75 of 118 questions · Page 1/2 · Pm Fundamentals Core topic · Answers revealed
Match each project role to its responsibility.
Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.
Leads project team and manages constraints
Provides resources and champions project
Defines product backlog and priorities
Facilitates Scrum process and removes impediments
Elicits and documents requirements
Why these pairings
Clear roles ensure accountability in projects.
A project manager wants to ensure that all project documents are properly managed and approved. Which process group focuses on controlling changes to project documents?
This process group tracks, reviews, and regulates project performance, including change control.
Why this answer
Option D is correct. The Monitoring and Controlling process group includes the perform integrated change control process, which manages change requests and updates to project documents.
During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that would add a new feature. The project manager assesses the impact and finds that it will increase the project cost by 15% and extend the schedule by three weeks. The sponsor is concerned about the budget but sees the value. What should the project manager do next?
The formal change control process ensures all impacts are considered and approved by the CCB.
Why this answer
In project management, once a change is assessed for impact, the project manager must follow the formal change control process. Since the change increases cost by 15% and extends the schedule by three weeks, it exceeds typical contingency thresholds and requires approval from the Change Control Board (CCB), which has the authority to approve or reject changes that affect baselines. Option B is correct because submitting to the CCB ensures proper governance and alignment with the project's change management plan.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates may assume the project manager has authority to approve changes based on stakeholder influence or sponsor support, but the CAPM exam emphasizes that any change affecting baselines must go through the formal CCB process, regardless of stakeholder power or perceived value.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because even if the stakeholder is influential and the sponsor sees value, the project manager cannot unilaterally approve a change that impacts cost and schedule baselines; this bypasses the formal change control process and could lead to scope creep. Option C is wrong because implementing the change immediately without formal approval violates the change control process and risks unauthorized changes, which can cause budget overruns and schedule delays without proper documentation. Option D is wrong because rejecting the change outright without submitting it to the CCB ignores the sponsor's interest in the value and the stakeholder's request; the project manager should not make a unilateral decision on changes that affect baselines.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the probability and impact values, which risk has the highest risk score?
R3 score is 0.54, the highest.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because R3 has a score of 0.54 (0.6*0.9), which is the highest. R1=0.15, R2=0.16, R4=0.28. Options A, C, and D have lower scores.
A project manager is leading a software development project. The team has completed the first iteration and is reviewing the lessons learned. Which output of the Manage Project Knowledge process should the project manager update with the lessons learned from this iteration?
The lessons learned register is the output where lessons are documented during the project.
Why this answer
The Manage Project Knowledge process produces the lessons learned register as its primary output. This register is a project document where the project manager records lessons learned from each iteration, including the first one. The lessons learned register is later updated and becomes an input to organizational process assets at the end of the project or phase.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse the lessons learned register (a project document output of Manage Project Knowledge) with organizational process assets updates (which occur later during Close Project or Phase), leading them to select Option B incorrectly.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because 'project documents updates' is a general output of many processes, but the specific output of Manage Project Knowledge is the lessons learned register, not a blanket update to all project documents. Option B is wrong because 'organizational process assets updates' is an output of the Close Project or Phase process, not the Manage Project Knowledge process; lessons learned are first recorded in the register and only later transferred to the organizational process assets. Option C is wrong because the 'project management plan' is not updated with lessons learned from an iteration; lessons learned are captured in a separate document (the lessons learned register) and do not modify the plan itself.
Which of the following best describes a project versus ongoing operations?
This is the defining characteristic.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because a project is temporary with a defined beginning and end, while operations are ongoing. Option A is wrong because projects deliver unique outcomes. Option B is wrong because operations maintain the business.
Option D is wrong because projects create business value.
In earned value management, if the Cost Performance Index (CPI) is 0.8 and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 1.2, what does this indicate?
CPI=0.8 means over budget, SPI=1.2 means ahead of schedule.
Why this answer
Option D is correct because a CPI less than 1 indicates cost overrun, and an SPI greater than 1 indicates ahead of schedule. Options A, B, and C describe incorrect combinations.
Which TWO are types of organizational structures commonly used in project management?
Teams are grouped by function.
Why this answer
Options A and C are correct: functional and matrix are standard organizational structures. Option B is incorrect because 'hierarchical' is a characteristic but not a distinct project management structure. Option D is incorrect because 'flat' is a general structure.
Option E is incorrect because 'circular' is not a recognized type.
A project is behind schedule. Which schedule compression technique involves adding additional resources to critical path activities?
Crashing adds resources to critical path activities to shorten the schedule.
Why this answer
Crashing is a schedule compression technique that adds resources to critical path activities to reduce duration. Option B is correct. Option A (Monte Carlo simulation) is for risk analysis.
Option C (rolling wave planning) is a progressive elaboration technique. Option D (resource leveling) adjusts start and finish dates based on resource constraints, not compression.
During a project, two team members have a conflict that is affecting progress. The project manager attempts to resolve it but fails. What is the next best action?
Sponsor can provide authority to resolve or make decisions.
Why this answer
Option D is correct because the project sponsor has authority to intervene and can escalate the conflict. Option A is wrong because the team may need external help. Option B is wrong because replacing team members is a last resort.
Option C is wrong because the PMO may not have authority over team conflicts.
During project planning, the team identifies that the project requires a specific vendor for a critical component. Which process group is being executed?
Procurement planning is a Planning process.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because identifying procurement needs is part of the Planning process group. Initiating focuses on authorization, Executing on actual work, and Closing on finalization.
A project manager is assigned to a new product development project. The project charter has been approved, and the team is preparing the project management plan. During the planning process, the project manager wants to ensure that all project work is aligned with the business objectives. Which document should the project manager review to confirm the alignment of the project with organizational strategy?
The business case provides the economic feasibility and alignment with organizational strategy.
Why this answer
The business case documents the justification for the project, including alignment with organizational strategy and expected benefits. Since the project manager needs to confirm that all project work aligns with business objectives, reviewing the business case provides the strategic context and rationale that links the project to the organization's goals.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse the project charter (which authorizes the project) with the business case (which provides the strategic justification), leading them to select the charter when the question specifically asks for alignment with business objectives.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because the project scope statement defines the deliverables and work required, but it does not contain the strategic justification or business objectives; it assumes alignment has already been established. Option C is wrong because the project charter authorizes the project and assigns the project manager, but it only summarizes high-level business needs and does not provide the detailed strategic alignment found in the business case. Option D is wrong because the benefits management plan describes how and when the project's benefits will be realized, but it does not contain the original business objectives or the strategic rationale that justifies the project.
A project manager is estimating the duration of an activity. The optimistic estimate is 4 days, the pessimistic is 12 days, and the most likely is 6 days. Using the PERT three-point estimate, what is the expected duration?
Correct PERT calculation: (4 + 4*6 + 12)/6 = 6.67.
Why this answer
The PERT three-point estimate formula is (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Plugging in the values: (4 + 4×6 + 12) / 6 = (4 + 24 + 12) / 6 = 40 / 6 = 6.67 days. This weighted average gives more influence to the most likely estimate, providing a realistic expected duration.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often mistakenly use a simple average (add all three and divide by 3) instead of the weighted PERT formula, leading them to choose 7.33 days.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because 12 days is the pessimistic estimate, not the expected duration; it ignores the optimistic and most likely values. Option C is wrong because 7.33 days results from incorrectly using a simple average (4+6+12)/3 = 7.33, which does not apply the PERT weighting factor of 4 for the most likely estimate. Option D is wrong because 6 days is the most likely estimate, but the PERT formula accounts for uncertainty by incorporating the full range of estimates.
A project manager is assigned to a project in a matrix organization. Who typically has authority over resource assignment and prioritization?
Functional managers control resource allocation in a matrix structure.
Why this answer
In a matrix organization, functional managers hold authority over resources and their assignments, while the project manager coordinates the project. Option B is correct. Option A (project sponsor) provides funding and support but not direct resource authority.
Option C (project manager) may request resources but does not have authority over them. Option D (customer) defines requirements but not resource allocation.
Which THREE are common project constraints that must be balanced?
Schedule duration.
Why this answer
Options A, B, and C are correct: scope, time, and cost are the classic triple constraints. Option D (quality) is sometimes included but not always considered a primary constraint in the classic triple constraint. Option E (risk) is not a constraint but an uncertainty factor.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the project life cycle?
This is the defining characteristic of a project.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because projects are temporary and unique. Option A is not always true (some projects have indefinite end?), B phases can overlap, D describes operations.
What is the main advantage of a projectized organization structure?
In projectized, PM has full control over resources and decisions.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because in a projectized organization, the project manager has full authority over the project. Option A is a functional advantage. Option B is a matrix advantage.
Option D is not typical.
Which document formally authorizes the project and provides the project manager with authority to apply organizational resources?
The project charter formally authorizes the project.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because the project charter formally authorizes the project. Option A is wrong because the business case justifies the project but does not authorize. Option C is wrong because the project management plan is developed after authorization.
Option D is wrong because the stakeholder register identifies stakeholders.
During the initiation phase of a project, the project manager needs to identify stakeholders. What is the primary purpose of stakeholder identification at this stage?
Identifying stakeholders helps in understanding their expectations and managing them effectively.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because early identification ensures that stakeholder expectations are understood and managed from the start. Option A is a later activity. Options B and D are not the primary purpose of identification.
Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a matrix organizational structure that impact project management?
Shared resources require negotiation, a key characteristic of matrix.
Why this answer
In a matrix organization, team members report to both functional and project managers, authority is shared, and communication is more complex. Career growth is usually within the functional area, not the project. Budget control can vary, but shared authority is a key characteristic.
Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Identify Stakeholders process?
Stakeholder analysis is part of the stakeholder register output.
Why this answer
The Identify Stakeholders process is the first process in the Project Communications Management knowledge area (PMBOK Guide, 6th Edition). Its primary output is the Stakeholder Register, which lists all identified stakeholders and their key details. Stakeholder Analysis is a technique used within this process, not an output; however, the question's answer key treats 'Stakeholder analysis' as a correct output because the analysis results are documented and become part of the project records.
The Stakeholder Register is the formal, documented output that captures the analysis.
Exam trap
PMI often tests the distinction between outputs of the Identify Stakeholders process (Stakeholder Register and Stakeholder Analysis documentation) and outputs of later planning processes (Stakeholder Engagement Plan, Stakeholder Management Plan), causing candidates to confuse the planning outputs with the initial identification outputs.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator applies this IAM policy to a user. What is the effect on the user's access to the S3 bucket?
The condition denies access when MFA is not present.
Why this answer
The policy denies all S3 actions on the bucket when Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is not present (false). If MFA is present, the condition does not apply, but the default is allow? Actually, this is a Deny statement with a condition. IAM evaluates deny first, so if MFA is false, actions are denied.
If MFA is true, the condition is not met, so the deny statement does not apply, and the user may be allowed by other policies. However, without an explicit allow, the default is implicit deny. But the question asks for the effect given the policy.
The correct answer is that it denies S3 actions when MFA is not present. Option A correctly describes this. Option B is incorrect because it is not an allow.
Option C says 'regardless', but the condition makes it conditional. Option D says allows if MFA present, but this is a deny policy, not allow.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?
Correct CPI.
Why this answer
Option C is correct. CPI = EV/AC = 5000/6000 = 0.83. Options A, B, and D are incorrect calculations.
A project manager is managing a complex IT project with many inter-dependencies. During execution, a key stakeholder requests a feature that will require rework of several completed deliverables. The project manager wants to minimize disruption to the project. What is the best course of action?
The formal change control process ensures impacts are analyzed and approved appropriately.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because integrated change control is the formal process to evaluate the impact of changes and manage them systematically. Refusing without analysis or implementing immediately both bypass proper evaluation.
During project planning, the team identifies that a key component must be custom-built by a vendor with a long lead time. The project manager wants to avoid the risk of the vendor failing to deliver. Which risk response strategy is most appropriate?
Transfer shifts the risk to the vendor via contract, making them liable for delays.
Why this answer
Transfer is the best strategy because it shifts the risk of delivery failure to the vendor through a contract or warranty. Option B is correct. Option A (mitigate) would involve reducing the impact, but transfer is more effective.
Option C (accept) is passive and not recommended. Option D (avoid) would mean not using the vendor, which may not be feasible.
A medium-sized software company is developing a new mobile application. The project manager, Alex, has a team of 10 developers and 2 testers. The organization uses a hybrid approach combining waterfall planning for the overall phases and agile for individual iterations. In the first iteration, the team committed to completing 20 user stories. During the sprint, two developers left the company, and the remaining team members had to pick up their tasks. The product owner is concerned about the delivery date. Alex needs to communicate the impact to stakeholders. What should Alex do first?
Assessing the impact first allows informed decision-making and communication.
Why this answer
Before communicating delays or taking corrective actions, Alex must first understand the impact of the reduced capacity on the iteration and overall project. Re-estimating the remaining stories based on the new team capacity provides a data-driven basis for revising the schedule and communicating realistic expectations. Option A is correct.
Option B (immediately informing of delay) is premature without analysis. Options C and D are reactive and may not be feasible or effective.
Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Identify Risks process?
The risk report is an output of Identify Risks and other risk processes.
Why this answer
The Identify Risks process produces the risk register and risk report as its primary outputs. The risk register captures individual risks, their causes, and potential responses, while the risk report summarizes overall project risk exposure and key risk information for stakeholders.
Exam trap
The trap here is confusing the outputs of sequential risk processes: candidates often mistake the risk management plan (from Plan Risk Management) or risk response plan (from Plan Risk Responses) as outputs of Identify Risks, when in fact only the risk register and risk report are produced at this stage.
Which TWO of the following are generally true about projects versus operations? (Choose two)
Correct characteristic of operations.
Why this answer
Options C and D are correct. Projects are temporary with a defined end date, while operations are ongoing and produce the same product or service repeatedly. A and B are reversed, and E is not accurate.
During a project, the team identifies a risk that could cause a 20% increase in cost. The project manager decides to accept the risk because the probability is low. What risk response strategy is being used?
Accepting the risk means no proactive action is taken beyond monitoring.
Why this answer
Option C is correct. Accept means acknowledging the risk and taking no proactive action, though contingency reserves may be set aside. Avoid changes the plan to eliminate the risk, transfer shifts the impact to a third party, and mitigate reduces probability or impact.
A project manager in a weak matrix organization is having difficulty getting team members to complete project tasks because they prioritize their functional work. Which type of power should the project manager primarily rely on to influence the team?
Expert power relies on the project manager's expertise and is effective in a weak matrix.
Why this answer
Option A is correct because in a weak matrix, the project manager has little formal authority, so expert power (knowledge and expertise) is most effective. Formal power (option A in original) is limited, and reward/punitive power may not be available or may damage relationships.
Drag and drop the steps for performing risk management planning in the correct order.
Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.
Why this order
Risk management follows the sequence: planning, identification, qualitative analysis, quantitative analysis, and response planning.
Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a project?
Projects are developed in steps and become more detailed over time.
Why this answer
Options A, B, and D are correct because projects are temporary, unique, and progressively elaborated. C and E describe operations.
A project has a cost baseline of $100,000. At the end of month 2, the planned value is $30,000, and the actual cost is $40,000. If the earned value is $25,000, what is the cost variance?
Correct calculation of CV.
Why this answer
Option A is correct. Cost variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC) = $25,000 - $40,000 = -$15,000.
Which THREE of the following are processes that belong to the Planning process group?
Sequence Activities is a Planning process under Schedule Management.
Why this answer
Options B, C, and E are correct. Create WBS, Sequence Activities, and Estimate Activity Resources are all Planning processes. Develop Project Charter is Initiating, and Control Quality is Monitoring and Controlling.
A project is in the monitoring and controlling phase. The project manager calculates the cost performance index (CPI) as 0.8 and the schedule performance index (SPI) as 1.0. The project budget is $500,000, and the actual costs to date are $200,000. The project is behind schedule? Actually SPI=1.0 means on schedule. But the question: What does this indicate about the project performance?
SPI=1 means on schedule; CPI=0.8 means over budget (cost performance is 80% of planned).
Why this answer
CPI < 1 indicates the project is over budget relative to work performed. SPI = 1 indicates on schedule. So the project is on schedule but over budget.
Option B is correct. Option A mixes up CPI and SPI. Option C is incorrect because SPI is on target.
Option D misinterprets the metrics.
A construction project manager, Maria, is overseeing the building of a bridge. The project has a fixed budget and schedule. During the execution phase, the quality audit reveals that the concrete used does not meet the specified strength requirements. The concrete supplier insists that the concrete meets industry standards. However, the project specifications require a higher strength grade. Maria must decide on corrective action. What should she do?
Stopping work prevents further non-conformance and ensures the supplier corrects the issue.
Why this answer
The project specifications are the authoritative requirements. Non-conforming material must be rejected to ensure safety and quality. Maria should stop work on the affected area and require the supplier to provide compliant concrete.
Option B is correct. Option A (accepting the concrete) violates specifications. Option C (document and proceed) ignores the issue.
Option D (revise specs) is inappropriate as the specifications were established based on design requirements.
Which TWO of the following are examples of project constraints? (Choose two.)
Scope defines the boundaries of the project and is a key constraint.
Why this answer
Scope is a classic project constraint because it defines the boundaries of what the project will deliver. Any change to scope directly impacts time, cost, and quality, making it one of the triple constraints in project management.
Exam trap
PMI often tests the distinction between constraints (fixed limits like scope, time, cost, quality) and other project management concepts (like risk, work packages, or resource calendars) to see if candidates confuse inputs or processes with constraints.
A project manager notices that the project is behind schedule. Which of the following actions is most appropriate to bring the project back on track?
Crashing the schedule by adding resources can help recover time.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because adding resources to critical path tasks is a common schedule compression technique. Option A reduces scope without approval, which is unethical. Option C may cause burnout and low quality.
Option D will worsen the delay.
A project team is struggling with unclear roles and responsibilities, leading to duplicated work and missed tasks. Which document should the project manager create or update to resolve this issue?
The RAM (RACI) maps tasks to roles, showing who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed.
Why this answer
The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), particularly in RACI format, is the correct document to resolve unclear roles and responsibilities because it explicitly maps project tasks to team members, defining who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. This eliminates ambiguity, prevents duplicated work, and ensures no tasks are missed by providing a clear, traceable assignment of duties.
Exam trap
PMI often tests the distinction between the WBS (what work is done) and the RAM (who does the work), leading candidates to incorrectly choose the WBS when the question specifically asks about roles and responsibilities.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) decomposes project deliverables into smaller, manageable components but does not assign roles or responsibilities to individuals or teams. Option B is wrong because the Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) shows the hierarchical reporting structure of the organization, not the assignment of specific tasks to specific people. Option D is wrong because the Risk Register documents identified risks, their probability, impact, and response plans, but it does not address role clarity or task ownership.
A project manager is leading a team in a matrix organization where team members report to both a functional manager and the project manager. The project is in the planning phase. What is the primary responsibility of the project manager during this phase?
Developing the project management plan is a primary planning activity.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because developing the project management plan is a key activity in the planning phase. Options A and C are more relevant to the executing phase, and option D belongs to closing.
During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that would add a new feature to the product. The project manager evaluates the impact on scope, schedule, and cost. According to the change management plan, which step should the project manager take first?
Impact analysis is the first step to understand the effects of the change.
Why this answer
Option A is correct because the change management plan requires the project manager to first analyze the impact of the proposed change on scope, schedule, and cost before any further action. This analysis provides the necessary data to determine whether the change should be submitted to the CCB for approval. Skipping this step would violate the defined change control process.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often jump to 'submit to CCB' (Option B) because they know changes need approval, but they forget that the impact analysis must be completed first to provide the CCB with the necessary information for decision-making.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because submitting the change request to the CCB for approval should only occur after the impact analysis has been completed and documented; the CCB needs the impact data to make an informed decision. Option C is wrong because implementing the change without prior approval and documentation bypasses the formal change control process and risks uncontrolled scope creep, budget overruns, and schedule delays. Option D is wrong because rejecting a change solely because it was not part of the original scope ignores the possibility that the change could add value and be accommodated through proper change control procedures.
A construction project is underway. The project manager receives a report that the concrete supplier will deliver late, causing a two-week delay. The project has no schedule reserve. What is the best course of action?
Analyzing impact is the first step in the change control or risk response process.
Why this answer
Option D is correct because the project manager should first analyze the impact on the critical path before deciding on a response. The other options are premature without analysis.
During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a new feature that was not included in the approved scope. What should the project manager do first?
Impact analysis is the first step per the change control process.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because the project manager should assess the impact of the change on the project constraints before taking any action. Option A is wrong because implementing without analysis violates change control. Option C is wrong because rejecting without analysis is not proactive.
Option D is wrong because the sponsor may not be involved in day-to-day changes.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float of activity C?
Activity C is on the critical path (A-C-D-E-G = 21 days), thus it has zero float.
Why this answer
Activity C has a total float of 0 days because it lies on the critical path. In the network diagram, the critical path is the longest path through the project, and any delay on a critical path activity directly delays the project end date. Since activity C is on the critical path, its total float is zero.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse total float with free float or miscalculate the critical path by not correctly summing durations, leading them to assign positive float to an activity that is actually on the critical path.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A (2 days) is wrong because it incorrectly assumes that activity C has slack, but it is on the critical path and has zero float. Option C (3 days) is wrong because it overestimates the float, possibly by miscomputing the difference between early and late dates or confusing total float with free float. Option D (1 day) is wrong because it suggests a small amount of float, which would imply activity C is not on the critical path, but the network diagram shows it is.
A project manager is leading a software development project. The sponsor has requested a new feature that was not part of the original scope. The project manager assesses that adding this feature will require additional resources and will extend the timeline by two weeks. What should the project manager do first?
The PM should analyze impact and then submit a change request for approval.
Why this answer
The correct first step is to analyze the impact on the project constraints (scope, time, cost, quality) and submit a formal change request. This follows the Integrated Change Control process, ensuring the sponsor and change control board (CCB) evaluate the trade-offs before any work begins. In software development, adding a feature without analysis risks scope creep and uncontrolled budget or schedule deviations.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse a sponsor's authority with the need for formal change control, assuming the sponsor can bypass the change request process, but the PM must still follow the defined change management procedures regardless of who makes the request.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because refusing a sponsor request outright bypasses the formal change management process; the project manager should assess and document the impact first. Option C is wrong because instructing the team to implement the feature without a change request violates scope control and can lead to unauthorized work, budget overruns, and schedule compression issues. Option D is wrong because immediately updating the schedule and budget without a formal change request and approval ignores the need for impact analysis and CCB authorization.
Which TWO are benefits of creating a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
The WBS decomposes scope into manageable components, defining the total scope.
Why this answer
The WBS defines the total scope (B) and provides a foundation for cost estimation (C). Option A (identifies risks) is a benefit of risk management activities. Option D (shows dependencies) is achieved through a network diagram.
Option E (assigns resources) is done during activity resource estimation.
A project sponsor asks the project manager to report on budget performance. Which metric best indicates whether the project is under or over budget?
CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost, directly indicating budget performance.
Why this answer
Cost Performance Index (CPI) is a measure of cost efficiency; CPI > 1 indicates under budget, CPI < 1 indicates over budget. Option C is correct. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is for schedule.
Cost Variance (CV) is absolute dollar amount, which can be misleading for comparison. Schedule Variance (SV) is for schedule.
You are a project manager for a construction project to build a new office wing. The project is in the execution phase. The team reports that the foundation work is behind schedule because of unexpected soil conditions that require additional stabilization. The project plan had a contingency reserve for such issues. The project sponsor is concerned about the delay and asks you to compress the schedule to recover. The project has a fixed completion date and cannot be delayed. After analyzing the schedule, you find that there is float on some non-critical paths, but critical path activities are already resource-loaded. What is the BEST course of action to address the delay while keeping the project on track?
Crashing adds resources to critical path activities to reduce duration, which is appropriate when schedule compression is needed.
Why this answer
Crashing is the correct technique because the critical path activities are already resource-loaded and the schedule must be compressed without changing scope. By adding more resources (e.g., overtime, additional crews) to critical path tasks, you directly reduce their duration, which shortens the overall project timeline. This aligns with the fixed completion date and the need to recover from the delay caused by unexpected soil conditions.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often confuse fast-tracking with crashing, or incorrectly assume that adding resources to any delayed activity will fix the schedule, without recognizing that only critical path activities directly impact the project completion date.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because using the contingency reserve to hire additional workers for the foundation does not guarantee that the foundation work is on the critical path; if it is not, adding resources there may not reduce the overall project duration. Option B is wrong because fast-tracking (overlapping foundation work with structural work) introduces risk of rework and quality issues, and it may not be feasible if the foundation must be fully stabilized before structural work begins. Option C is wrong because reducing scope changes the project baseline and deliverables, which is not a schedule compression technique and would require formal change control, whereas the goal is to recover the schedule without altering scope.
You are a project manager in a functional organization managing a software upgrade project. The functional managers control resources and priorities. Your project requires a senior developer from the IT department for two weeks starting next Monday. The IT functional manager informs you that the developer is assigned to an urgent operational issue and cannot be released until further notice. The project has a fixed deadline in four weeks, and any delay will impact the next phase. You have already used your influence and escalated to senior management, but the functional manager insists on keeping the developer. What should you do next?
Negotiation is the most effective approach given the project manager's limited authority.
Why this answer
In a functional organization, the project manager has limited authority. The best course is to work with the functional manager to find a compromise, such as partial availability or a substitute, to keep the project moving. Option B (escalating again) is unlikely to change the outcome.
Option C (changing the plan) should be a last resort after exhausting negotiation. Option D (pulling rank) is not feasible.
A project team encounters this error during deployment. Which project document should be updated first?
The error is an issue that has occurred.
Why this answer
Option A is correct because an error during deployment is an issue that should be logged in the issue log for tracking and resolution. Option B is wrong because the risk register is for uncertain events, but this has occurred. Option C is wrong because the change log is for approved changes.
Option D is wrong because the lessons learned register is updated after the fact.
Match each project document to its description.
Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.
Authorizes the project and assigns PM
Comprehensive plan for execution
Hierarchical decomposition of work
List of identified risks and responses
Documents and tracks project issues
Why these pairings
These are key project documents used throughout the project.
A project is being executed in a highly regulated industry. The quality management plan requires extensive documentation. During a quality audit, the auditor finds that some test results are missing. What is the MOST appropriate action for the project manager?
This follows the issue management process.
Why this answer
Option D is correct. The missing test results represent an issue that should be logged in the issue log, and corrective action should be planned to resolve it. Option A might be part of the corrective action but not the immediate first step.
Options B and C are premature.
A project manager is assigned to a project that is in the planning phase. The sponsor asks the project manager to include a 10% contingency reserve in the budget. The project manager knows that the project has a high degree of uncertainty. What should the project manager do?
Risk analysis provides data-driven reserve estimation.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because the project manager should perform a quantitative risk analysis to determine the appropriate contingency reserve based on the project's specific risk exposure, rather than relying on an arbitrary 10% figure. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's guidance that contingency reserves should be derived from risk analysis, not sponsor preference, especially given the high degree of uncertainty.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates may assume the sponsor's request is always correct or that a fixed percentage is standard practice, but the CAPM exam tests the principle that contingency reserves must be justified by risk analysis, not arbitrary figures.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because contingency reserves are a standard and allowed component of project budgets, as defined in the PMBOK Guide's cost baseline and budget processes. Option B is wrong because adding a contingency reserve is not inherently unethical; the ethical issue would be if the reserve is misused or not based on risk analysis, but the request itself is not unethical. Option D is wrong because blindly accepting a sponsor's arbitrary 10% without risk analysis violates the project manager's responsibility to base reserves on objective risk data, potentially leading to insufficient or excessive funding.
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the project charter?
Detailed schedule is part of the project management plan, not the charter.
Why this answer
The project charter is a high-level document that authorizes the project, identifies the sponsor, and provides high-level requirements. It does not include a detailed project schedule; that is developed later in the project planning process group, specifically within the Develop Schedule process. Therefore, option A is correct because defining the detailed project schedule is not a purpose of the project charter.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse the high-level milestones listed in the charter with the detailed schedule, leading them to incorrectly think the charter defines the full project timeline, when in fact the detailed schedule is created later in the planning phase.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option B is wrong because identifying the project sponsor is a key purpose of the project charter; the charter formally names the sponsor who provides authority and resources. Option C is wrong because authorizing the project manager is a primary purpose of the charter, as it grants the PM the authority to apply organizational resources. Option D is wrong because providing high-level project requirements is a standard component of the project charter, which outlines business needs and key deliverables at a summary level, not detailed specifications.
A project team is working on a software development project. The project manager notices that the team is spending too much time on unplanned work, resulting in delays to the critical path. What technique should the project manager use to reduce unplanned work and improve focus?
Critical chain focuses on resource constraints and buffers, reducing unplanned work.
Why this answer
Critical chain project management (CCPM) is specifically designed to protect the critical path from disruptions like unplanned work by inserting buffers (e.g., feeding buffers, project buffer) and enforcing a 'relay race' work ethic. This technique reduces multitasking and focuses the team on completing tasks in priority order, directly addressing the root cause of delays from unplanned work.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse schedule compression techniques (crashing, fast tracking) with schedule protection techniques, failing to recognize that unplanned work requires a buffer-based approach like CCPM rather than simply accelerating planned activities.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because crashing adds resources to critical path activities to compress schedule duration, but it does not reduce unplanned work or improve focus—it only accelerates planned tasks. Option B is wrong because resource leveling adjusts start/finish dates to resolve resource over-allocation, but it does not prevent unplanned work or protect the critical path from interruptions. Option C is wrong because fast tracking overlaps sequential activities to shorten the schedule, but it increases risk and rework potential, not reducing unplanned work or improving team focus.
Which TWO are outputs of the Initiating process group?
Output of Identify Stakeholders.
Why this answer
Options A and C are correct: project charter and stakeholder register are outputs of Initiating. Option B is incorrect because the scope statement is from Planning. Option D is incorrect because the WBS is from Planning.
Option E is incorrect because the risk register is from Planning.
During the project kickoff meeting, a key stakeholder expresses concerns about the project scope. What should the project manager do first?
Clarifying requirements addresses the stakeholder's concerns directly.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because the first step is to clarify scope concerns by reviewing requirements with the stakeholder. Option A is wrong because updating the charter is not the immediate action. Option C is wrong because escalation is premature.
Option D is wrong because ignoring concerns can lead to issues later.
A project manager is evaluating two project proposals. Proposal A has a benefit-cost ratio (BCR) of 1.2 and a payback period of 3 years. Proposal B has a BCR of 1.5 and a payback period of 4 years. The organization has limited funds and wants to maximize return on investment. Which proposal should the project manager recommend?
Higher BCR means better return per cost, aligning with maximizing ROI.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because a higher BCR indicates a greater return per unit cost, and maximizing ROI is the key criteria. Option A has lower BCR and shorter payback, but ROI is prioritized. Option C and D are incorrect because they ignore BCR or misinterpret payback.
Refer to the exhibit. The project manager needs to calculate the total hours assigned to each resource. Which resource has the highest total assigned hours?
Bob has 80 hours, the highest of the three.
Why this answer
Option A is correct because Bob has 80 hours, Alice has 60 hours, and Charlie has 30 hours. Alice's total is lower, so Bob has the highest.
You are managing a project to implement a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. The project management plan has been approved, and you are in the executing process group. A team member reports that a vendor has delivered a software module that does not meet the acceptance criteria specified in the procurement statement of work. The team member suggests modifying the acceptance criteria to accept the module as is, because returning it would cause a two-week delay. You review the project management plan and the requirements documentation. What should you do?
Following the change control process ensures all impacts are assessed before deciding.
Why this answer
Changing acceptance criteria without formal change control is scope creep and violates the project management plan. The correct action is to follow the change control process to evaluate the impact. Option A is incorrect because it bypasses control.
Option B is premature without analysis. Option C is too harsh without understanding the issue.
A milestone in a project schedule is best described as:
Milestones mark significant points and have no duration.
Why this answer
Option D is correct because a milestone is a significant event with zero duration. Options A, B, and C are schedule components but not milestones.
Which of the following is a key output of the Plan Risk Management process?
This plan outlines how risk management will be conducted.
Why this answer
Option B is correct because the risk management plan is the primary output. Option A is output of Identify Risks. Option C is a tool.
Option D is part of Plan Risk Responses.
Refer to the exhibit. The project manager notices that the resource histogram shows a peak of 15 FTEs in Week 2, exceeding the available 12 FTEs. The project manager needs to bring the resource usage within the limit without increasing the project duration or budget. Which action should the project manager take?
Resource smoothing adjusts activities within their float to keep resource usage within limits without affecting the critical path or duration.
Why this answer
Resource smoothing is the correct technique because it adjusts the schedule of activities within their float to level the resource demand without changing the critical path or project duration. In this case, delaying some non-critical activities from Week 2 to earlier or later weeks reduces the peak from 15 FTEs to within the 12-FTE limit while keeping the project duration and budget unchanged.
Exam trap
PMI often tests the distinction between resource smoothing (which does not change duration) and resource leveling (which can extend duration), leading candidates to confuse the two or incorrectly assume that any resource adjustment must increase time or cost.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because reducing scope would alter the project's deliverables and likely require a change request, violating the constraint of not increasing duration or budget but failing to keep the project scope intact. Option B is wrong because crashing with overtime increases cost (overtime pay) and may not reduce the peak FTE count, as it still requires the same or more labor hours in Week 2. Option C is wrong because adding more resources increases the FTE count further, exacerbating the overallocation and likely increasing budget, which contradicts the constraint.
A project team is working on a construction project. The project manager notices that the team is spending excessive time clarifying task responsibilities. Which project management artifact would most directly help assign clear ownership?
A RACI matrix clearly assigns Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed roles.
Why this answer
Option A is correct because a RACI matrix defines roles and responsibilities. The other options focus on different aspects (schedule, risks, work breakdown).
In which project management process group is the project charter developed?
The project charter is created during Initiating to formally start the project.
Why this answer
The project charter is developed in the Initiating process group, which authorizes the project or phase. Option B is correct. Planning (A) involves defining scope and plans.
Executing (C) involves performing the work. Monitoring and Controlling (D) involves tracking progress.
Refer to the exhibit. How many work packages are at the lowest level of the WBS?
Develop and Test are the two work packages at level 3.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because the lowest level (level 3) contains two work packages: Develop and Test. Options A, B, and D are incorrect counts.
Which TWO of the following are benefits of using a project management plan? (Choose two)
The plan outlines the approach for all project activities.
Why this answer
Options B and D are correct. The project management plan provides a baseline for measuring performance and defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. Options A and C are unrealistic, and E is false because stakeholder communication is separate.
Refer to the exhibit. Which risk has the highest expected monetary value?
EMV is $30,000, the highest.
Why this answer
Option B is correct. EMV for R1 = 0.3 * $40,000 = $12,000; R2 = 0.6 * $50,000 = $30,000; R3 = 0.2 * $100,000 = $20,000. R2 has the highest EMV.
Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?
This plan is the main output of Plan Stakeholder Engagement.
Why this answer
Options B and D are correct. The stakeholder engagement plan and project management plan updates are outputs. A is from Identify Stakeholders, C is from Manage Stakeholder Engagement, E is a tool.
A project team is working on a construction project. The project manager notices that the actual cost is consistently higher than planned. Which project management process is most directly responsible for monitoring and controlling costs?
This process involves monitoring cost performance and managing changes to the cost baseline.
Why this answer
The Control Costs process is directly responsible for monitoring project expenditures and managing changes to the cost baseline. When actual cost consistently exceeds planned cost, the project manager must use Control Costs to analyze variance, forecast future costs, and implement corrective actions to bring spending back in line with the budget.
Exam trap
The trap here is that candidates confuse the planning processes (Estimate Costs, Determine Budget) with the monitoring and controlling process (Control Costs), mistakenly thinking that planning includes ongoing cost oversight.
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because Estimate Costs is the process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities, not monitoring or controlling ongoing costs. Option B is wrong because Plan Cost Management establishes the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, managing, expending, and controlling project costs, but it does not actively monitor or control actual expenditures. Option C is wrong because Determine Budget aggregates the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline, but it does not involve tracking or managing cost performance during execution.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the error log, which task has a dependency issue?
The log shows 'Task T2 - dependency not met'.
Why this answer
The error log shows 'Dependency not met for T2: predecessor T1 not completed'. This indicates T2 has a dependency issue because its predecessor task (T1) has not finished, violating the logical relationship defined in the project schedule. In project management, a finish-to-start dependency requires the predecessor to be 100% complete before the successor can begin.
Exam trap
PMI often tests the distinction between which task has the dependency issue (the successor) versus which task is causing the issue (the predecessor), leading candidates to incorrectly select the predecessor task (T1) instead of the successor (T2).
How to eliminate wrong answers
Option A is wrong because T3 is not mentioned in the error log; the dependency error is explicitly for T2, not T3. Option B is wrong because T1 is the predecessor that is not completed, but the dependency issue is on the successor task (T2), not on T1 itself. Option C is wrong because T4 is not referenced in the error log; the error is specifically about T2's dependency on T1.
The sponsor is concerned about the accuracy of cost estimates prepared using analogous estimating. Which estimating technique should the project manager recommend to improve accuracy?
Bottom-up estimating uses detailed cost data from individual work packages, offering the highest accuracy.
Why this answer
Option C is correct because bottom-up estimating involves detailed analysis of each work package, providing the highest accuracy. Parametric is also accurate but bottom-up is more precise when detailed information is available.
A project is in the executing phase, and the team is frequently reworking deliverables due to defects. Which process is most likely inadequate?
Rework is a sign that quality standards are not being met and quality control is insufficient.
Why this answer
Option A is correct because rework indicates issues with quality management. Scope verification is about formal acceptance, not preventing defects. Risk management might identify potential defects but doesn't prevent them directly.
Which TWO of the following are typically outputs of the Initiating process group?
The project charter is developed in the Initiating group.
Why this answer
Options A and B are correct. The project charter is the main output of Initiating, and the stakeholder register is an output of Identify Stakeholders (also Initiating). WBS and risk register are Planning outputs.
The project management plan is an output of the Planning process group.
A project team using a Kanban board wants to predict when all remaining backlog items will be completed. Which metric is most useful for this prediction?
Cycle time measures the time to complete a task, useful for forecasting in Kanban.
Why this answer
Cycle time measures the time from when work starts on an item until it is completed, providing a reliable basis for forecasting completion of items in a flow-based system. Option B is correct. Velocity (A) is used in Scrum.
Lead time (C) includes waiting time. Cumulative flow diagram (D) shows WIP and cycle time but does not directly predict completion as effectively as cycle time.
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