11 of 161 questions · Page 3/3 · Project Life Cycle · Answers revealed
A project manager is developing a network diagram and needs to represent an activity that can start only after its predecessor has finished. Which dependency type does this describe?
Correct: the successor starts only after the predecessor finishes.
Why this answer
Finish-to-Start (FS) is the most common dependency where the successor cannot start until the predecessor finishes.
During project execution, a stakeholder requests a change to the project scope. What is the first step the project manager should take?
The change request is the first formal step.
Why this answer
The first step in change control is to document the change request and submit it for impact analysis.
A project manager is closing a project. Which THREE activities are part of the project closure process? (Select THREE).
Releasing resources is part of closing.
Why this answer
Project closure includes obtaining formal acceptance, archiving documents, and releasing resources. Risk response strategies are part of execution, and creating the WBS is part of planning.
During the initiating phase of a project, a project charter is created. Which of the following is typically included in a project charter?
The project charter defines the high-level scope and purpose of the project.
Why this answer
The project charter includes the project purpose, objectives, high-level scope, budget, schedule, assumptions, constraints, and the authority of the project manager.
A project manager is evaluating risk responses. For a risk with high probability and high impact, which risk response strategy is most appropriate to eliminate the threat?
Avoidance changes the project plan to completely eliminate the risk.
Why this answer
Avoidance is the only strategy that completely eliminates the threat by changing the project plan to avoid the risk. Transfer shifts liability, mitigate reduces impact/probability, and acceptance acknowledges the risk without action.
A project team is experiencing conflicts and power struggles among members. According to Tuckman's stages of group development, which stage is the team likely in?
Storming involves conflict, power struggles, and resistance to group influence.
Why this answer
In the storming stage, team members may have differing opinions, leading to conflicts and power struggles as they assert themselves.
Which TWO of the following are outputs of the monitoring and controlling process group? (Select two.)
Performance reports are outputs of monitoring and controlling.
Why this answer
Performance reports and change requests are typical outputs of monitoring and controlling. The project charter is an output of initiating, and the risk register is an output of planning.
A project manager is preparing a procurement document that asks vendors to provide a price for a specific product. Which type of document is this?
RFQ is used to request a price for a specific product.
Why this answer
A request for quotation (RFQ) is used to obtain a price for a specific item.
During project closing, a project manager must complete several activities. Which TWO are appropriate for project closure?
Correct. Archiving documents is part of closing.
Why this answer
Project closure includes formal acceptance from the sponsor/customer and archiving project documents. Releasing resources and lessons learned are also closure activities, but the question asks for TWO from the options.
A vendor is hired to provide a service with a fixed price of $100,000, regardless of actual costs incurred. Which contract type is this?
Correct: fixed-price has a set price.
Why this answer
A fixed-price contract has a predetermined price that does not change based on the seller's cost performance.
A project manager is planning risk responses for identified risks. Which THREE are valid risk response strategies?
Correct: Avoid involves eliminating the risk.
Why this answer
The main risk response strategies are Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, and Accept. Enhance is for opportunities, not threats.
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