75 of 95 questions · Page 1/2 · Pkp Constraints Changes topic · Answers revealed
A project manager is using a schedule compression technique that adds resources to critical path activities to shorten the project duration. Which technique is being used?
Correct definition.
Why this answer
Crashing adds resources to critical path tasks, typically increasing cost.
A project has an issue where a key deliverable fails quality inspection. The project manager escalates to the project sponsor, but the issue remains unresolved. Which THREE actions should the project manager take according to issue management best practices?
Stakeholders should be informed.
Why this answer
Escalate further, document in issue log, and involve stakeholders for resolution.
A project team is developing a WBS. Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a well-constructed WBS?
WBS focuses on deliverables.
Why this answer
A proper WBS is deliverable-oriented, decomposed to manageable work packages, and follows the 100% rule.
A project team discovers a problem that is currently happening and affecting project deliverables. The project manager needs to document this situation. Which document should be used to record this?
The issue log captures current problems and tracks their resolution.
Why this answer
An issue log is used to document current problems that have occurred, as opposed to risks which are uncertain future events.
Which document contains the deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints for a project?
The scope statement includes deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.
Why this answer
The scope statement formally documents all these elements to define the project scope.
A project manager is updating the risk register after identifying a new risk. Which TWO fields are typically included in a risk register? (Select TWO).
Response strategy is a standard field documenting how to address the risk.
Why this answer
Common risk register fields include risk ID, description, owner, probability, impact, risk score, response strategy, residual risk, and trigger. Budget and resource names are not standard fields in the risk register; they may be in other project documents.
A project manager is using a schedule compression technique that adds resources to critical path activities to shorten the project duration. Which technique is being used, and what is its primary trade-off?
Crashing adds resources to critical path activities, increasing cost.
Why this answer
Crashing adds resources to critical path activities, which increases cost but does not necessarily increase risk as much as fast-tracking.
A project manager uses Monte Carlo simulation to analyze schedule risks. This technique is used to:
Monte Carlo provides probability distributions for schedule and cost completion dates.
Why this answer
Monte Carlo simulation models the probability of different outcomes, such as completing on schedule or within budget, by running many simulations.
A project manager is reviewing dependencies in the project schedule. Which THREE types of dependencies are recognized in project management? (Choose three.)
Correct. These are inherent dependencies like 'code before test'.
Why this answer
The three main types of dependencies are mandatory (hard logic), discretionary (soft logic), and external (outside project control). Resource constraints and technical constraints are types of constraints, not dependencies.
A project has a dependency where the software must be coded before it can be tested. This is an example of which type of dependency?
Correct. This is a hard logic dependency.
Why this answer
A mandatory dependency (hard logic) is inherent in the nature of the work, such as coding must be completed before testing can begin.
A project manager is reviewing the issue log and notices an issue with high priority that has not been resolved. The project manager has tried to resolve it but cannot. What should the project manager do next?
Correct. Escalation is appropriate when the issue cannot be resolved.
Why this answer
When an issue cannot be resolved at the project level, the project manager should escalate it to a higher authority, such as the project sponsor or a steering committee, following the escalation path defined in the issue management plan.
During a project, a critical team member is reassigned to a higher-priority project, leaving the project without sufficient resources. This is an example of a(n):
Correct, as it's about personnel availability.
Why this answer
Resource constraints involve limited availability of key personnel or resources.
A project manager is reviewing a change request to add a new feature to a software product. The change will increase the project timeline by two weeks and require additional budget. Which of the following should the project manager do first?
Correct. The first step in integrated change control is to evaluate the impact on scope, schedule, cost, and quality.
Why this answer
According to the integrated change control process, the first step is to evaluate the impact of the change on the triple constraint (scope, schedule, cost) before presenting it to the change control board.
A project manager is performing schedule compression. The team decides to start a successor activity before its predecessor is fully complete. Which technique are they using, and what is a primary downside?
Fast-tracking overlaps activities and increases risk.
Why this answer
Fast-tracking involves overlapping sequential activities, which increases risk.
A project has a constraint that a specific software must be used because it is the standard in the organization. The project manager must work within this limitation. What type of constraint is this?
Technical constraints arise from predetermined technology or standards.
Why this answer
Technical constraints are imposed by technology choices, such as using a specific software or hardware platform. Resource constraints relate to availability of people or equipment. External constraints come from outside the project.
Discretionary dependencies are about scheduling preferences.
A project has a technical constraint that requires using a specific software platform mandated by the customer. This is an example of which type of constraint?
Correct. The mandated software platform is a technical constraint.
Why this answer
A technical constraint is a limitation or condition that is imposed by technology choices or requirements. In this case, the customer mandates a specific software platform, which is a technical constraint.
A project manager is using a quantitative analysis technique that runs thousands of iterations of the project schedule to determine the probability of completing the project by a certain date. This technique uses probability distributions for activity durations. Which technique is being described?
Monte Carlo simulation runs many iterations to compute probability distributions for project completion.
Why this answer
Monte Carlo simulation is a quantitative risk analysis technique that models the probability of different outcomes by running multiple simulations. It is used for schedule and cost risk analysis. SWOT analysis is qualitative.
Sensitivity analysis determines which risks have the most impact. Decision tree analysis evaluates decisions under uncertainty.
During a project, the project manager receives a change request that would modify the project's scope. According to the integrated change control process, which THREE actions are part of evaluating this change request? (Choose three.)
Correct. Benefits and risks are part of the evaluation.
Why this answer
Evaluating a change involves analyzing its impact on the triple constraint, determining if it adds value, and assessing risks. Updating baselines and rejecting without analysis come later or are not part of evaluation.
A project manager has identified a risk with a probability of 0.3 and an impact of 4 on a scale of 1-5. What is the risk score?
Correct calculation: 0.3 × 4 = 1.2.
Why this answer
Risk score is calculated as probability × impact. Here, 0.3 × 4 = 1.2.
A project has a constraint that a key piece of equipment must be sourced from a specific vendor due to organizational policy. This is an example of which type of constraint?
Technical constraints include mandated technology, vendors, or specifications.
Why this answer
Technical constraints are imposed technology choices or specifications, including sourcing from approved vendors.
During project execution, a customer requests a new feature that was not in the original scope. The project manager receives a change request. What is the NEXT step the project manager should take?
Evaluating impact is the correct next step in the change control process.
Why this answer
The first step in the integrated change control process is to evaluate the impact of the change on the triple constraint (scope, schedule, cost, quality).
A project manager is using the Delphi technique for risk identification. Which of the following best describes this technique?
Correct. Delphi involves anonymous feedback from experts.
Why this answer
The Delphi technique uses a panel of experts who anonymously provide their opinions through a facilitator. The facilitator consolidates the responses and shares them with the panel until consensus is reached. This helps avoid bias from dominant personalities.
A project manager is analyzing the impact of a proposed change on the project's schedule, cost, and quality. After the analysis, the change request is reviewed by a group of stakeholders who decide whether to approve it. This group is known as the:
The CCB reviews and approves/rejects change requests.
Why this answer
The change control board (CCB) is a group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing and approving/rejecting change requests. The project team executes work. The steering committee provides high-level guidance.
The quality assurance team focuses on quality processes.
A project manager is using schedule compression techniques to meet a deadline. Which THREE statements about fast-tracking and crashing are correct?
Correct. Both are schedule compression techniques.
Why this answer
Fast-tracking involves overlapping sequential activities, which increases risk. Crashing adds resources to the critical path, which increases cost. Both techniques are used to compress the schedule.
A project team is identifying risks using a technique that involves a group of experts answering questionnaires anonymously to avoid bias. Which risk identification technique is being used?
Correct. The Delphi technique uses anonymous questionnaires.
Why this answer
The Delphi technique gathers expert opinions anonymously through multiple rounds to reach consensus without group influence.
A project sponsor asks the project manager to accelerate the schedule. Which TWO schedule compression techniques could the project manager consider?
Fast-tracking overlaps sequential activities, compressing the schedule but increasing risk.
Why this answer
Fast-tracking and crashing are the two primary schedule compression techniques.
Which TWO of the following are risk identification techniques commonly used in project management? (Choose two.)
Correct. SWOT analysis identifies risks from strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
Why this answer
Common risk identification techniques include brainstorming, Delphi technique, SWOT analysis, and assumptions analysis.
A project is behind schedule. The project manager decides to start the next phase before the previous phase is fully complete, overlapping activities. This technique is known as:
Correct definition.
Why this answer
Fast-tracking overlaps sequential activities, which increases risk but may compress schedule.
Which document formally defines the deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints of a project?
The scope statement formally defines all elements of scope including constraints.
Why this answer
The scope statement documents the project's scope including deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.
A project team is creating a WBS. They ensure that every deliverable and work package is included and that the sum of the work at the lower levels equals the total work at the higher levels. Which principle are they applying?
The 100% rule ensures the WBS captures all project work.
Why this answer
The 100% rule states that the WBS includes all work defined by the scope and that the sum of lower-level work equals the total work at higher levels.
A project manager documents a change request and updates the change log. Which step of integrated change control is being performed?
Correct action described.
Why this answer
Documenting the change and updating the log is part of the change control process after approval or during processing.
A project manager uses a quantitative risk analysis tool that runs thousands of simulations to determine the probability of completing the project by a certain date. Which technique is being used?
Correct. This technique runs many simulations to predict outcomes.
Why this answer
Monte Carlo simulation uses repeated random sampling to model the probability of different outcomes, commonly used for schedule and cost risk analysis.
A project team is identifying risks using a SWOT analysis. Which THREE of the following are categories examined in a SWOT analysis? (Select THREE).
Opportunities are external positive factors.
Why this answer
SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. These four categories are examined. Assumptions and constraints are not part of SWOT; they are elements of the scope statement.
During project execution, a stakeholder requests a new feature that was not originally included in the scope. The project manager records the request and evaluates its impact on the triple constraint. What should the project manager do next?
Correct step in the integrated change control process.
Why this answer
According to the integrated change control process, after evaluating the impact, the change request should be submitted to the change control board for review and decision. The project manager does not approve changes alone.
A project manager is analyzing the project schedule and notes that two activities, design and development, are currently scheduled sequentially. To accelerate the schedule, the project manager considers overlapping the activities. Which TWO of the following are correct regarding this approach?
Fast-tracking increases risk due to potential rework.
Why this answer
Fast-tracking involves overlapping sequential activities. It increases risk because rework may be needed if earlier work changes. Crashing adds resources to the critical path, increasing cost.
The described approach is fast-tracking.
A project manager is creating a risk register for a construction project. Which TWO fields are essential for calculating a risk score?
Correct. Probability is a key factor in risk score calculation.
Why this answer
The risk score is typically calculated by multiplying probability and impact. These two fields are essential for determining the risk score.
Which of the following is a key component of a project scope statement?
Correct. Acceptance criteria are part of the scope statement.
Why this answer
A project scope statement includes deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints. Acceptance criteria are essential to define how deliverables will be formally accepted.
A project manager is leading a brainstorming session to identify potential risks. The team uses a technique that encourages free thinking and avoids criticism. Which risk identification technique is being used?
Correct description.
Why this answer
Brainstorming involves generating ideas in a free-flowing, non-critical environment.
A project manager receives a change request to add a new feature to the project's software. After evaluating the impact on the triple constraint, they submit it to the change control board (CCB). The CCB approves the change. What is the project manager's next step?
The integrated change control process requires updating project documents after approval.
Why this answer
After approval, the project manager must update the project management plan and baselines to reflect the approved change.
In a risk register, the risk score is typically calculated by multiplying which two fields?
Risk score = probability × impact.
Why this answer
Risk score is usually probability multiplied by impact.
A project manager is evaluating change requests. According to the integrated change control process, which THREE elements should be assessed for impact before a change is approved?
Change may affect schedule.
Why this answer
The triple constraint includes scope, schedule, and cost. Quality is also often considered but the triple constraint is core.
Which of the following describes scope creep?
Correct. Scope creep is uncontrolled scope growth.
Why this answer
Scope creep refers to uncontrolled changes or continuous growth in a project's scope without proper evaluation and approval through the change control process. It often results from adding features or requirements without formal authorization.
During project planning, the team identifies that a key developer is only available 50% of the time. This is an example of which type of constraint?
Limited availability of a key developer is a resource constraint.
Why this answer
Resource constraints are limitations on the availability of resources, such as personnel, equipment, or materials.
A project has a dependency that requires the foundation to be poured before the walls can be erected. This is an example of which type of dependency?
Correct, due to physical necessity.
Why this answer
Mandatory dependencies (hard logic) are inherent to the work, like physical requirements.
The project manager is reviewing the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the team to ensure that all deliverables are included. Which rule states that the WBS should capture 100% of the work defined by the project scope?
Correct. The 100% rule ensures all scope work is represented in the WBS.
Why this answer
The 100% rule ensures that the WBS includes all the work required to complete the project scope, and nothing outside it.
A project manager is creating a document that lists the project deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints. Which document is being created?
Correct definition.
Why this answer
The scope statement defines the project scope including deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.
A project manager is creating the WBS. Which rule ensures that all deliverables and work required for the project are included in the WBS and no work is omitted?
The 100% rule ensures the WBS contains all work required to complete the project.
Why this answer
The 100% rule states that the WBS must capture all work defined in the project scope, ensuring nothing is left out.
A project manager notices that a key team member is frequently pulled away to work on another priority project, causing delays. This situation is an example of which type of constraint?
Correct. The limitation of key personnel is a resource constraint.
Why this answer
Resource constraints refer to limited availability of personnel, equipment, or materials. This scenario describes a resource constraint due to limited availability of a key person.
A project team is performing quantitative risk analysis using a technique that runs thousands of simulations to determine the probability of completing the project on a specific date. Which technique is being used?
Monte Carlo simulation uses thousands of iterations to model schedule and cost probabilities.
Why this answer
Monte Carlo simulation uses repeated random sampling to model the probability of different outcomes, commonly used for schedule and cost risk analysis.
A project manager is updating the issue log. Which TWO fields are typically included in a well-structured issue log? (Choose two.)
Correct. The person responsible for resolving the issue is recorded.
Why this answer
Common fields in an issue log include issue ID, description, owner, priority, status, and resolution date.
What is the difference between a risk and an issue?
Correct distinction.
Why this answer
A risk is an uncertain future event; an issue is a current problem that has occurred.
A project manager is identifying risks using the Delphi technique. Which TWO of the following are characteristics of the Delphi technique?
Correct characteristic.
Why this answer
Delphi uses anonymous experts and rounds of questionnaires to reach consensus.
Which of the following is a key component of the project scope statement?
Acceptance criteria are a key component of the scope statement, defining how deliverables are accepted.
Why this answer
The scope statement includes deliverables, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints. The risk register is a separate document. The change log tracks changes.
The WBS is a decomposition of scope but is not part of the scope statement itself.
A project manager is reviewing a change request to modify the project scope. Which TWO items should be updated in the project management plan if the change is approved?
Correct. The scope baseline must be updated to reflect the approved change.
Why this answer
When a change is approved, the project baselines (scope, schedule, cost) and the project management plan are updated. The scope baseline and schedule baseline are part of the plan. The change log is also updated, but it is not part of the project management plan itself.
A project manager is evaluating a change request that would increase the project cost by 10% but reduce schedule by 15%. The change control board approves the change. What should the project manager update?
Correct action after change approval.
Why this answer
Approved changes require updating the project management plan and baselines (cost, schedule).
Which document contains information such as issue ID, description, owner, priority, status, and resolution date?
The issue log contains all the fields listed.
Why this answer
The issue log is used to track and manage issues throughout the project. The risk register tracks risks. The change log tracks changes.
The WBS is a decomposition of deliverables.
A project manager is updating the risk register. Which TWO fields are typically included in a risk register?
Triggers are warning signs that a risk is about to occur, commonly recorded in the risk register.
Why this answer
Common risk register fields include risk ID, description, owner, probability, impact, risk score, response strategy, residual risk, and trigger.
Which of the following best describes a mandatory dependency in a project schedule?
Correct. Mandatory dependencies are hard logic.
Why this answer
Mandatory dependencies, also known as hard logic, are inherent in the nature of the work and cannot be changed. For example, you must build the foundation before erecting walls.
In the context of risk management, what is a trigger?
Correct. A trigger is a warning sign.
Why this answer
A trigger is an event or condition that indicates that a risk is about to occur or has occurred. It serves as a warning sign that the risk response plan should be activated.
A project manager is reviewing the risk register and sees a risk with high probability and high impact. The risk response strategy chosen is to purchase insurance. This is an example of which risk response strategy?
Insurance transfers financial risk to the insurance company.
Why this answer
Transfer involves shifting the impact of a risk to a third party, such as through insurance.
During a risk assessment, a project manager calculates a risk score by multiplying the probability of occurrence (0.6) by the potential impact ($50,000). The risk score is 30,000. The project manager then identifies a response strategy that reduces the probability to 0.2. After the response, the remaining risk is calculated. What is the residual risk score?
Residual risk = probability (0.2) x impact ($50,000) = $10,000.
Why this answer
Residual risk is the risk remaining after implementing the response. The new probability is 0.2, impact remains $50,000, so residual risk score = 0.2 * 50,000 = 10,000. The initial risk score was 30,000, but the question asks for the residual risk score after the response.
After a change request is approved by the Change Control Board, what must be updated to reflect the approved changes? (Choose the best answer.)
Correct. The project plan and baselines are updated to incorporate approved changes.
Why this answer
Approved changes must be reflected in the project management plan and baselines (scope, schedule, cost) to maintain accurate control.
During a project, a key team member is assigned to another critical project and will no longer be available. This results in a delay in the project schedule. The project manager notes this as an issue in the issue log. What is the difference between this issue and a risk?
Correct. Risks are future uncertain events; issues are current problems.
Why this answer
A risk is an uncertain event that may or may not occur. An issue is a current problem that has already occurred.
A project is behind schedule. The project manager decides to start the testing phase before the development phase is completely finished. This is an example of which schedule compression technique?
Correct. Overlapping phases is fast-tracking.
Why this answer
Fast-tracking involves overlapping sequential activities to compress the schedule, but it increases risk of rework.
A project manager is reviewing change requests. Which THREE types of changes would be subject to integrated change control?
Schedule changes require formal change control.
Why this answer
Change control applies to any change that affects the project baselines, including scope, schedule, cost, and quality.
Which document is used to track all changes made throughout a project, including their status and impact?
The change log is the correct document for tracking changes.
Why this answer
The change log records all change requests and their disposition.
A project manager is updating the risk register for a new project. Which THREE of the following fields are essential components of a risk register in CompTIA Project+?
A unique identifier for each risk is essential.
Why this answer
The risk register should include risk ID, description, owner, probability, impact, risk score, response strategy, residual risk, and trigger. These are standard fields.
During project execution, a team member identifies a problem that has already occurred and is affecting the project schedule. The project manager should document this in which of the following?
Correct. The issue log tracks current problems that have occurred.
Why this answer
An issue is a current problem that has occurred, as opposed to a risk which is a future uncertain event. Issues are documented in the issue log.
What is the 100% rule in work breakdown structure (WBS) creation?
Correct. The 100% rule ensures no work is omitted.
Why this answer
The 100% rule states that the WBS must include 100% of the work defined by the project scope and capture all deliverables, both internal and external. The sum of the work at the lower levels must equal 100% of the work at the parent level.
A project manager is breaking down the project deliverables into smaller components. Which technique ensures that all work required for the project is included and no work outside the scope is added?
The 100% rule states that the WBS includes 100% of the work defined by the project scope.
Why this answer
The 100% rule in WBS creation requires that the WBS captures all deliverables and work defined in the project scope, and nothing outside that scope. Decomposition is the process of breaking down work, but the 100% rule specifically ensures completeness.
A project team is identifying risks. They gather subject matter experts anonymously and use a facilitator to collect their responses iteratively until consensus is reached. Which risk identification technique is being used?
The Delphi technique is characterized by anonymous, iterative rounds of questionnaires.
Why this answer
The Delphi technique uses anonymous rounds of questionnaires with a facilitator to achieve consensus among experts. It avoids group bias.
A project manager is using a technique to identify risks by gathering a group of experts who provide anonymous input through multiple rounds of questionnaires. This technique avoids groupthink and allows experts to refine their opinions. Which risk identification technique is being used?
The Delphi technique uses anonymous questionnaires and multiple rounds to achieve consensus.
Why this answer
The Delphi technique involves anonymous input from experts via questionnaires in multiple rounds, with controlled feedback, to reach a consensus. Brainstorming is typically face-to-face and not anonymous. SWOT analysis examines strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
Assumptions analysis identifies risks from invalid assumptions.
In a risk register, which field describes the event that signals a risk is about to occur?
Correct. The trigger warns that the risk is about to happen.
Why this answer
A trigger (or risk trigger) is an event or condition that indicates a risk is imminent or about to occur.
A project requires a specific software library that is only available from a single vendor. The vendor's delivery schedule dictates when the project can begin integration testing. This dependency is best described as:
The dependency on an external vendor's schedule is an external dependency.
Why this answer
An external dependency is one outside the project's control.
A project team is decomposing the project scope into smaller, manageable components. Which rule ensures that the WBS includes 100% of the work defined in the scope?
Correct rule.
Why this answer
The 100% rule states that the WBS captures all deliverables and work.
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