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Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA (CISA) — Questions 175

995 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQmedium

During a build vs. buy analysis, the IS auditor observes that the organization decided to build a custom application because no vendor solution met all requirements. Which of the following risks should the auditor emphasize?

A.Lack of customization
B.Dependence on external support
C.Vendor lock-in
D.Increased time-to-market and development costs
AnswerD

Custom development often takes longer and costs more than buying.

Why this answer

Custom development carries risk of longer time-to-market and higher cost due to unforeseen complexities.

2
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a privacy program to comply with GDPR. Which THREE of the following are essential elements for managing cross-border data transfers?

Select 3 answers
A.Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs)
B.Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA)
C.Adequacy decision by the European Commission
D.Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs)
E.Data encryption at rest
AnswersA, C, D

SCCs are a legal mechanism for data transfers.

Why this answer

Under GDPR, cross-border data transfers require appropriate safeguards such as Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs), Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs), or an adequacy decision by the European Commission.

3
MCQhard

A multinational company must comply with GDPR and local data protection laws when transferring personal data from the EU to a subsidiary in the US. Which transfer mechanism is most commonly accepted as providing adequate protection?

A.A data protection impact assessment (DPIA) approved by the local supervisory authority.
B.Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) adopted by the European Commission.
C.Explicit consent from each data subject for the transfer.
D.Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs) for intra-group transfers.
AnswerB

SCCs are a ready-to-use mechanism that provides contractual guarantees of adequate protection for cross-border data transfers.

Why this answer

Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) are pre-approved model contracts issued by the European Commission that provide a legally recognized mechanism for transferring personal data from the EU to a third country, such as the US, without requiring additional authorization. They are the most commonly accepted transfer mechanism because they impose contractual obligations on both the data exporter and importer to ensure adequate data protection, aligning with GDPR Article 46 requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs) as the default intra-group mechanism, but SCCs are more commonly used because they are pre-approved, faster to implement, and do not require supervisory authority approval, making them the practical choice for most multinational transfers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA) is a risk assessment tool required under GDPR Article 35 for high-risk processing, not a transfer mechanism that provides adequate protection for cross-border data transfers. Option C is wrong because explicit consent under GDPR Article 49 is an exception for specific, occasional transfers and is not considered a reliable, ongoing adequate protection mechanism due to issues of revocability and power imbalance. Option D is wrong because Binding Corporate Rules (BCRs) are a valid intra-group transfer mechanism, but they require approval from the relevant supervisory authority and are less commonly used than SCCs due to the lengthy approval process and complexity of implementation.

4
MCQhard

An online retail company runs its e-commerce platform on a virtualized infrastructure with 50 virtual servers. The platform experiences intermittent slowdowns during peak hours, and recent monitoring reports show that disk I/O latency on the storage area network (SAN) frequently exceeds 50 ms during these periods. The SAN has two fabric switches and a single storage array with 12 TB of usable capacity, currently at 80% utilization. The company’s disaster recovery plan requires recovery point objective (RPO) of 1 hour and recovery time objective (RTO) of 4 hours for the e-commerce platform. During a recent test failover to the disaster recovery site, the IT team discovered that the replication link between primary and DR sites is saturated, causing replication lag of up to 3 hours. The team also noted that the DR site storage has only 6 TB of usable capacity, now at 60% utilization. The IT manager is concerned about meeting the RPO and RTO. Which course of action should the IT team take first?

A.Upgrade the SAN fabric switches to support higher throughput and reduce disk I/O latency
B.Add additional storage capacity to the DR site to reduce storage utilization
C.Implement more frequent incremental backups and reduce retention period to free up storage
D.Upgrade the replication link between primary and DR sites to a higher bandwidth connection
AnswerD

This directly addresses the replication lag, reducing it to meet the 1-hour RPO, and is the most urgent action to ensure disaster recovery objectives.

Why this answer

The immediate issue preventing the organization from meeting its RPO of 1 hour is the saturated replication link, which causes replication lag of up to 3 hours. Upgrading the link to a higher bandwidth connection directly addresses the bottleneck, reducing replication time and enabling the RPO to be met. Other options, while potentially beneficial, do not resolve the primary cause of the RPO failure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on the disk I/O latency or storage utilization issues, which are performance concerns, rather than recognizing that the saturated replication link is the direct cause of the RPO failure and must be addressed first.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because upgrading the SAN fabric switches addresses disk I/O latency, which is a performance issue, not the replication lag that causes the RPO violation. Option B is wrong because adding storage capacity to the DR site does not reduce replication lag; it may even increase the amount of data that needs to be replicated. Option C is wrong because implementing more frequent incremental backups does not solve the replication link saturation; it could increase the load on the link and worsen the lag, and backups are not the same as synchronous or asynchronous replication used for RPO.

5
MCQmedium

A company is using an agile development methodology for a critical business application. The IS auditor is concerned about the lack of formal documentation. What is the BEST approach to mitigate this risk?

A.Require the project to switch to a waterfall methodology.
B.Accept the lack of documentation because agile emphasizes working software.
C.Perform a detailed code review to compensate for missing documentation.
D.Ask the team to maintain a lightweight document of important decisions and changes.
AnswerD

This balances agile flexibility with audit requirements.

Why this answer

The best approach because it balances agile principles with the need for auditability. In agile, lightweight documentation (e.g., architecture decision records, user story acceptance criteria) captures key decisions and changes without the overhead of full waterfall documentation. This mitigates the risk of knowledge loss while preserving the team's velocity.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse agile's 'working software over comprehensive documentation' with 'no documentation at all,' leading them to choose Option B, while the correct answer recognizes that lightweight documentation is both agile-compliant and risk-mitigating.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because forcing a switch to waterfall would disrupt the existing agile workflow, likely causing delays and team resistance, and is not a proportionate response to a documentation gap. Option B is wrong because accepting the lack of documentation ignores the auditor's responsibility to ensure that critical business applications have sufficient records for maintenance, compliance, and knowledge transfer; agile emphasizes working software but does not prohibit necessary documentation. Option C is wrong because code review, while valuable for quality, does not capture design decisions, rationale, or change history that documentation provides; it is a complementary practice, not a substitute for documentation.

6
MCQmedium

A large organization is implementing a new HR management system to handle payroll and employee data. The project is currently in the build phase with a planned go-live in three months. Recently, the vendor notified the project team that a critical security patch will be released in two months that addresses a data leakage vulnerability present in the current version. The patch includes new features that are not in the contract. The project manager estimates that integrating the patch and re-testing will delay the project by at least four months. Business stakeholders insist on meeting the original go-live date because the legacy system is being decommissioned. The organization has a strict policy that all systems processing sensitive data must have the latest security patches within 30 days of release. What should the project team do?

A.Proceed with go-live but apply a compensating control to mitigate the vulnerability until the patch is applied
B.Continue with the current version, go live as planned, and schedule the security patch installation after go-live within the 30-day window
C.Delay the go-live and integrate the security patch before going live
D.Negotiate with the vendor to obtain an early fix for the vulnerability without the new features to minimize delay
AnswerC

This ensures compliance with the patching policy and protects sensitive data from the vulnerability.

Why this answer

The organization's policy mandates that all systems processing sensitive data must have the latest security patches within 30 days of release. Going live without the patch would violate this policy and expose the system to a known data leakage vulnerability for up to 30 days, even with compensating controls. Delaying go-live to integrate the patch before going live ensures compliance and mitigates the risk.

Option A is incorrect because applying a compensating control does not satisfy the policy requirement and leaves the vulnerability unpatched. Option B is incorrect because going live without the patch and applying it after go-live would still result in a period of non-compliance and potential data leakage. Option D is incorrect because relying on negotiation for an early fix is uncertain and may not resolve the issue within the required timeframe, and the delay for integration and testing would still occur.

7
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the audit follow-up process. The auditor notes that management has implemented corrective actions for 80% of previous audit findings. What should the auditor conclude?

A.The audit scope was too narrow
B.Further investigation of outstanding findings is needed
C.The audit process is effective
D.Management is compliant with all recommendations
AnswerB

Unresolved findings must be assessed for risks and followed up.

Why this answer

An 80% closure rate indicates that 20% of findings remain unresolved. ISACA standards require auditors to verify that all high-risk findings are remediated before concluding on control effectiveness. Without evidence that the outstanding 20% are low-risk or have an accepted risk, the auditor must investigate further to ensure residual risk is within the organization's appetite.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a high percentage (80%) implies overall effectiveness, but CISA requires verification that all findings, especially high-risk ones, are resolved or formally accepted, not just a majority.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a narrow scope would typically result in missing findings, not in a specific closure percentage; the 80% figure does not indicate scope deficiency. Option C is wrong because an effective audit process requires not only corrective actions but also timely closure of all findings; 80% closure alone does not prove the overall process is effective, as the remaining 20% may represent critical gaps. Option D is wrong because management implementing 80% of recommendations explicitly means they are not compliant with all recommendations; the remaining 20% are outstanding.

8
MCQeasy

A company is developing a mobile banking application. Which test phase is MOST critical to ensure that the application functions correctly from the end user's perspective?

A.System testing.
B.User acceptance testing (UAT).
C.Unit testing.
D.Integration testing.
AnswerB

UAT ensures the system meets user needs.

Why this answer

User acceptance testing (UAT) is the most critical phase for verifying that the mobile banking application meets end-user requirements and functions correctly from their perspective. Unlike other testing phases that focus on technical correctness, UAT involves real users performing actual banking transactions (e.g., fund transfers, balance inquiries) in a production-like environment to validate usability, workflow accuracy, and compliance with business rules. This ensures the application is ready for deployment and will be accepted by its intended audience.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse system testing with user acceptance testing, mistakenly thinking that verifying all system functions technically is equivalent to ensuring the application works correctly from the end user's perspective.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because system testing validates the complete integrated system against functional and non-functional requirements but does not involve end users; it focuses on technical correctness rather than user perspective. Option C is wrong because unit testing verifies individual components or modules in isolation, typically by developers, and cannot assess end-to-end user workflows or usability. Option D is wrong because integration testing checks the interactions between integrated modules or external systems (e.g., APIs, databases) but does not evaluate the application from an end user's viewpoint or validate business processes.

9
MCQeasy

An organization uses automated job scheduling for nightly batch processing. One job fails due to a missing dependency file. What is the most effective control to prevent recurrence?

A.Use a different scheduling tool
B.Define dependencies within the job scheduler
C.Increase the frequency of job reruns
D.Assign manual operators to monitor jobs
AnswerB

This ensures jobs wait for required files or jobs to complete.

Why this answer

Implementing dependency management in the job scheduler ensures that jobs only run when prerequisites are met, preventing such failures.

10
MCQhard

An IS auditor is performing a walkthrough of a purchase-to-pay process. The auditor selects a sample of purchase orders and traces them through the system to verify that controls are properly designed and implemented. This is an example of:

A.Walkthrough
B.Analytical procedure
C.Test of controls
D.Substantive testing
AnswerA

A walkthrough is a procedure to understand and confirm the process flow.

Why this answer

A walkthrough involves tracing a transaction through the entire process to confirm understanding and assess control design. It combines inquiry, observation, and inspection.

11
MCQmedium

During a review of firewall rule sets, an IS auditor finds a rule that allows any source IP to access any destination IP on TCP port 443. Which of the following should the auditor do FIRST?

A.Test whether the rule is actually being used.
B.Escalate the finding to senior management.
C.Determine if the rule has a documented business justification.
D.Recommend immediate removal of the rule.
AnswerC

The auditor should first check if the rule is authorized and necessary.

Why this answer

The first step is to verify the business justification for the rule, as it may be necessary for a specific application.

12
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A CISA is analyzing these logs. What is the MOST likely security incident?

A.Legitimate system maintenance activity
B.Brute force attack on the administrator account
C.Unauthorized installation of a critical update
D.Compromised administrator account used to establish a command and control channel
AnswerD

The attacker disabled a key process and set up a backdoor.

Why this answer

The logs show the administrator account executing a reverse shell connection (e.g., using PowerShell or netcat) to an external IP address on a non-standard port (e.g., 4444 or 8080). This outbound connection initiated by the admin account is a classic indicator of a command and control (C2) channel, where an attacker who has compromised the account uses it to maintain persistent remote access. Legitimate administrative activity would not typically involve establishing a reverse shell to an unknown external host.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may mistake the single successful admin login as a brute force success (option B), but the subsequent reverse shell activity is the definitive indicator of a compromised account used for C2, not just credential guessing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because legitimate system maintenance activity would not involve an outbound reverse shell to an external IP on a non-standard port; maintenance tasks use standard protocols like SSH (port 22) or RDP (port 3389) to known internal servers. Option B is wrong because a brute force attack would show multiple failed login attempts from various IPs or usernames, not a single successful login followed by a reverse shell connection. Option C is wrong because unauthorized installation of a critical update would typically involve file downloads or execution of installer binaries, not the establishment of a persistent outbound reverse shell channel.

13
MCQhard

An IS auditor finds that a control deficiency could lead to a material misstatement if combined with another deficiency. How should this be classified?

A.Deficiency
B.Observation
C.Significant deficiency
D.Material weakness
AnswerD

Combined deficiencies that could lead to material misstatement meet the definition.

Why this answer

A material weakness is a deficiency, or combination, that results in a reasonable possibility of material misstatement.

14
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is evaluating the security of the architecture. Which of the following is the MOST critical finding?

A.The web server has a public IP address
B.SQL traffic from the web server to the database server is allowed
C.No encryption for SQL traffic between web and database servers
D.The database server is not placed in the DMZ
AnswerC

Unencrypted SQL can be intercepted, compromising data confidentiality.

Why this answer

The most critical finding because unencrypted SQL traffic between the web and database servers exposes sensitive data to interception via man-in-the-middle attacks. Even if the traffic is confined to an internal network, an attacker who compromises the web server can sniff credentials or query results in plaintext. Encrypting SQL traffic with TLS or IPSec is a fundamental security control to protect data in transit.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on network placement (DMZ vs. internal) or the mere existence of SQL traffic, rather than recognizing that unencrypted data in transit is a far more critical vulnerability than architectural placement issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a web server typically requires a public IP address to serve external clients; this is a design choice, not a security finding. Option B is wrong because SQL traffic from the web server to the database server is expected and necessary for application functionality; the issue is not the existence of the traffic but its lack of encryption. Option D is wrong because placing the database server in the DMZ would expose it directly to external threats; best practice is to place the database server on a separate internal network segment behind the DMZ, not inside it.

15
MCQhard

An IT auditor is reviewing the policy hierarchy of an organization. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between a policy and a procedure?

A.A policy is reviewed annually, while a procedure is reviewed every five years.
B.A policy is a detailed step-by-step instruction, while a procedure is a high-level statement.
C.A policy is a mandatory requirement, while a procedure is optional.
D.A policy defines the 'what' and 'why', while a procedure defines the 'how'.
AnswerD

Policies set rules and objectives; procedures provide the steps to achieve them.

Why this answer

Policies are high-level statements of intent, while procedures provide detailed step-by-step instructions for implementing policies.

16
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a cloud resource management strategy to optimize costs and prevent waste. Which three practices should the auditor recommend?

Select 3 answers
A.Consolidate all resources into a single region
B.Detect and remove orphaned resources
C.Automate shutdown of idle resources during off-hours
D.Use only Reserved Instances for all workloads
E.Implement resource tagging for cost allocation
AnswersB, C, E

Correct: Orphaned resources incur costs without providing value.

Why this answer

Orphaned resources (e.g., unattached EBS volumes, unused Elastic IPs, stale load balancers) continue to incur costs without providing any business value. Detecting and removing them directly eliminates waste, which is a core principle of cloud cost optimization. This practice aligns with the AWS Well-Architected Framework's Cost Optimization pillar, specifically the 'Stop Spending Money on Undifferentiated Heavy Lifting' design principle.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may view 'consolidating into a single region' (Option A) as a cost-saving measure, but the CISA exam emphasizes that cost optimization must balance performance, compliance, and resilience—not just minimize data transfer fees.

17
Matchingmedium

Match each regulatory standard to its focus area.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Financial reporting controls

Payment card data security

Health information privacy

Personal data protection

Why these pairings

The correct matches are SOX to financial reporting, GDPR to data privacy, HIPAA to healthcare data, and PCI DSS to payment card security. Common confusions include swapping definitions between SOX and GDPR.

18
MCQhard

An IS auditor is performing a compliance audit of data privacy regulations. The auditor finds that the organization's privacy policy is not fully aligned with regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the auditor's BEST course of action?

A.Ignore the issue because the policy is only a minor deviation.
B.Report the finding as a non-compliance issue and recommend updates to the policy.
C.Draft a new privacy policy for the organization.
D.Conclude that the organization is compliant because the policy exists.
AnswerB

This aligns with the audit's objective.

Why this answer

The auditor should report the non-compliance finding and recommend corrective actions, as the primary goal of a compliance audit is to identify gaps.

19
MCQeasy

An IS auditor is conducting an audit of a small manufacturing company's IT operations. The company has 50 employees and uses a single server running Windows Server 2019 for file sharing and print services. There is no formal change management process. The IT manager, who also doubles as the system administrator, has full administrative rights and is the only person who can make changes to the server. During the audit, the auditor notices that the server's local security policy is configured to allow unlimited password attempts and no account lockout. The IT manager states that this is to avoid locking out users who forget their passwords. The auditor also finds that the guest account is enabled on the server. What should the auditor recommend as the HIGHEST priority action?

A.Train employees on password security.
B.Implement a formal change management process.
C.Disable the guest account and enforce account lockout policy.
D.Separate the roles of IT manager and system administrator.
AnswerC

These are direct security vulnerabilities that must be addressed immediately.

Why this answer

The most immediate vulnerabilities are the enabled guest account and lack of account lockout, which significantly increase the risk of unauthorized access. Disabling the guest account and enforcing an account lockout policy directly mitigate these risks. While employee training (A) and implementing change management (B) are beneficial, they are not as urgent as addressing the technical controls.

Separating roles (D) is a governance improvement but also less urgent. Therefore, the highest priority action is to disable the guest account and enforce account lockout.

20
MCQmedium

A financial institution operates a critical payment processing system that must maintain 99.999% availability. The system is deployed across two data centers in active-active mode with load balancing. During a routine maintenance window, a network misconfiguration caused all traffic to be directed to one data center, which then became overloaded and crashed, resulting in 30 minutes of downtime. The incident response team wants to prevent recurrence. Which of the following is the BEST action?

A.Configure health checks on the load balancers to detect and isolate unhealthy nodes.
B.Schedule all maintenance during non-peak hours only.
C.Increase the capacity of each data center to handle full traffic load.
D.Implement automatic failover to the backup data center when a threshold is exceeded.
AnswerA

Correct. Health checks allow load balancers to monitor node health and automatically reroute traffic away from unhealthy nodes, preventing overload and crashing.

Why this answer

Configuring health checks on load balancers would have detected the overloaded data center and isolated it, preventing the crash and downtime. Option B is administrative and does not prevent the technical root cause. Option C is costly and does not prevent misconfiguration.

Option D describes a reactive measure that does not address the immediate traffic redirection issue.

21
MCQmedium

An organization uses a hot site for disaster recovery. During a recent test, the hot site did not have the latest version of the application software. What is the MOST likely cause?

A.Inadequate change management procedures
B.Failure to synchronize data
C.Lack of backup media
D.Insufficient bandwidth
AnswerA

Without proper change management, software updates may not be applied to the hot site.

Why this answer

The hot site missing the latest application version points to a failure in ensuring updates are deployed to the DR environment. This is a change management failure, as proper procedures would require that software changes be replicated to the hot site. Option B (failure to synchronize data) deals with data, not application software.

Option C (lack of backup media) relates to data backups. Option D (insufficient bandwidth) affects data replication speed, not version updates. Therefore, inadequate change management procedures (option A) are the most likely cause.

22
MCQeasy

Which is the MOST likely cause?

A.Network connectivity lost
B.Backup software license expired
C.Backup media is full
D.Backup media is not connected
AnswerD

The error indicates the device is not ready, often due to disconnection or power off.

Why this answer

The error 'The device is not ready' indicates that the backup media is not connected or is unavailable. Option D is correct because this error typically occurs when the backup device (e.g., tape drive, external disk) is not properly connected to the system, not powered on, or not recognized. Option A (network connectivity lost) would result in a different error such as 'network path not found' or 'timeout'.

Option B (backup software license expired) would produce a license-related error, not a device readiness error. Option C (backup media full) would show a 'disk full' or 'no space left' error.

23
MCQmedium

An organization's IT security policy requires that all employees complete annual security awareness training. An auditor notes that completion rate is only 60%. What is the MOST effective way to monitor compliance?

A.Review training records manually each quarter
B.Implement a learning management system that tracks completions and generates reports
C.Require managers to confirm their staff's completion
D.Conduct surprise audits of employee knowledge
AnswerB

Automation ensures accurate and timely monitoring.

Why this answer

Automated tracking and reporting provides objective evidence of compliance and enables follow-up.

24
MCQhard

An IS auditor is reviewing the balanced scorecard for IT. Which of the following metrics BEST aligns with the 'customer perspective'?

A.Average system uptime for critical applications
B.Percentage of IT projects under budget
C.Number of change requests completed on time
D.Percentage of staff with ITIL certification
AnswerA

Uptime reflects customer-facing service levels.

Why this answer

Average system uptime for critical applications directly measures IT service availability from the customer's perspective. In the balanced scorecard framework, the customer perspective focuses on how end users experience IT services. The other options align with different perspectives: B (under budget) is financial, C (change requests on time) is internal processes, and D (ITIL certification) is learning and growth.

25
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of a chargeback model for IT services?

A.To increase the IT budget
B.To simplify IT financial management
C.To centralize IT decision-making
D.To provide transparency and encourage efficient use of IT resources
AnswerD

Chargeback makes business units aware of costs, encouraging efficiency.

Why this answer

Chargeback models allocate IT costs to business units based on usage, promoting accountability and cost awareness.

26
MCQeasy

An IS auditor is planning an audit of an organization's IT infrastructure. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk-based approach?

A.It ensures that all controls are tested equally.
B.It reduces the overall cost of the audit.
C.It focuses audit efforts on areas with the highest risk.
D.It guarantees the detection of material misstatements.
AnswerC

Correct; the risk-based approach directs resources to areas of greatest risk.

Why this answer

A risk-based approach allows the auditor to focus on areas with higher risk, thereby optimizing the use of audit resources and ensuring that significant risks are addressed.

27
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the process for granting privileged access in a large organization. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern?

A.Privileged access is granted without approval from the system owner
B.Privileged accounts are not monitored in real-time
C.Privileged access is reviewed quarterly
D.There is no segregation of duties for privileged users
AnswerA

Lack of proper authorization increases the risk of inappropriate privilege assignment.

Why this answer

Privileged access requests must be properly authorized to prevent unauthorized elevation of privileges.

28
MCQhard

During a business impact analysis (BIA), a department manager states that their process can be disrupted for up to 8 hours, but data loss cannot exceed 15 minutes. Which two metrics are defined by these statements?

A.Mean time to repair (MTTR) and mean time between failures (MTBF)
B.Recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO)
C.Service level objective (SLO) and service level agreement (SLA)
D.Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) and working recovery time (WRT)
AnswerB

RTO is 8 hours, RPO is 15 minutes.

Why this answer

The maximum downtime is the recovery time objective (RTO), and the maximum data loss is the recovery point objective (RPO).

29
MCQmedium

An information systems auditor is evaluating user accounts in an organization's Linux environment. The accounts have the following properties: - The 'root' account has its password field set to '!!' (disabled). - The 'admin' account has its password field set to '!' (locked) and UID 0. - The 'test' account is a regular user with UID 1000. Based on this information, which user account poses the HIGHEST security risk?

A.root
B.admin
C.test
D.None of the accounts are risky
AnswerB

The '!' indicates a locked password, but account may still exist.

Why this answer

The 'admin' account poses the highest security risk because, despite its password being locked (indicated by '!' in the shadow file), it has UID 0 (root privileges). A locked password prevents password-based login, but the account may still be accessible via SSH keys or other authentication methods, and its privileged status makes it a valuable target for privilege escalation attacks. In contrast, the 'root' account may be fully disabled, and the 'test' account is a standard user without elevated privileges.

Exam trap

Candidates often assume that a locked account is inherently safe, but the trap is that an account with UID 0 (root privileges) remains a high risk even if its password is locked, as alternative authentication methods or local privilege escalation could still be exploited. The question tests understanding that account risk must consider both privilege level and authentication controls together.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'root' is often locked for direct login (e.g., PermitRootLogin no in sshd_config) or has a strong password enforced by policy, reducing its immediate risk compared to an active admin account. Option C is wrong because 'test' accounts are typically non-privileged, have limited access, and are often disabled or have expired passwords, making them lower risk. Option D is wrong because the 'admin' account clearly presents a higher risk due to its privileged nature and common weak configurations, so it is incorrect to say none are risky.

30
MCQhard

An IS auditor reviews the log entry above. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the authentication failure?

A.The user's account is locked.
B.The user's password is incorrect.
C.The client certificate presented has a common name that does not match the configured expected name.
D.The RADIUS server is unavailable.
AnswerC

Error message states 'Invalid certificate CN'.

Why this answer

The log entry indicates an authentication failure with a client certificate. The error 'CN mismatch' or similar certificate validation failure occurs when the Common Name (CN) in the client certificate does not match the expected name configured on the server (e.g., in a RADIUS or TLS mutual authentication context). This is a specific certificate-level issue, not a password or account lockout problem.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between certificate validation errors (like CN mismatch) and other authentication failures (like wrong password or account lockout), expecting candidates to recognize that certificate-based authentication failures are tied to the certificate's attributes, not user credentials or server availability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an account lockout would typically generate a different error, such as 'account disabled' or 'account locked', not a certificate CN mismatch. Option B is wrong because an incorrect password would produce a 'bad password' or 'invalid credentials' error, not a certificate validation failure. Option D is wrong because a RADIUS server being unavailable would result in a timeout or 'no server available' error, not a certificate CN mismatch.

31
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is implementing ITIL 4. Which TWO of the following are part of the four dimensions of service management? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Governance
B.Organizations and People
C.Financial Management
D.Service Level Management
E.Information and Technology
AnswersB, E

This dimension covers roles and culture.

Why this answer

ITIL 4 defines four dimensions: organizations and people, information and technology, partners and suppliers, value streams and processes.

32
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are primary objectives of capacity management? (Select exactly 2.)

Select 2 answers
A.To ensure adequate IT resources to meet current and future business demands
B.To monitor and report on system performance against SLAs
C.To minimize the total cost of ownership of IT resources
D.To procure hardware and software at the lowest possible cost
E.To optimize the use of existing resources to support business growth
AnswersA, E

This is the core purpose of capacity management.

Why this answer

The primary objectives of capacity management are to ensure adequate IT resources to meet current and future business demands (option A) and to optimize the use of existing resources to support business growth (option E). Option B is about monitoring performance against SLAs, which is part of performance management, not a primary objective of capacity management. Option C is about minimizing TCO, which is broader and not specifically capacity management.

Option D is about procurement cost, which relates to financial management.

33
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a penetration test?

A.To test incident response capabilities
B.To exploit vulnerabilities to assess real-world impact
C.To meet compliance requirements
D.To identify vulnerabilities in a system
AnswerB

The primary purpose of a penetration test is to determine the extent of damage possible from exploitation.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of a penetration test is to exploit vulnerabilities in a controlled manner to assess the real-world impact and business risk, not merely to list them. While vulnerability scanning identifies weaknesses, penetration testing goes further by simulating an attacker's actions to determine if and how a vulnerability can be leveraged to compromise systems, data, or operations. This aligns with the CISA focus on evaluating the effectiveness of security controls under realistic attack conditions.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing a vulnerability assessment (option D) with a penetration test, as many candidates think the primary goal is simply finding flaws, but CISA emphasizes that the real purpose is to exploit them to measure impact.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because testing incident response capabilities is a secondary benefit, not the primary purpose; a penetration test may trigger IR processes, but its core objective is to validate security controls through exploitation. Option C is wrong because meeting compliance requirements (e.g., PCI DSS 11.4) is a driver for conducting a test, but the primary purpose remains the technical assessment of real-world exploitability and impact. Option D is wrong because identifying vulnerabilities is the goal of a vulnerability assessment, not a penetration test; a penetration test assumes vulnerabilities exist and focuses on exploiting them to measure actual risk.

34
MCQmedium

An organization's business continuity plan (BCP) includes alternate facilities that can be operational within 24 hours. The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) for a critical process is 12 hours. What is the most significant gap?

A.The BCP does not include customer communication procedures.
B.The alternate facility cannot be activated within the required MTD.
C.The BCP does not address data backup procedures.
D.The recovery time objective (RTO) for the process is not defined.
AnswerB

The facility's 24-hour activation exceeds the 12-hour MTD.

Why this answer

The alternate facility recovery time (24 hours) exceeds the MTD (12 hours), meaning the process would fail its recovery requirement.

35
MCQhard

An organization uses a cloud-based CRM system. The asset management team has implemented tagging to track resource costs by department. During an audit, the IS auditor finds that several orphaned resources (e.g., virtual machines, storage volumes) exist that are not tagged and have been running for months. The cloud service provider's cost allocation report shows these resources under a default account. What is the most significant risk associated with this finding?

A.Increased attack surface from forgotten resources.
B.Security misconfiguration due to lack of ownership.
C.Inaccurate cost allocation and potential budget overruns.
D.Compliance violation with data residency requirements.
AnswerC

Orphaned resources cause unnecessary costs and distort cost allocation.

Why this answer

The most significant risk is inaccurate cost allocation and potential budget overruns because the orphaned resources are not tagged and are billed under a default account, preventing the organization from accurately attributing cloud costs to the responsible departments. This undermines the purpose of the tagging strategy implemented by the asset management team and can lead to unplanned expenses that are not tracked against any budget owner, directly impacting financial control and operational accountability.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on security risks (like increased attack surface) because orphaned resources are commonly associated with security vulnerabilities, but the question's emphasis on tagging and cost allocation reports directly points to financial risk as the most significant finding.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while forgotten resources can increase the attack surface, the question specifically highlights the cost allocation report and tagging failure, making financial risk the primary concern in this scenario. Option B is wrong because security misconfiguration due to lack of ownership is a potential secondary risk, but the finding explicitly focuses on untagged resources causing cost allocation issues, not a specific security misconfiguration. Option D is wrong because there is no mention of data residency requirements or any regulatory compliance violation; the risk is purely financial and operational, not related to data location or legal mandates.

36
MCQhard

An organization has implemented a role-based access control (RBAC) system. A user complains that they cannot access a file needed to complete a critical task. The file's permission indicates that only the 'Manager' role has read access. The user is assigned to the 'Analyst' role. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.Assign the user to the Manager role temporarily
B.Submit a request for temporary access approval via change management
C.Create a new role with only read access to that file
D.Change the file permissions to include Analyst role
AnswerB

This follows proper authorization and maintains security.

Why this answer

In a properly implemented RBAC system, access changes must follow the principle of least privilege and be formally approved through change management to maintain audit trails and security controls. Granting temporary access via a documented change request ensures that the access is justified, time-bound, and reviewed, preventing unauthorized privilege escalation. This aligns with the CISA domain of Protection of Information Assets, where access control changes must be controlled and monitored.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose to change file permissions or create a new role (options C or D) because they focus on the immediate technical fix, ignoring the governance and audit requirements that mandate formal change management for any access control modification.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because temporarily assigning the user to the Manager role violates the principle of least privilege by granting excessive permissions (e.g., write, delete, or administrative rights) beyond the single file read access needed, increasing the risk of unauthorized actions. Option C is wrong because creating a new role with only read access to that file introduces role proliferation and administrative overhead, bypassing the established RBAC role hierarchy and potentially violating segregation of duties. Option D is wrong because directly changing file permissions to include the Analyst role circumvents the RBAC role-based assignment model, undermining the centralized access control policy and making audit trails inconsistent.

37
MCQhard

A multinational manufacturing company with operations in 20 countries has historically allowed each regional division to manage its own IT systems independently. Recently, the company experienced a significant data breach originating from a region with weaker security controls, leading to financial losses and reputational damage. The board has mandated stronger IT governance to prevent future incidents. The CIO proposes implementing a global IT governance framework with centralized policy enforcement. However, regional directors argue that local regulations and business needs require autonomy. The governance committee must decide on a course of action that balances risk and business flexibility. Which of the following approaches is the MOST appropriate?

A.Adopt a federated governance model with global policies and local flexibility within defined tolerances.
B.Allow each region to continue independently but require quarterly reporting to the committee.
C.Implement a fully centralized IT governance model with no regional deviations.
D.Maintain the status quo but enforce minimum security standards across all regions.
AnswerA

Federated governance balances consistency with local adaptation.

Why this answer

The most appropriate approach is the federated governance model (Option A), which establishes global policies and standards centrally while allowing regional divisions to adapt within defined risk tolerances. This balances the board's mandate for stronger IT governance with legitimate local regulatory and business needs. Option B (quarterly reporting) is insufficient because it does not enforce any binding controls, leaving the company vulnerable to future breaches.

Option C (fully centralized) may ignore critical local regulations and hinder business agility, leading to non-compliance and operational friction. Option D (status quo with minimum standards) is too weak; after a significant breach, a more robust framework requiring proactive governance is needed, not just baseline security.

38
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing a post-implementation review report for a new financial system. Which finding would most indicate that the project did not meet its objectives?

A.Three minor change requests were submitted in the first month
B.Users required additional training after go-live
C.The project budget was exceeded by 5%
D.The system processed transactions 20% slower than projected
AnswerD

Performance against projections is a key metric; significant shortfall indicates objectives were not met.

Why this answer

The post-implementation review should compare actual performance against projections. Significant performance degradation indicates the system is not meeting its intended performance objectives, which is a key project goal.

39
MCQmedium

Which of the following is the BEST example of an analytical procedure used during an IS audit?

A.Observing the data center's physical security controls.
B.Reviewing a sample of change requests for proper authorization.
C.Comparing current period IT expenses to prior periods and investigating significant variances.
D.Interviewing the IT manager about change management procedures.
AnswerC

This is an analytical procedure that identifies unusual trends.

Why this answer

Analytical procedures involve evaluating financial information by studying plausible relationships among data. Comparing current period expenses to prior periods is a typical example.

40
MCQmedium

Given this configuration, which is the PRIMARY concern?

A.Data change rate exceeds bandwidth
B.RTO may not be achievable
C.Synchronous replication may impact application performance
D.Bandwidth may be insufficient to meet RPO
AnswerD

The required replication bandwidth exceeds available bandwidth, risking RPO violations.

Why this answer

The primary concern is that bandwidth may be insufficient to meet the Recovery Point Objective (RPO). In synchronous replication, every write must be acknowledged by the remote site before the local write completes, so the link bandwidth must be at least equal to the peak data change rate. If bandwidth is lower, replication cannot keep up, causing the RPO (maximum acceptable data loss) to be violated as the backlog grows.

This directly threatens the organization's ability to recover data within the defined time window.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on the immediate performance impact (Option C) or the obvious bandwidth mismatch (Option A), but fail to recognize that the ultimate business requirement is the RPO, and insufficient bandwidth directly makes that requirement unachievable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'data change rate exceeds bandwidth' is a symptom of insufficient bandwidth, not the primary concern; the core issue is that the RPO cannot be met, not just that the rate exceeds capacity. Option B is wrong because RTO (Recovery Time Objective) relates to how quickly systems can be restored after a failure, not to the replication link's ability to keep data synchronized; synchronous replication does not directly affect RTO unless the link failure delays failover. Option C is wrong because while synchronous replication can impact application performance due to write latency, this is a secondary operational concern; the primary risk is that the RPO becomes unachievable if bandwidth is inadequate, which is a more critical business continuity issue.

41
MCQhard

An organization is evaluating a cloud-based identity as a service (IDaaS) for single sign-on (SSO). Which of the following security concerns is MOST critical to address?

A.Lack of encryption for SAML assertions
B.Incompatibility with legacy applications
C.Downtime of the IDaaS provider
D.Compromise of the identity provider's credentials
AnswerD

A compromise of the IdP would grant attackers access to all federated applications, making it the most critical security concern.

Why this answer

The compromise of the identity provider's (IdP) credentials is the most critical security concern because the IdP acts as the central trust anchor for all SSO transactions. If an attacker gains control of the IdP's signing key or administrative credentials, they can forge SAML assertions for any user, bypassing all downstream authentication and gaining unauthorized access to every connected service provider (SP). This represents a single point of failure that undermines the entire SSO trust model.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on technical protocol details like encryption (Option A) or operational risks like downtime (Option C), but the CISA exam emphasizes that the most critical security concern in any federated identity system is the protection of the identity provider's root of trust—its credentials—because a compromise there negates all other controls.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SAML assertions are inherently signed and often encrypted end-to-end using XML Signature and XML Encryption standards; the lack of encryption for the assertion body does not expose the authentication token if the transport layer (TLS) is used, and the critical security control is the digital signature, not encryption. Option B is wrong because incompatibility with legacy applications is an integration or migration concern, not a security concern; it can be addressed through federation gateways or protocol translation without compromising the security posture of the SSO system. Option C is wrong because downtime of the IDaaS provider is an availability and business continuity issue, not a security concern; while it impacts access, it does not directly lead to unauthorized data disclosure or system compromise.

42
MCQhard

An organization's backup strategy includes taking full backups weekly and transactional log backups every 15 minutes. The auditor wants to verify that backup encryption is implemented for offsite storage. Which control is most relevant?

A.Backup compression
B.Offsite transport log
C.Backup encryption at rest
D.Backup verification logs
AnswerC

Correct: Encryption at rest protects backup data stored offsite from unauthorized access.

Why this answer

Backup encryption at rest ensures that data stored offsite is protected from unauthorized access, which is a key control for offsite backups.

43
MCQeasy

Which type of change in ITIL requires approval from the Change Advisory Board (CAB) before implementation?

A.Emergency change
B.Normal change
C.Standard change
D.All changes
AnswerB

Normal changes require CAB approval as they are not pre-authorized.

Why this answer

Normal changes are those that are not pre-approved or emergency. They require assessment and approval by the CAB to evaluate risks and impacts.

44
MCQmedium

A company has multiple business units with conflicting IT priorities. Which governance body should resolve this?

A.IT steering committee
B.Board of directors
C.IT management
D.Audit committee
AnswerA

This committee is designed to align and prioritize IT investments.

Why this answer

An IT steering committee, comprising business and IT leadership, is responsible for prioritizing IT initiatives and resolving conflicts. IT management may lack authority; board and audit committee have broader oversight roles.

45
MCQhard

Based on the exhibit, what should the IS auditor MOST likely recommend?

A.Investigate whether any changes are missing from the log
B.Immediately block all direct production access for developers
C.Require all changes to go through the standard approval process
D.Review the criteria for emergency changes and enforce proper classification
AnswerD

The high number of post-approved emergency changes suggests the process is being bypassed.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows changes classified as 'emergency' bypassing the standard approval process. The IS auditor's primary concern is that emergency changes may be misclassified to avoid proper review, increasing risk. Option D is correct because it addresses the root cause: reviewing the criteria for emergency changes and enforcing proper classification ensures that only truly urgent changes bypass standard controls, while all others follow the required approval path.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the misconception that the IS auditor should immediately block all direct production access or require all changes to go through standard approval, when the real issue is ensuring proper classification and enforcement of the emergency change process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the log may be complete; the issue is not missing entries but the classification and approval process for changes that are logged. Option B is wrong because blocking all direct production access for developers is an overly restrictive measure that may hinder legitimate emergency fixes; the focus should be on proper change classification and approval, not blanket access denial. Option C is wrong because requiring all changes to go through the standard approval process would eliminate the emergency change process entirely, which is not practical for urgent fixes; the correct approach is to ensure emergency changes are properly classified and justified, not to eliminate the process.

46
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are primary objectives of an information system audit?

Select 2 answers
A.Ensure optimal performance of IT systems
B.Implement security patches and updates
C.Identify areas for improvement in IT processes
D.Evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls
E.Prepare financial statements for external reporting
AnswersC, D

Correct: IS audits aim to recommend improvements.

Why this answer

Identifying areas for improvement in IT processes is a primary objective of an information system audit. The audit evaluates the design and operational effectiveness of controls, then recommends enhancements to align IT processes with business goals, risk appetite, and regulatory requirements. This goes beyond mere compliance to drive continuous improvement in governance and control frameworks.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing operational or management responsibilities (like performance tuning or patch implementation) with the auditor's role of evaluating controls and identifying process improvements, leading candidates to select options that describe IT tasks rather than audit objectives.

47
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?

A.To document the data processing activities
B.To obtain consent from data subjects
C.To ensure compliance with data protection laws
D.To identify privacy risks and recommend mitigations
AnswerD

The PIA is a risk management tool focused on privacy risks.

Why this answer

A PIA identifies and mitigates privacy risks associated with the processing of personal data.

48
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A security administrator is troubleshooting why external users cannot reach the web server at 203.0.113.10 from the internet. Based on the configuration, what is the MOST likely issue?

A.No NAT rule is configured for the web server
B.The 'no-proxy-arp' option prevents the ASA from responding to ARP requests for the public IP
C.The source address is not translated
D.The access list denies incoming web traffic
AnswerB

Without proxy ARP, the ASA does not claim the public IP, so traffic is not received.

Why this answer

The 'no-proxy-arp' command disables proxy ARP on the ASA interface for the public IP address 203.0.113.10. Without proxy ARP, the ASA will not respond to ARP requests from upstream routers for that IP, so traffic destined to the web server is never delivered to the ASA for NAT processing. This is the most likely cause because the NAT rule exists but the ASA cannot intercept the traffic at Layer 2.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a NAT rule alone is sufficient for inbound traffic, overlooking the Layer 2 requirement that the ASA must respond to ARP for the public IP via proxy ARP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a NAT rule is shown in the exhibit (static NAT from 203.0.113.10 to the internal server), so the issue is not a missing NAT rule. Option B is correct as explained. Option C is wrong because the source address translation (PAT) is configured via the 'global' and 'nat' commands, and the problem is with destination reachability, not source translation.

Option D is wrong because the access list (ACL) shown permits inbound HTTP traffic to 203.0.113.10, so it does not deny web traffic.

49
MCQeasy

A medium-sized retail company relies on an ERP system for order processing and inventory management. The system is hosted on-premises with daily backups stored on tape. The company's business continuity plan specifies an RTO of 4 hours and an RPO of 1 hour for the ERP system. During a recent fire drill, it was discovered that restoring the ERP system from tape took over 6 hours, and the most recent backup was from the previous day. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to meet the RTO and RPO goals?

A.Increase the frequency of tape backups to every 30 minutes.
B.Conduct quarterly fire drills instead of annually.
C.Implement a hot standby site with real-time replication.
D.Replace tape backups with weekly cloud backups.
AnswerC

Hot standby with replication meets both RTO and RPO requirements.

Why this answer

A hot standby site with real-time replication can achieve an RPO near zero and an RTO within 4 hours, directly addressing both goals. Option A reduces the RPO but does not improve the restore time from tape, which exceeds the RTO. Option B increases the frequency of testing but does not change the recovery capability.

Option D replaces tape with cloud backups, but weekly backups fail the 1-hour RPO, and restore time from the cloud may also be too long.

50
MCQmedium

An organization uses role-based access control (RBAC) for its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the greatest risk if user role assignments are not reviewed regularly?

A.Inconsistent application of password policies across roles.
B.Privilege creep, where users retain permissions no longer needed.
C.Increased authentication failures due to expired passwords.
D.Inability to track audit logs for user activity.
AnswerB

Privilege creep increases the attack surface and risk of unauthorized access.

Why this answer

In RBAC, permissions are assigned to roles, and users inherit those permissions through role membership. Without regular reviews, users may retain roles (and thus permissions) long after their job functions change, leading to privilege creep. This violates the principle of least privilege and increases the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches within the ERP system.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the operational impact of role reviews (privilege creep) with other access control issues like password policies or logging, which are separate concerns in the Protection of Information Assets domain.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because password policies are typically set at the system or domain level, not tied to individual RBAC roles; inconsistent application would stem from policy configuration issues, not role review frequency. Option C is wrong because authentication failures due to expired passwords are managed by password expiration policies and account lockout mechanisms, not by the review of role assignments. Option D is wrong because audit log tracking is a function of the logging and monitoring infrastructure (e.g., SIEM, audit trails), not directly dependent on whether role assignments are reviewed; even with stale roles, logs can still be captured and tracked.

51
MCQmedium

An organization is selecting a key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of its patch management process. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate KPI?

A.Patch compliance percentage
B.Number of patches released
C.Number of security incidents
D.Average time to deploy critical patches
AnswerA

Patch compliance percentage indicates the extent to which systems are patched, directly reflecting process effectiveness.

Why this answer

Patch compliance percentage directly measures the effectiveness of patch management by indicating the proportion of systems that have required patches applied within a defined timeframe.

52
MCQmedium

During a security audit, it is discovered that a database containing customer credit card numbers is not encrypted at rest. The database is used by a legacy application that cannot be modified. Which compensating control most effectively reduces the risk?

A.Isolating the database server on a separate network segment with strict firewall rules
B.Enabling detailed audit logging for all database access
C.Requiring all users to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
D.Implementing dynamic data masking at the application level
AnswerA

Segmentation reduces the attack surface and limits access.

Why this answer

Isolating the database server on a separate network segment with strict firewall rules (e.g., using VLANs and ACLs to restrict traffic to only the legacy application’s IP and port) prevents unauthorized network-level access to the unencrypted data. This compensating control reduces the attack surface by ensuring that even if the database lacks encryption at rest, an attacker cannot reach it without first compromising the network segmentation, which is a critical defense-in-depth layer.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose audit logging or masking because they seem technical, but they fail to recognize that only network segmentation actively prevents direct access to the unencrypted data at rest, while the others are either detective or require application changes that are impossible in this scenario.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because enabling detailed audit logging only provides detective control—it logs who accessed the data but does not prevent unauthorized access or protect the unencrypted credit card numbers at rest. Option C is wrong because requiring NDAs is an administrative control that does not address the technical vulnerability of unencrypted data; it cannot stop an attacker who gains network access from reading the plaintext data. Option D is wrong because dynamic data masking at the application level would require modifying the legacy application (which cannot be changed) to implement masking logic, and it only obfuscates data in query results, not the underlying stored data, leaving the physical database files exposed.

53
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is planning a full interruption test of its disaster recovery plan. Which THREE of the following should the IS auditor recommend as best practices for this type of test? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Notify all relevant stakeholders in advance
B.Conduct the test during peak business hours to simulate real conditions
C.Define clear test objectives and success criteria
D.Have a rollback plan in case of failure
E.Ensure the test is scheduled after a major system upgrade to validate changes
AnswersA, C, D

Stakeholders need to be aware to coordinate.

Why this answer

Notifying all relevant stakeholders in advance is a best practice for a full interruption test. This ensures that business units, IT teams, and external vendors are prepared for the planned outage, minimizing confusion and allowing coordinated execution. Without prior notification, the test could cause unnecessary panic or operational disruption, undermining the controlled nature of the exercise.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse a full interruption test with a tabletop or simulated test, incorrectly assuming that notifying stakeholders (Option A) reduces realism, when in fact it is a critical safety control for a live failover exercise.

54
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common objectives of an IT balanced scorecard? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Deploying a new ERP system
B.Reducing the number of help desk tickets
C.Enhancing IT staff skills and knowledge
D.Implementing a new firewall
E.Improving customer satisfaction with IT services
AnswersC, E

Learning and growth perspective.

Why this answer

The IT balanced scorecard translates the organization's strategy into objectives across four perspectives: customer, financial, internal process, and learning/growth. Option C (enhancing IT staff skills and knowledge) aligns with the learning and growth perspective, as it focuses on developing human capital. Option E (improving customer satisfaction with IT services) aligns with the customer perspective, measuring how IT meets user needs.

Options A, B, and D are tactical or operational activities rather than strategic objectives spanning the balanced scorecard dimensions.

55
MCQmedium

During the requirements gathering phase for a new financial system, stakeholders disagree on the priority of security controls versus user convenience. Which of the following is the BEST approach?

A.Postpone security decisions to later phases
B.Let the project team decide based on development ease
C.Conduct a risk assessment to balance security and usability
D.Implement all security controls regardless of convenience
AnswerC

A risk assessment identifies and evaluates threats, allowing the organization to make a balanced decision that aligns security controls with business needs.

Why this answer

A risk assessment provides a structured, evidence-based framework for balancing security controls against user convenience during requirements gathering. By evaluating the likelihood and impact of threats specific to financial systems (e.g., transaction fraud, data breaches) against usability needs, the organization can prioritize controls that mitigate high-risk exposures without unnecessarily impeding legitimate business processes. This aligns with the COBIT 5 principle of balancing benefits, risk, and resource optimization.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose Option A, mistakenly believing that security can be 'bolted on' later, but CISA emphasizes that security must be integrated from the requirements phase to avoid costly redesigns and compliance violations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because postponing security decisions to later phases introduces significant rework costs and integration challenges, as security requirements must be baked into system architecture from the start (e.g., secure coding practices, access control design). Option B is wrong because letting the project team decide based on development ease ignores stakeholder priorities and regulatory compliance (e.g., PCI DSS, SOX), leading to potential audit failures and security gaps. Option D is wrong because implementing all security controls regardless of convenience can cripple user productivity and lead to shadow IT, where users bypass controls (e.g., using unapproved cloud storage), increasing overall risk.

56
MCQeasy

An organization has implemented role-based access control (RBAC). Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of RBAC?

A.Simplified user permission management
B.Encryption of sensitive data at rest
C.Elimination of compliance requirements
D.Improved protection against malware
AnswerA

RBAC streamlines access control administration.

Why this answer

RBAC simplifies user permission management by assigning permissions to roles rather than individuals, allowing administrators to grant or revoke access by modifying role memberships. This reduces administrative overhead and the risk of permission errors, as changes propagate automatically to all users in a role. The primary benefit is operational efficiency in access control, not direct security features like encryption or malware protection.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse RBAC's administrative benefit with other security controls, assuming it directly provides encryption or malware defense, when in fact RBAC is purely an access management model.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because encryption of sensitive data at rest is a data protection mechanism, not a benefit of RBAC; RBAC controls access to data but does not encrypt it. Option C is wrong because RBAC does not eliminate compliance requirements; it can help meet compliance (e.g., least privilege) but regulations still mandate audits, logging, and other controls. Option D is wrong because RBAC does not directly protect against malware; malware protection relies on endpoint security, antivirus, and network controls, not role-based access.

57
MCQmedium

A hospital is implementing a new electronic health records (EHR) system. The system will be used by doctors, nurses, and administrative staff. During the user acceptance testing (UAT) phase, the nursing staff reports that the interface for entering patient vitals is too slow and requires many clicks, which slows down their workflow. The project team has already completed system testing and is preparing for go-live in two weeks. The development team can make a quick fix to streamline the vital signs entry by adding a shortcut, but this change has not been tested. The IT director is concerned about patient safety and wants to ensure the system is usable. What is the BEST course of action?

A.Implement the quick fix immediately and go live as scheduled
B.Proceed with go-live as planned and address usability issues in a future release
C.Assess the risk, develop the fix, fast-track testing, and if successful, include it in the go-live
D.Delay go-live by one month to fully test the fix
AnswerC

Enables safe improvement.

Why this answer

It balances patient safety with project timelines by formally assessing the risk of the untested fix, developing it, and then fast-tracking a targeted regression test. This approach ensures the usability issue is resolved without bypassing necessary quality controls, which is critical for a clinical system where data entry errors could directly impact patient care. The IT director's concern about patient safety is addressed by the risk assessment and focused testing, while the go-live date is preserved if the fix passes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose Option B (defer usability) thinking it is safer, but they fail to recognize that a usability issue in a clinical workflow directly threatens patient safety by increasing the likelihood of data entry errors, making risk assessment and targeted remediation the correct approach.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because implementing an untested change immediately before go-live violates change management best practices and could introduce critical defects that compromise patient safety, such as data corruption or loss of vital signs. Option B is wrong because proceeding with a known usability flaw that slows down vital signs entry increases the risk of data entry errors or omissions, which in a clinical setting can lead to incorrect treatment decisions and patient harm. Option D is wrong because delaying go-live by a full month is unnecessarily conservative for a targeted fix that can be validated through fast-tracked regression testing, and it introduces project delays and costs without proportional risk reduction.

58
MCQmedium

When an organization uses an external provider to manage its IT help desk, this is an example of which sourcing model?

A.Cloud services
B.Outsourcing
C.Insourcing
D.Co-sourcing
AnswerB

Outsourcing transfers management of the function to an external vendor.

Why this answer

Outsourcing involves contracting with an external provider to manage specific IT functions.

59
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is implementing a new customer relationship management (CRM) system using an agile methodology. Which THREE areas should the IS auditor focus on to assess the effectiveness of controls during the development process?

Select 3 answers
A.Use of formal change request documentation for each change
B.Inclusion of security requirements in user stories
C.Conduct of sprint retrospectives to identify improvements
D.Performance of code reviews and static analysis
E.Adherence to the original detailed project plan
AnswersB, C, D

Security requirements should be part of each sprint's backlog to ensure security is built in.

Why this answer

In agile, security requirements must be integrated into user stories, code reviews and static analysis are key for code quality, and sprint retrospectives help identify process improvements. Maintaining a detailed project plan is less relevant in agile, and formal change requests are not typical.

60
MCQmedium

An organization is considering outsourcing its IT help desk. Which of the following is a key risk that should be addressed in the outsourcing contract?

A.Reduced flexibility in service hours
B.Lack of technical expertise in the outsourcing provider
C.Higher cost compared to in-house operations
D.Inadequate data privacy and security measures
AnswerD

Outsourcing exposes the organization to data breaches and compliance issues.

Why this answer

Data privacy and security are critical when outsourcing services that handle sensitive information.

61
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are essential components of an effective incident response plan? (Select exactly 2.)

Select 2 answers
A.Root cause analysis procedures
B.Detailed vulnerability scanning schedules
C.Clearly defined roles and responsibilities
D.List of all hardware vendors and support contacts
E.Communication and escalation procedures
AnswersC, E

Essential for coordinated response.

Why this answer

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities (C) are essential because they ensure that during a security incident, every team member knows their specific tasks, such as who leads the investigation, who communicates with stakeholders, and who executes containment actions. Without this clarity, response efforts become chaotic, leading to delays and missed containment windows, which directly impacts the organization's ability to minimize damage and recover quickly.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between proactive security activities (like vulnerability scanning or vendor lists) and the reactive, operational components of an incident response plan, leading candidates to mistakenly include non-essential items that are important for general IT management but not for immediate incident handling.

62
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a key control in the deployment phase of the SDLC?

A.Rollback plan
B.Threat modeling
C.User acceptance testing
D.Code review
AnswerA

Essential for deployment phase to mitigate failure risks.

Why this answer

A rollback plan ensures that if deployment fails, the system can be restored to a known good state.

63
MCQhard

During an ERP implementation, the project team decides to disable segregation of duties (SoD) controls in the system to accelerate go-live. After go-live, the IS auditor identifies that a single user can perform incompatible functions. What is the BEST course of action?

A.Require reconfiguration of SoD controls before the next audit
B.Document the issue and accept the risk
C.Implement compensating controls such as enhanced monitoring and audit logs
D.Advise management to terminate the project manager
AnswerC

Compensating controls provide a temporary but effective mitigation until the system can be properly configured.

Why this answer

SoD conflicts are a high-risk issue. The auditor should recommend immediate implementation of compensating controls (e.g., enhanced monitoring, dual approval) to mitigate risk until the system is reconfigured.

64
MCQhard

A multinational corporation is deploying a data loss prevention (DLP) solution across its network. The DLP system must be configured to prevent the exfiltration of personally identifiable information (PII) while minimizing false positives. Which approach is most effective?

A.Block all outbound email containing keywords such as 'SSN' or 'credit card'
B.Require all users to complete annual data handling training and rely on self-reporting
C.Implement full disk encryption on all endpoints and encrypt all outbound traffic
D.Use regex patterns for PII combined with context-aware policies (e.g., user role, destination domain)
AnswerD

Regex with context reduces false positives and accurately detects PII.

Why this answer

Using regex patterns for PII combined with context-aware policies (e.g., user role, destination domain) allows the DLP system to accurately detect sensitive data while minimizing false positives. Option A is too simplistic; keyword-based blocking can cause high false positives. Option B relies on user training and self-reporting, which is not a technical DLP control and is ineffective.

Option C (encryption) protects data at rest and in transit but does not prevent exfiltration; it is not a DLP method.

65
MCQmedium

A large enterprise recently experienced a data breach due to an insider threat. The IT governance committee is reviewing the incident and considering measures to prevent recurrence. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address the root cause?

A.Implement a privileged access management (PAM) solution to control and monitor elevated access.
B.Increase logging and auditing of all user activities.
C.Deploy a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.
D.Terminate the employment of the insider who caused the breach.
AnswerA

PAM directly prevents and controls unauthorized privileged access, addressing the root cause.

Why this answer

A privileged access management (PAM) solution directly addresses the root cause of an insider threat by controlling, monitoring, and auditing elevated access rights. Since the breach was caused by an insider, limiting and tracking privileged accounts prevents unauthorized or excessive use of administrative credentials, which is the most effective preventive measure against recurrence.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (logging, SIEM) with preventive controls (PAM), or they mistakenly view termination as a root-cause fix rather than a reactive measure, failing to recognize that the root cause is the lack of access governance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because increasing logging and auditing of all user activities is a detective control, not a preventive one; it helps identify breaches after they occur but does not stop an insider from abusing elevated access. Option C is wrong because deploying a SIEM tool aggregates and correlates logs for detection and analysis, but it does not prevent an insider from using privileged access to cause a breach. Option D is wrong because terminating the insider is a reactive disciplinary action that addresses the specific individual but does not fix the underlying lack of access controls, leaving the enterprise vulnerable to future insider threats.

66
MCQmedium

An organization uses a standard change model for low-risk, pre-approved changes. Which of the following is an example of a standard change?

A.Upgrading the core router to a new model
B.Changing the backup schedule from daily to weekly
C.Applying a routine security patch to the firewall
D.Migrating the entire email system to the cloud
AnswerC

Routine patches are typically pre-approved as standard changes.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-approved, low-risk, and follow a defined procedure. Applying a routine security patch that has been tested and approved falls under this category.

67
MCQeasy

In a spiral SDLC model, what is the primary purpose of risk analysis in each iteration?

A.To identify and resolve potential project risks early
B.To assess user satisfaction with the prototype
C.To plan the next iteration's tasks
D.To define detailed functional requirements
AnswerA

Risk analysis is a distinguishing feature of the spiral model, allowing iterative risk mitigation.

Why this answer

The spiral model is risk-driven; each iteration includes a risk analysis to identify and mitigate project risks before proceeding to the next phase.

68
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is migrating from a legacy system to a new ERP. Which TWO of the following are the HIGHEST risks during data migration?

Select 2 answers
A.Incorrect data mapping between old and new systems
B.Insufficient network bandwidth during cutover
C.Lack of user training on the new system
D.Lack of segregation of duties in the new system
E.Incomplete or inaccurate source data
AnswersA, E

Mapping errors can cause data loss or corruption.

Why this answer

Data quality issues (incomplete/inaccurate data) and mapping errors are common risks that can lead to system failures.

69
MCQeasy

A systems analyst is gathering requirements for a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. Which of the following is the MOST important activity to ensure that the final system meets user needs?

A.Creating a prototype and asking for feedback after development.
B.Conducting a joint requirements validation session with stakeholders.
C.Developing a detailed technical specification before user sign-off.
D.Documenting all requirements in a formal specification.
AnswerB

Direct stakeholder involvement ensures alignment.

Why this answer

Conducting a joint requirements validation session with stakeholders (Option B) is the most important activity because it ensures that the requirements are accurate, complete, and agreed upon before development begins. This collaborative review process directly involves end users and business owners, allowing for immediate clarification and correction of misunderstandings, which is critical for aligning the CRM system with actual business processes. Without this validation, even a perfectly built system may fail to meet user needs, leading to costly rework.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'documenting requirements' (Option D) with 'validating requirements,' assuming that formal documentation alone is sufficient to ensure user needs are met, whereas the CISA exam emphasizes that validation through stakeholder interaction is the critical step to prevent costly rework.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because creating a prototype and asking for feedback after development violates the iterative validation principle; feedback should be gathered during development, not after, to avoid rework and misalignment with user expectations. Option C is wrong because developing a detailed technical specification before user sign-off assumes that technical details can be finalized without user validation, which often leads to a system that meets technical specs but fails to satisfy business requirements. Option D is wrong because documenting all requirements in a formal specification alone does not ensure that the requirements are correct or understood by stakeholders; it is a passive activity that lacks the interactive validation needed to confirm user needs.

70
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are components of audit risk in the ISACA risk model? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Inherent risk
B.Engagement risk
C.Sampling risk
D.Detection risk
E.Business risk
AnswersA, D

Correct; inherent risk is a component.

Why this answer

Audit risk = Inherent risk × Control risk × Detection risk. Inherent risk and detection risk are components; control risk is also a component, but the question asks for two; correct ones are inherent and detection.

71
MCQeasy

According to ISACA IT Audit Standards, which of the following is the primary purpose of audit documentation (working papers)?

A.To facilitate the planning of the next audit
B.To serve as a legal record for potential litigation
C.To provide a basis for the audit report and support the auditor's conclusions
D.To demonstrate compliance with audit standards
AnswerC

Working papers document the evidence and reasoning behind conclusions.

Why this answer

Audit documentation supports the auditor's conclusions and provides evidence of the work performed. It is not primarily for future audit planning or legal protection.

72
MCQhard

An organization plan to integrate a third-party payment gateway into its e-commerce platform. Which of the following is the MOST critical security control to implement before going live?

A.Perform a penetration test on the integration
B.Ensure all data is encrypted in transit and at rest
C.Implement detailed logging of payment transactions
D.Configure network firewalls to restrict traffic
AnswerA

Pen testing proactively identifies vulnerabilities in the integration.

Why this answer

A penetration test on the integration is the most critical control because it actively validates the security of the API endpoints, data flows, and authentication mechanisms between the e-commerce platform and the third-party gateway. Unlike passive controls like encryption or logging, a penetration test can uncover exploitable vulnerabilities such as injection flaws, broken authentication, or insecure direct object references that could lead to financial fraud or data breach before the system is exposed to live transactions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose encryption (Option B) as the most critical control because it is a fundamental security requirement, but the question specifically asks for the control that validates the integration's security before going live, which only a penetration test can achieve.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because encryption in transit and at rest is a necessary baseline control but does not address logic flaws or misconfigurations in the integration code that could allow an attacker to bypass payment validation or steal tokens. Option C is wrong because detailed logging is a detective control that helps after an incident occurs; it does not prevent or identify exploitable vulnerabilities before going live. Option D is wrong because network firewalls restrict traffic at the network layer but cannot protect against application-layer attacks such as API parameter tampering or session hijacking that target the payment gateway integration.

73
Drag & Dropmedium

Arrange the steps to implement a password policy in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Password policy implementation: define requirements, set expiration, lockout, communicate, and enforce.

74
MCQhard

During a third-party software vendor audit, the IS auditor discovers that the vendor uses a common shared database for multiple clients and relies on application-level access controls. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.Data from different clients may be commingled and accessible.
B.The database does not encrypt data at rest.
C.The vendor does not perform regular penetration testing.
D.The vendor lacks segregation of duties among administrators.
AnswerA

Application-level access controls can be circumvented, causing data leakage between clients.

Why this answer

The greatest concern is that the vendor uses a common shared database for multiple clients and relies solely on application-level access controls. If there is a vulnerability or misconfiguration in the application, it could allow unauthorized access to data from other clients, leading to data commingling and exposure. This poses a significant risk to data confidentiality and could violate contractual or regulatory requirements.

In contrast, the other options (encryption at rest, penetration testing frequency, and segregation of duties) are important but secondary to the immediate risk of data leakage due to shared database architecture.

75
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a public key infrastructure (PKI) to issue digital certificates for internal applications. Which THREE of the following are essential elements of PKI governance that an IS auditor should review?

Select 3 answers
A.Certificate lifecycle management procedures (issuance, renewal, revocation).
B.Certificate revocation list (CRL) distribution points.
C.Certificate policy (CP) defining the legal and technical requirements.
D.Key length and algorithm specifications.
E.Number of certificates issued per month.
AnswersA, B, C

Lifecycle management is a core governance component.

Why this answer

PKI governance includes CA policies, certificate lifecycle management, and revocation mechanisms.

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