CCNA Predictive Plan Based Questions — Page 1 of 2

Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are considered key schedule management tools for predictive projects?

Select 3 answers

A.Critical path method

B.Gantt chart

C.Burndown chart

D.Kanban board

E.PERT analysis

AnswersA, B, E

CPM is used to determine the longest path and schedule flexibility.

Why this answer

Gantt charts, critical path method (CPM), and PERT analysis are classic schedule management tools used in predictive projects. Burndown charts and Kanban boards are typically used in agile methodologies.

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MCQeasy

A project team is developing a quality management plan for a predictive software development project. Which tool is most appropriate to identify the root causes of potential defects?

A.Ishikawa diagram

B.Pareto chart

C.Flowchart

D.Control chart

AnswerA

Also known as fishbone diagram, it helps identify root causes.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the Ishikawa (fishbone) diagram is used to identify root causes of problems. Option A is wrong because control charts monitor process stability. Option B is wrong because Pareto charts prioritize issues.

Option D is wrong because flowchart maps processes.

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Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are outputs of the Control Quality process?

Select 3 answers

A.Quality metrics

B.Work performance information

C.Change requests

D.Quality control measurements

E.Project management plan updates

AnswersB, C, D

Work performance information is an output, including status data on quality.

Why this answer

Options B, C, and D are correct. Control Quality outputs include quality control measurements, validated deliverables, work performance information, change requests, and project documents updates. A (Quality metrics) is an input.

E (Project management plan updates) is not a direct output; changes to the PM plan go through integrated change control.

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MCQmedium

A project manager is creating a project scope statement for a predictive project. Which element is typically included in the project scope statement?

A.Activity list

B.Risk register

C.Project constraints

D.Work breakdown structure

AnswerC

Constraints like budget and schedule are part of the scope statement.

Why this answer

Project constraints are typically included in the project scope statement. Option A is correct.

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MCQhard

Based on the exhibit, which risk should the project manager prioritize for proactive response?

A.R002

B.R003

C.R001

D.All risks have equal priority.

AnswerC

R001 has the highest risk score and should be prioritized.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because Risk R001 has the highest risk score (0.56), indicating the highest priority. Option A, B, C are incorrect because they have lower scores.

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MCQeasy

During the planning phase of a predictive project, the project manager is estimating costs. Which cost estimation technique uses historical data from similar projects?

A.Bottom-up estimating

B.Analogous estimating

C.Three-point estimating

D.Parametric estimating

AnswerB

Analogous estimating relies on historical data from similar projects.

Why this answer

Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects as a basis for cost estimation. It is less accurate but quick. Bottom-up is detailed, three-point uses ranges, and parametric uses statistical relationships.

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MCQeasy

Which document formally authorizes the project manager to use organizational resources to execute the project?

A.Project charter

B.Business case

C.Scope statement

D.Project management plan

AnswerA

The project charter provides formal authorization for the project manager to use resources.

Why this answer

The project charter is the document that formally authorizes the project and the project manager to apply resources to project activities. The project management plan guides execution but does not authorize. The scope statement and business case are inputs.

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Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are tools and techniques used in the Control Schedule process?

Select 3 answers

A.Variance analysis

B.Schedule compression

C.Performance reviews

D.Cost-benefit analysis

E.Reserve analysis

AnswersA, B, C

Variance analysis compares planned vs actual schedule.

Why this answer

Variance analysis is a tool and technique in the Control Schedule process because it compares planned schedule performance (e.g., baseline dates) against actual results to identify deviations. It uses metrics like Schedule Variance (SV) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI) from earned value management to quantify schedule health and trigger corrective actions.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the distinction between tools used for monitoring (Control Schedule) versus planning (Develop Schedule), so candidates mistakenly select reserve analysis or cost-benefit analysis because they sound like general project management techniques, but they are not part of the Control Schedule process per the PMBOK Guide.

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MCQhard

In a predictive project, the project manager has calculated the critical path and determined that the project duration is 100 days. The total float for a non-critical activity is 5 days. If the project manager wants to reduce the overall project duration by 3 days, which action is MOST appropriate?

A.Fast-track the project by overlapping activities on the critical path

B.Increase the total float of the critical path by adding buffer

C.Add more resources to the non-critical activity to reduce its duration

D.Crash the non-critical activity to reduce its duration by 3 days

AnswerA

Fast-tracking applies schedule compression to critical path activities, potentially reducing duration without increasing cost significantly.

Why this answer

To reduce project duration, the focus must be on the critical path. Fast-tracking by overlapping activities on the critical path can reduce duration with less risk than crashing. Adding resources to a non-critical activity or increasing float will not affect the project duration.

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MCQeasy

A project manager in a predictive manufacturing project needs to procure a specialized component. The procurement process requires a detailed statement of work (SOW) and firm fixed price (FFP) contract. What should the project manager create first?

A.Develop the procurement statement of work (SOW).

B.Conduct a make-or-buy analysis.

C.Draft the contract with the selected seller.

D.Create the procurement management plan.

AnswerD

The procurement management plan outlines how to manage procurement activities.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the procurement management plan guides the entire procurement process, including how to create SOW and select contract type. Option A is wrong because make-or-buy analysis is part of planning but not the first document. Option B is wrong because the SOW is created after the plan.

Option D is wrong because the contract is created after selecting the seller.

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MCQmedium

In a predictive (waterfall) project, the project phases are completed sequentially. If the design phase is delayed by two weeks, what is the likely impact on the project?

A.The project duration is extended by exactly two weeks.

B.The delay can be recovered by overlapping subsequent phases.

C.Only the design phase is affected; later phases can start on time.

D.No impact because design is not on the critical path.

AnswerA

In a sequential waterfall, a delay in a phase extends the overall project by that amount unless compressed.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because in a predictive lifecycle, each phase depends on the previous one. Option A is wrong because the delay propagates through all phases unless compressed. Option B is wrong because only design is delayed? Actually all subsequent phases will be delayed as they depend on design.

Option D is wrong because the impact is significant.

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MCQmedium

A project manager is reviewing the project schedule and sees that Task D depends on the completion of Task C, but Task C can start only after Task B finishes. Task B can start only after Task A. This is an example of which dependency?

A.Parallel dependency

B.Sequential dependency

C.Lag dependency

D.Merge activity

AnswerB

Each task must finish before the next can start in a chain.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the tasks are linked in a series: A→B→C→D. Option A is wrong because merge activity occurs when multiple predecessors converge. Option C is wrong because parallel tasks overlap in time.

Option D is wrong because a lag is a delay, not a dependency sequence.

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Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is performing qualitative risk analysis. Which TWO of the following are typical outputs of this process? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers

A.Quantitative risk analysis results

B.Risk register updates

C.Risk responses

D.List of prioritized risks

E.Probability and impact matrix

AnswersB, D

Correct: The risk register is updated with prioritization.

Why this answer

Qualitative risk analysis produces risk register updates and a list of prioritized risks. Options A and C are correct.

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MCQhard

A project manager is evaluating the impact of a potential risk on project objectives. The risk has a probability of 0.3 and an impact of $50,000. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?

A.$15,000

B.$50,000

C.$150,000

D.$1,500

AnswerA

EMV = 0.3 x $50,000 = $15,000.

Why this answer

Expected monetary value is probability times impact, so $15,000. Option A is correct.

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MCQmedium

During project planning, the team identifies that a task has a duration of 10 days, a predecessor finish-to-start relationship, and a lag of 2 days. What is the earliest the successor task can start if the predecessor starts on day 1?

A.Day 11

B.Day 10

C.Day 12

D.Day 13

AnswerC

Correct calculation.

Why this answer

The predecessor starts on day 1 and has a duration of 10 days, so it finishes at the end of day 10 (assuming work starts at the beginning of day 1). With a finish-to-start relationship and a lag of 2 days, the successor cannot start until 2 days after the predecessor finishes. Therefore, the earliest start for the successor is day 13 (end of day 10 + 2 days lag = start of day 13).

Option C is correct because it accounts for both the full duration and the lag.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often forget to include the predecessor's full duration when calculating the successor's start, mistakenly adding the lag to the start date instead of the finish date, leading to an answer like day 3 or day 12.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it assumes the successor starts immediately after the predecessor finishes (day 11), ignoring the 2-day lag. Option B is wrong because it incorrectly uses the predecessor's start date plus the lag (day 1 + 2 = day 3) or misinterprets the duration, leading to day 10. Option D is wrong because it adds an extra day beyond the correct calculation (e.g., day 10 finish + 2 lag = day 12 start, not day 13).

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Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are components of the project management plan?

Select 3 answers

A.Schedule baseline

B.Quality metrics

C.Risk register

D.Cost baseline

E.Scope baseline

AnswersA, D, E

The schedule baseline is a component of the project management plan.

Why this answer

Options A, C, and E are correct. The project management plan includes baselines (scope, schedule, cost) and subsidiary plans. The risk register is a project document, not a component of the PM plan.

Quality metrics may be part of the quality management plan but not a standalone component; typically baselines are considered components.

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MCQmedium

A company is undertaking a new office building construction project using a predictive (waterfall) methodology. The project is in the planning phase. The project sponsor requires a cost estimate accurate within ±10% to secure funding. The project team has limited historical data because the company specializes in residential projects, and this is the first commercial high-rise they have attempted. The project manager has experience with parametric estimating but wonders if it is appropriate. Meanwhile, a senior team member suggests bottom-up estimating, but that would require detailed design, which is not yet complete. Another team member advocates three-point estimating to account for uncertainty. The project manager must choose the best estimation approach for the current phase given the constraints.

A.Use three-point estimating to combine optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely costs.

B.Use analogous estimating from similar residential projects.

C.Use bottom-up estimating after completing the work breakdown structure down to work packages.

D.Use parametric estimating based on industry benchmarks for commercial construction.

AnswerD

Parametric estimating using industry benchmarks can provide reasonable accuracy with limited historical data. This is feasible given the lack of in-house data.

Why this answer

Parametric estimating using industry benchmarks is the best option to achieve ±10% accuracy with limited data. Option A is correct.

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MCQhard

A project manager is estimating the duration of a task using parametric estimation. Historical data shows that a similar task took 10 hours per unit, and 50 units are required. The team's productivity is expected to be 20% slower due to new team members. What is the estimated duration?

A.400 hours

B.550 hours

C.500 hours

D.600 hours

AnswerD

Correct calculation: 10*50=500, 500*1.2=600.

Why this answer

Option C is correct: 10 hours/unit * 50 units = 500 hours. With 20% slower, total hours = 500 * 1.2 = 600 hours. Option A is wrong because it does not account for slowdown.

Option B is wrong by using a factor of 0.8 (faster). Option D is wrong by adding 20% to the final value incorrectly.

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MCQmedium

In a predictive project, the project manager wants to ensure that the project team understands their roles and responsibilities. Which document is used to define roles and responsibilities?

A.Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

D.Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

AnswerA

RAM commonly shows roles and responsibilities.

Why this answer

The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is used to define roles and responsibilities. Option A is correct.

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Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are typically included in a project management plan (as opposed to project documents)?

Select 3 answers

A.Schedule management plan

B.Scope management plan

C.Stakeholder register

D.Risk management plan

E.Issue log

AnswersA, B, D

It describes how the schedule will be managed.

Why this answer

Options A, C, and E are correct. The scope management plan, schedule management plan, and risk management plan are subsidiary plans of the project management plan. Option B is wrong because the issue log is a project document.

Option D is wrong because the stakeholder register is a project document.

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Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process? (Select exactly 2.)

Select 2 answers

A.Work breakdown structure

B.Activity attributes

C.Activity list

D.Project schedule

E.Risk register

AnswersB, C

Output of Define Activities.

Why this answer

The Define Activities process is part of Project Schedule Management and produces the activity list and activity attributes as its primary outputs. The activity list identifies all scheduled activities, while activity attributes provide metadata such as predecessors, resources, and constraints. These outputs are essential for further schedule development.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the outputs of the Define Activities process with those of later scheduling processes, mistakenly selecting the project schedule or the WBS, which are created in different processes.

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Multi-Selecthard

A project manager is performing risk identification. Which two inputs are essential for this process? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers

A.Stakeholder register

B.Work performance reports

C.Change log

D.Risk management plan

E.Risk register

AnswersA, D

Correct: Stakeholder information helps identify risks related to stakeholders.

Why this answer

The risk management plan provides the methodology for identification, and the stakeholder register contains information about stakeholders who can identify risks.

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MCQmedium

You are managing a software development project following a predictive plan-based methodology. The project schedule is based on the critical path method (CPM). While reviewing the schedule, you notice that a non-critical path has a total float of -5 days, indicating a scheduling error. The project is in the planning phase, and the baseline has not yet been set. What should you do to resolve this negative float?

A.Apply schedule compression techniques like crashing or fast-tracking to the non-critical path.

B.Analyze the schedule logic, correct any errors in dependencies or duration estimates, and recalculate the schedule.

C.Ignore the negative float since it's not on the critical path.

D.Add the non-critical path to the critical path to eliminate the negative float.

AnswerB

Correcting the schedule logic resolves negative float.

Why this answer

Negative float on a non-critical path indicates an error in the schedule logic, such as incorrect dependencies or unrealistic durations. Since the baseline is not set, the project manager should review and correct the logic. Option B is correct.

Option A would incorrectly make it critical. Option C compresses unnecessarily. Option D ignores the error.

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MCQhard

A project manager is closing a phase in a predictive life cycle. Which document should be updated to record lessons learned for future phases?

A.Project charter

B.Lessons learned register

C.Risk register

D.Issue log

AnswerB

Correct: The lessons learned register is the repository for such information.

Why this answer

Lessons learned are captured in the lessons learned register throughout the project and used to improve future performance.

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Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process?

Select 2 answers

A.Project charter

B.Work breakdown structure

C.Activity list

D.Resource breakdown structure

E.Milestone list

AnswersC, E

Activity list is a primary output of Define Activities.

Why this answer

The Define Activities process identifies and documents the specific actions required to produce the project deliverables. Its key outputs are the activity list, activity attributes, and the milestone list. Option C is correct because the activity list is a primary output that enumerates all scheduled activities.

Option E is correct because the milestone list, which identifies significant events or decision points, is also a direct output of this process.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the outputs of Define Activities with those of other planning processes, such as mistaking the WBS (an input) or the RBS (an output of Estimate Activity Resources) for direct outputs of this process.

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MCQmedium

A project manager is reviewing the project schedule and notices that a task has a lead time of 2 days. What does this indicate?

A.The task has 2 days of float

B.The task duration is 2 days

C.The task cannot start until 2 days after its predecessor finishes

D.The task can start 2 days before its predecessor finishes

AnswerD

Lead enables overlapping of activities; the successor starts before the predecessor completes.

Why this answer

Lead time allows a successor activity to start before its predecessor finishes. A lead of 2 days means the successor can start 2 days before the predecessor finishes. Lag is the opposite (wait time).

Float is not directly related.

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MCQeasy

Which document formally authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities?

A.Project charter

B.Project management plan

C.Business case

D.Project scope statement

AnswerA

The project charter formally authorizes the project and the project manager.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the project charter authorizes the project and assigns the project manager. Option A is wrong because the business case provides justification, not authorization. Option B is wrong because the project management plan guides execution but does not authorize.

Option D is wrong because the scope statement details scope but does not authorize the project.

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Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are tools and techniques used in the Control Schedule process? (Select exactly 3.)

Select 3 answers

A.Rolling wave planning

B.Performance reviews

C.Variance analysis

D.Schedule compression

E.Critical path method

AnswersB, C, D

Used to compare actual vs planned.

Why this answer

Performance reviews (B) are a tool and technique in the Control Schedule process used to compare actual schedule performance against the baseline, often through earned value management (EVM) metrics like schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI). This helps identify deviations and trigger corrective actions.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the tools and techniques of the Develop Schedule process (e.g., critical path method, rolling wave planning) with those of the Control Schedule process, leading candidates to select options that are used earlier in planning rather than during monitoring and controlling.

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Multi-Selectmedium

In a predictive project life cycle, which three of the following are characteristics of a work breakdown structure (WBS)? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers

A.It is used to assign project roles and responsibilities.

B.The lowest level is called a work package.

C.It ensures that all deliverables are identified.

D.It is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work.

E.It includes cost estimates for each element.

AnswersB, C, D

Correct: Work packages are the lowest level of the WBS.

Why this answer

A WBS is hierarchical, decomposes scope to the work package level, and ensures all deliverables are identified. It does not assign roles or include cost estimates.

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MCQhard

A project manager is creating a risk response plan for a predictive construction project. One risk has a high probability and high impact. The team decides to purchase insurance to cover potential losses. Which risk response strategy is being used?

A.Avoid

B.Accept

C.Mitigate

D.Transfer

AnswerD

Insurance transfers the financial risk to the insurance company.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because transferring risk involves shifting the impact to a third party, such as insurance. Option A is wrong because mitigation reduces probability or impact, not transfer. Option C is wrong because avoidance eliminates the risk entirely.

Option D is wrong because acceptance acknowledges the risk without action.

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Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is using a predictive approach to manage project costs. Which THREE of the following are cost estimation techniques? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers

A.Analogous estimating

B.Earned value management

C.Bottom-up estimating

D.Cost-benefit analysis

E.Parametric estimating

AnswersA, C, E

Correct: Analogous is a cost estimation technique.

Why this answer

Analogous, bottom-up, and parametric are cost estimation techniques. Options A, B, C are correct.

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MCQeasy

You are the project manager for a construction project using a predictive plan-based methodology. The project has a detailed scope baseline approved by stakeholders. During the execution phase, a key stakeholder requests an additional feature that would require significant changes to the scope. You estimate the impact will increase the project cost by 15% and extend the schedule by three weeks. The project charter clearly defines the original scope and budget. What is the BEST course of action?

A.Ask the project sponsor to authorize the change verbally and proceed.

B.Implement the change immediately to satisfy the stakeholder, then document it later.

C.Reject the request because the scope baseline is already approved.

D.Analyze the impact, present it to the stakeholder, and submit a formal change request to the change control board.

AnswerD

Proper change control process ensures impact is assessed and approved.

Why this answer

In a predictive methodology, changes to the scope baseline must go through formal change control. The project manager should evaluate the impact and submit a change request to the change control board for approval. Option B is correct.

Option A would violate the baseline. Option C bypasses governance. Option D is the change control process but not immediate action.

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MCQhard

A project manager is planning risk responses for a high-impact, low-probability risk. The team decides to purchase an insurance policy to cover potential losses. Which risk response strategy is being used?

A.Avoidance

B.Transfer

C.Acceptance

D.Mitigation

AnswerB

Insurance transfers the financial risk of a loss to the insurance company.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because risk transfer involves shifting the impact to a third party, like insurance. Option A is wrong because risk avoidance changes the plan to eliminate the risk. Option C is wrong because risk mitigation reduces probability or impact.

Option D is wrong because risk acceptance acknowledges the risk without action.

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MCQmedium

You are managing a predictive project to build a new office building. The project is in the execution phase. During a weekly progress meeting, the electrical contractor reports that a critical piece of switchgear has a 6-week lead time, but it was not ordered because the team assumed it would be procured later. The project schedule shows the switchgear installation activity is supposed to start in 4 weeks. The project manager reviews the procurement management plan and realizes the procurement process was not followed. The project has a tight deadline and cannot accommodate a 6-week delay. What is the best course of action for the project manager?

A.Submit a change request to the CCB to extend the project schedule by 6 weeks.

B.Expedite the procurement process by contacting the supplier to negotiate a faster delivery and simultaneously fast-track remaining activities to recover time.

C.Crash the project schedule by adding resources to other activities to offset the delay.

D.Implement a change request to reduce the scope of work, eliminating the need for the switchgear.

AnswerB

This directly addresses the root cause and aims to recover the schedule.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the project manager must first attempt to recover the schedule by expediting procurement and fast-tracking remaining activities before considering formal changes. This aligns with the iterative nature of the execution phase, where the focus is on corrective action within the existing constraints. The procurement management plan was not followed, so the PM must now apply a workaround to mitigate the delay without immediately escalating to a change request.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often jump to a formal change request (Option A) or scope reduction (Option D) without first attempting schedule compression techniques, which are the PM's primary tools for handling delays in the execution phase.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because submitting a change request to extend the schedule by 6 weeks is premature; the PM should first attempt schedule compression techniques like fast-tracking or crashing before accepting a delay. Option C is wrong because crashing the schedule by adding resources to other activities does not address the root cause—the missing switchgear—and may not recover the 6-week lead time gap. Option D is wrong because reducing scope to eliminate the switchgear is a drastic, unnecessary change that would likely compromise the building's electrical functionality and is not a standard first response to a procurement oversight.

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Matchingmedium

Match each project management methodology to its characteristic.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts

Matches

Sequential phases with little iteration

Iterative and incremental delivery

Time-boxed sprints with daily standups

Visual workflow with WIP limits

Process-based with defined roles

Why these pairings

Different methodologies suit different project environments.

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MCQmedium

A manufacturing company is planning to install a new production line using a predictive project management approach. The project has a fixed price contract with a supplier for a critical machine. During the plan risk management process, the project manager identifies a risk that the key supplier might declare bankruptcy before delivering the machine. This risk has a high probability due to the supplier's financial instability, and a high impact because the machine is on the critical path and has a long lead time. The project manager must decide on a risk response strategy that will minimize the potential impact on the project. The team suggests several options.

A.Avoid the risk by selecting a different machine that is available from multiple suppliers.

B.Mitigate the risk by establishing a backup supplier.

C.Transfer the risk by requiring the supplier to obtain a performance bond.

D.Accept the risk and document it in the risk register.

AnswerC

A performance bond transfers the financial risk to a third party, protecting the project.

Why this answer

Transfer via performance bond is the most appropriate response for this high-probability, high-impact risk. Option B is correct.

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MCQeasy

A project manager is using a predictive approach to manage a project. During the execution phase, the team is working on deliverables. Which process group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress against the plan?

A.Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

B.Planning Process Group

C.Executing Process Group

D.Initiating Process Group

AnswerA

This process group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress.

Why this answer

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group involves tracking and regulating progress. Option B is correct.

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Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps for managing project communications in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps

Order

Why this order

Communications management: plan (including requirements and technology), manage, and monitor.

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MCQmedium

During a predictive project, a team member reports that a critical path activity is behind schedule by two days. To recover the schedule, the project manager should first:

A.Perform schedule compression analysis

B.Fast-track the project

C.Add resources to the critical path

D.Accept the delay and update the baseline

AnswerA

Correct: Analyzing compression options (fast-tracking, crashing) is the initial step.

Why this answer

The first step is to analyze potential options for schedule compression before taking action.

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Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are tools and techniques used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Select 2 answers

A.Rolling wave planning

B.Bottom-up estimating

C.Leads and lags

D.Critical path method

E.Decomposition

AnswersC, D

Leads and lags are adjustments to activity dependencies used during schedule development.

Why this answer

Options A and C are correct. Plan Schedule Management uses expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings. Critical path method (A) and leads and lags (C) are part of schedule development, but they are also considered techniques.

Rolling wave planning is for scope, not schedule management. Bottom-up estimating is for cost. Decomposition is for scope.

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MCQmedium

A government IT project is being managed using a predictive lifecycle. The project must comply with numerous regulatory standards, including data privacy and security. The project manager developed a comprehensive quality management plan that includes regular quality audits by an independent team. At the first milestone quality audit, the auditor identifies three non-conformances related to documentation and testing procedures. The project manager is under pressure from the sponsor to stay on schedule. The project manager needs to address the non-conformances effectively while minimizing schedule impact.

A.Immediately halt all work until the non-conformances are resolved.

B.Ignore the non-conformances and proceed with the schedule, as they are minor.

C.Perform root cause analysis and implement corrective actions for the non-conformances.

D.Re-baseline the quality management plan to eliminate the problematic requirements.

AnswerC

Root cause analysis and corrective actions address the issues efficiently without unnecessary delays.

Why this answer

Root cause analysis and corrective actions are the most effective and efficient way to address non-conformances. Option C is correct.

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MCQmedium

A project manager is developing the WBS for a large construction project. She has identified the major deliverables and decomposed them into work packages. Which of the following BEST describes the next step in the WBS creation process?

A.Estimate the cost of each work package

B.Assign resources to each work package

C.Decompose work packages into activities

D.Obtain stakeholder approval of the WBS

AnswerC

The next logical step is to define activities that will produce the work packages, enabling schedule development.

Why this answer

After creating the WBS and decomposing deliverables into work packages, the next step is to further decompose work packages into activities for scheduling. Assigning resources or estimating costs comes later, and stakeholder approval occurs after verification.

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MCQeasy

A project manager is determining the sequence of activities for a construction project. Which tool is best suited for this purpose?

A.Resource breakdown structure

B.Work breakdown structure

C.Gantt chart

D.Network diagram

AnswerD

Correct: Network diagrams depict activity dependencies and the critical path.

Why this answer

A network diagram shows the logical relationships and sequence of activities, making it ideal for sequencing.

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MCQmedium

A project manager is developing a work breakdown structure (WBS) for a software development project. The team is struggling with defining the lowest-level work packages. Which technique should the project manager use to ensure the WBS is complete and properly decomposed?

A.Decomposition

B.Critical path method

C.Expert judgment

D.Rolling wave planning

AnswerA

Decomposition is the technique that subdivides deliverables into work packages.

Why this answer

Decomposition is the correct technique because it is the process of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work package level is reached. This directly addresses the team's struggle with defining the lowest-level work packages, ensuring the WBS is complete and properly decomposed by breaking down deliverables iteratively.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse decomposition with rolling wave planning, thinking that progressive elaboration is the same as breaking down the WBS, but decomposition is a distinct, structured technique applied upfront to create a complete WBS, not a phased planning approach.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the critical path method is a schedule network analysis technique used to determine the longest path through the project and calculate float, not for defining WBS work packages. Option C is wrong because expert judgment, while useful for many planning activities, is a general technique for applying expertise and does not provide the structured, step-by-step decomposition process required to ensure completeness at the work package level. Option D is wrong because rolling wave planning is a progressive elaboration technique where near-term work is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher level; it does not directly address the need to decompose the entire WBS to the lowest level work packages.

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MCQeasy

A key stakeholder requests a new feature after the project requirements have been formally approved and the scope baseline has been set. What is the first process the project manager should follow?

A.Validate Scope to confirm the new feature

B.Submit a change request through Perform Integrated Change Control

C.Control Scope to update the scope baseline

D.Direct and Manage Project Work to incorporate the feature

AnswerB

Any change after baseline must go through the integrated change control process.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because changes require Perform Integrated Change Control. Option B is wrong because Direct and Manage Project Work executes the work, not handles changes. Option C is wrong because Control Scope monitors scope status but does not approve changes.

Option D is wrong because Validate Scope is about acceptance of deliverables.

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MCQeasy

In a predictive project, the project manager needs to estimate the cost of each work package with a high level of accuracy. Which technique is most appropriate?

A.Bottom-up estimating

B.Parametric estimating

C.Expert judgment

D.Three-point estimating

AnswerA

Correct: Estimates each work package individually for high accuracy.

Why this answer

Bottom-up estimating provides the highest accuracy by estimating costs at the work package level and summing them.

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MCQhard

A project manager is using a predictive approach for a construction project. The team has completed 40% of the work, but the actual cost is $500,000 against a planned value of $450,000. The project manager calculates the cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI). Which conclusion is correct?

A.The project is over budget but ahead of schedule

B.The project is on budget and on schedule

C.The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

D.The project is over budget and behind schedule

AnswerD

CPI < 1 (over budget) and SPI < 1 (behind schedule).

Why this answer

The project has completed 40% of the work, so the earned value (EV) is 40% of the total budget. With actual cost (AC) of $500,000 and planned value (PV) of $450,000, the CPI = EV/AC = (0.4 * BAC)/500,000. Since AC > PV and EV < PV (because only 40% of work is done vs. 45% planned), both CPI and SPI are less than 1.0, indicating the project is over budget and behind schedule.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse planned value (PV) with earned value (EV), incorrectly assuming that because AC > PV, the project is over budget but ahead of schedule, when in fact EV must be compared to both PV and AC to determine schedule and cost performance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because being over budget (CPI < 1) does not automatically mean ahead of schedule; SPI must be > 1 for that, but here EV ($400,000 if BAC = $1,000,000) is less than PV ($450,000), so SPI < 1, meaning behind schedule. Option B is wrong because both CPI and SPI would need to equal 1.0, but AC ($500,000) exceeds EV ($400,000) and EV is less than PV ($450,000), so neither index is 1.0. Option C is wrong because under budget requires CPI > 1 (EV > AC), but here EV ($400,000) is less than AC ($500,000), so CPI < 1, and ahead of schedule requires SPI > 1, but EV ($400,000) is less than PV ($450,000), so SPI < 1.

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MCQhard

A project has four tasks with durations: A(4), B(6), C(3), D(5). Precedence: A before B, A before C, B and C before D. What is the float of activity B?

A.0

B.2

C.1

D.3

AnswerA

B is on the critical path (A-B-D duration 15; A-C-D duration 12). So float is 0.

Why this answer

The critical path is A-B-D (15). B has no float because it's on the critical path. Option A is correct.

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MCQmedium

A project team is conducting cost estimation for a project that uses a predictive lifecycle. They have historical data from similar projects. Which estimation technique is MOST appropriate?

A.Three-point estimating

B.Analogous estimating

C.Parametric estimating

D.Bottom-up estimating

AnswerB

Analogous uses historical data from similar projects.

Why this answer

Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects, making it appropriate. Option D is correct.

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MCQeasy

During the planning phase of a predictive project, the project manager notices that the project schedule does not include all required deliverables. What is the most appropriate action to address this gap?

A.Update the schedule to include the missing deliverables directly.

B.Request a change to the project charter to accommodate the missing deliverables.

C.Review the scope statement and add more resources to the project.

D.Review the work breakdown structure (WBS) to ensure all deliverables are represented.

AnswerD

The WBS captures all deliverables; if it is incomplete, the schedule will be incomplete.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the work breakdown structure (WBS) decomposes deliverables into work packages, ensuring all are captured. Option A is wrong because increasing resources would not identify missing deliverables. Option C is wrong because the schedule is derived from the WBS, not vice versa.

Option D is wrong because updating the schedule without first updating the WBS would create an incomplete baseline.

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MCQhard

During project execution, a stakeholder requests a new feature that was not in the original scope. The project manager determines that the feature can be accommodated without affecting the critical path, but will increase costs. According to the predictive plan-based methodology, what should the project manager do NEXT?

A.Approve the change to improve stakeholder satisfaction

B.Inform the stakeholder that the change cannot be accepted

C.Submit the change request to the change control board

D.Update the project management plan to include the feature

AnswerC

Formal change control requires submitting a change request to the CCB for review.

Why this answer

All changes must go through formal change control. The project manager should submit a change request to the change control board (CCB) for evaluation and approval. Approving the change unilaterally or updating the plan without approval violates the change management process.

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MCQmedium

A project is in the execution phase. The earned value analysis shows a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.8 and a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 0.9. What is the best interpretation of these metrics?

A.The project is over budget and behind schedule.

B.The project is under budget but behind schedule.

C.The project is over budget but ahead of schedule.

D.The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

AnswerA

CPI = 0.8 means the project is over budget (cost overrun), SPI = 0.9 means behind schedule.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because CPI < 1 indicates cost overrun, and SPI < 1 indicates schedule behind. Option A is wrong because it claims ahead of schedule. Option C is wrong because it claims under budget.

Option D is wrong because it claims both under budget and ahead of schedule.

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MCQhard

In a predictive project, the project sponsor requests a scope change that will significantly increase the project cost. The project manager should FIRST:

A.Reject the change as it impacts budget

B.Evaluate the impact of the change on the project constraints

C.Update the project charter

D.Implement the change immediately

AnswerB

The first step is to analyze the change's effect on scope, schedule, cost, and quality.

Why this answer

When a scope change is requested, the project manager must first evaluate the impact on project constraints (cost, schedule, quality, etc.) before proceeding. Updating the charter or rejecting the change without evaluation is premature.

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Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is using a predictive approach to create a WBS. Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a well-constructed WBS? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers

A.The lowest level is a work package.

B.The WBS includes only the deliverables of the project sponsor.

C.The WBS is created solely by the project manager.

D.Each element represents a single deliverable.

E.Each work package is assigned to multiple departments.

AnswersA, D

Correct: The lowest level of the WBS is a work package.

Why this answer

A well-constructed WBS consists of deliverables decomposed to work packages. Options A and B are correct.

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Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps for controlling project changes according to the integrated change control process.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps

Order

Why this order

Change control involves submitting, reviewing, deciding, updating plans, and communicating outcomes.

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Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a predictive life cycle?

Select 2 answers

A.Scope is defined at the beginning of the project

B.Changes are welcomed and incorporated at any time

C.Requirements are gathered incrementally throughout the project

D.Deliverables are developed through multiple iterations

E.Detailed planning is performed for the entire project

AnswersA, E

Predictive life cycles require detailed scope definition early.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because in a predictive life cycle, the project scope is defined and baselined at the start, before execution begins. This upfront planning ensures that all requirements are known and documented, allowing for a detailed project management plan to guide the entire project.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the confusion between predictive and iterative life cycles, where candidates mistakenly think that incremental requirements gathering or iterative delivery can occur in a predictive model, but the key distinction is that predictive life cycles perform all planning upfront and deliver the product in a single final release.

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Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are key components of a project management plan for a predictive project?

Select 3 answers

A.Schedule baseline

B.Quality management plan

C.Cost performance index

D.Risk register

E.Scope management plan

AnswersA, B, E

The schedule baseline is a component of the project management plan.

Why this answer

The project management plan includes subsidiary management plans (e.g., scope, schedule, cost, quality, etc.) and baselines (scope, schedule, cost). The risk register is a project document, not part of the plan. The cost performance index is a performance measure, not a plan component.

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MCQeasy

During the execution phase of a predictive project, the team discovers that a key deliverable does not meet the acceptance criteria defined in the project management plan. What is the FIRST step the project manager should take?

A.Re-baseline the schedule

B.Conduct a root cause analysis

C.Initiate a change request

D.Update the risk register

AnswerC

A change request is necessary to formally address the defect and obtain approval for corrective action.

Why this answer

The first step is to initiate a change request to correct the defect, as changes to deliverables require formal change control. Updating the risk register or re-baselining without change authorization is incorrect. Root cause analysis may follow but is not the immediate first step.

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MCQeasy

A construction project has a predefined budget and strict deadline. The project manager is using a work breakdown structure (WBS) to decompose deliverables. Which level of the WBS provides the basis for estimating and scheduling?

A.WBS dictionary

B.Control account

C.Planning package

D.Work package

AnswerD

Work packages are the lowest level of the WBS and are used for estimating and scheduling.

Why this answer

The work package is the lowest level of the WBS and is used as the basis for estimating and scheduling. Option A is correct.

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MCQeasy

Based on the exhibit, what is the estimated cost for the network cabling work package?

A.$20,000

B.$15,000

C.$12,000

D.$10,000

AnswerB

The dictionary explicitly states $15,000.

Why this answer

Option C is correct. The WBS dictionary shows Cost: $15,000. Option A, B, D are incorrect.

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Multi-Selecthard

A project manager is developing the project schedule using a predictive approach. The project involves multiple dependencies and a critical path that has been identified. Which TWO of the following are valid techniques for schedule compression that can be applied to activities on the critical path?

Select 2 answers

A.Crashing - adding resources to critical path activities to reduce duration.

B.Resource leveling - adjusting start and finish dates based on resource constraints.

C.Fast-tracking - performing critical path activities in parallel that were originally sequential.

D.Monte Carlo simulation - analyzing probable schedule outcomes.

E.Critical chain method - adding buffers to protect the schedule.

AnswersA, C

Crashing is a compression technique that involves adding resources to shorten duration, typically increasing cost.

Why this answer

Crashing is a schedule compression technique that involves adding resources to critical path activities to reduce their duration, directly shortening the overall project schedule. This is valid because it focuses on the critical path, where any duration reduction directly impacts the project end date.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the distinction between schedule compression techniques (crashing and fast-tracking) and resource optimization or risk analysis techniques, leading candidates to confuse resource leveling or Monte Carlo simulation as compression methods.

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MCQhard

A project has a critical path duration of 45 days. Activity X on the critical path can be crashed by 3 days at an additional cost of $500 per day. Activity Y, a non-critical activity with 10 days of float, can also be crashed by 3 days at $600 per day. The project manager wants to reduce the project duration by 3 days at minimum cost. What should the project manager do?

A.Crash Activity X by 3 days for $1,500

B.Crash both activities by 3 days for $3,300

C.Crash Activity Y by 1 day for $600 and Activity X by 2 days for $1,000

D.Crash Activity Y by 3 days for $1,800

AnswerA

This reduces the critical path by 3 days at the lowest cost.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because crashing Activity X on the critical path directly reduces the project duration. Option B is wrong because crashing Activity Y does not reduce the overall project duration since it has float. Option C is wrong because crashing both is unnecessary and more expensive.

Option D is wrong because crashing a non-critical activity does not affect the critical path.

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MCQmedium

During the creation of the project schedule, a project manager needs to identify and document the logical relationships among activities. Which technique should be used?

A.Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

B.Resource leveling

C.Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

D.Gantt chart

AnswerC

PDM creates a network diagram with dependencies (FS, FF, SS, SF) essential for schedule development.

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MCQhard

A project manager is performing risk response planning for a high-priority risk. The risk has a high probability and high impact. Which response strategy is most appropriate to reduce the probability and/or impact?

A.Mitigate

B.Transfer

C.Accept

D.Avoid

AnswerA

Correct: Mitigate reduces probability or impact, appropriate for high-priority risks.

Why this answer

Mitigate is the strategy to reduce the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk. Avoid eliminates the risk, transfer shifts it, and acceptance is passive.

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MCQhard

Based on the exhibit, which activity has the highest risk of delaying the project if it is delayed by one day?

A.Activity B

B.Activity C

C.Activity E

D.Activity A

AnswerA

Activity B has zero total float, so any delay will directly delay the project end date. It is on the critical path and all its successors are also critical, making it a high-risk activity.

Why this answer

Activity B is on the critical path, which is the longest sequence of dependent activities determining the project's minimum duration. Any delay to a critical path activity directly delays the project's finish date by the same amount. In the exhibit, the critical path is A-B-D-F, so a one-day delay to Activity B pushes the project end by one day.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the misconception that any activity with a large duration or high visibility is riskier, but the trap here is that only activities on the critical path (zero float) cause immediate project delay; non-critical activities with positive float can be delayed without impacting the project finish date.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Activity A is on the critical path, but the question asks which activity has the highest risk of delaying the project if delayed by one day — all critical path activities have equal risk, but the correct answer is B because it is the only critical path activity listed that is not A, C, or E. Option C is wrong because Activity C has total float (likely 2 days), so a one-day delay does not affect the project finish date. Option E is wrong because Activity E also has total float (likely 1 day), so a one-day delay would not delay the project unless it exceeds its float.

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MCQhard

Based on the exhibit, what is the critical path duration of the project?

A.10 days

B.11 days

C.12 days

D.13 days

AnswerC

Path A-C-D-E is 12 days, the longest path.

Why this answer

The critical path is the longest path through the project network diagram, determining the shortest possible project duration. By summing the durations along each path, Path A→B→E→G→H has a total duration of 2+3+4+2+1 = 12 days, which is longer than all other paths, making 12 days the correct critical path duration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often mistakenly sum the durations of all tasks or pick a path that appears longest visually but contains a dependency error, such as ignoring that tasks must be on a continuous sequence without gaps.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 10 days would require a path shorter than the actual critical path, ignoring the cumulative durations of tasks on the longest sequence. Option B is wrong because 11 days might result from incorrectly summing a non-critical path or omitting a task's duration (e.g., missing task G's 2 days). Option D is wrong because 13 days would require adding an extra day not present in any path, possibly from double-counting a task or misreading the diagram.

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Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the 'Define Activities' process in predictive project management?

Select 2 answers

A.Project schedule

B.Activity attributes

C.Work breakdown structure

D.Activity list

E.Resource breakdown structure

AnswersB, D

Activity attributes are an extension of the activity list and are output during Define Activities.

Why this answer

The Define Activities process produces the activity list and activity attributes. The milestone list is also an output, but it is not included here as a correct option to maintain exactly two correct answers. The work breakdown structure is an input, and the project schedule is an output of Develop Schedule.

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MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. Which risk requires the most immediate response attention?

A.R1

B.R2

C.R4

D.R3

AnswerD

R3 has the highest risk level (high-high) and demands immediate attention.

Why this answer

Risk with high probability and high impact (high-high) has the highest priority and requires immediate response. R3 has both high probability and high impact, and the planned response is 'Avoid', reflecting the need for immediate action. R1 and R2 have only one high dimension, and R4 is low-low.

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Multi-Selecteasy

A project manager is preparing a rough order of magnitude estimate. Which two techniques are best suited for this type of estimate? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers

A.Bottom-up estimating

B.Parametric estimating

C.Expert judgment

D.Three-point estimating

E.Analogous estimating

AnswersB, E

Correct: Parametric uses statistical models and parameters for rapid estimates.

Why this answer

Rough order of magnitude estimates use top-down techniques such as analogous and parametric estimating, which are quick and based on historical data.

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MCQmedium

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What should the project manager do first?

A.Implement the change and update the project plan

B.Submit a change request to the change control board

C.Update the project baseline immediately

D.Reject the change because it impacts the baseline

AnswerB

Formal change request is the first step.

Why this answer

In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow a formal change control process. The project manager first assesses the impact, then submits a change request to the Change Control Board (CCB) for approval before any action is taken. Implementing the change or updating baselines without CCB approval violates the control scope process defined in the PMBOK Guide.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume the project manager has the authority to approve or reject changes that impact baselines, but in predictive methodologies, only the CCB can make that decision after a formal change request is submitted.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because implementing the change without CCB approval bypasses the formal change control system, which is required when scope, budget, or schedule are affected. Option C is wrong because updating the project baseline immediately is a premature action that should only occur after the change request is approved by the CCB. Option D is wrong because rejecting the change outright is not the project manager's role; the change must be formally evaluated and submitted to the CCB for a decision, even if it impacts the baseline.

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MCQmedium

A project team is troubleshooting a delay in the critical path. The project manager identifies that a non-critical activity has slipped by five days but the project end date remains unchanged. What is the most likely reason for this?

A.The team used crashing to accelerate the non-critical activity.

B.The slipped activity has sufficient total float to absorb the delay without affecting the critical path.

C.The slipped activity is actually on the critical path and the end date was recalculated incorrectly.

D.The project manager applied fast tracking to overlap the slipped activity with its successor.

AnswerB

Total float allows non-critical activities to slip without impacting project completion.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because activities not on the critical path have total float; a slip within float does not affect the end date. Option A is wrong because crashing would compress the schedule, not explain unchanged end date. Option B is wrong because if it were on the critical path, the end date would change.

Option D is wrong because fast tracking overlaps activities, but that is a technique to compress, not a natural outcome.

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MCQeasy

A project manager is developing a work breakdown structure (WBS) for a construction project. Which approach should be used to ensure all deliverables are identified?

A.Analogous estimating

B.Bottom-up estimating

C.Decomposition

D.Rolling wave planning

AnswerC

Correct: Decomposition is the hierarchical breakdown of the total scope of work into smaller components.

Why this answer

Decomposition is the process of breaking down deliverables into smaller components, which ensures all are identified. Other options are estimating or planning techniques.

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MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. A system administrator sees this error repeatedly. What is the most likely cause?

A.The client IP is not allowed to access the /admin/ directory.

B.The web server is misconfigured for SSL.

C.The /admin/ directory does not exist.

D.The file permissions on /var/www/html are incorrect.

AnswerA

Correct: The error says 'client denied by server configuration', meaning access control is denying the request.

Why this answer

The error message explicitly states that the client was denied by server configuration, indicating access rules are blocking the client.

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MCQmedium

During a predictive project's execution phase, a key stakeholder requests a change that adds a minor feature. The project manager assesses the impact and determines the change will increase cost by 5% and extend the schedule by two days, which is within the contingency reserves. What should the project manager do first?

A.Submit a change request to the change control board (CCB).

B.Approve the change immediately and inform the team.

C.Update the project charter to reflect the new feature.

D.Implement the change since it is within the contingency reserves.

AnswerA

This follows the formal change control process.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because the change control process requires submitting the change request to the change control board (CCB) for approval before implementation. Option A is wrong because implementing without approval bypasses change control. Option B is wrong because the project charter is not updated for minor changes; that is part of integrated change control.

Option C is wrong because the project manager cannot unilaterally approve changes unless given authority; the CCB typically approves.

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MCQmedium

A software development project is using a predictive approach with a detailed project schedule based on the critical path method (CPM). The project is currently in the execution phase. The team reports that a critical task (Task X) is two weeks behind schedule. Task X has a total float of 0 and has two immediate successors: Task Y and Task Z, both of which are also on the critical path. The project manager has the ability to add resources to overlapping tasks. The project sponsor is concerned about the schedule delay and wants a recovery plan. The project manager needs to determine the best course of action to get the project back on track without impacting quality or budget excessively.

A.Reduce the scope of Task X to meet the original deadline.

B.Re-baseline the schedule to reflect the delay and inform the sponsor.

C.Crash Task X by adding more resources to complete it faster.

D.Fast-track the successors by starting them as soon as possible even if the predecessor is incomplete.

AnswerC

Crashing is appropriate for critical path tasks to reduce duration with additional resources.

Why this answer

Crashing the critical task is the most direct way to recover the schedule. Option B is correct.

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