution. Which methodology is most suitable?
Hybrid combines predictive for planning and agile for flexibility.
Why this answer
Hybrid allows for some flexibility while maintaining a planned approach. Predictive would be too rigid, agile too flexible, and Kanban is an agile framework.
During a project, a key stakeholder requests an additional feature that was not in the original scope. The project manager logs a change request and evaluates that the change will increase the project cost by 5% and delay the schedule by 2 weeks. After the change control board (CCB) approves the request, what is the project manager's NEXT step?
The project manager must update the project plan and baselines to incorporate the approved change.
Why this answer
According to integrated change control, after approval, the project manager must update the project plan and baselines (cost, schedule) to reflect the approved change.
A project manager is assigning resources to activities. Activity X requires a specialized skill that is only available from a contractor. The project manager decides to hire the contractor. Which TWO documents are most likely to be used to define the work and terms for this contractor? (Select TWO).
The SOW describes the work to be performed.
Why this answer
The SOW defines the work to be performed, and the contract defines the legal terms and conditions. The RFP is used to solicit bids, and the WBS is a planning tool, not a procurement document. The project charter authorizes the project.
A project is being planned in a matrix organization. The project manager needs to identify key roles and their responsibilities. Which THREE of the following are typical project roles? (Choose three.)
The sponsor provides resources and support.
Why this answer
The project sponsor, project manager, and project team are key roles. Functional manager is a role in matrix organizations but not a project role per se; it's an organizational role. Stakeholder is anyone with interest, but not a specific role on the project team.
A project manager needs to identify which tasks are critical to the project's completion date. After creating the project schedule, which tool should be used to visualize the critical path?
Correct – network diagrams are used to identify the critical path.
Why this answer
A network diagram (activity-on-node) with dependencies allows identification of the critical path (longest path with zero float).
In which organizational structure does the project manager have the least authority over project resources?
PM has limited authority; resources are controlled by functional managers.
Why this answer
In a functional structure, resources belong to functional managers, and the PM has limited authority. In projectized, the PM has full authority. Matrix structures are in between.
Which THREE of the following are risk identification techniques?
Brainstorming is a common group creativity technique used to generate a list of risks.
Why this answer
Brainstorming, root cause analysis, and the Delphi technique are all recognized risk identification techniques in project management per the PMBOK Guide. Although SWOT analysis and assumptions analysis are also valid techniques, the question asks for three, and these three are correctly identified.
During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a new feature that was not in the original scope. The project manager is concerned about the impact on the schedule and budget. This is an example of:
An unauthorized addition to scope is scope creep.
Why this answer
Scope creep refers to uncontrolled changes to project scope. Gold plating is adding features without request. Risk is an uncertain event.
Change control is the process to manage changes.
Which TWO of the following activities are typically performed during the initiation phase of a project?
The charter is created in initiation.
Why this answer
Developing the project charter and identifying stakeholders are initiation phase activities. Creating the WBS, developing the schedule, and defining scope are planning phase activities.
Which document breaks down the project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?
The WBS hierarchically breaks down deliverables.
Why this answer
The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the correct document because it hierarchically decomposes the total scope of work into smaller, more manageable work packages. This decomposition is a core deliverable-oriented grouping that enables accurate cost estimation, resource allocation, and schedule development. The WBS is defined in the PMBOK Guide as a 'deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team.'
Exam trap
CompTIA often tests the distinction between the WBS (which decomposes deliverables) and the project schedule (which sequences activities), so candidates mistakenly choose the schedule because they think 'breaking down into components' refers to task decomposition rather than deliverable decomposition.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because the project schedule shows the timing and sequence of activities, not the decomposition of deliverables into smaller components. Option C is wrong because the risk register lists identified risks, their probability, impact, and response plans, not the breakdown of deliverables. Option D is wrong because the project scope statement describes the project's scope, deliverables, assumptions, and constraints, but it does not break deliverables into smaller components; that is the function of the WBS.
A project manager is developing a communication plan. Which two elements should be included in the plan? (Select TWO)
Frequency is a key component.
Why this answer
A communication plan should include stakeholder communication needs and frequency, as well as the method of communication.
A project team is in the Performing stage of Tuckman's model. Which TWO behaviors are characteristic of this stage?
Correct. In Performing, the team is goal-oriented and efficient.
Why this answer
In the Performing stage, the team is functioning effectively, with established trust and processes. Interdependence and focus on goals are key characteristics.
During project execution, a stakeholder requests a new feature that was not in the original scope. The project manager adds it to the change log and obtains approval. Which document should be updated NEXT?
The scope statement defines the baseline scope and must be updated for approved changes.
Why this answer
The project scope statement defines the project's boundaries, deliverables, and acceptance criteria. When a new feature is approved via the change control process, the scope statement must be updated to reflect the newly authorized work, ensuring all stakeholders have a common understanding of the project's scope. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's guidance that the scope statement is a key output of the 'Direct and Manage Project Work' process after a change request is approved.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often think the WBS should be updated immediately after a scope change, but the correct sequence is to first update the project scope statement, which is the authoritative document defining what is in scope, before decomposing the new work into the WBS.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because the work breakdown structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope into work packages; while it may eventually be updated to include the new feature, the immediate next step after change approval is to update the scope statement, not the WBS. Option C is wrong because the communication plan details how information is distributed to stakeholders; it is not directly updated when scope changes occur unless the change affects communication requirements. Option D is wrong because the lessons learned document captures knowledge gained during the project for future benefit; it is updated throughout the project but is not the immediate document to update after a scope change approval.
A project manager is decomposing the project scope into smaller components. Which output is produced?
Correct: WBS is the output of decomposition.
Why this answer
Decomposition of scope results in a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), which breaks down deliverables into work packages.
A project is falling behind schedule. The project manager considers crashing or fast-tracking. Which THREE statements about these techniques are correct? (Select three.)
Correct. Both are schedule compression methods.
Why this answer
Crashing adds resources to critical path activities, which increases cost. Fast-tracking performs activities in parallel, which increases risk. Both are schedule compression techniques.
A project manager is assigned to a new project that has a tight deadline. The sponsor wants to fast-track the project by overlapping some phases. Which project management concept should the PM be most concerned about regarding this approach?
Fast-tracking increases the likelihood of rework because activities are overlapped before prior deliverables are complete.
Why this answer
Fast-tracking involves overlapping project phases that would normally be sequential. The primary risk is that work on a later phase begins before the deliverables from the previous phase are fully complete and verified. This increases the probability of rework if the earlier deliverables contain errors or require changes, which can negate any time savings and introduce schedule instability.
Exam trap
CompTIA often tests the distinction between fast-tracking (overlapping phases) and crashing (adding resources), and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly focus on cost or duration rather than the core risk of rework from incomplete predecessor deliverables.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because fast-tracking is specifically intended to shorten the overall project duration, not lengthen it; overlapping phases compresses the schedule. Option C is wrong because while fast-tracking may sometimes require additional resources to manage parallel work, the most immediate and critical concern is the technical risk of rework from incomplete or unstable predecessor deliverables, not the cost of resources. Option D is wrong because fast-tracking does not inherently reduce quality; quality is managed through processes and standards, whereas the direct risk is rework from overlapping incomplete work, which can indirectly affect quality if rework is not performed.
During a project, the project manager calculates the following: Earned Value (EV) = $50,000, Planned Value (PV) = $60,000, Actual Cost (AC) = $55,000. Which statement accurately describes the project's performance?
Negative SV means behind schedule; negative CV means over budget.
Why this answer
Schedule Variance (SV) = EV - PV = $50,000 - $60,000 = -$10,000, indicating behind schedule. Cost Variance (CV) = EV - AC = $50,000 - $55,000 = -$5,000, indicating over budget.
A project is in the execution phase, developing a mobile payment application. The project manager receives a report that a critical security vulnerability was discovered in the third-party authentication library used by the application. The library is widely used and has an available patch that requires upgrading to a newer version. However, upgrading the library will break compatibility with the existing user authentication database schema, requiring a database migration that was not planned. The project has a fixed budget and a tight deadline. The change control board (CCB) meets weekly, and the next meeting is in three days. The lead developer recommends applying the patch immediately without waiting for CCB approval, arguing that the security risk is high and the patch is straightforward. What is the BEST course of action for the project manager?
This follows the change control process and ensures proper assessment and approval.
Why this answer
The project manager must follow the established change control process, even for urgent security patches, when the change introduces an unplanned database migration that impacts scope, budget, and schedule. Waiting for the next CCB meeting (in three days) allows proper assessment of the upgrade's impact on the authentication database schema and ensures all stakeholders approve the change. Applying the patch without approval violates the change management plan and could lead to uncontrolled scope creep and budget overruns.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates assume security vulnerabilities always justify bypassing change control, but the PM must balance urgency with process, especially when the patch introduces an unplanned database migration that affects the fixed budget and tight deadline.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because escalating to the project sponsor bypasses the CCB's authority and the defined change control process; the sponsor is not typically empowered to grant exceptions for technical changes that affect the database schema. Option B is wrong because applying the patch immediately without CCB approval violates the change management plan, and the security vulnerability does not justify breaking the process when a CCB meeting is only three days away. Option C is wrong because dismissing the patch as acceptable risk ignores the critical security vulnerability in a widely used authentication library, which could lead to data breaches and compliance violations.
A project manager is reviewing the project schedule and notices that the critical path has a duration of 120 days. One activity on the critical path has a duration of 15 days and a total float of 0. If the duration of that activity is reduced by 5 days, what is the new critical path duration?
Reducing a critical path activity reduces project duration by the same amount.
Why this answer
The critical path is the longest path in the project schedule, and any delay on a critical path activity directly extends the project duration. Since the activity on the critical path has a total float of 0, reducing its duration by 5 days reduces the total critical path duration from 120 days to 115 days.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates may mistakenly think reducing a critical path activity's duration does not affect the overall critical path, or they may confuse total float with free float, leading them to choose the original duration or an incorrect reduced value.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because reducing the activity by 5 days does not result in a 100-day critical path; that would require a 20-day reduction. Option C is wrong because it assumes the critical path duration remains unchanged, ignoring that the activity is on the critical path with zero float. Option D is wrong because it incorrectly adds 5 days instead of subtracting, which would only happen if the activity duration were increased.
Which TWO of the following are examples of project constraints? (Select TWO).
Time is a constraint.
Why this answer
Scope, cost, and schedule are classic triple constraints. Quality is often added. Risk is not a constraint but an uncertainty.
A project manager is evaluating two projects. Project A has an initial investment of $50,000 and expected annual returns of $15,000 for 5 years. Project B has an initial investment of $80,000 and expected annual returns of $22,000 for 5 years. Based on payback period, which project should be selected, and what is the payback period for that project?
Correct. Shorter payback period is preferred.
Why this answer
Project A payback = 50,000/15,000 = 3.33 years. Project B payback = 80,000/22,000 = 3.64 years. Shorter payback is better, so Project A with 3.33 years.
Practice PK0-005 by domain
Target a specific domain to shore up weak areas.