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CCNA Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies Questions

32 of 107 questions · Page 2/2 · Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies · Answers revealed

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76
Multi-Selectmedium

In a predictive project management approach, which TWO artifacts are components of the project management plan?

Select 2 answers
A.Schedule baseline
B.Lessons learned register
C.Requirements traceability matrix
D.Work breakdown structure dictionary
E.Project charter
AnswersA, D

The schedule baseline is a key component of the project management plan.

Why this answer

The schedule baseline (option A) is a component of the project management plan as it represents the approved schedule model used to measure performance. The work breakdown structure dictionary (option D) is also a component, as it provides detailed information about each WBS element and is part of the scope baseline, which is a key component of the project management plan. In predictive (waterfall) project management, both baselines are formally integrated into the plan and are subject to change control processes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse project documents (like the lessons learned register or requirements traceability matrix) with components of the project management plan, but the PMBOK Guide clearly distinguishes between the two categories, and the exam expects you to know which artifacts are formally part of the plan versus supporting documents.

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77
MCQmedium

Using the risk register entry shown, what is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?

A.$10,000
B.$50,000
C.$80,000
D.$40,000
AnswerD

0.8 * $50,000 = $40,000 correct EMV.

Why this answer

$40,000. EMV = Probability * Impact = 0.8 * $50,000 = $40,000. Option A ($10,000) incorrectly uses a probability of 0.2.

Option B ($50,000) uses the impact alone without probability. Option C ($80,000) is likely from multiplying 0.8 by $100,000 or a calculation error.

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78
MCQhard

A project manager is evaluating cost performance using earned value management (EVM). The project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.85 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.90. Which conclusion is most appropriate?

A.The project is over budget but ahead of schedule.
B.The project is behind schedule but on budget.
C.The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.
D.The project is over budget and behind schedule.
AnswerD

CPI < 1 and SPI < 1 indicate both over budget and behind schedule.

Why this answer

A CPI of 0.85 indicates that for every dollar spent, only $0.85 of value is earned, meaning the project is over budget (cost overrun). An SPI of 0.90 indicates that the project is progressing at 90% of the planned rate, meaning it is behind schedule. Therefore, option D is correct: the project is over budget and behind schedule.

Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they contradict these EVM interpretations.

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79
MCQeasy

A project manager is planning a project and needs to identify all the work required to complete the project successfully. Which document is the primary output of the Create WBS process?

A.Scope baseline
B.Project charter
C.Requirements traceability matrix
D.Work performance data
AnswerA

The scope baseline is the approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.

Why this answer

The Create WBS process decomposes the project scope into manageable work packages, and its primary output is the scope baseline. The scope baseline consists of the project scope statement, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary, which together define all the work required to complete the project successfully.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the primary output of Create WBS with the project charter or requirements traceability matrix, not realizing that the scope baseline is the formal, approved document that includes the WBS itself and its supporting components.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the project charter is an output of the Develop Project Charter process, not the Create WBS process; it authorizes the project and assigns the project manager. Option C is wrong because the requirements traceability matrix is an output of the Collect Requirements process, used to track requirements throughout the project lifecycle, not a direct output of creating the WBS. Option D is wrong because work performance data is generated during the Direct and Manage Project Work process as raw observations and measurements, not from the Create WBS process.

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80
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are key components of a work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary?

Select 3 answers
A.Schedule milestones
B.Project charter
C.Description of work package
D.Network diagram of activities
E.Responsible organization or person
AnswersA, C, E

Milestones associated with the work package are included.

Why this answer

The WBS dictionary provides detailed information about each WBS component. Key components include a description of the work package (C), the responsible organization or person (E), and associated schedule milestones (A). Option B is incorrect because the project charter is a separate high-level document authorizing the project, not a component of the WBS dictionary.

Option D is incorrect because network diagrams are used for activity sequencing, not typically included in the WBS dictionary.

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81
MCQmedium

A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified that the foundation work must be completed before the framing can begin. Which type of dependency does this represent?

A.Mandatory dependency
B.Lead
C.Discretionary dependency
D.External dependency
AnswerA

Mandatory dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work, such as physical or legal requirements.

Why this answer

The dependency between foundation work and framing is a mandatory dependency because it is physically required that the foundation be completed before framing can begin. In construction, this is a hard logic constraint inherent in the nature of the work, not a preference or external factor. Mandatory dependencies are often referred to as 'hard logic' and are typically based on contractual requirements or physical limitations.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'mandatory dependency' with 'discretionary dependency' because they think all logical sequences are discretionary, but mandatory dependencies are those dictated by the nature of the work itself, not by preference or best practice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Lead) is wrong because a lead is a technique used to accelerate the successor activity by overlapping it with the predecessor, not a type of dependency. Option C (Discretionary dependency) is wrong because this dependency is not based on best practices or preferences; it is a physical necessity. Option D (External dependency) is wrong because the dependency is between two internal project activities (foundation and framing), not involving a factor outside the project.

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82
MCQmedium

Based on the exhibit, what is the critical path duration?

A.15 days
B.16 days
C.14 days
D.13 days
AnswerA

The critical path is A-B-D-E-G with 15 days.

Why this answer

The critical path is the longest path through the network. Path A-B-D-E-G = 3+4+5+2+1 = 15 days. Path A-C-D-F-G = 3+2+5+3+1 = 14 days.

Therefore, the critical path duration is 15 days. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the longest path duration.

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83
MCQeasy

A project manager is leading a software development project using a predictive plan-based methodology. The project is at 70% completion and the team has discovered a significant defect in a module that was completed two months ago. The defect was not identified during testing because the test cases were incomplete. The project schedule has a buffer of 5 days, and the defect is expected to take 10 days to fix. The project manager needs to determine the best course of action. Which of the following should the project manager do?

A.Update the project schedule with the 10-day fix and request additional resources to compress the schedule.
B.Immediately assign the team to fix the defect without any formal change request to save time.
C.Inform the customer and request a change to the scope to remove the defective module.
D.Follow the project's change control process to evaluate the impact on scope, schedule, and cost before deciding on corrective actions.
AnswerD

Following the change control process is the appropriate action to assess and manage the impact of the defect fix.

Why this answer

In a predictive project, changes should be managed through the formal change control process. This ensures that the impact on scope, schedule, and cost is evaluated before taking action. Simply assigning the fix without a change request bypasses controls, removing the module changes scope without analysis, and requesting additional resources without a plan is premature.

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84
MCQeasy

A project manager needs to decompose the project scope into smaller, more manageable components to provide a framework for detailed planning. Which technique should the project manager use?

A.RACI matrix
B.Critical Path Method (CPM)
C.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D.Gantt chart
AnswerC

The WBS breaks down the project scope into work packages for detailed planning.

Why this answer

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the tool used to decompose scope into work packages. Option A is wrong because the RACI matrix is for responsibility assignment, not decomposition. Option B is wrong because the Critical Path Method (CPM) is for schedule analysis, not decomposition.

Option D is wrong because the Gantt chart is for scheduling, not decomposition.

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85
MCQmedium

A project manager is reviewing the project's cost performance. The actual cost (AC) is $50,000, the earned value (EV) is $45,000, and the planned value (PV) is $60,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?

A.$5,000
B.-$15,000
C.-$5,000
D.$10,000
AnswerC

CV = EV - AC = -$5,000.

Why this answer

Cost variance (CV) is calculated as EV minus AC. Here, EV = $45,000 and AC = $50,000, so CV = $45,000 - $50,000 = -$5,000. A negative CV indicates the project is over budget, which matches option C.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing cost variance (CV = EV - AC) with schedule variance (SV = EV - PV) or incorrectly subtracting AC from EV, leading candidates to pick $5,000 or -$15,000.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because $5,000 would be the result of subtracting EV from AC (AC - EV = $5,000), but the correct formula is EV - AC. Option B is wrong because -$15,000 results from subtracting PV from AC (AC - PV = -$10,000) or confusing CV with schedule variance (SV = EV - PV = -$15,000). Option D is wrong because $10,000 is the result of subtracting AC from PV (PV - AC = $10,000), which is not a standard earned value management metric.

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86
MCQhard

During the planning phase of a predictive project, the project manager wants to define the project scope more precisely. Which process should be used to develop a detailed description of the project and product?

A.Define Scope
B.Collect Requirements
C.Create WBS
D.Validate Scope
AnswerA

Correct: This process produces the project scope statement.

Why this answer

Define Scope is the process of developing a detailed project scope statement that describes the project and product boundaries.

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87
MCQeasy

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What is the first step the project manager should take?

A.Reject the change due to budget and time constraints
B.Submit a change request to the change control board
C.Implement the change and document it later
D.Approve the change because the stakeholder is key
AnswerB

Formal change requests are submitted to the CCB for evaluation and decision.

Why this answer

In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow the formal integrated change control process. The project manager's first step after evaluating the impact is to submit a change request to the change control board (CCB) for approval or rejection. This ensures that all changes are documented, assessed for risks, and aligned with the project baseline before implementation.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the misconception that a key stakeholder's request should be automatically approved or that the project manager can make unilateral decisions on scope changes, when in fact the formal change control process must always be followed regardless of stakeholder importance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because rejecting the change outright without following the formal change control process bypasses the CCB's authority and ignores the stakeholder's legitimate request, which may have business value. Option C is wrong because implementing the change before obtaining formal approval violates the change control process and can lead to uncontrolled scope creep, budget overruns, and schedule delays. Option D is wrong because even a key stakeholder's request must go through the CCB for objective evaluation; approving it unilaterally undermines governance and can set a dangerous precedent.

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88
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are core activities in a predictive plan-based methodology?

Select 2 answers
A.Conducting iterative retrospectives after each sprint
B.Implementing adaptive budgeting with frequent reallocation of funds
C.Developing a detailed project schedule using the critical path method (CPM)
D.Using rolling wave planning to progressively elaborate details
E.Decomposing the project scope into a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
AnswersC, E

CPM is used in predictive scheduling.

Why this answer

In predictive plan-based methodology, detailed planning is done upfront, and changes are controlled. Decomposition of work into WBS and using CPM for scheduling are key activities. Rolling wave planning is more iterative, and retrospective reviews are from agile.

Adaptive budgeting is not typical.

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89
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. What is the critical path duration?

A.14 days
B.17 days
C.16 days
D.15 days
AnswerC

The critical path (A-B-D-E) totals 16 days.

Why this answer

The critical path is the longest path through the network. Path A-B-D-E: 3+5+6+2=16 days. Path A-C-D-E: 3+4+6+2=15 days.

Therefore, the critical path duration is 16 days.

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90
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a key component of a project scope baseline in predictive project management?

A.The project budget
B.The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C.The risk register
D.The stakeholder register
AnswerB

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a key component of the scope baseline as it defines the hierarchical decomposition of the project scope.

Why this answer

In predictive project management, the scope baseline consists of the approved project scope statement, Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and WBS dictionary. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition that breaks down the project work into manageable components, forming the foundation for scope management. Therefore, the WBS is a key component of the scope baseline, making option B correct.

Exam trap

Some may confuse scope baseline with other baselines, but the WBS is specifically part of scope baseline, not budget or schedule. The risk register is part of the risk management plan, not the scope baseline.

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91
MCQhard

A project manager is evaluating a project governance policy in a predictive plan-based methodology. The policy states: Deny changes to project requirements unless the requester is a member of the Change Control Board (CCB). What effect does this policy have?

A.Denies changes from members of the Change Control Board.
B.Denies changes from anyone except members of the Change Control Board.
C.Allows changes only from members of the Change Control Board.
D.Allows changes from any requester.
AnswerB

Correct: The Deny applies when the source IP is not equal to 10.0.0.0/8.

Why this answer

The policy denies a change to project requirements when the requester is NOT a member of the CCB. Thus, it denies changes from anyone outside the CCB, meaning it effectively allows changes only from CCB members. However, the policy is denial-based, not allowance-based, so the correct description is that it denies changes from all except CCB members.

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92
MCQeasy

A project manager is creating the risk management plan. Which document should the project manager reference to identify the risk tolerance of stakeholders?

A.Project scope statement
B.Stakeholder management plan
C.Project charter
D.Risk register
AnswerC

Correct. The project charter includes the risk appetite and high-level risks, which inform stakeholder risk tolerance.

Why this answer

The project charter contains high-level project risks and the risk appetite of the organization, which reflects stakeholders' risk tolerance. Therefore, it is the appropriate document to reference when creating the risk management plan.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates often select the stakeholder management plan, but risk tolerance is actually documented in the project charter.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the project scope statement defines the project's deliverables, boundaries, and acceptance criteria, but it does not contain stakeholder-specific risk tolerance information. Option C is wrong because the project charter provides high-level risks and the project's purpose, but it lacks the detailed stakeholder analysis needed to determine individual risk tolerances. Option D is wrong because the risk register is an output of the risk management process, not an input to creating the risk management plan; it lists identified risks and responses, not stakeholder risk tolerance.

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93
MCQhard

A manufacturing project using predictive plan-based methodology is underway. The project manager identifies a risk that a key raw material supplier may go bankrupt, which would halt production for at least two weeks. The probability is assessed as 30% with a high impact. The project manager plans to hold a risk response planning meeting with the team. One team member suggests identifying an alternative supplier and signing a contingency contract. Another recommends self-insuring by setting aside budget reserves. The project sponsor wants to reduce the probability by investing in supplier financial health monitoring. Which combination of risk responses is MOST appropriate for this risk?

A.Avoid the risk by choosing a different raw material, and accept the risk by setting aside contingency reserves.
B.Mitigate the risk by stockpiling raw materials, and avoid the risk by cancelling the project.
C.Transfer the risk by signing a contingency contract with an alternative supplier, and mitigate the risk by monitoring the supplier's financial health.
D.Accept the risk by using management reserves, and ignore mitigation efforts.
AnswerC

Contingency contract transfers the impact, monitoring reduces probability.

Why this answer

The correct combination is transferring the risk via a contingency contract with an alternative supplier and mitigating the risk by monitoring the supplier's financial health. Transfer involves shifting the financial impact to another party (the alternative supplier through a contingency contract), while mitigation reduces the probability or impact (monitoring financial health). Option B (stockpiling) is a form of mitigation but not mentioned in the stem, and cancelling the project (avoid) is too extreme.

Option A suggests avoid by changing material (not feasible) and accept. Option D suggests accept and ignore, which is not appropriate for a high-impact risk.

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94
MCQeasy

A project manager is developing a project schedule for a software development project using a predictive approach. After identifying activities and sequencing them, what is the NEXT step?

A.Control schedule
B.Define activities
C.Develop schedule
D.Estimate activity durations
AnswerD

This is the next step after sequencing activities.

Why this answer

After sequencing activities, the next process is to estimate activity durations, then develop schedule. Option D is correct.

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95
MCQmedium

A project manager is leading a construction project with a fixed budget and strict deadline. During execution, a key supplier notifies that a critical material will be delayed by two weeks, which will push the project past the deadline. The project manager reviews the schedule and identifies that the delay can be compensated by fast-tracking two subsequent activities that are currently planned sequentially. What should the project manager do first?

A.Accept the delay and update the project schedule accordingly.
B.Assess the risks of fast-tracking the two activities.
C.Submit a change request to extend the deadline.
D.Immediately add resources to the delayed activity to catch up.
AnswerB

Fast-tracking increases risk, so risk assessment must precede implementation.

Why this answer

The correct first step is to assess the risks of fast-tracking the two activities (Option B). Fast-tracking involves performing activities in parallel that were originally planned sequentially, which can introduce new risks such as rework, resource conflicts, or quality issues. The PMBOK Guide emphasizes that before implementing a schedule compression technique, the project manager must evaluate the associated risks and determine if the benefits outweigh the potential negative impacts.

Since the project has a fixed budget and strict deadline, a risk assessment ensures informed decision-making before proceeding.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may immediately choose to add resources (Option D) or accept the delay (Option A) without recognizing that the PMBOK Guide prescribes risk assessment as the mandatory first step before implementing any schedule compression technique.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because accepting the delay without exploring schedule compression options violates the proactive management expected in predictive plan-based methodologies, especially when the deadline is strict. Option C is wrong because submitting a change request to extend the deadline should only be considered after evaluating alternatives like fast-tracking or crashing, not as the first action. Option D is wrong because immediately adding resources to the delayed activity (crashing) may increase costs, which conflicts with the fixed budget constraint, and the question specifically identifies fast-tracking as the viable option.

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96
MCQeasy

During the execution phase of a software development project, the team discovers a critical bug that requires an immediate fix. The project manager uses the contingency reserve to address this. Which plan-based process is being applied?

A.Direct and Manage Project Work
B.Monitor and Control Project Work
C.Close Project or Phase
D.Perform Integrated Change Control
AnswerD

This process manages changes to baselines, including using contingency reserves.

Why this answer

D is correct because using the contingency reserve to address a critical bug requires a formal change request to authorize the release of funds from the reserve. This aligns with the Perform Integrated Change Control process, which evaluates, approves, and manages changes to project baselines, including the cost baseline. The project manager must submit a change request, which is then reviewed by the Change Control Board (CCB) before the contingency reserve can be applied.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse using a contingency reserve with simply executing work (Direct and Manage Project Work) or monitoring performance (Monitor and Control Project Work), failing to recognize that any use of baseline reserves must go through formal change control to maintain the integrity of the project baselines.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Direct and Manage Project Work is the process of executing the work defined in the project management plan to achieve project objectives, not the process for approving changes to baselines or using reserves. Option B is wrong because Monitor and Control Project Work involves tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall project performance, but it does not include the formal approval of change requests or the authorization to use contingency reserves. Option C is wrong because Close Project or Phase is the process of finalizing all activities across all project management process groups to formally complete the project or phase, and it does not involve using contingency reserves for unplanned work.

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97
MCQeasy

A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified all activities and their dependencies. Which tool should the project manager use to determine the critical path?

A.Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B.Critical path method (CPM)
C.Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
D.Gantt chart
AnswerB

CPM calculates the critical path.

Why this answer

The Critical Path Method (CPM) is the correct tool because it calculates the longest path through the project network diagram by analyzing activity durations and dependencies, identifying which activities have zero float and thus determine the project's minimum completion time. The question specifically asks for determining the critical path, which is the core output of CPM, not just visualizing or estimating durations.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse PERT with CPM because both use network diagrams, but PERT is for probabilistic duration estimation while CPM is specifically for identifying the critical path via float calculations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a hierarchical decomposition of project deliverables and work packages, not a scheduling tool; it does not include dependencies or durations needed to calculate the critical path. Option C is wrong because Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is a probabilistic method for estimating activity durations using optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely times, but it does not directly determine the critical path; CPM is the deterministic method for that. Option D is wrong because a Gantt chart is a visual bar chart showing activities over time, but it does not perform the forward/backward pass calculations required to identify the critical path; it merely displays the schedule after CPM analysis.

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98
MCQmedium

A project manager identifies a risk that could cause a 10-day delay. The probability of occurrence is 30%. What is the expected monetary value (EMV) of this risk?

A.3 days
B.10 days
C.0.3 days
D.30 days
AnswerA

EMV = 0.3 × 10 = 3 days.

Why this answer

EMV is calculated as Probability × Impact. Here, 0.3 × 10 days = 3 days. EMV is used to quantify risk in monetary terms, but in this case impact is in days.

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99
MCQhard

You are the project manager for a large infrastructure project using a predictive plan-based methodology. The project has a critical path duration of 200 days. After 50 days of execution, a major delay occurs on a critical path activity due to unforeseen ground conditions, adding 20 days to that activity. The project has no float on the critical path. The sponsor requests a recovery plan to bring the project back on schedule. The team proposes two options: (1) crash activity X on the critical path by adding overtime, costing $10,000 and saving 5 days; (2) fast-track activity Y and Z by starting Y earlier, saving 10 days but increasing risk. What is the BEST integrated approach?

A.Crash activity X to gain 5 days, then accept the 15-day delay and request a schedule baseline change.
B.Implement only the fast-tracking option to save 10 days, then accept the remaining 10-day delay.
C.Implement only the crashing option to save 5 days, and then use management reserves to absorb the remaining 15 days.
D.Fast-track activities Y and Z to gain 10 days, crash activity X to gain 5 days, then negotiate a schedule change for the remaining 5 days.
AnswerD

Combines two compression techniques to recover most of the delay, then formally adjusts the schedule.

Why this answer

The project is delayed by 20 days on the critical path. The team proposes two recovery techniques: crashing (cost $10,000, saves 5 days) and fast-tracking (saves 10 days, increases risk). Option D combines both techniques to recover 15 days (10+5), then negotiates a schedule change for the remaining 5 days.

This is the most effective integrated approach because it maximizes recovery while acknowledging the need for a baseline change for the remainder. Option A only crashes, saving only 5 days, leaving 15 days delay, and requires a baseline change; it does not utilize fast-tracking. Option B only fast-tracks, saving 10 days, leaving 10 days delay; it does not use crashing.

Option C crashes but then uses management reserves, which are typically for unforeseen risks, not for recovery from known delays; management reserves should not be used to absorb planned recovery shortfall. Therefore, D is correct.

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100
MCQeasy

A project manager is creating the project schedule. The team estimates that the optimistic time for an activity is 10 days, the pessimistic time is 30 days, and the most likely time is 15 days. Using PERT three-point estimation, what is the expected duration?

A.16.67 days
B.18.33 days
C.20.00 days
D.15.00 days
AnswerA

Correct calculation using PERT formula.

Why this answer

The PERT three-point estimate formula is (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Plugging in the values: (10 + 4×15 + 30) / 6 = (10 + 60 + 30) / 6 = 100 / 6 = 16.67 days. This weighted average gives more influence to the most likely estimate, reflecting a beta distribution.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often use a simple arithmetic mean (average) instead of the weighted PERT formula, leading them to select 18.33 days (Option B).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (18.33 days) is wrong because it results from using a simple average (10+15+30)/3 = 18.33, ignoring the PERT weighting factor of 4 for the most likely time. Option C (20.00 days) is wrong because it incorrectly uses the midpoint between optimistic and pessimistic (10+30)/2 = 20, which disregards the most likely estimate entirely. Option D (15.00 days) is wrong because it assumes the expected duration equals the most likely time, failing to account for the influence of optimistic and pessimistic extremes.

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101
MCQhard

A project manager is estimating activity durations for a software development project. The team has historical data from similar projects, but the current project involves new technology that could cause delays. Which estimating technique should the project manager use to account for uncertainty?

A.Parametric estimating
B.Analogous estimating
C.Three-point estimating
D.Bottom-up estimating
AnswerC

Incorporates uncertainty via three values.

Why this answer

Three-point estimating (C) is correct because it explicitly accounts for uncertainty by using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates. The new technology introduces unknown risks, making the triangular or PERT distribution ideal for modeling the potential delay range.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose analogous estimating (B) because it seems quick and uses past data, but they miss that new technology invalidates the similarity assumption, making three-point estimating the correct choice for uncertainty.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because parametric estimating uses statistical relationships between historical data and variables (e.g., lines of code per hour) but does not inherently model uncertainty from novel technology. Option B is wrong because analogous estimating relies on historical data from similar projects, which is less reliable when new technology introduces unknown delays. Option D is wrong because bottom-up estimating aggregates detailed estimates from individual work packages, but it does not incorporate a formal uncertainty range unless combined with three-point estimates.

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102
Matchingmedium

Match each project constraint to its typical trade-off.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

What work is included

Time available for completion

Budget allocated

Standards to be met

People and equipment available

Why these pairings

The triple constraint model (scope, time, cost) states that changing one constraint typically impacts the others. Scope increases lead to time and cost increases; reducing time requires scope or cost adjustments; reducing cost requires scope or time adjustments. Common confusions include reversing the direction of trade-offs.

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103
MCQmedium

A project manager notices that the project's cost performance index (CPI) is 0.85. What does this indicate?

A.The project is under budget
B.The project is behind schedule
C.The project is ahead of schedule
D.The project is over budget
AnswerD

Correct: CPI less than 1 means cost overrun.

Why this answer

CPI < 1 indicates that the project is over budget, as the value earned is less than the cost incurred.

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104
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are valid techniques for schedule compression in a predictive project?

Select 2 answers
A.Fast tracking
B.Adding lag
C.Monte Carlo simulation
D.Crashing
E.Resource leveling
AnswersA, D

Fast tracking performs activities in parallel.

Why this answer

Options A and D are correct. Fast tracking involves overlapping activities that would normally be done in sequence, shortening the schedule. Crashing adds resources to critical path activities to reduce duration.

Option B is wrong because adding lag increases duration. Option C is wrong because Monte Carlo simulation is a risk analysis technique, not schedule compression. Option E is wrong because resource leveling often lengthens the schedule by balancing resource demand.

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105
MCQmedium

In a predictive project, the project manager must formally accept the project's deliverables. Which process group does this activity belong to?

A.Executing
B.Closing
C.Planning
D.Initiating
AnswerB

Correct: Deliverables are formally accepted during project or phase closing.

Why this answer

Formal acceptance of deliverables occurs during the Closing process group, specifically in the Validate Scope and Close Project processes.

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106
MCQmedium

How many work packages are at WBS level 2 (the second level) in this exhibit?

A.3
B.4
C.2
D.6
AnswerA

The three decomposition elements at level 2 are Planning, Execution, and Closure.

Why this answer

Level 1 is '1.0 Project'. Level 2 consists of '1.1 Planning', '1.2 Execution', and '1.3 Closure' — that's three work packages. Option B incorrectly counts four, option C counts two, and option D counts six (the leaf nodes).

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107
MCQhard

A project manager is estimating activity durations for a new software development project. The manager has data from three similar previous projects, but the new project is slightly larger in scope. Which estimating technique is most appropriate given the available data?

A.Analogous estimating
B.Parametric estimating
C.Three-point estimating
D.Bottom-up estimating
AnswerA

Uses historical data from similar projects to estimate durations; appropriate here.

Why this answer

Analogous estimating is the most appropriate technique because it uses historical data from similar previous projects to estimate the current project's activity durations, adjusting for known differences such as scope. The other techniques are less suitable: parametric estimating requires a statistical relationship, three-point estimating needs optimistic/pessimistic/most likely estimates, and bottom-up estimating is too detailed for early stages.

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