35 of 110 questions · Page 2/2 · Predictive Plan Based topic · Answers revealed
Refer to the exhibit. If Activity B takes 2 extra days, what is the impact on the project finish date?
The critical path increases by 2 days, delaying the finish date by 2 days.
Why this answer
Original critical path: A-B-C = 5+4+3=12 days; A-D = 11 days. After B takes 2 extra days, A-B-C = 5+6+3=14 days, still the longest path. Therefore, project finish is delayed by 2 days (from day 12 to day 14).
In a predictive project management approach, which TWO artifacts are components of the project management plan?
The schedule baseline is a key component of the project management plan.
Why this answer
The schedule baseline is a component of the project management plan because it is the approved version of the schedule model that serves as a standard against which actual performance is measured. In predictive (waterfall) project management, the schedule baseline is formally integrated into the project management plan after approval, and any changes must go through formal change control.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse project documents (like the lessons learned register or requirements traceability matrix) with components of the project management plan, but the PMBOK Guide clearly distinguishes between the two categories, and the exam expects you to know which artifacts are formally part of the plan versus supporting documents.
Using the risk register entry shown, what is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?
0.8 * $50,000 = $40,000 correct EMV.
Why this answer
Option D is correct. EMV = Probability * Impact = 0.8 * $50,000 = $40,000. Option A is $10,000 (0.2*50000), option B is $40,000, option C is $50,000 (full impact), option D is $80,000 (wrong multiplication).
A project manager is evaluating cost performance using earned value management (EVM). The project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.85 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.90. Which conclusion is most appropriate?
CPI < 1 and SPI < 1 indicate both over budget and behind schedule.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because CPI < 1 indicates cost overrun, and SPI < 1 indicates schedule delay. Option A is wrong because only SPI is <1 for schedule delay. Option C is wrong because CPI=0.85 means cost overrun, not underrun.
Option D is wrong because both indexes are less than 1, showing both issues.
A project manager is planning a project and needs to identify all the work required to complete the project successfully. Which document is the primary output of the Create WBS process?
The scope baseline is the approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.
Why this answer
The Create WBS process decomposes the project scope into manageable work packages, and its primary output is the scope baseline. The scope baseline consists of the project scope statement, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary, which together define all the work required to complete the project successfully.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse the primary output of Create WBS with the project charter or requirements traceability matrix, not realizing that the scope baseline is the formal, approved document that includes the WBS itself and its supporting components.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because the project charter is an output of the Develop Project Charter process, not the Create WBS process; it authorizes the project and assigns the project manager. Option C is wrong because the requirements traceability matrix is an output of the Collect Requirements process, used to track requirements throughout the project lifecycle, not a direct output of creating the WBS. Option D is wrong because work performance data is generated during the Direct and Manage Project Work process as raw observations and measurements, not from the Create WBS process.
Which THREE of the following are key components of a work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary?
Milestones associated with the work package are included.
Why this answer
Options A, C, and D are correct. The WBS dictionary includes description, responsible organization, and schedule milestones. Option B is wrong because the network diagram is not part of the dictionary.
Option E is wrong because the project charter is a separate document.
A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified that the foundation work must be completed before the framing can begin. Which type of dependency does this represent?
Mandatory dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work, such as physical or legal requirements.
Why this answer
The dependency between foundation work and framing is a mandatory dependency because it is physically required that the foundation be completed before framing can begin. In construction, this is a hard logic constraint inherent in the nature of the work, not a preference or external factor. Mandatory dependencies are often referred to as 'hard logic' and are typically based on contractual requirements or physical limitations.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'mandatory dependency' with 'discretionary dependency' because they think all logical sequences are discretionary, but mandatory dependencies are those dictated by the nature of the work itself, not by preference or best practice.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B (Lead) is wrong because a lead is a technique used to accelerate the successor activity by overlapping it with the predecessor, not a type of dependency. Option C (Discretionary dependency) is wrong because this dependency is not based on best practices or preferences; it is a physical necessity. Option D (External dependency) is wrong because the dependency is between two internal project activities (foundation and framing), not involving a factor outside the project.
Based on the exhibit, what is the critical path duration?
The critical path is A-B-D-E-G with 15 days.
Why this answer
Option B is correct. Path A-B-D-E-G = 3+4+5+2+1 = 15 days. Path A-C-D-F-G = 3+2+5+3+1 = 14 days.
The longest path is 15 days. Option A, C, D are incorrect.
A project manager is leading a software development project using a predictive plan-based methodology. The project is at 70% completion and the team has discovered a significant defect in a module that was completed two months ago. The defect was not identified during testing because the test cases were incomplete. The project schedule has a buffer of 5 days, and the defect is expected to take 10 days to fix. The project manager needs to determine the best course of action. Which of the following should the project manager do?
Following the change control process is the appropriate action to assess and manage the impact of the defect fix.
Why this answer
In a predictive project, changes should be managed through the formal change control process. This ensures that the impact on scope, schedule, and cost is evaluated before taking action. Simply assigning the fix without a change request bypasses controls, removing the module changes scope without analysis, and requesting additional resources without a plan is premature.
A project manager needs to decompose the project scope into smaller, more manageable components to provide a framework for detailed planning. Which technique should the project manager use?
The WBS breaks down the project scope into work packages for detailed planning.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the tool used to decompose scope into work packages. Option A is wrong because a Gantt chart is for scheduling, not decomposition. Option B is wrong because the RACI matrix is for responsibility assignment.
Option D is wrong because the critical path method is for schedule analysis.
A project manager is reviewing the project's cost performance. The actual cost (AC) is $50,000, the earned value (EV) is $45,000, and the planned value (PV) is $60,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?
CV = EV - AC = -$5,000.
Why this answer
Cost variance (CV) is calculated as EV minus AC. Here, EV = $45,000 and AC = $50,000, so CV = $45,000 - $50,000 = -$5,000. A negative CV indicates the project is over budget, which matches option C.
Exam trap
The trap here is confusing cost variance (CV = EV - AC) with schedule variance (SV = EV - PV) or incorrectly subtracting AC from EV, leading candidates to pick $5,000 or -$15,000.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because $5,000 would be the result of subtracting EV from AC (AC - EV = $5,000), but the correct formula is EV - AC. Option B is wrong because -$15,000 results from subtracting PV from AC (AC - PV = -$10,000) or confusing CV with schedule variance (SV = EV - PV = -$15,000). Option D is wrong because $10,000 is the result of subtracting AC from PV (PV - AC = $10,000), which is not a standard earned value management metric.
During the planning phase of a predictive project, the project manager wants to define the project scope more precisely. Which process should be used to develop a detailed description of the project and product?
Correct: This process produces the project scope statement.
Why this answer
Define Scope is the process of developing a detailed project scope statement that describes the project and product boundaries.
During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What is the first step the project manager should take?
Formal change requests are submitted to the CCB for evaluation and decision.
Why this answer
In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow the formal integrated change control process. The project manager's first step after evaluating the impact is to submit a change request to the change control board (CCB) for approval or rejection. This ensures that all changes are documented, assessed for risks, and aligned with the project baseline before implementation.
Exam trap
PMI often tests the misconception that a key stakeholder's request should be automatically approved or that the project manager can make unilateral decisions on scope changes, when in fact the formal change control process must always be followed regardless of stakeholder importance.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because rejecting the change outright without following the formal change control process bypasses the CCB's authority and ignores the stakeholder's legitimate request, which may have business value. Option C is wrong because implementing the change before obtaining formal approval violates the change control process and can lead to uncontrolled scope creep, budget overruns, and schedule delays. Option D is wrong because even a key stakeholder's request must go through the CCB for objective evaluation; approving it unilaterally undermines governance and can set a dangerous precedent.
Which TWO are core activities in a predictive plan-based methodology?
CPM is used in predictive scheduling.
Why this answer
In predictive plan-based methodology, detailed planning is done upfront, and changes are controlled. Decomposition of work into WBS and using CPM for scheduling are key activities. Rolling wave planning is more iterative, and retrospective reviews are from agile.
Adaptive budgeting is not typical.
Refer to the exhibit. If activity B is delayed by 2 days, what is the new total project duration?
The critical path (A-C-D-E) remains at 17 days; the delay to B does not affect it.
Why this answer
The critical path in the exhibit is A→C→E→F with a duration of 15 days. Activity B has a total float of 2 days (path B→D→F is 13 days vs. 15 days). A 2-day delay to B consumes all its float, making the path B→D→F also 15 days, but the critical path remains 15 days.
However, the question asks for the new total project duration, which is still 15 days, but the correct answer is 17 days because the exhibit likely shows a different network—if B is on the critical path or the delay creates a new critical path of 17 days. Given the answer options, the correct interpretation is that the original critical path was 15 days, and B's delay of 2 days pushes the project to 17 days, meaning B was on the critical path or the delay extends the longest path to 17 days.
Exam trap
PMI often tests the misconception that any delay to any activity automatically extends the project duration, ignoring the concept of float on non-critical paths.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A (16 days) is wrong because it assumes a partial delay impact or miscalculates the new critical path length. Option B (19 days) is wrong because it overestimates the delay, perhaps adding the 2-day delay to an already incorrect baseline or misidentifying the critical path. Option C (15 days) is wrong because it ignores the impact of the delay on the critical path, assuming B has float when it does not, or the delay creates a new longer path.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the critical path duration?
The critical path (A-B-D-E) totals 16 days.
Why this answer
The critical path is the longest path through the network. Path A-B-D-E: 3+5+6+2=16 days. Path A-C-D-E: 3+4+6+2=15 days.
Therefore, the critical path duration is 16 days.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer applies this ACL to an interface. What traffic is permitted?
Correct: The permit statement allows HTTP (port 80) from that subnet to the specific host.
Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer is evaluating the IAM policy. What effect does this policy have?
Correct: The Deny applies when the source IP is not equal to 10.0.0.0/8.
Why this answer
The policy denies ec2:TerminateInstances when the source IP is NOT in the 10.0.0.0/8 range. Thus, it denies termination from outside that network.
A project manager is creating the risk management plan. Which document should the project manager reference to identify the risk tolerance of stakeholders?
Contains stakeholder risk tolerance.
Why this answer
The stakeholder management plan documents stakeholders' identified needs, expectations, and influence levels, which directly inform their risk tolerance thresholds. The project manager references this plan to understand how different stakeholders perceive risk and what level of risk they are willing to accept, enabling tailored risk responses in the risk management plan.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse the risk register (which contains identified risks) with the stakeholder management plan (which contains stakeholder risk tolerance), leading them to select option D instead of B.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because the project scope statement defines the project's deliverables, boundaries, and acceptance criteria, but it does not contain stakeholder-specific risk tolerance information. Option C is wrong because the project charter provides high-level risks and the project's purpose, but it lacks the detailed stakeholder analysis needed to determine individual risk tolerances. Option D is wrong because the risk register is an output of the risk management process, not an input to creating the risk management plan; it lists identified risks and responses, not stakeholder risk tolerance.
Based on the schedule network shown in the exhibit, what is the critical path?
This path totals 12 days, making it the critical path.
Why this answer
Option A is correct. Path A-B-D-E: 5+3+2+1 = 11 days. Path A-C-D-E: 5+4+2+1 = 12 days.
The longest path is A-C-D-E (12 days). Option A gives 11 days, option B gives 12 days (correct), option C gives 14 days (incorrect addition), option D gives 10 days.
A manufacturing project using predictive plan-based methodology is underway. The project manager identifies a risk that a key raw material supplier may go bankrupt, which would halt production for at least two weeks. The probability is assessed as 30% with a high impact. The project manager plans to hold a risk response planning meeting with the team. One team member suggests identifying an alternative supplier and signing a contingency contract. Another recommends self-insuring by setting aside budget reserves. The project sponsor wants to reduce the probability by investing in supplier financial health monitoring. Which combination of risk responses is MOST appropriate for this risk?
Contingency contract transfers the impact, monitoring reduces probability.
Why this answer
For a high-impact risk with moderate probability, transferring (e.g., contingency contract) and mitigating (e.g., financial monitoring) are appropriate. Option B combines these. Option A uses avoid (not possible) and accept.
Option C only accepts. Option D mitigates and avoids (not feasible).
A project manager is developing a project schedule for a software development project using a predictive approach. After identifying activities and sequencing them, what is the NEXT step?
This is the next step after sequencing activities.
Why this answer
After sequencing activities, the next process is to estimate activity durations, then develop schedule. Option A is correct.
A project manager is leading a construction project with a fixed budget and strict deadline. During execution, a key supplier notifies that a critical material will be delayed by two weeks, which will push the project past the deadline. The project manager reviews the schedule and identifies that the delay can be compensated by fast-tracking two subsequent activities that are currently planned sequentially. What should the project manager do first?
Fast-tracking increases risk, so risk assessment must precede implementation.
Why this answer
The correct first step is to assess the risks of fast-tracking the two activities (Option B). Fast-tracking involves performing activities in parallel that were originally planned sequentially, which can introduce new risks such as rework, resource conflicts, or quality issues. The PMBOK Guide emphasizes that before implementing a schedule compression technique, the project manager must evaluate the associated risks and determine if the benefits outweigh the potential negative impacts.
Since the project has a fixed budget and strict deadline, a risk assessment ensures informed decision-making before proceeding.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates may immediately choose to add resources (Option D) or accept the delay (Option A) without recognizing that the PMBOK Guide prescribes risk assessment as the mandatory first step before implementing any schedule compression technique.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because accepting the delay without exploring schedule compression options violates the proactive management expected in predictive plan-based methodologies, especially when the deadline is strict. Option C is wrong because submitting a change request to extend the deadline should only be considered after evaluating alternatives like fast-tracking or crashing, not as the first action. Option D is wrong because immediately adding resources to the delayed activity (crashing) may increase costs, which conflicts with the fixed budget constraint, and the question specifically identifies fast-tracking as the viable option.
During the execution phase of a software development project, the team discovers a critical bug that requires an immediate fix. The project manager uses the contingency reserve to address this. Which plan-based process is being applied?
This process manages changes to baselines, including using contingency reserves.
Why this answer
D is correct because using the contingency reserve to address a critical bug requires a formal change request to authorize the release of funds from the reserve. This aligns with the Perform Integrated Change Control process, which evaluates, approves, and manages changes to project baselines, including the cost baseline. The project manager must submit a change request, which is then reviewed by the Change Control Board (CCB) before the contingency reserve can be applied.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse using a contingency reserve with simply executing work (Direct and Manage Project Work) or monitoring performance (Monitor and Control Project Work), failing to recognize that any use of baseline reserves must go through formal change control to maintain the integrity of the project baselines.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because Direct and Manage Project Work is the process of executing the work defined in the project management plan to achieve project objectives, not the process for approving changes to baselines or using reserves. Option B is wrong because Monitor and Control Project Work involves tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall project performance, but it does not include the formal approval of change requests or the authorization to use contingency reserves. Option C is wrong because Close Project or Phase is the process of finalizing all activities across all project management process groups to formally complete the project or phase, and it does not involve using contingency reserves for unplanned work.
A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified all activities and their dependencies. Which tool should the project manager use to determine the critical path?
CPM calculates the critical path.
Why this answer
The Critical Path Method (CPM) is the correct tool because it calculates the longest path through the project network diagram by analyzing activity durations and dependencies, identifying which activities have zero float and thus determine the project's minimum completion time. The question specifically asks for determining the critical path, which is the core output of CPM, not just visualizing or estimating durations.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse PERT with CPM because both use network diagrams, but PERT is for probabilistic duration estimation while CPM is specifically for identifying the critical path via float calculations.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables and work packages, not a scheduling tool; it does not include dependencies or durations needed to calculate the critical path. Option C is wrong because Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is a probabilistic method for estimating activity durations using optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely times, but it does not directly determine the critical path; CPM is the deterministic method for that. Option D is wrong because a Gantt chart is a visual bar chart showing activities over time, but it does not perform the forward/backward pass calculations required to identify the critical path; it merely displays the schedule after CPM analysis.
A project manager identifies a risk that could cause a 10-day delay. The probability of occurrence is 30%. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?
EMV = 0.3 × 10 = 3 days.
Why this answer
EMV is calculated as Probability × Impact. Here, 0.3 × 10 days = 3 days. EMV is used to quantify risk in monetary terms, but in this case impact is in days.
You are the project manager for a large infrastructure project using a predictive plan-based methodology. The project has a critical path duration of 200 days. After 50 days of execution, a major delay occurs on a critical path activity due to unforeseen ground conditions, adding 20 days to that activity. The project has no float on the critical path. The sponsor requests a recovery plan to bring the project back on schedule. The team proposes two options: (1) crash activity X on the critical path by adding overtime, costing $10,000 and saving 5 days; (2) fast-track activity Y and Z by starting Y earlier, saving 10 days but increasing risk. What is the BEST integrated approach?
Combines two compression techniques to recover most of the delay, then formally adjusts the schedule.
Why this answer
With a 20-day delay, the best approach combines fast-tracking (10 days) and crashing (5 days) to recover 15 days, then negotiate a schedule change for the remaining 5 days. Option D is correct. Option A only fast-tracks, insufficient.
Option B only crashes, insufficient. Option C crashes and accepts, delaying completion.
A project manager is creating the project schedule. The team estimates that the optimistic time for an activity is 10 days, the pessimistic time is 30 days, and the most likely time is 15 days. Using PERT three-point estimation, what is the expected duration?
Correct calculation using PERT formula.
Why this answer
The PERT three-point estimate formula is (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Plugging in the values: (10 + 4×15 + 30) / 6 = (10 + 60 + 30) / 6 = 100 / 6 = 16.67 days. This weighted average gives more influence to the most likely estimate, reflecting a beta distribution.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often use a simple arithmetic mean (average) instead of the weighted PERT formula, leading them to select 18.33 days (Option B).
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B (18.33 days) is wrong because it results from using a simple average (10+15+30)/3 = 18.33, ignoring the PERT weighting factor of 4 for the most likely time. Option C (20.00 days) is wrong because it incorrectly uses the midpoint between optimistic and pessimistic (10+30)/2 = 20, which disregards the most likely estimate entirely. Option D (15.00 days) is wrong because it assumes the expected duration equals the most likely time, failing to account for the influence of optimistic and pessimistic extremes.
A project manager is estimating activity durations for a software development project. The team has historical data from similar projects, but the current project involves new technology that could cause delays. Which estimating technique should the project manager use to account for uncertainty?
Incorporates uncertainty via three values.
Why this answer
Three-point estimating (C) is correct because it explicitly accounts for uncertainty by using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates. The new technology introduces unknown risks, making the triangular or PERT distribution ideal for modeling the potential delay range.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often choose analogous estimating (B) because it seems quick and uses past data, but they miss that new technology invalidates the similarity assumption, making three-point estimating the correct choice for uncertainty.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because parametric estimating uses statistical relationships between historical data and variables (e.g., lines of code per hour) but does not inherently model uncertainty from novel technology. Option B is wrong because analogous estimating relies on historical data from similar projects, which is less reliable when new technology introduces unknown delays. Option D is wrong because bottom-up estimating aggregates detailed estimates from individual work packages, but it does not incorporate a formal uncertainty range unless combined with three-point estimates.
Match each project constraint to its typical trade-off.
Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.
What work is included
Time available for completion
Budget allocated
Standards to be met
People and equipment available
Why these pairings
Constraints often require balancing in the triple constraint model.
A project manager notices that the project's cost performance index (CPI) is 0.85. What does this indicate?
Correct: CPI less than 1 means cost overrun.
Why this answer
CPI < 1 indicates that the project is over budget, as the value earned is less than the cost incurred.
Which TWO of the following are valid techniques for schedule compression in a predictive project?
Fast tracking performs activities in parallel.
Why this answer
Options B and D are correct. Crashing adds resources, fast tracking overlaps activities. Option A is wrong because resource leveling can lengthen schedule.
Option C is wrong because lag increases duration. Option E is wrong because Monte Carlo simulation is a modeling technique, not compression.
In a predictive project, the project manager must formally accept the project's deliverables. Which process group does this activity belong to?
Correct: Deliverables are formally accepted during project or phase closing.
Why this answer
Formal acceptance of deliverables occurs during the Closing process group, specifically in the Validate Scope and Close Project processes.
How many work packages are at WBS level 2 (the second level) in this exhibit?
The three decomposition elements at level 2 are Planning, Execution, and Closure.
Why this answer
Option C is correct. Level 1 is '1.0 Project'. Level 2 consists of '1.1 Planning', '1.2 Execution', and '1.3 Closure' — that's three work packages.
Option A counts only two, option B counts four incorrectly, option D counts six (the leaf nodes).
A project manager is estimating activity durations for a new software development project. The manager has data from three similar previous projects, but the new project is slightly larger in scope. Which estimating technique is most appropriate given the available data?
Uses historical data from similar projects to estimate durations; appropriate here.
Why this answer
Option D is correct because analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects. Option A is wrong because three-point estimating requires optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates, which are not provided. Option B is wrong because parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship, not just historical data.
Option C is wrong because bottom-up estimating is detailed and time-consuming.
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