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Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA (CISA) — Questions 376450

995 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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376
MCQhard

A multinational corporation is evaluating its IT governance structure. The board wants to ensure that IT investments are prioritized based on risk and value. Which framework component is MOST critical?

A.Service level agreements
B.Balanced scorecard
C.IT steering committee
D.Portfolio management process
AnswerD

This process evaluates and ranks investments by risk and value.

Why this answer

A portfolio management process systematically evaluates and prioritizes investments based on risk and value, aligning with board objectives. Steering committee provides oversight, but portfolio management is the mechanism for prioritization.

377
MCQeasy

A mid-sized company is implementing a new IT service management (ITSM) tool to improve incident management. The IT manager wants to ensure that the tool aligns with ITIL best practices. The company has a dedicated service desk team that handles about 200 incidents per week. The IT manager is considering whether to implement a self-service portal for users to submit incidents and check status, or to continue using email-based incident reporting. The service desk team is concerned that a self-service portal might reduce their direct interaction with users and potentially lead to less personalized support. However, the IT manager believes that a portal could improve efficiency and tracking. The company's IT governance framework requires that any major IT investment be approved by the steering committee and that there be a clear business case. The IT manager has prepared a business case but the steering committee wants to ensure that the solution is aligned with ITIL and that it addresses key incident management processes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the IT manager?

A.Implement the self-service portal immediately to improve efficiency, then present the business case later.
B.Conduct a process review with stakeholders to define requirements based on ITIL guidelines before selecting a tool.
C.Proceed with the self-service portal without further review because it is clearly beneficial.
D.Abandon the self-service portal idea and continue with email-based reporting.
AnswerB

This ensures alignment with ITIL and addresses concerns through stakeholder involvement.

Why this answer

ITIL best practices emphasize that process design should precede tool selection. Conducting a process review with stakeholders ensures the self-service portal aligns with defined incident management workflows, such as categorization, prioritization, and escalation, before committing to a specific tool. This step also satisfies the IT governance requirement for a clear business case by validating requirements against ITIL guidelines.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume any self-service portal automatically improves efficiency and aligns with ITIL, but CISA tests the principle that process definition must precede tool selection to ensure governance and best practice alignment.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because implementing the portal immediately without presenting the business case violates the IT governance framework requiring steering committee approval for major IT investments, and it risks deploying a tool that does not align with ITIL-defined incident management processes. Option C is wrong because proceeding without further review ignores the service desk team's concerns about reduced personalization and fails to ensure the portal supports ITIL processes like incident categorization and SLA tracking, which could lead to inefficiencies. Option D is wrong because abandoning the portal idea outright dismisses the potential efficiency gains and tracking improvements that a properly designed self-service portal can provide, and it does not address the need to align with ITIL best practices.

378
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing backup procedures for a critical database. Which THREE are key considerations for ensuring backup reliability and recoverability?

Select 3 answers
A.Ensuring backup retention periods meet the recovery point objective (RPO).
B.Regularly performing restore verification tests.
C.Encrypting backup data to prevent unauthorized access.
D.Storing backups at an offsite location.
E.Compressing backup data to reduce storage costs.
AnswersA, B, D

Retention must align with RPO to allow recovery to the desired point.

Why this answer

Backup reliability requires regular testing (restore verification), secure offsite storage to protect against site disasters, and retention aligned with business recovery objectives. Encryption is important but not directly for reliability; compression may affect performance but not reliability.

379
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the effectiveness of a control that requires dual approval for payments over $10,000. The auditor selects a sample of payments and independently verifies that two approvals were obtained. This audit procedure is:

A.Inquiry
B.Re-performance
C.Observation
D.Inspection
AnswerB

Correct procedure.

Why this answer

Re-performance involves the auditor independently executing the control to verify its effectiveness.

380
MCQmedium

During an operational audit of an IT department, the auditor finds that system uptime is 99.9% but the department missed two critical project deadlines. Which conclusion is most appropriate?

A.The department has a material weakness in controls
B.The department is efficient but may not be effective
C.The department is operating effectively based on uptime
D.The department should be outsourced
AnswerB

High uptime suggests efficiency, but missed deadlines indicate lack of effectiveness.

Why this answer

Operational audit assesses effectiveness and efficiency; missed deadlines indicate inefficiency or ineffectiveness.

381
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing a waterfall SDLC project that has completed the requirements phase. Which of the following is the greatest risk to the project?

A.The project manager left the company.
B.A key business stakeholder did not sign off on the requirements.
C.The development team is unfamiliar with the technology.
D.The design phase is behind schedule.
AnswerB

Without sign-off, requirements may not reflect actual needs, leading to rework.

Why this answer

In waterfall, requirements are defined upfront and changes are difficult. If a key stakeholder did not sign off, there is a risk that later phases will be based on incomplete or incorrect requirements.

382
MCQhard

An IS auditor is reviewing the change management process for a critical financial application. Which of the following findings would be of GREATEST concern?

A.Standard changes are documented but not tracked individually
B.Change requests are logged in a spreadsheet instead of a dedicated system
C.Emergency changes are implemented without subsequent CAB approval
D.The CAB meets only once per month
AnswerC

This violates the principle of retrospective review for emergency changes.

Why this answer

Emergency changes bypassing CAB approval pose high risk as they may not undergo proper testing and review.

383
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are components of the IT balanced scorecard?

Select 2 answers
A.Financial perspective
B.Customer perspective
C.Technology perspective
D.Compliance perspective
E.Security perspective
AnswersA, B

Financial perspective measures IT's contribution to financial objectives.

Why this answer

The IT balanced scorecard typically includes financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth perspectives.

384
Multi-Selecteasy

An IS auditor is reviewing the logical access controls for a cloud-based HR system. The system contains sensitive employee data. The auditor notes that user provisioning is performed by the HR department without IT involvement, and there is no formal access request or approval process. Which THREE of the following are the MOST significant risks?

Select 3 answers
A.There is no audit trail of who granted access and why
B.Segregation of duties between HR and IT is not maintained
C.Password policies may not be enforced
D.Users may be granted excessive privileges beyond their job requirements
E.User accounts may not be locked after multiple failed login attempts
AnswersA, B, D

Lack of formal process means no accountability.

Why this answer

Without formal access controls, users may receive excessive privileges, there is no audit trail for access grants, and segregation of duties is violated. While password security and user lockout are relevant, the primary risks stem from the lack of control over provisioning.

385
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key elements of a change request document?

Select 2 answers
A.Vendor contract
B.Justification
C.Project budget
D.Rollback plan
E.User manual
AnswersB, D

Correct. Justification explains why the change is needed.

Why this answer

A change request should include justification for the change and a rollback plan to mitigate risks.

386
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key controls that an IS auditor should expect to find in a well-managed system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Select 2 answers
A.Segregation of duties between development and testing.
B.Vendor due diligence reports.
C.Formal change control process for code changes.
D.Automated unit testing scripts.
E.Gantt chart for project scheduling.
AnswersA, C

Ensures independent verification and reduces risk of errors.

Why this answer

Segregation of duties between development and testing is a key control because it ensures that code is independently verified before release, preventing developers from approving their own changes and reducing the risk of undetected defects or malicious code. In a well-managed SDLC, this separation enforces an independent testing phase, which is critical for maintaining code integrity and security.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse project management artifacts (like Gantt charts) or development tools (like unit test scripts) with actual controls, but the CISA exam focuses on controls that enforce separation of duties and formal change management, not on the tools or schedules used to manage the project.

387
MCQmedium

During an operational audit, the auditor wants to evaluate the efficiency of a data entry process. Which of the following audit procedures would be most appropriate?

A.Performing trend analysis on the number of transactions processed per hour
B.Inspecting system logs to verify user access
C.Observing data entry operators to identify procedural bottlenecks
D.Interviewing the data entry supervisor about error rates
AnswerA

Trend analysis is an analytical procedure that measures efficiency.

Why this answer

Analytical procedures, such as comparing processing times to benchmarks, can identify inefficiencies. Observation may show procedures but not efficiency quantitatively.

388
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the physical access controls at a data center. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to prevent tailgating?

A.Mantrap with two interlocking doors
B.Biometric access controls
C.CCTV cameras at entrances
D.Security guards at the entrance
AnswerA

A mantrap physically enforces single passage.

Why this answer

A mantrap allows only one person to pass at a time, preventing unauthorized individuals from following an authorized person.

389
MCQmedium

An organization is developing a policy on acceptable use of company IT resources. Which of the following should be included to support effective governance?

A.Detailed technical configuration standards
B.Consequences of non-compliance
C.Service level targets for IT support
D.Procedures for incident response
AnswerB

Including consequences ensures that the policy is enforceable and supports governance.

Why this answer

An acceptable use policy should clearly define what constitutes acceptable and unacceptable use, including consequences for violations. This supports governance by establishing rules and accountability.

390
MCQhard

An IS auditor is testing the effectiveness of a control that requires dual authorization for all transactions over $10,000. The population consists of 5,000 transactions, of which 250 exceed the threshold. The auditor uses a sample of 50 transactions from the entire population and finds 3 exceptions. What type of sampling method did the auditor use?

A.Judgmental sampling
B.Stratified sampling
C.Random sampling
D.Systematic sampling
AnswerA

The auditor selected a sample from the entire population without a statistical method, which is judgmental.

Why this answer

The auditor selected a sample from the entire population without stratification, and the selection method is not described as random or systematic; however, the description implies a non-statistical judgmental sample. Stratified sampling would require dividing the population into subgroups (e.g., by value).

391
MCQhard

A multinational corporation is implementing a global HR system. The project team decides to use a pilot implementation in one region before rolling out to others. What is the PRIMARY risk if the pilot region is not representative of the entire organization?

A.The pilot team may become overly confident.
B.The pilot may run over budget due to unexpected challenges.
C.Issues relevant to other regions may remain undetected.
D.The implementation schedule will be delayed.
AnswerC

Pilot should reveal all potential issues; a non-representative pilot misses them.

Why this answer

The primary risk of a non-representative pilot is that region-specific variations in regulatory, cultural, or technical infrastructure (e.g., data privacy laws like GDPR, local labor regulations, or network latency) will not be exercised. This means defects or integration failures that are unique to other regions remain hidden until full rollout, undermining the pilot's purpose as a risk-reduction mechanism. Option C directly captures this core risk of undetected issues.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a secondary consequence (like budget overruns or delays) with the primary risk, which is the failure to detect region-specific issues that could cause catastrophic failures during full rollout.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because pilot team overconfidence is a secondary human-factor risk, not the primary technical risk of a non-representative sample; the pilot could still surface issues even if the team is overconfident. Option B is wrong because unexpected challenges in a non-representative pilot are less likely to cause budget overruns (the pilot may actually be too easy), and the primary risk is about undetected issues, not cost. Option D is wrong because schedule delays are a possible consequence of undetected issues, but the primary risk is the failure to detect those issues in the first place, not the delay itself.

392
MCQmedium

During a post-implementation review of a new financial system, the IS auditor finds that user acceptance testing (UAT) was completed with only 60% of test cases passed. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk?

A.The system deployment was delayed
B.The system performance is below expectations
C.The project was not completed within the planned budget
D.The system may not fully meet business requirements, leading to user workarounds
AnswerD

Unpassed test cases mean functionality gaps that users may bypass, increasing error and fraud risk.

Why this answer

Low UAT pass rate indicates unresolved defects or unmet user requirements, leading to user dissatisfaction and potential workarounds that compromise controls.

393
MCQhard

An IS auditor reviews the change request. Which of the following is the most significant risk?

A.The description is too vague
B.The approval is still pending close to the scheduled date
C.The impact assessment is incorrect
D.The change affects a financial module
AnswerC

Interest calculation is a critical financial function; labeling it as low impact may lead to insufficient testing and controls.

Why this answer

An incorrect impact assessment (Option C) is the most significant risk because it directly undermines the change management process. If the impact is misjudged, the change may introduce unanticipated failures, data corruption, or security vulnerabilities into the production environment. Unlike vague descriptions or pending approvals, an incorrect impact assessment can lead to catastrophic system outages or compliance violations that are difficult to reverse.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on the obvious procedural flaw (pending approval) or the high-profile module (financial), rather than recognizing that an incorrect impact assessment is the root cause that can make any change disastrous regardless of other factors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a vague description, while undesirable, is a documentation issue that can often be clarified during implementation or testing; it does not inherently introduce technical risk to the system. Option B is wrong because pending approval close to the scheduled date is a process timing risk that can be mitigated by rescheduling or expediting approval; it does not directly threaten system integrity or security. Option D is wrong because the change affecting a financial module is a contextual factor, not a risk itself—the risk lies in how the change is assessed and implemented, not in which module it touches.

394
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a data classification scheme?

A.To enable encryption of all sensitive data
B.To meet regulatory compliance requirements
C.To define data retention periods
D.To ensure appropriate security controls are applied based on data sensitivity
AnswerD

Classification drives protection.

Why this answer

A data classification scheme assigns sensitivity labels (e.g., public, internal, confidential, restricted) to information assets. Its primary purpose is to ensure that appropriate security controls—such as access control lists, encryption strength, and monitoring—are applied proportionally to the data's sensitivity. Without classification, controls would be either insufficient for high-risk data or overly restrictive for low-risk data, undermining both security and operational efficiency.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates mistake a downstream benefit (like enabling encryption or meeting compliance) for the primary purpose, when the core goal is to drive risk-based security control selection based on data sensitivity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because enabling encryption of all sensitive data is a specific control outcome, not the primary purpose of classification; classification informs which data requires encryption, but the scheme itself does not enforce encryption. Option B is wrong because meeting regulatory compliance requirements is a benefit or driver for classification, but not its primary purpose; compliance mandates often require classification, but the scheme's core goal is to guide control selection, not merely to check a compliance box. Option C is wrong because defining data retention periods is a separate data lifecycle management function typically governed by a retention policy or schedule, not by the classification scheme; classification labels may influence retention, but the primary purpose is not to set retention durations.

395
MCQmedium

A system has a Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) of 200 hours and a Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) of 20 hours. What is the availability of the system?

A.95.0%
B.91.0%
C.90.0%
D.90.9%
AnswerD

Correct calculation: 200/(200+20)=0.909.

Why this answer

Availability = MTBF / (MTBF + MTTR) = 200 / (200 + 20) = 200 / 220 ≈ 0.909 = 90.9%.

396
MCQeasy

During which phase of the SDLC should security requirements be formally documented and approved by the business owner?

A.Design phase
B.Requirements phase
C.Testing phase
D.Development phase
AnswerB

Security and regulatory requirements are captured here and signed off by the business owner.

Why this answer

Security requirements must be identified and approved early to ensure proper controls are built into the system. The requirements phase is the appropriate stage for this.

397
Drag & Dropmedium

Order the steps for conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) in the correct sequence.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

BIA steps: identify processes, define recovery objectives, assess impact, prioritize, and document.

398
MCQhard

A multinational corporation has defined its risk appetite as 'moderate' for IT investments. The IT steering committee is evaluating a new project with potential high returns but also significant cybersecurity risks. The project's risk profile is assessed as 'high' by the risk management team. What should the committee do FIRST?

A.Request the project team to identify risk mitigation measures.
B.Approve the project but increase monitoring.
C.Escalate the decision to the board of directors.
D.Reject the project immediately as it exceeds risk appetite.
AnswerA

Correct. The first step is to request the project team to identify risk mitigation measures that could bring the risk down to a moderate level, aligning with the risk appetite.

Why this answer

The correct first step. When a project's risk profile exceeds the defined risk appetite, the committee should not immediately reject or approve it. Instead, they should first explore whether risk mitigation measures can reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

This aligns with governance best practices to balance risk and reward. Option B is premature without assessing mitigation. Option C escalates too early before considering mitigations.

Option D rejects the opportunity without considering potential mitigation, which may discard valuable projects.

399
MCQeasy

An organization wants to ensure that its backup tapes are protected from unauthorized access. Which of the following is the MOST effective control?

A.Physical locks on the tape library
B.Encryption of the backup data
C.Access control lists on the backup server
D.Offsite storage of tapes
AnswerB

Correct: Encryption renders data unreadable without the key.

Why this answer

Encryption protects data confidentiality even if physical security is breached. Physical locks, access controls, and offsite storage are important but do not protect against all threats like theft during transit.

400
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. Which perspective shows the greatest deviation from target?

A.Customer
B.Learning & Growth
C.Financial
D.Internal Process
AnswerB

20% below target, the largest deviation.

Why this answer

Learning & Growth is 30 hours short of 150 (20% deficit), while Financial is 10% short, Internal Process is 4% short, and Customer exceeds target. Thus, Learning & Growth has the largest negative gap.

401
MCQmedium

An organization has implemented a business continuity plan (BCP) and disaster recovery plan (DRP). During a recent full interruption test, the IT team discovered that the recovery time objective (RTO) for a critical application was not met. What is the MOST likely reason for this failure?

A.The recovery point objective (RPO) was set too low, causing data loss.
B.The backup data was not encrypted, leading to corruption during restoration.
C.The tabletop exercise was not conducted before the full interruption test.
D.The alternate site did not have adequate processing capacity to handle the workload.
AnswerD

Insufficient capacity at the alternate site directly impacts recovery time and is a frequent finding in full interruption tests.

Why this answer

The most likely reason the RTO was not met is that the alternate site lacked sufficient processing capacity to handle the workload. RTO measures the time to restore service availability; if the failover site cannot support the required compute, memory, or I/O throughput, restoration will be delayed or fail outright. This is a common capacity planning failure in DR testing, where the alternate site is sized for minimal operations but not for the full production load.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse RTO with RPO or assume procedural gaps (like missing a tabletop exercise) are the root cause, when the actual failure is a technical capacity limitation at the alternate site.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because RPO being set too low (i.e., very frequent backups) reduces potential data loss, not causes RTO failure; RPO and RTO are independent metrics. Option B is wrong because backup encryption does not cause corruption; encryption protects data at rest, and corruption typically results from media errors or improper backup/restore processes, not the encryption itself. Option C is wrong because while tabletop exercises validate plans, skipping one does not directly cause a capacity shortfall at the alternate site; the RTO failure here is a technical infrastructure issue, not a procedural gap.

402
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the access recertification process for a financial application. The process requires users' managers to confirm access rights quarterly. Which of the following findings should MOST concern the auditor?

A.Access rights are recertified annually instead of quarterly.
B.There is no process to act on access changes identified during recertification.
C.Recertification forms are completed by users themselves rather than managers.
D.Recertification results are not documented or retained.
AnswerB

Without remediation, recertification is ineffective; the auditor should be most concerned about the lack of follow-up.

Why this answer

The recertification process should include a timely follow-up on access changes. Without this, outdated permissions may persist, increasing risk.

403
MCQhard

An IS auditor is reviewing an emergency change that was implemented to fix a critical security vulnerability. Which of the following post-implementation controls is MOST important to ensure the change was properly managed?

A.The change request included a rollback plan
B.The change was tested in a production-like environment before deployment
C.A post-implementation review was performed by the Change Advisory Board (CAB)
D.The change was documented and approved by the change manager after implementation
AnswerC

Retrospective CAB review ensures that the emergency change is justified and properly documented, maintaining control over the change process.

Why this answer

Emergency changes bypass normal CAB approval, so it is critical to document the change and have it retrospectively reviewed by the CAB to ensure proper governance.

404
MCQeasy

According to ISO/IEC 38500, which principle requires that IT investments are made for valid business reasons and with clear business outcomes?

A.Performance
B.Strategy
C.Acquisition
D.Responsibility
AnswerB

The Strategy principle requires that IT investments are aligned with business strategy and have clear business outcomes.

Why this answer

The 'Strategy' principle of ISO/IEC 38500 states that IT should be aligned with the business strategy and investments should be made for valid business reasons.

405
MCQmedium

An organization is acquiring a new financial system. The contract includes a clause that allows the organization to audit the vendor's controls. Which type of report would most efficiently provide assurance over the vendor's internal controls?

A.Financial audit report
B.SOC 2 report
C.Penetration test report
D.ISO 27001 certificate
AnswerB

SOC 2 reports on controls relevant to security and processing integrity.

Why this answer

A SOC 2 report is specifically designed to provide assurance over a service organization's controls related to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy, which directly addresses the need to audit the vendor's internal controls for a financial system. It is more efficient than other options because it is a standardized, independent assessment that covers the control environment relevant to financial data processing.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse a SOC 2 report with a financial audit report (Option A) because both involve auditors, but SOC 2 is specifically for service organization controls, not financial statement accuracy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a financial audit report focuses on the accuracy of financial statements, not on the operational or security controls of the vendor's systems. Option C is wrong because a penetration test report only provides a point-in-time assessment of security vulnerabilities, not a comprehensive evaluation of ongoing internal controls. Option D is wrong because an ISO 27001 certificate confirms that a vendor has an information security management system (ISMS) in place, but it does not provide a detailed, auditable report of control effectiveness or specific control activities like a SOC 2 report does.

406
MCQmedium

A university is implementing a new student information system. The project team uses an iterative development approach. During user acceptance testing, students report that the online course registration portal crashes when more than 100 users register simultaneously. The development team identifies a database connection pooling issue and estimates a fix will take three weeks. The project deadline is in two weeks. The project manager suggests deploying the system as is and fixing the issue after go-live, as the crash is rare. The IS auditor is consulted. What should the auditor recommend?

A.Delay the go-live until the defect is fixed and user acceptance testing is passed.
B.Document the risk and proceed with the go-live, planning to fix later.
C.Deploy on time but restrict registration to fewer than 100 students per session.
D.Implement a temporary increase in server capacity to handle the load.
AnswerA

Critical defect must be resolved before deployment.

Why this answer

Deploying a system with a known critical defect that fails under expected load conditions violates the principle of delivering a reliable and secure system. The database connection pooling issue causes the portal to crash under concurrent user load, which is a functional failure that directly impacts business operations. Delaying go-live ensures the defect is fixed and user acceptance testing (UAT) is fully passed, aligning with the IS auditor's responsibility to recommend risk mitigation over acceptance of a preventable failure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume a 'rare' crash can be accepted as a post-go-live fix, but the IS auditor must recognize that the crash occurs under a specific, predictable load threshold that is likely to be exceeded during normal operations, making it a high-risk defect that requires pre-deployment resolution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because documenting the risk and proceeding without fixing the defect ignores the fact that the crash is not 'rare'—it occurs under a predictable load of 100 concurrent users, which is a realistic scenario for a university registration portal. Option C is wrong because restricting registration to fewer than 100 students per session is a manual workaround that does not address the underlying database connection pooling issue; it introduces operational complexity and still risks failure if the limit is accidentally exceeded. Option D is wrong because a temporary increase in server capacity (e.g., adding more CPU or memory) does not fix a database connection pooling defect—the crash is caused by connection exhaustion or misconfiguration in the connection pool library, not by insufficient hardware resources.

407
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing a contract for a new software solution. Which of the following contract types poses the HIGHEST risk to the buyer if requirements are not well-defined?

A.Time-and-materials contract
B.Fixed-price contract
C.Cost-plus contract
D.Outcome-based contract
AnswerB

If requirements change, the vendor may demand extra fees, leading to cost overruns and disputes.

Why this answer

Fixed-price contracts are risky when requirements are unclear because the vendor may understate effort or charge high change orders. Time-and-materials contracts are safer for undefined requirements.

408
MCQmedium

A security auditor discovers that a server has been compromised due to an unpatched vulnerability. Which of the following would have most effectively prevented this incident?

A.Enabling firewall rules to limit access.
B.Implementing a vulnerability management program with regular patching.
C.Installing a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS).
D.Using strong passwords on the server.
AnswerB

Correct. Regular patching addresses root cause by eliminating known vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

A vulnerability management program with regular patching directly addresses the root cause of the compromise: the unpatched vulnerability. By systematically identifying, prioritizing, and applying security patches, the organization eliminates the known weakness that the attacker exploited. This proactive measure prevents the initial compromise, whereas other controls only detect or limit the attack after the vulnerability is exploited.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose a detective or preventive control (like a firewall or HIDS) that mitigates the attack surface or detects the breach, rather than recognizing that patching is the only option that eliminates the root cause of the vulnerability itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because firewall rules limit network access but do not fix the underlying unpatched vulnerability; an attacker who gains access through an allowed port or via an internal vector can still exploit the unpatched flaw. Option C is wrong because a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) only detects suspicious activity after the exploitation begins or has occurred, it does not prevent the initial compromise from an unpatched vulnerability. Option D is wrong because strong passwords protect against credential-based attacks, but they are irrelevant when the attacker bypasses authentication entirely by exploiting a software vulnerability that does not require valid credentials.

409
Multi-Selectmedium

During an audit of the incident response process, the IS auditor finds that the organization relies on shared accounts for system administration. Which TWO of the following are the MOST significant risks associated with shared accounts?

Select 2 answers
A.Increased complexity in password management
B.Lack of individual accountability for actions performed
C.Increased overhead for account provisioning
D.Audit trails may not be reliable for forensic investigations
E.Higher likelihood of password sharing outside the authorized group
AnswersB, D

Without unique IDs, it's impossible to know who performed a specific action.

Why this answer

Shared accounts make it difficult to attribute actions to specific individuals and can lead to loss of audit trail, increasing the risk of undetected misuse.

410
MCQmedium

An organization is conducting a Business Impact Analysis (BIA). Which of the following metrics defines the maximum acceptable outage time for a critical business process?

A.Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
B.Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)
C.Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
D.Work Recovery Time (WRT)
AnswerB

Correct. MTD is the maximum outage the business can tolerate.

Why this answer

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) is the total time a process can be disrupted without causing significant business damage.

411
MCQhard

During a spiral model SDLC project, an IS auditor is reviewing risk assessment documentation. Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern?

A.Key risks identified in the first iteration are not reassessed in later iterations
B.Risk mitigation plans are not documented
C.The project uses a combination of waterfall and prototyping
D.Risk analysis is performed by the project manager alone
AnswerA

Risk reassessment is crucial in spiral model; risks can change.

Why this answer

The spiral model is risk-driven; failure to identify critical risks undermines the methodology and could lead to project failure.

412
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. The organization is planning to achieve the target level. What is the MOST appropriate action?

A.Assign a process owner
B.Implement process metrics and statistical controls
C.Conduct awareness training
D.Increase process documentation
AnswerB

Level 4 requires quantitative management.

Why this answer

To move from Level 3 (Established) to Level 4 (Predictable), the process must be measured and controlled using statistical techniques. Implementing metrics and statistical controls directly addresses the gap. Documentation, ownership, and training are earlier-level activities.

413
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a hardware security module (HSM) for key management?

A.It reduces the cost of key management.
B.It improves encryption speed.
C.It provides tamper-resistant storage for encryption keys.
D.It simplifies key distribution.
AnswerC

HSM provides secure key storage that is resistant to tampering.

Why this answer

The primary benefit of a hardware security module (HSM) is that it provides tamper-resistant, physically secured storage for encryption keys. HSMs are designed to protect keys from extraction or modification, even if an attacker gains physical access to the device, which is critical for maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of cryptographic operations. This aligns with the core purpose of an HSM: to safeguard the root of trust in a key management infrastructure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse the security-focused purpose of an HSM with operational benefits like cost reduction or performance improvement, leading them to select options that describe side effects or unrelated advantages rather than the primary benefit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because HSMs typically increase the cost of key management due to the specialized hardware, certification, and maintenance required, not reduce it. Option B is wrong because HSMs are not primarily designed to improve encryption speed; in fact, they can introduce latency compared to software-based encryption, and their value lies in security, not performance. Option D is wrong because HSMs do not simplify key distribution; they are often used in conjunction with complex key distribution protocols (e.g., PKCS#11, KMIP) and may add operational overhead for secure key exchange.

414
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing a systems acquisition project that involves purchasing an ERP system. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to data migration during implementation?

A.Inadequate security controls in the new system
B.Insufficient training of end users on the new system
C.Incomplete or inaccurate data conversion from legacy systems
D.Lack of integration testing between modules
AnswerC

Data conversion errors can corrupt the new system's data, leading to financial and operational issues.

Why this answer

Data migration is a critical risk in ERP implementations. Poor data quality from legacy systems can lead to errors, inconsistencies, and business disruption. Ensuring data integrity is paramount.

415
Drag & Dropmedium

Order the steps for performing a data backup in the correct sequence.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Backup process: identify data, choose method, schedule, execute/verify, and store offsite.

416
Multi-Selectmedium

Which of the following are key considerations when implementing a data classification policy? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Encryption key management
B.Definition of classification categories
C.Backup frequency requirements
D.Handling and labeling procedures
E.Assignment of data owners
AnswersB, D, E

Categories (e.g., public, confidential) are essential.

Why this answer

Defining classification categories (e.g., Public, Internal, Confidential, Restricted) is the foundational step in a data classification policy. These categories establish the criteria for labeling and handling data based on sensitivity and criticality, directly enabling consistent protection controls across the organization.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between policy-level definitions (classification categories, data owners, handling procedures) and operational controls (encryption, backup frequency), leading candidates to mistakenly select technical safeguards as key policy considerations.

417
MCQhard

In a spiral model SDLC, risk analysis is performed at the beginning of each iteration. What is the PRIMARY benefit of this approach?

A.It reduces the number of deliverables
B.It eliminates the need for user acceptance testing
C.It ensures all requirements are gathered upfront
D.It allows for early detection and mitigation of project risks
AnswerD

Risk analysis each iteration helps manage risks proactively.

Why this answer

By identifying and mitigating risks early in each cycle, the spiral model reduces the likelihood of major problems later.

418
MCQmedium

During the planning phase of an IS audit, the auditor identifies that the organization has recently implemented a new ERP system. Which of the following actions should the auditor prioritize?

A.Exclude the ERP system from the audit scope because it is new and not yet stable
B.Include a review of the ERP system in the audit scope due to the high inherent risk
C.Delay the audit until the ERP system has been fully stabilized for six months
D.Focus only on financial reporting controls related to the ERP system
AnswerB

New systems typically have higher risk and warrant audit attention.

Why this answer

A risk-based audit approach requires focusing on high-risk areas. A new ERP system introduces significant risks, so it should be prioritized in the audit scope.

419
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key objectives of a post-implementation review of a new system?

Select 2 answers
A.Update the disaster recovery plan
B.Assess the project budget variance
C.Identify lessons learned for future projects
D.Evaluate vendor performance
E.Verify that the system meets user requirements
AnswersC, E

Lessons learned are a key output.

Why this answer

A key objective of a post-implementation review (PIR) is to capture lessons learned from the project, which helps improve future system development and acquisition processes. This involves documenting what went well, what went wrong, and how processes can be refined, directly supporting continuous improvement in IT governance and project management.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the PIR with project closure activities, mistakenly selecting budget variance or vendor evaluation as key objectives, when the PIR is specifically focused on verifying system effectiveness and capturing lessons learned for future projects.

420
MCQeasy

What is the FIRST step in implementing an identity and access management (IAM) program?

A.Selecting an IAM vendor.
B.Performing a user access review.
C.Implementing multi-factor authentication.
D.Deploying single sign-on (SSO).
AnswerB

Understanding current access is the foundational step.

Why this answer

Performing a user access review is the first step because it establishes a baseline of current access rights, identifies segregation of duties conflicts, and uncovers orphaned accounts or excessive privileges. Without this foundational assessment, subsequent IAM controls like SSO or MFA would be deployed on an insecure or non-compliant access framework, violating the principle of 'least privilege' and potentially failing audit requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'first step' with 'most visible security control' and select MFA or SSO, forgetting that IAM must begin with a discovery and cleanup phase to ensure the foundation is secure before adding layers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because selecting an IAM vendor before understanding current access states and requirements leads to technology-driven decisions that may not align with organizational policy or regulatory needs. Option C is wrong because implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a tactical control that should follow a baseline access review to ensure MFA is applied to the correct accounts and roles, not as a starting point. Option D is wrong because deploying single sign-on (SSO) without first reviewing and cleaning up existing user access rights can propagate excessive privileges across all connected systems, increasing risk rather than reducing it.

421
MCQmedium

Scenario: A healthcare organization is implementing a new electronic health records (EHR) system. The project has been delayed due to scope creep and resource constraints. The project sponsor is pressuring the project manager to accelerate the timeline by skipping user acceptance testing (UAT) and going live immediately. The organization has a governance policy that requires all IT projects to complete UAT before deployment. The project manager is concerned about quality and patient safety. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.Compromise by conducting a limited UAT on only critical functionalities.
B.Resign from the project due to ethical concerns.
C.Accept the sponsor's request and skip UAT to meet the deadline.
D.Adhere to the governance policy and escalate the risk to the steering committee for a decision.
AnswerD

Follows policy and involves proper governance body.

Why this answer

The governance policy mandates UAT before deployment, and skipping it could compromise patient safety and data integrity in the EHR system. By escalating the risk to the steering committee, the project manager ensures that the decision is made at the appropriate governance level, balancing project pressures with compliance and quality. This approach aligns with the CISA domain of Governance and Management of IT, where adherence to policies and risk escalation are key controls.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose a compromise (Option A) thinking it balances speed and quality, but it still violates the governance policy and fails to address the root cause of scope creep and resource constraints through proper escalation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because conducting a limited UAT on only critical functionalities still violates the governance policy and may miss integration or workflow defects that affect patient safety across non-critical modules. Option B is wrong because resigning is an extreme measure that abdicates professional responsibility; the project manager should first use escalation channels and governance processes to address the conflict. Option C is wrong because skipping UAT entirely disregards the governance policy and introduces unacceptable risks to patient safety and regulatory compliance, which could lead to severe consequences for the organization.

422
MCQhard

An organization has an availability requirement of 99.99% for its online transaction processing system. The system's MTBF is 720 hours. What is the maximum allowable MTTR to meet this requirement?

A.43.2 minutes
B.72 minutes
C.4.32 minutes
D.7.2 minutes
AnswerC

Calculation yields 0.072 hours, which is 4.32 minutes.

Why this answer

Availability = MTBF/(MTBF+MTTR). 0.9999 = 720/(720+MTTR) => MTTR = 720/0.9999 - 720 = 0.072 hours ≈ 4.32 minutes.

423
MCQhard

An IT department uses a balanced scorecard (BSC) to measure performance. The financial perspective shows that IT costs are within budget, but customer satisfaction scores are declining. The learning and growth perspective indicates low employee engagement. Which action should the IT governance committee prioritize?

A.Reduce IT costs further to reallocate savings to customer service.
B.Invest in training and development programs for IT staff.
C.Increase the IT budget to hire more staff.
D.Outsource customer-facing IT support to a third party.
AnswerB

Training improves skills and engagement, leading to better customer satisfaction.

Why this answer

Investing in training and development programs improves employee engagement (learning & growth perspective), which likely leads to better service and increased customer satisfaction. Option A is wrong because reducing costs further may harm service quality and not address the root cause of low engagement. Option C is wrong because simply hiring more staff does not necessarily improve engagement or customer satisfaction without proper training.

Option D is wrong because outsourcing may provide short-term relief but does not address the underlying employee engagement issue and could lead to loss of control.

424
MCQhard

An IT auditor is reviewing the organization's policy hierarchy. Which of the following correctly represents the typical order from highest to lowest level?

A.Policy, Guideline, Standard, Procedure, Work instruction
B.Policy, Standard, Guideline, Procedure, Work instruction
C.Procedure, Policy, Standard, Guideline, Work instruction
D.Standard, Policy, Guideline, Procedure, Work instruction
AnswerB

This is the correct descending hierarchy.

Why this answer

The hierarchy is: Policy (high-level principles), Standard (mandatory requirements), Guideline (recommended practices), Procedure (step-by-step instructions), Work instruction (detailed task-level instructions).

425
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the business impact analysis (BIA) for a financial services company. Which THREE metrics are typically defined in a BIA?

Select 3 answers
A.Mean time to repair (MTTR).
B.Mean time between failures (MTBF).
C.Recovery point objective (RPO).
D.Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD).
E.Recovery time objective (RTO).
AnswersC, D, E

The acceptable amount of data loss measured in time.

Why this answer

The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a key metric defined in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) because it specifies the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, guiding the frequency of backups and replication. In a financial services company, RPO directly determines how much transactional data could be lost during a disruption, which is critical for regulatory compliance and data integrity.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse operational metrics like MTBF and MTTR (which are used in IT service management and availability calculations) with the business-focused recovery metrics (RTO, RPO, MTD) that are defined in a BIA, leading them to select options A or B instead of the correct trio.

426
MCQhard

An organization's IT strategy is developed by the IT department without input from business stakeholders. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk?

A.Technology may become obsolete quickly.
B.IT projects may exceed budget.
C.IT staff may lack required skills.
D.IT strategy may not support business objectives.
AnswerD

Lack of business input leads to misalignment, the most significant risk.

Why this answer

Without business input, the strategy may not support business objectives, leading to misalignment. Option A is a possible outcome. Options B and C are less directly related.

427
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a software asset management (SAM) program. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of SAM?

A.Ensuring compliance with software licensing agreements
B.Reducing hardware costs
C.Automating patch management
D.Improving network performance
AnswerA

This is the primary benefit.

Why this answer

SAM helps ensure compliance with software licenses and avoid penalties.

428
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is evaluating the incident response (IR) plan. Which of the following is the BEST indicator that the plan is effective?

A.The plan is approved by senior management
B.The plan is updated annually
C.Lessons learned from tabletop exercises are incorporated into the plan
D.The plan includes contact information for key stakeholders
AnswerC

This shows continuous improvement and practical testing.

Why this answer

Lessons learned from tabletop exercises demonstrate that the plan is tested and improved. Other options are components but do not directly indicate effectiveness.

429
MCQeasy

A medium-sized manufacturing company has a decentralized IT structure where each business unit manages its own IT budget and projects. The CEO is concerned that IT investments are not aligned with corporate strategy and that there is duplication of effort. The IT department lacks a formal project portfolio management process. The company has experienced several project failures due to poor prioritization. The CEO has asked the newly hired IT auditor to recommend an initial step to improve IT governance. The auditor should recommend:

A.Establishing an IT steering committee with representatives from business units and IT
B.Implementing a project portfolio management software tool immediately to track all projects
C.Conducting a security risk assessment of all IT systems
D.Outsourcing IT management to a third-party provider
AnswerA

A steering committee provides strategic direction, prioritization, and governance over IT investments.

Why this answer

An IT steering committee provides governance oversight, ensures alignment with corporate strategy, and helps prioritize projects to avoid duplication. This foundational step addresses the root cause of poor alignment and project failures before implementing tools or processes. Option B is premature because a tool without governance oversight may not improve prioritization.

Option C focuses on security, not overall strategic alignment. Option D is drastic and does not address internal governance issues.

430
MCQeasy

A company is migrating from a legacy system to a cloud-based ERP. Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure data integrity during data conversion?

A.Automated backup
B.User acceptance testing
C.Parallel running
D.Reconciliation of control totals
AnswerD

Control totals provide a simple but effective way to verify that data quantities and key figures match between source and target systems.

Why this answer

Reconciliation of control totals is the most important control because it directly verifies that the sum of key fields (e.g., total account balances, record counts) in the source system matches the target cloud-based ERP after conversion. This ensures no data is lost, duplicated, or corrupted during the extraction, transformation, and loading (ETL) process, which is critical for maintaining data integrity in a migration from a legacy system.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'parallel running' (a system validation technique) with a data integrity control, but parallel running validates operational consistency over time, not the precise completeness and accuracy of the converted data set itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because automated backup protects against data loss due to failures but does not validate the accuracy or completeness of converted data during migration. Option B is wrong because user acceptance testing (UAT) focuses on verifying that the new system meets functional requirements and business processes, not on detecting data integrity issues like missing or misaligned records in the converted dataset. Option C is wrong because parallel running compares outputs of the old and new systems over time to validate operational consistency, but it does not provide a precise, field-level check of data conversion completeness and accuracy like control totals do.

431
MCQeasy

In an Agile software development project, who is primarily responsible for prioritizing the product backlog?

A.Scrum Master
B.Development Team
C.Project Manager
D.Product Owner
AnswerD

The Product Owner is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog.

Why this answer

The Product Owner owns the backlog and prioritizes items based on business value. Option A is wrong because Scrum Master facilitates but does not prioritize. Option B is wrong because the team estimates effort but does not set priority.

Option C is wrong because Agile projects typically do not have a traditional project manager.

432
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the privileged access management (PAM) process. Which TWO of the following are the MOST effective controls to prevent misuse of privileged accounts?

Select 2 answers
A.Session recording and monitoring of privileged activities
B.Implementation of just-in-time (JIT) privileged access
C.Quarterly review of privileged account access
D.Assignment of generic administrative accounts to multiple users
E.Use of shared passwords for emergency access
AnswersA, B

Provides accountability and deterrence.

Why this answer

Session recording and monitoring (A) allows audit and review of all actions, deterring misuse. Just-in-time (JIT) privileged access (B) grants temporary permissions only when needed, reducing the attack surface. Quarterly review (C) is detective, not preventive.

Generic accounts assigned to multiple users (D) increase risk of unauthorized use and lack accountability. Shared passwords for emergency access (E) also reduce accountability and can be misused.

433
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of IT performance from the customer perspective in an IT balanced scorecard?

A.Number of security incidents
B.System availability percentage
C.Help desk resolution time
D.IT budget as a percentage of revenue
AnswerC

Help desk resolution time is a direct measure of customer service quality and satisfaction.

Why this answer

The customer perspective in an IT balanced scorecard focuses on how users perceive IT services. Help desk resolution time directly measures service quality from the customer's viewpoint.

434
MCQhard

During an audit, the IS auditor finds that the business continuity plan (BCP) was last updated two years ago and does not include new cloud-based applications. The organization has not conducted a BCP test in 18 months. What should the auditor recommend FIRST?

A.Obtain management approval for BCP updates
B.Perform a risk assessment to prioritize changes
C.Immediately schedule a full-scale test
D.Update the BCP to include cloud applications
AnswerB

A risk assessment identifies the most critical gaps, enabling efficient allocation of resources.

Why this answer

Before updating the BCP or scheduling tests, the IS auditor must ensure that a current risk assessment is performed to identify and prioritize the impact of changes—such as the introduction of cloud-based applications—on business continuity. Without a risk assessment, updates or tests may address the wrong threats or miss critical dependencies, violating the principle that BCP updates should be risk-driven. This aligns with ISACA's guidance that risk assessment is the foundation for BCP maintenance and testing frequency.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often jump to 'update the BCP' or 'test immediately' as the first action, but the CISA exam emphasizes that risk assessment must precede any changes to ensure resources are allocated to the highest-priority gaps.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because obtaining management approval for BCP updates is premature without first understanding the risks introduced by the new cloud applications; approval should follow a risk-based prioritization. Option C is wrong because immediately scheduling a full-scale test without updating the BCP to reflect current cloud environments could lead to inaccurate test results and wasted resources, and may even cause service disruption if cloud dependencies are not documented. Option D is wrong because updating the BCP to include cloud applications without a prior risk assessment may result in misaligned recovery strategies, such as incorrect RTO/RPO assumptions for cloud workloads, and could miss other critical changes.

435
MCQhard

An organization has implemented a new IT service management (ITSM) tool. The IT manager wants to measure the effectiveness of incident management. Which metric is MOST appropriate?

A.Mean time to resolve (MTTR) incidents
B.Percentage of incidents resolved on first call
C.Number of incidents reported per month
D.Percentage of system uptime
AnswerA

MTTR directly measures how quickly incidents are resolved.

Why this answer

Mean time to resolve (MTTR) is the most appropriate metric for measuring the effectiveness of incident management because it directly reflects how quickly the IT team can restore normal service operation after an incident. In ITIL-based ITSM tools, MTTR tracks the elapsed time from incident logging to resolution, providing a clear indicator of process efficiency and team responsiveness.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse incident management metrics with service desk or availability metrics, picking 'percentage of incidents resolved on first call' because it sounds like a measure of effectiveness, but it actually measures first-contact resolution efficiency, not the end-to-end incident management process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the percentage of incidents resolved on first call measures first-level support efficiency, not the overall effectiveness of the incident management process, which includes escalation and resolution workflows. Option C is wrong because the number of incidents reported per month is a volume metric that indicates incident frequency, not the quality or speed of resolution. Option D is wrong because system uptime is a metric for availability management, not incident management; it measures service reliability rather than how incidents are handled.

436
MCQhard

An IS auditor is reviewing a backup strategy that includes daily full backups and weekly offsite storage. The recovery time objective (RTO) for a critical application is 4 hours. Which of the following findings would be of GREATEST concern?

A.Backup logs are reviewed weekly
B.Backup tapes are stored offsite and retrieved only once per month
C.Incremental backups are not performed between full backups
D.Backups are encrypted with AES-256
AnswerB

Retrieval time may exceed the 4-hour RTO.

Why this answer

If the backup media are stored offsite without a local copy, the time to retrieve and restore may exceed the RTO.

437
MCQmedium

An organization is adopting ITIL 4 for service management. Which guiding principle emphasizes starting from existing processes rather than building from scratch?

A.Start where you are
B.Progress iteratively
C.Focus on value
D.Optimize and automate
AnswerA

This principle promotes using current state as a baseline.

Why this answer

ITIL 4's guiding principle 'Start where you are' encourages leveraging existing capabilities and processes before making changes.

438
MCQmedium

An IT steering committee is evaluating a major system upgrade. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an IT balanced scorecard in this evaluation?

A.It replaces the need for a detailed business case.
B.It provides a framework to align IT investments with business strategy across financial, customer, internal process, and learning/growth perspectives.
C.It ensures the project is completed within budget and on time.
D.It focuses solely on the financial returns of IT investments.
AnswerB

The balanced scorecard links IT performance to business strategy through multiple perspectives.

Why this answer

The IT balanced scorecard translates IT performance into business terms, ensuring alignment with strategic goals from multiple perspectives.

439
MCQeasy

An organization is implementing a new IT governance framework. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a framework like COBIT?

A.Reducing IT operational costs.
B.Aligning IT strategy with business goals.
C.Eliminating all IT-related risks.
D.Ensuring compliance with all regulatory requirements.
AnswerB

COBIT and similar frameworks focus on creating value by aligning IT with business objectives.

Why this answer

COBIT is designed to bridge the gap between business objectives and IT operations by providing a framework that maps IT processes to business goals. The primary benefit is ensuring that IT strategy directly supports and enables business strategy, rather than focusing on cost reduction or risk elimination.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the primary benefit of a governance framework (strategic alignment) with secondary benefits like cost reduction or compliance, leading them to pick a plausible but incorrect answer that addresses a tactical outcome rather than the core strategic purpose.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reducing IT operational costs is a possible outcome of good governance but not the primary purpose of COBIT; cost reduction is more directly addressed by frameworks like ITIL or specific cost-optimization practices. Option C is wrong because no framework can eliminate all IT-related risks; risk management aims to reduce risk to an acceptable level, not achieve zero risk. Option D is wrong because ensuring compliance with all regulatory requirements is an objective of governance but not the primary benefit of COBIT; compliance is one component of a broader alignment goal, and no framework can guarantee compliance with every regulation.

440
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are components of the ITIL 4 four dimensions of service management? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Finance and accounting
B.Risk and compliance
C.Organizations and people
D.Information and technology
E.Marketing and sales
AnswersC, D

This is one of the four dimensions.

Why this answer

ITIL 4 defines four dimensions: Organizations and People, Information and Technology, Partners and Suppliers, and Value Streams and Processes.

441
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing an agile project that uses Scrum. Which event provides the best opportunity for the auditor to assess whether completed user stories meet the defined acceptance criteria?

A.Sprint review
B.Daily standup
C.Retrospective
D.Sprint planning
AnswerA

Sprint review is the correct event to inspect completed work and validate against acceptance criteria.

Why this answer

The sprint review is a formal meeting where the development team demonstrates completed work to stakeholders. The auditor can observe validation of acceptance criteria and gather evidence of user acceptance.

442
MCQhard

During a post-implementation review of a new HR system, the auditor finds that the system's disaster recovery plan (DRP) was not tested before go-live. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?

A.Accept the risk because the system is new
B.Implement a backup procedure for the system
C.Conduct a DRP test immediately and document results
D.Schedule a DRP test within the next six months
AnswerC

Addresses the gap promptly.

Why this answer

The DRP must be tested to ensure the system can be recovered in a disaster. Conducting a test immediately (Option C) is the best recommendation because it directly addresses the untested state of the DRP and allows for corrective actions before a real incident occurs. Option A (accepting risk) is inappropriate for a critical HR system.

Option B (backup procedure) addresses only one component of DR, not the entire plan. Option D (scheduling within six months) leaves the system unprotected unnecessarily and is less proactive than immediate testing.

443
MCQmedium

During a review of the patch management process, the IS auditor finds that critical security patches are applied within 30 days, but the policy requires application within 7 days. The IT manager argues that the delay is due to testing requirements. What should the auditor recommend?

A.Escalate to senior management immediately
B.Update the policy to allow 30 days for critical patches
C.Require risk acceptance documentation for each patch that misses the SLA
D.Accept the delay as necessary for stability
AnswerC

This ensures management formally accepts the residual risk.

Why this answer

The best course is to document the risk acceptance for each delayed patch, ensuring management is aware and accepts the risk. This formalizes the deviation and maintains accountability.

444
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key controls in the system development life cycle?

Select 2 answers
A.Post-implementation review
B.Use of agile methodology
C.Segregation of duties between development and operations
D.Formal approval of business requirements
E.Automated deployment tools
AnswersA, C

Ensures system meets objectives and provides feedback.

Why this answer

A post-implementation review is a key control in the SDLC because it systematically evaluates whether the delivered system meets the defined business requirements, security objectives, and performance criteria after deployment. It identifies gaps, operational issues, and lessons learned that feed back into future development cycles, ensuring continuous improvement and compliance with governance frameworks like COBIT.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'development methodology' or 'automation tools' with 'controls,' forgetting that controls are governance mechanisms that provide independent verification, segregation, or oversight, not just technical processes or tools.

445
Multi-Selecthard

A company is updating its business continuity plan (BCP). Which THREE of the following should be included as key components?

Select 3 answers
A.List of critical staff and contact information
B.Detailed network topology diagrams
C.Vendor contracts for equipment replacement
D.Procedures for activating the plan
E.Results of the latest risk assessment
AnswersA, D, E

Correct: Essential for communication and activation.

Why this answer

A BCP must include a current list of critical staff and their contact information to enable rapid activation of the plan and coordination during a disruption. Without this, key personnel cannot be reached, delaying response and recovery efforts.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse supporting operational documents (like network diagrams) with essential BCP components, or mistake vendor contracts for the actual resource allocation procedures required in a continuity plan.

446
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a key difference between internal and external IS auditors?

A.Internal auditors perform only operational audits.
B.External auditors cannot perform compliance audits.
C.External auditors are required for regulatory compliance.
D.Internal auditors have greater independence.
AnswerC

Correct; external audits are often mandated by regulations.

Why this answer

External auditors are independent third parties, while internal auditors are employees. Independence is a key factor in objectivity and reliability of audit work.

447
MCQhard

An organization is developing a custom application. The project manager reports that the development team has implemented 80% of the features but only 50% of the budget is used. What is the MOST significant risk from an IS audit perspective?

A.The project may be completed ahead of schedule.
B.The application may not meet user requirements.
C.The remaining budget may be insufficient for testing and deployment.
D.The project may exceed the total budget due to scope growth.
AnswerD

The mismatch indicates potential cost overrun if remaining features require more budget.

Why this answer

The project has consumed only 50% of the budget while delivering 80% of the features, indicating a high probability of scope growth or feature creep. From an IS audit perspective, this imbalance suggests that additional features may be added without corresponding budget increases, leading to total budget overrun. The risk is that the remaining 20% of features will require more than the remaining 50% of the budget, especially if testing and deployment costs are underestimated.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on the immediate budget concern (Option C) rather than recognizing that the 80% features with 50% budget indicates scope growth is the root cause of potential budget overrun, which is the most significant audit risk.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because completing ahead of schedule is not a risk from an IS audit perspective; it is a positive outcome, and the data does not support it since 80% features with 50% budget suggests slower-than-planned spending, not faster completion. Option B is wrong because the application may still meet user requirements; the risk is not about unmet requirements but about budget and scope control, and there is no evidence of requirement gaps. Option C is wrong because while insufficient budget for testing and deployment is a concern, the most significant risk is scope growth leading to total budget overrun, as the 80% features already consumed only 50% budget implies the remaining features may be underfunded, but the primary audit risk is uncontrolled scope expansion.

448
MCQmedium

During a risk-based audit, the IS auditor identifies a control deficiency that could lead to a material misstatement in financial reporting. According to standard classification, this is best described as a:

A.Observation
B.Deficiency
C.Finding
D.Material weakness
AnswerD

A material weakness is a deficiency that could result in a material misstatement.

Why this answer

A material weakness is a deficiency, or combination of deficiencies, in internal control such that there is a reasonable possibility that a material misstatement will not be prevented or detected.

449
MCQmedium

A bank is converting data from its legacy core banking system to a new platform. Which control is MOST critical to ensure the completeness and accuracy of data conversion?

A.Parallel running of both systems
B.Reconciliation of converted data totals to source system totals
C.Data validation rules programmed in the conversion tool
D.User acceptance testing of the new system
AnswerB

Reconciliation directly verifies completeness and accuracy.

Why this answer

Reconciliation of converted data totals to source system totals is the most critical control because it directly verifies that every record from the legacy system has been accurately migrated without loss or duplication. This control compares aggregate values (e.g., account balances, transaction counts) between the source and target databases, providing a definitive check for completeness and accuracy that other controls cannot guarantee.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'data validation rules' (which ensure individual field correctness) with 'reconciliation' (which ensures aggregate completeness and accuracy), leading them to choose Option C even though validation cannot detect missing records or totals.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because parallel running tests business processes and system functionality, but it does not provide a systematic, record-level verification of data completeness and accuracy; discrepancies in data may be masked by compensating process flows. Option C is wrong because data validation rules in the conversion tool only check format and business rule compliance during transformation, but they cannot detect missing records or totals that were never extracted from the source. Option D is wrong because user acceptance testing focuses on whether the new system meets functional requirements, not on verifying that every data element from the legacy system has been accurately transferred.

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Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are typical objectives of an IT governance framework for system acquisition?

Select 3 answers
A.Risk management
B.Strategic alignment
C.Value delivery
D.Resource management
E.Cost reduction
AnswersA, B, C

Manages risks associated with IT.

Why this answer

Risk management (A) is a core objective of an IT governance framework for system acquisition because it ensures that risks related to system procurement, such as vendor lock-in, security vulnerabilities, and compliance gaps, are identified, assessed, and mitigated before deployment. Strategic alignment (B) ensures that the acquired system supports the organization's business goals and IT strategy, preventing investment in technology that does not deliver business value. Value delivery (C) focuses on optimizing costs and benefits throughout the system lifecycle, ensuring that the acquisition provides measurable returns and meets performance targets.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the broader IT governance objectives (which include resource management and cost reduction) with the specific objectives for system acquisition, leading them to select D or E instead of recognizing that the question explicitly asks for typical objectives of the acquisition phase.

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