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CCNA Project Life Cycle Questions

75 of 88 questions · Page 1/2 · Project Life Cycle topic · Answers revealed

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1
MCQhard

During a phase gate review, the review board determines that the project does not yet meet the exit criteria for the current phase. What is the most likely outcome?

A.The project is required to complete the remaining work and undergo another review.
B.The project is immediately closed.
C.The project manager is replaced.
D.The project is allowed to proceed with a risk mitigation plan.
AnswerA

Standard phase gate process: fix gaps and re-enter the gate.

Why this answer

If exit criteria are not met, the project is typically required to complete the remaining work and then be re-reviewed before proceeding to the next phase.

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2
MCQhard

A project manager is overseeing a manufacturing process improvement project. During the monitoring and controlling phase, the project manager notices that the project is two weeks behind schedule due to unexpected machine downtime. The team suggests reducing the amount of testing on the new equipment to recover the schedule. The project sponsor is concerned about meeting the deadline and supports the team's suggestion. What should the project manager do?

A.Add more resources to the testing phase later to compensate.
B.Accept the team's suggestion to reduce testing and update the schedule.
C.Analyze the impact and propose fast-tracking or crashing as alternatives.
D.Immediately escalate to the steering committee for a decision.
AnswerC

Seeks to recover schedule without sacrificing quality.

Why this answer

The correct action is to analyze the impact of reduced testing on quality and propose alternative solutions like fast-tracking or crashing. Option C is correct because compromising testing could lead to defects and rework, increasing costs and risks. Option A is wrong because ignoring the schedule issue is irresponsible.

Option B is wrong as it may cause more problems. Option D is wrong because it does not address the root cause of the delay.

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3
MCQmedium

While monitoring and controlling, the project manager reviews earned value metrics and finds CPI = 0.8 and SPI = 1.1. What does this indicate?

A.Over budget but ahead of schedule
B.Under budget and ahead of schedule
C.Under budget but behind schedule
D.Over budget and behind schedule
AnswerA

CPI=0.8 (over budget), SPI=1.1 (ahead of schedule).

Why this answer

CPI less than 1 indicates over budget; SPI greater than 1 indicates ahead of schedule. Therefore the project is over budget but ahead of schedule.

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4
MCQeasy

A project team is conducting a lessons learned session. In which project life cycle phase does this typically occur?

A.Planning
B.Closure
C.Execution
D.Initiation
AnswerB

Lessons learned captured at closure.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because lessons learned are conducted during project closure to capture knowledge for future projects. Option A is incorrect because initiation focuses on authorization. Option B is incorrect because planning focuses on planning.

Option C is incorrect because execution focuses on doing the work.

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5
MCQeasy

A project manager is closing a project that delivered a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. The customer has accepted the deliverables, and the team has completed the final project report. Which activity should the project manager perform NEXT?

A.Submit the final project report to the steering committee.
B.Conduct a lessons learned session with the project team.
C.Update the project schedule with actual completion dates.
D.Release all project resources to their functional managers.
AnswerB

Lessons learned are performed during closure.

Why this answer

After the customer has accepted deliverables and the final project report is complete, the next step is to conduct a lessons learned session with the project team. This aligns with the closing process group in the PMBOK Guide, where capturing knowledge and process improvements is a key activity before administrative closure. In a CRM system project, this session would review integration challenges, data migration issues, and user adoption strategies to inform future projects.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the order of closing activities, assuming that releasing resources or submitting reports should happen immediately after acceptance, but PMI standards require lessons learned to be conducted while the team is still intact to capture accurate feedback.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the final project report is typically submitted to the steering committee during the closing phase, but the question states the report is already complete, and the next logical step is to capture lessons learned before final reporting. Option C is wrong because updating the project schedule with actual completion dates is a routine monitoring activity that should have been done throughout the project, not as a next step after deliverables are accepted and the final report is done. Option D is wrong because releasing project resources to functional managers is a formal closure activity that should occur after lessons learned and final reporting, not immediately after the final report is complete.

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6
MCQhard

A company is implementing a new enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. The project is in the execution phase. The project manager receives a report that during user acceptance testing (UAT), 15 critical defects were found. The defects are related to incorrect calculation logic in the financial module. The testing team estimates that fixing these defects will require two additional weeks of work by the development team. The project sponsor is concerned about the schedule delay and asks the project manager to proceed with the go-live as planned and fix the defects after go-live. The project manager must decide the best course of action. What should the project manager do?

A.Delay the go-live without formal approval and instruct the team to fix the defects immediately.
B.Initiate a change request to formally document the defects, assess the impact on schedule, and seek approval from the change control board.
C.Direct the development team to implement a temporary workaround to allow go-live on time.
D.Proceed with go-live as scheduled and address defects post-implementation, as requested by the sponsor.
AnswerB

Following the change control process is the correct procedure.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the project manager should follow the change control process to formally evaluate the impact of the defects and the proposed delay. The sponsor's request to go live with critical defects is risky and should be assessed. Option A is wrong because ignoring the sponsor's request could damage the relationship; the project manager should engage the change control board.

Option B is wrong because implementing a workaround without proper testing may introduce new issues. Option D is wrong because critical defects should not be deferred without formal risk assessment and approval.

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7
MCQmedium

During the execution phase of a software development project, the team discovers a critical bug that was not identified during planning. The project manager needs to decide how to handle the bug without significantly impacting the project scope and timeline. Which action should the project manager take first?

A.Perform a root cause analysis and assess the impact on project constraints
B.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor for immediate resolution
C.Log the bug in the issue tracker and continue with the original plan
D.Assign additional developers to fix the bug without delay
AnswerA

Proper first step to understand the issue.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the project manager should first assess the impact of the bug on scope, schedule, and cost before deciding on a course of action. Option A is incorrect because immediately escalating to the sponsor bypasses proper analysis. Option B is incorrect because adding resources without analysis may not solve the issue.

Option D is incorrect because the bug should not simply be ignored.

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8
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are key activities performed during the Initiating phase of a project?

Select 2 answers
A.Define project scope
B.Identify stakeholders
C.Obtain formal acceptance of deliverables
D.Create work breakdown structure
E.Develop project charter
AnswersB, E

Stakeholder identification is a key initiating process.

Why this answer

Identifying stakeholders and developing the project charter are key activities in Initiating. Defining the project scope occurs later in Planning, and creating the WBS is also a Planning activity. Obtaining formal acceptance is Closing.

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9
MCQhard

A project manager is reviewing the project management plan and notices that an important deliverable's acceptance criteria are missing. The project is currently in the execution phase. What is the best course of action?

A.Proceed with execution and define criteria later during closure
B.Define the acceptance criteria based on the project manager's experience
C.Ask the project sponsor to define the acceptance criteria immediately
D.Submit a change request to update the project management plan with the missing criteria
AnswerD

Follows formal change control process.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because even in execution, the project manager should initiate a change request to update the plan with missing acceptance criteria. Option A is incorrect because proceeding without criteria risks rejection. Option B is incorrect because the sponsor should not be asked to define criteria directly without formal change process.

Option C is incorrect because the project manager should not unilaterally decide criteria.

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10
MCQmedium

A project is near completion, but the key stakeholder cannot perform user acceptance testing (UAT) due to prior commitments. What should the project manager do?

A.Proceed without UAT
B.Ask the stakeholder to delegate UAT to a qualified team member
C.Document the issue and request an extension
D.Escalate to the project sponsor
AnswerB

Delegation allows UAT to proceed while respecting the stakeholder's schedule.

Why this answer

The best practice is to ask the stakeholder to delegate UAT to a qualified team member, as the testing is essential for project closure. Proceeding without UAT or requesting an extension may not be appropriate, and escalation is premature.

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11
MCQmedium

During the execution phase of a software development project, the team discovers that the database schema needs to be altered to accommodate a new regulatory requirement. The project manager is reviewing the change request. What is the MOST important factor to consider before approving the change?

A.The project manager must approve the change to avoid delaying the project.
B.The team should implement the change immediately to meet the regulatory deadline.
C.The change's impact on the project's schedule, cost, and scope must be analyzed.
D.The change should be approved if it is within the current phase's budget.
AnswerC

Triple constraint analysis is essential.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because any change to a database schema during the execution phase of a software development project carries significant risk to schedule, cost, and scope. The project manager must perform a formal impact analysis to understand how the schema alteration affects existing data integrity, application code dependencies, testing cycles, and deployment timelines before approving the change. This aligns with the integrated change control process defined in the PMBOK Guide and is critical for maintaining project baselines.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume regulatory deadlines justify immediate action (Option B) or that budget alone is sufficient (Option D), but the exam tests the formal change control process where impact analysis on the triple constraint is the most important factor before approval.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because approving a change solely to avoid delay ignores the need for thorough impact analysis and could introduce unmanaged risks that cause greater delays later. Option B is wrong because implementing the change immediately without formal review violates change control procedures and may break existing functionality or data integrity. Option D is wrong because focusing only on the current phase's budget neglects the broader impacts on schedule, scope, and quality, which could lead to cost overruns in subsequent phases.

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12
MCQmedium

During project monitoring and controlling, the project manager calculates the cost performance index (CPI) as 0.8. What does this indicate?

A.The project is behind schedule
B.The project is ahead of schedule
C.The project is over budget
D.The project is under budget
AnswerC

CPI = EV/AC = 0.8 means for every dollar spent, only $0.80 of value is earned, indicating over budget.

Why this answer

A CPI below 1 signifies that the project is over budget.

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13
MCQeasy

In which project life cycle phase are the key performance indicators (KPIs) typically established to measure project success?

A.Execution
B.Planning
C.Closure
D.Initiation
AnswerB

KPIs are defined in planning.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because KPIs are defined during planning as part of the project management plan. Option A is incorrect because initiation focuses on authorization, not metrics. Option C is incorrect because execution uses KPIs but does not establish them.

Option D is incorrect because closure reviews KPIs but does not set them.

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14
MCQmedium

Based on the status report exhibit, what is the project's cost performance index (CPI) and what does it indicate?

A.CPI = 0.89; the project is under budget
B.CPI = 1.11; the project is under budget
C.CPI = 0.89; the project is over budget
D.CPI = 0.80; the project is over budget
AnswerC

Correct calculation and interpretation.

Why this answer

CPI = EV/AC = $80,000/$90,000 = 0.89. A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over budget.

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15
Drag & Dropmedium

Put the steps for managing a change request in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order

Why this order

Change management involves submitting, evaluating, reviewing, updating, and communicating.

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16
MCQeasy

A project manager is assigned to a new software development project. During the initiation phase, the project sponsor is hesitant to approve the project charter because the business case does not clearly quantify the expected benefits. The project manager has gathered initial requirements and conducted a feasibility study. What should the project manager do next to move the project forward?

A.Proceed to the planning phase to create a detailed schedule and budget.
B.Escalate the issue to the program manager or steering committee.
C.Work with the sponsor to refine the business case and quantify benefits more clearly.
D.Ignore the sponsor's concern and continue with the charter as is.
AnswerC

Addresses the root cause and enables charter approval.

Why this answer

The correct action is to refine the business case by working with the sponsor to clearly quantify benefits, ensuring the charter can be approved. Option A is correct because the charter cannot be approved without a solid business case. Option B is wrong because starting planning without an approved charter violates the phase gate process.

Option C is wrong as it escalates unnecessarily without first trying to resolve the issue. Option D is wrong because ignoring the sponsor's concern risks project cancellation.

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17
MCQhard

During execution, the project manager receives a customer change request to add a significant feature. Analysis shows the change will increase the budget by 15% and extend the schedule by two months. What should the project manager do first?

A.Approve the change
B.Reject the change
C.Submit the change to the change control board
D.Update the project plan
AnswerC

Formal change control requires CCB review for significant changes.

Why this answer

The project manager must submit the change request to the change control board (CCB) for evaluation and approval, as it exceeds typical thresholds. Approving or rejecting without CCB is not allowed; updating the plan occurs only after approval.

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18
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is closing a project. Which TWO activities are typically performed during the project closure phase?

Select 2 answers
A.Release project resources
B.Document lessons learned
C.Develop the project charter
D.Conduct the kickoff meeting
E.Create the work breakdown structure
AnswersA, B

Releasing resources is a closure activity.

Why this answer

Releasing project resources is a key activity in the project closure phase because it formally ends the team members' obligations to the project, allowing them to be reassigned to other initiatives. This step ensures that resource allocation is properly documented and that any contractual or administrative obligations are fulfilled, preventing ongoing costs or conflicts.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between activities performed in the initiation, planning, and closure phases, so the trap here is confusing early-phase tasks like charter development or kickoff meetings with the final administrative and resource-release steps of closure.

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19
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are key activities typically performed during the planning phase of a project? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Obtain formal approval of the project charter.
B.Create the risk management plan.
C.Monitor and control project work.
D.Collect requirements from stakeholders.
E.Develop the project schedule.
AnswersB, E

Risk planning is a key planning activity.

Why this answer

The planning phase involves developing detailed plans to guide project execution. Creating the risk management plan (B) is a key planning activity because it identifies, analyzes, and documents risk response strategies. Developing the project schedule (E) is also a core planning activity, as it sequences tasks, assigns resources, and establishes timelines for project deliverables.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between initiating and planning phase activities, so the trap here is confusing the project charter approval (initiating) with planning activities like risk management and schedule development, or mistaking requirements collection as not being a planning activity when it actually is, but it is not one of the two correct answers in this specific question.

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20
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A server administrator is troubleshooting a failed backup job. Based on the logs and configuration files, what is the most likely cause of the error?

A.The backup volume has a corrupted filesystem.
B.The backup volume is out of space.
C.The backup volume's filesystem label or UUID does not match the expected value in the backup software configuration.
D.The backup script is not scheduled to run at the correct time.
AnswerC

The error suggests the backup software verifies the volume identity and it fails.

Why this answer

The backup software configuration specifies a filesystem label or UUID for the backup volume, but the actual volume has a different label or UUID. This mismatch causes the backup job to fail because the software cannot locate the intended target volume. The logs would show errors related to mounting or accessing the volume by its expected identifier.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume a 'failed backup job' is always due to insufficient space or a corrupted filesystem, overlooking the subtle but common configuration mismatch between the expected volume identifier and the actual volume identifier.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a corrupted filesystem would typically produce I/O errors or filesystem-specific error messages (e.g., 'corrupt journal' or 'fsck required'), not a label/UUID mismatch error. Option B is wrong because an out-of-space condition would generate 'disk full' or 'no space left on device' errors, not a failure to identify the volume. Option D is wrong because an incorrect schedule would mean the backup simply does not run at the expected time, but the logs show the job attempted and failed, indicating a runtime error rather than a scheduling issue.

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21
MCQmedium

Which phase has the most total float?

A.Phase B
B.Phase A
C.Phase D
D.Phase C
AnswerD

Phase C has 1 week of float because its path is shorter than the critical path.

Why this answer

Phase D is correct because in a typical project schedule, the phase with the most total float is the one that can be delayed the longest without affecting the project's overall completion date. Total float is calculated as the difference between the late start and early start (or late finish and early finish) of an activity. Phase C has the highest total float value, indicating it has the greatest scheduling flexibility.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse total float with free float, assuming the phase with the most free float (delay without affecting successor activities) has the most total float, but total float considers the entire project end date, not just immediate successors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Phase B has a lower total float than Phase C, meaning it has less scheduling flexibility and would delay the project if its start or finish is postponed beyond its float. Option B is wrong because Phase A is on the critical path (or has minimal float), so it has the least total float, not the most. Option C is wrong because Phase D has a total float value that is less than Phase C's, so it cannot be the phase with the most total float.

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22
MCQhard

A project has completed the planning phase and is about to begin execution. However, a key stakeholder raises a concern that a critical requirement is missing. What is the best course of action?

A.Delay the start of execution until the stakeholder approves the project plan
B.Assess the impact of the missing requirement and submit a change request
C.Inform the stakeholder that requirements were finalized and cannot be changed
D.Add the requirement immediately to avoid customer dissatisfaction
AnswerB

Proper change management ensures that changes are evaluated and approved before implementation.

Why this answer

Since planning is complete, but the project hasn't started execution, the project manager should assess the impact and, if necessary, submit a change request to formally add the requirement through the change control process.

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23
MCQhard

A project manager is leading a software development project. The team is using an agile approach with iterative cycles. Which project life cycle model best describes this approach?

A.Waterfall life cycle
B.Predictive life cycle
C.Iterative life cycle
D.Spiral life cycle
AnswerC

Iterative cycles allow for refinement through repeated phases.

Why this answer

An agile approach with iterative cycles is characteristic of an iterative or adaptive life cycle, where scope is refined through repeated cycles.

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24
MCQeasy

A project is in the planning phase. The project manager is working with the team to break down the project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. Which process is being performed?

A.Estimate Costs
B.Create WBS
C.Develop Schedule
D.Identify Risks
AnswerB

The WBS decomposes deliverables into work packages.

Why this answer

Creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the process of subdividing project deliverables into smaller components, which occurs during planning.

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25
MCQmedium

During the planning phase, a team member estimates a task duration as 5-7 days based on a similar past project. Which estimating technique is being used?

A.Parametric estimating
B.Bottom-up estimating
C.Analogous estimating
D.Three-point estimating
AnswerC

Analogous estimating relies on historical data from comparable projects.

Why this answer

Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects. Parametric uses statistical relationship, three-point uses optimistic/pessimistic/most likely, and bottom-up aggregates detailed estimates.

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26
MCQhard

A project is in the monitoring and controlling phase. The project manager notices that the cost performance index (CPI) is 0.8 and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.2. What does this indicate about the project?

A.The project is over budget and ahead of schedule
B.The project is on budget and on schedule
C.The project is under budget and ahead of schedule
D.The project is over budget and behind schedule
AnswerA

CPI<1 over budget, SPI>1 ahead of schedule.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because CPI < 1 means the project is over budget, and SPI > 1 means it is ahead of schedule. Option A is incorrect because it states under budget. Option B is incorrect because it states behind schedule.

Option C is incorrect because it states both on track.

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27
Matchingmedium

Match each project management tool or technique to its purpose.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Visual timeline of project tasks and dependencies

Hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables

Determines the longest sequence of dependent tasks

Measures project performance against baseline

Assigns roles: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

Why these pairings

These are essential tools and techniques for project planning and control.

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28
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are typically included as phases in a project life cycle according to the Project Management Institute (PMI)?

Select 2 answers
A.Procurement
B.Initiation
C.Testing
D.Maintenance
E.Closure
AnswersB, E

Initiation is the first phase where the project is defined and authorized.

Why this answer

According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the project life cycle consists of phases that guide a project from start to finish. Initiation is the first phase where the project is formally authorized and defined, making option B correct. Closure is the final phase where the project is formally completed and handed over, making option E correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse project life cycle phases (Initiation, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, Closure) with product life cycle phases (e.g., Testing, Maintenance) or with process groups (e.g., Procurement), leading them to select incorrect options.

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29
MCQeasy

Based on the change request log exhibit, what should the project manager do next regarding the change requests?

A.Reject CR-01 to avoid scope creep
B.Implement CR-02 and CR-03 immediately
C.Process CR-01 through the change control board
D.Inform the requester that CR-04 was rejected
AnswerC

A submitted high-priority CR needs to be evaluated by the CCB.

Why this answer

CR-01 is submitted with high priority, so the project manager should ensure it is reviewed and processed by the change control board.

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30
MCQhard

Based on the risk register exhibit, which risk should the project manager prioritize for active monitoring and response?

A.R1 - Vendor delay
B.R3 - Technical failure
C.R4 - Scope creep
D.R2 - Resource shortage
AnswerA

It has the highest risk score and requires active monitoring.

Why this answer

R1 has the highest risk score (0.48) and a high probability and impact, making it the top priority for active monitoring. R2 and R3 have lower scores, and R4 has a score of 0.35 but is being avoided.

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31
Multi-Selecthard

A project manager is preparing for the project closure phase. Which three activities should the project manager perform? (Select THREE).

Select 3 answers
A.Update the stakeholder register
B.Create the project charter
C.Release project resources
D.Obtain formal acceptance of deliverables
E.Document lessons learned
AnswersC, D, E

Releasing resources (team members, equipment) is part of project closure.

Why this answer

Closure activities include obtaining formal acceptance, documenting lessons learned, and releasing resources. Updating the stakeholder register is not a primary closure activity, and the charter is created earlier.

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32
MCQeasy

During the planning phase, the project manager wants to define the project scope in detail. Which document should be created?

A.Requirements documentation
B.Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C.Project charter
D.Scope statement
AnswerD

The scope statement details the project scope, assumptions, and constraints.

Why this answer

The scope statement is the document that defines the project scope, including deliverables, boundaries, and acceptance criteria. The WBS is derived from the scope statement, and the charter provides high-level scope.

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33
Drag & Dropmedium

Arrange the steps for initiating a project in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order

Why this order

Initiating a project begins with creating the charter, identifying stakeholders, obtaining approval, then holding the kick-off meeting and defining scope.

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34
Drag & Dropmedium

Order the steps for effective stakeholder communication.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order

Why this order

Communication starts with identifying stakeholders, analyzing, planning, distributing, and adjusting based on feedback.

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35
MCQhard

A project manager is developing the risk management plan. Which of the following is the primary purpose of this plan?

A.Define how risk management activities will be conducted
B.List all identified risks
C.Prioritize risks
D.Assign risk owners
AnswerA

The risk management plan outlines the methodology, roles, budgeting, and timing for risk management.

Why this answer

The risk management plan describes how risk management will be performed, while the risk register captures the actual risks.

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36
MCQhard

During the planning phase, a team identifies a risk that could cause a 10% increase in project cost if it occurs, with a 20% probability. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?

A.2% of project cost
B.20% of project cost
C.10% of project cost
D.30% of project cost
AnswerA

EMV = 0.20 × 0.10 = 0.02 = 2%.

Why this answer

EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.20 × 0.10 = 0.02, or 2% of the project cost.

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37
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A developer deployed a new version of an application to production. After restarting the service, the application fails to connect to the database. What is the most likely cause?

A.The database user 'app_user' does not have permission to access the 'SalesDB' database.
B.The database server name in the configuration is incorrect.
C.The application is not configured to use the correct environment.
D.The password in the connection string is incorrect.
AnswerA

The error 'Cannot open database' for a valid login indicates lack of database-level permissions.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows that the connection string in the application configuration explicitly references the 'SalesDB' database and uses the 'app_user' account. The error message indicates a login failure for user 'app_user', which in SQL Server typically means the login succeeded at the server level but the user lacks a mapped database user or the CONNECT permission on the specified database. Since the database name and server are correctly specified, the most likely cause is that 'app_user' does not have permission to access 'SalesDB'.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between authentication failure (wrong password) and authorization failure (lack of database permission), and candidates mistakenly choose the password option because they assume any login error is due to credentials.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the database server name in the configuration is explicitly shown as 'DBServer01', which matches the expected server; an incorrect server name would produce a network-related or instance-not-found error, not a login failure. Option C is wrong because the application is already deployed to production and the configuration file is being read from the production environment; an environment mismatch would typically cause a different configuration file to be loaded, but here the file clearly contains the production database name and server. Option D is wrong because a wrong password would result in a 'Login failed for user' error at the server level, but the error message shown is specifically about database access, not authentication failure; SQL Server distinguishes between login failure (wrong password) and database permission failure.

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38
MCQeasy

A project sponsor wants to formally close a project. Which of the following documents should the project manager prepare to obtain sign-off that the project is complete?

A.Stakeholder register
B.Lessons learned
C.Project charter
D.Final project report
AnswerD

The final project report summarizes project performance and is used to obtain formal acceptance.

Why this answer

The final project report provides the basis for the sponsor or customer to formally accept the project deliverables.

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39
MCQmedium

A project is in the executing phase. The project manager notices that the actual cost is consistently higher than planned, and the schedule is behind. After analyzing the situation, the project manager decides to fast-track some tasks. What is the primary impact of fast-tracking?

A.It reduces cost by eliminating tasks
B.It increases risk of rework
C.It immediately lowers resource costs
D.It decreases the project's scope
AnswerB

Parallel execution can lead to rework if dependencies are not fully understood.

Why this answer

Fast-tracking involves performing tasks in parallel that were originally planned sequentially, which increases risk but can compress the schedule.

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40
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the risk register, which risk should receive the highest priority for response?

A.R4
B.R1
C.R2
D.R3
AnswerC

R2 has the highest risk score of 0.30.

Why this answer

The risk with the highest risk score (0.30) is R2 (Staff turnover). Risk score is typically used to prioritize risks for response planning.

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41
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are typical activities in the Closing phase of a project?

Select 2 answers
A.Develop project charter
B.Archive project documents
C.Conduct procurements
D.Obtain formal acceptance of the final product
E.Create the project schedule
AnswersB, D

Archiving project information is a key closing activity.

Why this answer

Closing phase activities include finalizing project reports, archiving documents, and obtaining formal acceptance. Conducting procurements happens in Executing, and developing the project charter is in Initiating.

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42
Multi-Selecthard

A project manager is using a predictive (waterfall) life cycle for a construction project. Which THREE documents are typically created during the planning phase?

Select 3 answers
A.Project charter
B.Risk register
C.Schedule baseline
D.Lessons learned register
E.Scope statement
AnswersB, C, E

The risk register is developed during planning to identify and assess risks.

Why this answer

In a predictive (waterfall) life cycle, the planning phase produces detailed documents that define how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. The risk register (B) is created to identify, assess, and plan responses to potential risks. The schedule baseline (C) is the approved version of the project schedule that becomes the reference for performance measurement.

The scope statement (E) formally documents the project scope, including deliverables, assumptions, and constraints. These three artifacts are all outputs of the planning process group in a waterfall methodology.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the project charter (an initiation document) with planning phase outputs, or mistakenly think the lessons learned register is a planning artifact when it is actually a continuous process that is formally updated during execution and closing.

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43
MCQeasy

During project initiation, a project manager needs to identify high-level risks. Which document should the project manager reference?

A.Risk register
B.Project charter
C.Stakeholder engagement plan
D.Lessons learned
AnswerB

The project charter includes high-level risks as part of the initial project definition.

Why this answer

The project charter contains high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints. The risk register is created later during planning. The stakeholder engagement plan addresses communication, not risks.

Lessons learned are from past projects but are not the primary source for identifying risks in initiation.

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44
MCQmedium

A project manager is leading an IT infrastructure upgrade project that follows a phased life cycle. During the planning phase, the project team is divided on the estimation approach for the migration tasks. Some members insist on using expert judgment, while others prefer parametric estimating based on historical data from similar projects. The project manager needs to decide on a method to ensure accurate estimates and team consensus. What should the project manager do?

A.Let the team members use their preferred method and average the results.
B.Override the disagreement and mandate the use of expert judgment.
C.Facilitate a meeting to combine both methods, using parametric estimates as a baseline and expert judgment to adjust.
D.Postpone estimation until more data is available from other projects.
AnswerC

Combines both approaches effectively.

Why this answer

The correct action is to facilitate a session to combine both methods, using historical data as a baseline and expert judgment to adjust for unique project factors. Option A is correct because it leverages the strengths of both approaches and builds consensus. Option B is wrong as it imposes one method without team buy-in.

Option C is wrong because it delays the project. Option D is wrong because it avoids the issue and may lead to inaccurate estimates.

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45
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are key outputs of the Executing phase?

Select 3 answers
A.Lessons learned register
B.Work performance data
C.Change requests
D.Project management plan
E.Deliverables
AnswersB, C, E

Work performance data is collected during execution for monitoring purposes.

Why this answer

During Executing, the project team produces deliverables, work performance data is collected, and change requests may arise. The project management plan is an output of Planning, and the lessons learned register is updated in Closing.

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46
MCQmedium

During the monitoring and controlling phase, a project manager receives a status report indicating the CPI is 0.8 and SPI is 0.9. Which action should the project manager take next?

A.Celebrate because both indices are above 0.7
B.Update the project management plan to reflect the variances
C.Analyze the variances and determine corrective actions
D.Immediately request more budget from the sponsor
AnswerC

Variance analysis is the first step to understand and address the issues.

Why this answer

A CPI of 0.8 means the project is over budget, and an SPI of 0.9 means it is behind schedule. The project manager should analyze the root cause of these variances and consider corrective actions.

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47
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO items are typically included in a project closure report?

Select 2 answers
A.The risk register
B.The project schedule
C.Final project performance summary
D.Lessons learned
E.The stakeholder engagement plan
AnswersC, D

Key closure report content.

Why this answer

Options D and E are correct. A project closure report includes lessons learned and a final project performance summary. Option A is incorrect because the risk register is closed and archived, not included in the report.

Option B is incorrect because the project schedule is part of the plan, not closure report. Option C is incorrect because the stakeholder engagement plan is not part of closure report.

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48
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is reviewing the project management plan. Which two components should be included? (Select TWO).

Select 2 answers
A.Schedule baseline
B.Issue log
C.Risk register
D.Scope baseline
E.Stakeholder register
AnswersA, D

The schedule baseline is an essential part of the project management plan.

Why this answer

The project management plan includes baselines (scope, schedule, cost) and subsidiary management plans. The risk register, issue log, and stakeholder register are project documents.

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49
MCQeasy

A project manager is in the process of formally authorizing a new project. Which document should be created during the initiation phase?

A.Project charter
B.Project scope statement
C.Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D.Risk register
AnswerA

Formally authorizes the project.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the project charter formally authorizes the project and gives the project manager authority. Option A is incorrect because the scope statement is created during planning. Option C is incorrect because the WBS is developed in the planning phase.

Option D is incorrect because the risk register is part of planning.

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50
Multi-Selectmedium

During project initiation, which three documents are typically created or updated? (Select THREE).

Select 3 answers
A.Project kickoff meeting minutes
B.Project charter
C.Stakeholder register
D.Project scope statement
E.Risk register
AnswersA, B, C

The kickoff meeting is often part of initiation, and minutes are a deliverable.

Why this answer

Initiation typically produces the project charter, stakeholder register, and kickoff meeting minutes. Scope statement and risk register are planning outputs.

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51
Multi-Selecteasy

A project is in the executing phase when a key stakeholder requests a new feature that was not part of the original scope. The project manager needs to handle this request appropriately. Which TWO actions should the project manager take? (Select TWO).

Select 2 answers
A.Consult the change control board for approval.
B.Implement the change immediately to satisfy the stakeholder.
C.Ignore the request to avoid scope creep.
D.Update the project charter to include the new feature.
E.Submit a formal change request to the change control board.
AnswersA, E

CCB evaluates and approves changes.

Why this answer

The correct actions are to submit a formal change request and consult the change control board (CCB) for approval. Implementing the change immediately (A) bypasses the change control process, which can lead to scope creep. Updating the project charter (C) is not appropriate at this phase; the charter was created during initiation.

Ignoring the request (E) is poor stakeholder management. Therefore, options B and D are correct.

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52
MCQmedium

A project manager is reviewing lessons learned from a previous project and notices that scope creep occurred because stakeholders requested changes after the project moved into the execution phase. Which action should the project manager take in the current project to prevent this issue?

A.Close the project early if any scope changes are requested.
B.Involve all stakeholders in the project planning phase to ensure requirements are fully captured.
C.Include a detailed list of all deliverables in the project charter to avoid ambiguity.
D.Establish a change control board during the planning phase to review and approve any change requests.
AnswerD

A CCB provides a structured process to evaluate changes, preventing unauthorized scope creep.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because establishing a change control board (CCB) during the planning phase provides a formal, documented process for reviewing and approving or rejecting scope changes. This prevents uncontrolled scope creep by ensuring that any change request is evaluated for impact on cost, schedule, and resources before implementation, which is a key practice in the PMBOK Guide for the execution phase.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that simply capturing requirements upfront (Option B) or listing deliverables in the charter (Option C) is sufficient to prevent scope creep, but the trap is that these actions do not establish a formal control mechanism to handle changes that inevitably arise during execution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because closing the project early upon any scope change request is an extreme and impractical response that violates basic project management principles; it does not prevent scope creep but rather abandons the project. Option B is wrong because while involving stakeholders in planning helps capture initial requirements, it does not prevent stakeholders from requesting changes later during execution; scope creep often arises from new needs or evolving requirements that were not foreseen. Option C is wrong because including a detailed list of deliverables in the project charter can reduce ambiguity but does not provide a mechanism to manage or control changes once the project is in execution; the charter is a high-level document and changes still require a formal review process.

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53
MCQeasy

A project manager is creating a work breakdown structure (WBS) during the planning phase. The WBS should decompose the project deliverables into smaller, manageable components. What is the lowest level of a WBS called?

A.Planning package
B.Work package
C.Control account
D.Activity
AnswerB

Work packages are the smallest units in a WBS, facilitating assignment and estimation.

Why this answer

The lowest level of a work breakdown structure (WBS) is the work package, which represents the smallest unit of work that can be reliably estimated, assigned, and managed. Decomposing deliverables into work packages enables precise cost, resource, and schedule planning during the project planning phase.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between work packages and activities, trapping candidates who confuse the WBS level (work package) with the schedule-level tasks (activities) that are derived from it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a planning package is a temporary placeholder in the WBS for work that is not yet fully defined, not the lowest level. Option C is wrong because a control account is a management control point where scope, budget, and schedule are integrated, typically at a higher level above work packages. Option D is wrong because an activity is a specific task or step within a work package, not a level of the WBS itself.

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54
MCQhard

During the execution phase, a project manager discovers that the development team has been using an unauthorized software library to accelerate work. The library has a license that could create legal risks for the company. What is the best course of action?

A.Document the issue in the lessons learned and continue with the library to avoid delay.
B.Immediately stop using the library, assess the impact on the schedule, and develop a plan to replace it.
C.Continue using the library but add a note in the risk register about potential licensing issues.
D.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and request a decision on whether to continue using the library.
AnswerB

This mitigates the risk by removing the unauthorized component and allows the team to plan for rework.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because using an unauthorized software library with a license that creates legal risks must be stopped immediately to protect the company from potential litigation. The project manager must then assess the schedule impact and develop a replacement plan, as continuing use without addressing the legal risk violates compliance and project governance standards.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think escalating to the sponsor or simply logging the risk is sufficient, but the PM must take immediate corrective action to stop the violation before seeking guidance or documenting the issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because documenting the issue in lessons learned while continuing to use the library ignores the immediate legal risk and does not mitigate the exposure; lessons learned are for future projects, not for active risk treatment. Option C is wrong because adding a note to the risk register without stopping use fails to treat the high-severity legal risk; the risk register is for tracking, not for authorizing continued exposure. Option D is wrong because escalating to the project sponsor for a decision on whether to continue delays action and abdicates the project manager's responsibility to enforce compliance and protect the organization; the PM should act first and then inform the sponsor.

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55
MCQmedium

A project manager is preparing for the formal acceptance of project deliverables. The customer has been involved throughout the project and has approved interim deliverables. In which phase does formal acceptance typically occur?

A.Executing
B.Monitoring and Controlling
C.Initiating
D.Closing
AnswerD

Final acceptance and project closure occur in the Closing phase.

Why this answer

Formal acceptance of deliverables is a key activity in the Closing phase, where the customer or sponsor formally accepts the final deliverables.

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56
MCQmedium

A project manager is leading a team that is developing a new mobile application. During the execution phase, the product owner requests additional features that were not included in the original scope. What should the project manager do first?

A.Add the features but extend the project deadline
B.Update the project plan to include the new features immediately
C.Reject the request because it will increase the scope
D.Ask the product owner to submit a formal change request
AnswerD

Follows proper change control.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because any change to scope must go through the change control process, starting with a formal change request. Option A is incorrect because rejecting outright may not be appropriate. Option B is incorrect because the project manager should not decide alone without impact analysis.

Option D is incorrect because adding features without change control violates project management processes.

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57
MCQeasy

A project manager is in the process of developing the project schedule. Which activity most directly determines the project's finish date?

A.Cost estimation
B.Critical path analysis
C.Quality planning
D.Resource estimation
AnswerB

The critical path identifies the longest path through the project and directly determines the earliest possible finish date.

Why this answer

The critical path is the sequence of tasks that dictates the project's minimum duration.

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58
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE activities are typically performed during the execution phase of a project?

Select 3 answers
A.Perform quality assurance
B.Manage stakeholder engagement
C.Monitor project risks
D.Direct and manage project work
E.Develop the project charter
AnswersA, B, D

Execution phase.

Why this answer

Options A, C, and E are correct. Execution phase activities include directing and managing project work, managing stakeholder engagement, and performing quality assurance. Option B is incorrect because developing the project charter is done in initiation.

Option D is incorrect because monitoring project risks is part of monitoring and controlling.

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59
MCQeasy

Which document is created during the closure phase to formally indicate the project is complete and accepted by the customer?

A.Final project report
B.Project closure checklist
C.Project charter
D.Lessons learned document
AnswerA

The final project report includes acceptance signatures and formally closes the project.

Why this answer

The final project report is a key deliverable of the closure phase that summarizes performance and obtains formal acceptance. Lessons learned and closure checklist are also closure documents, but the final report is the primary acceptance document.

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60
MCQmedium

A project team is executing the project plan when a key stakeholder requests a significant change to the scope. The change control board has approved the change. What should the project manager update next?

A.Project management plan and scope baseline
B.Risk register
C.Communications plan
D.Issue log
AnswerA

Upon approval, the project management plan and the scope baseline must be updated to incorporate the change.

Why this answer

After a change is approved by the change control board, the project manager must update the project management plan and the scope baseline to reflect the new scope.

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61
MCQhard

A project manager is reviewing the schedule and notices that the critical path has been affected by a delay in a non-critical task. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A.The task had a negative float
B.The task's duration was underestimated
C.The task was a predecessor to a critical task
D.Resource leveling caused the delay
AnswerC

If a non-critical task is a predecessor to a critical task, its delay can push the critical task, thereby affecting the critical path.

Why this answer

A non-critical task has float, but if it is a predecessor to a critical task, its delay can consume float and eventually impact the critical path.

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62
MCQmedium

A construction project is nearing the end of the executing phase. The project manager is preparing for the closure phase. During a review, the project manager discovers that two deliverables have not been formally accepted by the client due to minor quality issues. The team has already started demobilizing resources. What should the project manager do to properly close the project?

A.Correct the quality issues and obtain sign-off from the client before closing.
B.Close the project and rely on the warranty period to fix issues later.
C.Proceed with administrative closure and archive all project documents.
D.Transfer the deliverables to the client with a note that minor issues remain.
AnswerA

Ensures deliverables meet acceptance criteria.

Why this answer

The correct action is to resolve the quality issues and obtain formal acceptance before proceeding to closure. Option B is correct because deliverables must be accepted to close the phase/project. Option A is wrong because closing without acceptance risks legal and financial liability.

Option C is wrong as it bypasses the acceptance process. Option D is wrong because it ignores the client's requirements and may lead to rejection.

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63
MCQhard

A project has just completed the closure phase. Which activity is performed to formally obtain confirmation from the customer that the project deliverables have been accepted?

A.Conduct a lessons learned session
B.Obtain formal sign-off on project deliverables
C.Create the final project report
D.Perform a project handover
AnswerB

Formal acceptance from customer.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because the customer signs a project closure document or acceptance form to formalize acceptance. Option A is incorrect because lessons learned are internal. Option B is incorrect because the final report summarizes performance, not acceptance.

Option C is incorrect because handover is part of closure but not the formal acceptance itself.

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64
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are examples of resource leveling techniques?

Select 2 answers
A.Fast tracking
B.Splitting tasks
C.Crashing
D.Delaying tasks
E.Adding resources
AnswersB, D

Splitting tasks allows resources to work on other tasks temporarily.

Why this answer

Resource leveling adjusts the schedule to resolve over-allocation. Delaying tasks and splitting tasks are common leveling techniques. Fast tracking and crashing are schedule compression techniques.

Adding resources does not level; it may overload further.

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65
MCQmedium

Based on the change request log, which of the following actions should the project manager take to maintain the project schedule?

A.Implement CR-004 immediately
B.Approve CR-003
C.Prioritize CR-002
D.Reject CR-001
AnswerB

CR-003 has a positive schedule impact of -1 week, which can help offset the delays from CR-001 and CR-004.

Why this answer

To maintain the schedule, the project manager should approve CR-003 because it reduces the schedule by one week, offsetting some delays caused by other approved changes.

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66
MCQeasy

A project manager is reviewing the log rotation configuration for a critical application. Based on the exhibit, which issue exists with the current logrotate setup?

A.The delaycompress directive prevents compression of the most recent rotated log
B.The postrotate script should restart the service, not reload
C.The logrotate configuration does not specify a size-based rotation
D.The rotate count of 2 does not match the number of archived log files
AnswerD

The directory shows three archived files (app.log.1, app.log.2.gz) but rotate is set to 2.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows a logrotate configuration with `rotate 2`, meaning only two archived logs should be retained. However, the directory listing displays three archived log files (e.g., app.log.1, app.log.2, app.log.3), which indicates that the rotation count is not being enforced correctly. This mismatch is the direct issue, making option D correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on the `delaycompress` or `postrotate` details, but the real issue is a simple count mismatch between the configured `rotate` value and the actual number of archived files visible in the exhibit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `delaycompress` defers compression until the next rotation cycle, but it does not prevent compression of the most recent rotated log; it simply delays it by one cycle. Option B is wrong because `reload` is often preferred over `restart` for services like Apache or Nginx to avoid downtime; the postrotate script using `reload` is valid and not inherently an issue. Option C is wrong because logrotate can operate on time-based schedules (e.g., daily, weekly) without requiring a size-based directive; the absence of a size trigger is not a problem unless the requirement specifies size-based rotation.

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67
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float for Task D?

A.0 days
B.2 days
C.3 days
D.1 day
AnswerD

Float = 14 - 13 = 1 day.

Why this answer

The critical path is Path 1 (14 days). Task D is on Path 2 with a duration of 13 days. Total float = critical path duration - non-critical path duration = 14 - 13 = 1 day.

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68
MCQhard

A project manager is overseeing a construction project to build a new office building. The project is currently in the execution phase, with foundation work underway. During a status meeting, the project manager discovers that the detailed architectural plans, which were a deliverable of the planning phase, were never formally approved by the client. The team has been working based on preliminary drawings that were used for the initial estimate. The project schedule shows that the next major activity, framing, is scheduled to start in two weeks. The project sponsor is on an extended leave and unavailable for the next month. The project manager is concerned about significant rework if the plans are later rejected. The project has a tight budget and aggressive timeline. What should the project manager do first?

A.Continue with the foundation work and address the approval issue during the closure phase.
B.Authorize overtime to complete the foundation work faster in case rework is needed.
C.Suspend the foundation work and initiate a plan to obtain formal approval of the architectural plans before proceeding.
D.Proceed with framing as scheduled and submit the plans for approval retroactively.
AnswerC

Suspending work to secure approval of a key deliverable is appropriate to avoid rework and ensure the project stays on track.

Why this answer

The correct action is to suspend the foundation work and initiate a plan to obtain formal approval of the architectural plans before proceeding further. This aligns with the project life cycle requirement that planning phase deliverables be approved before execution continues. Proceeding without approval risks major rework and cost overruns, which is not justified by the tight timeline.

Option B (suspend work and get approval) is the most prudent and ethical decision.

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69
Matchingmedium

Match each project management process group to its primary purpose.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Define and authorize a new project or phase

Establish scope, objectives, and course of action

Complete work defined in the project management plan

Track, review, and regulate progress and performance

Finalize all activities and formally close the project

Why these pairings

These are the five process groups defined in the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK).

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70
Multi-Selectmedium

During the closing phase of a project, which TWO activities should be performed?

Select 2 answers
A.Archive project documents and lessons learned.
B.Update the risk register with new risks identified during execution.
C.Obtain formal acceptance of deliverables from stakeholders.
D.Create the project charter.
E.Develop a work breakdown structure.
AnswersA, C

Archiving ensures historical data is preserved for future projects.

Why this answer

Archiving project documents and lessons learned (Option A) is a key closing-phase activity because it preserves project knowledge for future reference and organizational process assets. Formal acceptance of deliverables from stakeholders (Option C) ensures that all project outputs have been reviewed and approved, formally closing the project scope. Both activities are explicitly part of the closing process group in the CompTIA PK0-005 exam objectives.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between closing-phase activities and activities from other process groups (initiating, planning, executing, monitoring/controlling), so the trap here is that candidates mistakenly select ongoing risk management tasks (Option B) or early planning artifacts (Options D and E) as closing activities.

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71
MCQeasy

A project manager has just received approval for the project charter. What is the next primary activity in the initiation phase?

A.Plan risk responses
B.Identify stakeholders
C.Develop the project schedule
D.Create the work breakdown structure (WBS)
AnswerB

Identifying stakeholders is performed during initiation, right after the charter is approved.

Why this answer

After the project charter is approved, the next step is to identify stakeholders, which is a key process in the initiation phase. The WBS, schedule, and risk responses are planning phase activities.

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72
MCQhard

A project is in the execution phase, and the project manager receives a change request to add a new feature that is not in the scope statement. The change request has been approved by the change control board. What must the project manager do next?

A.Conduct a meeting with stakeholders to discuss the impact of the change.
B.Update the project management plan and baseline to reflect the approved change.
C.Defer the change to the next project phase to minimize disruption.
D.Inform the development team to continue with the original scope and ignore the change.
AnswerB

The PM must adjust plans and baselines to incorporate the change and keep the project aligned.

Why this answer

Once the change control board (CCB) approves a change request, the project manager must formally integrate the approved change into the project by updating the project management plan and the associated baselines (scope, schedule, cost). This ensures that all future project work, performance measurement, and reporting are aligned with the new approved scope, maintaining the integrity of the project's control processes as defined in the PMBOK Guide.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the sequence of the change control process, thinking a stakeholder meeting to discuss impact is still needed after CCB approval, when in fact the approval itself confirms the impact has been accepted and the next step is to update the plan and baselines.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because conducting a meeting with stakeholders to discuss the impact of the change should occur before the change is approved, not after; the CCB has already approved the change, so the impact has been assessed and accepted. Option C is wrong because deferring an approved change to the next phase violates the CCB's decision and disrupts the project's planned execution, as the change is already deemed necessary and approved for the current phase. Option D is wrong because ignoring an approved change and continuing with the original scope directly contradicts the CCB's authority and the formal change control process, leading to scope creep and misalignment with stakeholder expectations.

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73
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. Which change request(s) require formal approval from the change control board?

A.CR002 and CR003
B.CR001 and CR004
C.All open change requests
D.CR001 only
AnswerD

CR001 specifically requires approval.

Why this answer

Only CR001 has 'Approval Needed' marked as Yes, indicating it requires formal CCB approval. CR004 does not require approval per the log.

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74
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are key components of a project management plan?

Select 3 answers
A.Scope baseline
B.Lessons learned
C.Schedule baseline
D.Risk register
E.Cost baseline
AnswersA, C, E

The scope baseline (scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary) is part of the plan.

Why this answer

The scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost baseline are key components of the project management plan. The risk register is a project document, not part of the plan itself. Lessons learned are created after project closure.

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75
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following activities are typically performed during the initiation phase of a project?

Select 2 answers
A.Define project scope
B.Develop the project schedule
C.Develop the project charter
D.Create the work breakdown structure
E.Identify stakeholders
AnswersC, E

The charter is created in initiation.

Why this answer

Developing the project charter and identifying stakeholders are initiation phase activities. Creating the WBS, developing the schedule, and defining scope are planning phase activities.

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