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Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA (CISA) — Questions 301375

995 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
MCQmedium

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a change advisory board (CAB) in the change management process?

A.To approve all standard changes without review
B.To assess, prioritize, and authorize changes
C.To authorize emergency changes immediately
D.To develop technical solutions for change requests
AnswerB

This is the core function of the CAB.

Why this answer

The CAB is responsible for reviewing and approving changes, assessing risks, and ensuring proper planning and testing.

302
MCQhard

An IS auditor is planning an audit of a decentralized organization with multiple business units. The auditor wants to use a risk-based approach. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate factor to prioritize audit coverage?

A.The geographical location of each business unit.
B.The results of a risk assessment evaluating inherent risk and control effectiveness.
C.The budget allocated to each business unit for IT.
D.The number of employees in each business unit.
AnswerB

Risk assessment directly informs audit coverage.

Why this answer

Risk assessment should consider the inherent risk of each unit, including financial impact, complexity, and past issues, to prioritize high-risk areas.

303
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key considerations when managing software licenses in an organization? (Select TWO).

Select 2 answers
A.Implementing automated license optimization tools
B.Conducting regular license compliance audits
C.Storing all software installation media in a secure location
D.Maintaining a hardware inventory for asset tracking
E.Ensuring all software is patched to the latest version
AnswersA, B

Helps manage licenses efficiently and reduce costs.

Why this answer

Software Asset Management (SAM) ensures license compliance and cost optimization. Regular compliance audits prevent legal and financial penalties. License optimization helps avoid over-purchasing or under-licensing.

304
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are the MOST effective controls to prevent unauthorized changes to production data?

Select 2 answers
A.Requiring change management approval for all production changes
B.Enforcing segregation of duties between development and production
C.Implementing audit logging of all data changes
D.Encrypting production data at rest
E.Using automated testing for all code changes
AnswersA, B

Ensures changes are authorized before implementation.

Why this answer

Requiring change management approval for all production changes is a preventive control that ensures every modification to production data is formally authorized, reviewed, and documented before implementation. This directly prevents unauthorized changes by enforcing a gatekeeping process where only approved changes proceed, reducing the risk of data integrity breaches. Without this control, even with other safeguards, an attacker or insider could bypass technical controls by simply requesting a change through official channels.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between preventive and detective controls, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly choose audit logging (a detective control) as a preventive measure because it provides evidence of changes, but it does not stop unauthorized changes from occurring.

305
MCQeasy

During which phase of the SDLC should security requirements be formally documented and approved?

A.Design phase
B.Requirements phase
C.Development phase
D.Testing phase
AnswerB

Correct. Security requirements are defined and approved by the business owner during this phase.

Why this answer

Security requirements must be formally documented and approved during the Requirements phase of the SDLC because this is when functional and non-functional needs, including security controls, are defined before any design or coding begins. Integrating security at this stage ensures that confidentiality, integrity, and availability requirements are captured in the system specification, preventing costly rework later. The Requirements phase is the earliest point where stakeholders can review and approve security constraints, such as encryption standards or access control policies, aligning them with business objectives.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the Requirements phase with the Design phase, mistakenly thinking security requirements are documented during design because that is when security controls are technically specified, but formal approval must occur earlier in the requirements stage to drive the entire development lifecycle.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Design phase translates approved requirements into technical architecture and detailed specifications, but security requirements must already be documented and approved before design begins to guide secure design decisions. Option C is wrong because the Development phase focuses on coding and unit testing based on the design, and introducing security requirements at this stage would lead to retrofitting controls, increasing risk and cost. Option D is wrong because the Testing phase validates that the system meets documented requirements, including security ones, but it is too late to formally document and approve security requirements; they must be established earlier to define test cases.

306
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are typical controls in the design phase of the SDLC?

Select 3 answers
A.Designing security controls
B.Architecture review
C.Code review
D.Threat modeling
E.User acceptance testing
AnswersA, B, D

Correct. Security controls should be designed in, not bolted on.

Why this answer

Architecture review, threat modeling, and designing security controls are key design-phase controls to ensure security is built in.

307
MCQeasy

An organization is implementing a new IT governance framework. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of aligning IT strategy with business strategy?

A.Increased technical efficiency
B.Improved resource allocation
C.Reduced IT costs
D.Enhanced security posture
AnswerB

Correct. Alignment ensures IT resources are focused on business priorities.

Why this answer

The primary benefit of aligning IT strategy with business strategy is improved resource allocation (Option B). This alignment ensures that IT investments and projects are directed toward activities that directly support business goals, maximizing value and minimizing waste. While increased technical efficiency (Option A), reduced IT costs (Option C), and enhanced security posture (Option D) are possible outcomes, they are not the primary benefit; they are secondary benefits that may result from proper alignment.

308
MCQhard

An organization processes personal data of EU residents and has implemented pseudonymisation as a privacy control. The IS auditor is reviewing the effectiveness of this control in meeting GDPR requirements. Which of the following is the MOST important limitation of pseudonymisation?

A.Pseudonymisation eliminates the need for data subject rights
B.Pseudonymisation is not recognized by GDPR
C.Pseudonymisation cannot be applied to structured data
D.Pseudonymised data is still considered personal data under GDPR
AnswerD

Pseudonymisation reduces risks but does not remove the data from GDPR scope; it is still personal data.

Why this answer

Pseudonymisation reduces the link between data and an individual but does not fully anonymize the data; the pseudonymised data remains personal data if the pseudonym can be reversed using additional information held separately.

309
Multi-Selecthard

An IS auditor is performing a risk assessment for an audit of a cloud service provider. Which THREE factors should be considered when assessing inherent risk? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Complexity of the cloud architecture
B.Effectiveness of monitoring controls
C.Strength of access controls
D.Sensitivity of data stored in the cloud
E.Recent changes to the cloud environment
AnswersA, D, E

Complexity increases inherent risk.

Why this answer

Inherent risk is the risk without controls. Factors include complexity, data sensitivity, and changes in the environment.

310
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a new ERP system and is concerned about segregation of duties (SoD) conflicts. What is the BEST approach to address this during the implementation?

A.Assign all administrative rights to a single user for efficiency
B.Configure role-based access controls with SoD rules in the system
C.Rely on manual compensating controls after go-live
D.Document SoD conflicts for future resolution
AnswerB

Proactive configuration prevents conflicts.

Why this answer

Configuring SoD rules within the ERP system helps enforce segregation and prevent conflicts during operations.

311
MCQhard

A multinational corporation is implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following is the most important security control to ensure corporate data is protected on employee devices?

A.Require employees to install antivirus software.
B.Prohibit the use of personal devices for work.
C.Mandate full-device encryption.
D.Implement mobile device management (MDM) with containerization.
AnswerD

Correct. Containerization segregates corporate data and enables selective wipe without affecting personal data.

Why this answer

Mobile Device Management (MDM) with containerization creates a separate, encrypted workspace on the employee's device that isolates corporate data from personal data. This ensures that the organization can enforce security policies (e.g., remote wipe, access controls) on the corporate container without affecting the user's personal information, which is critical for BYOD environments where full-device control is not feasible.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse full-device encryption (Option C) as sufficient for BYOD, failing to recognize that encryption alone does not provide data segregation or selective wipe capabilities, which are essential for protecting corporate data on a device the organization does not fully own.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because antivirus software alone cannot prevent data leakage or enforce access controls on corporate data; it only protects against malware and does not address the core requirement of data segregation on a shared device. Option B is wrong because prohibiting personal devices for work directly contradicts the BYOD policy being implemented, making it a policy rejection rather than a security control. Option C is wrong because full-device encryption protects data at rest but does not separate corporate data from personal data; in a BYOD scenario, the organization would have no control over the user's personal apps or data, and a remote wipe would erase everything, including personal content.

312
MCQhard

A financial services organization recently experienced a data breach where customer financial records were exfiltrated. The investigation reveals that an attacker gained access through a compromised privileged account belonging to a database administrator. The attacker used valid credentials to log into the database server and then exported a large volume of data using native database tools. The security team notes that the organization has multi-factor authentication (MFA) enabled for all remote access, but the database server was accessed from an internal IP address. The organization also has a data loss prevention (DLP) system, but it did not alert on the export because the traffic was encrypted. The database activity monitoring (DAM) system did log the export, but alerts were not reviewed due to high volume and many false positives. Which of the following would have been most effective in preventing this breach?

A.Deploying a DLP solution that can inspect encrypted traffic via SSL interception
B.Implementing a privileged access management (PAM) solution that requires approval for elevated actions and records sessions
C.Segmenting the database server onto a separate network with strict firewall rules
D.Improving the database activity monitoring (DAM) alerting to reduce false positives
AnswerB

PAM controls and monitors privileged access, reducing the risk of misuse.

Why this answer

The breach occurred because a privileged database administrator account was compromised, and the attacker used native database tools to export data from an internal IP address, bypassing MFA. A privileged access management (PAM) solution would have required approval for elevated actions (e.g., exporting large volumes of data) and recorded the session, providing both preventive control (approval workflow) and detective control (session recording) to stop or immediately detect the abuse of valid credentials. This directly addresses the root cause—compromised privileged credentials—rather than relying on network or alerting controls that were circumvented.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on detection or network controls (DLP, segmentation, DAM) instead of recognizing that the root cause is the abuse of valid privileged credentials, which requires a preventive control like PAM that manages and monitors privileged access at the point of action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SSL interception of encrypted traffic would not have prevented the breach; the attacker used native database tools over an encrypted connection from an internal IP, and DLP inspection of encrypted traffic would still need to decrypt and analyze the content, which is complex and may not block the export if the attacker uses legitimate database protocols. Option C is wrong because network segmentation with firewall rules would not prevent an attacker who already has valid credentials from an internal IP; the attacker was already on the internal network and could access the database server through permitted firewall rules. Option D is wrong because improving DAM alerting to reduce false positives would only improve detection, not prevention; the breach had already occurred by the time the alert was generated, and the attacker had already exfiltrated the data.

313
MCQeasy

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a post-implementation review?

A.To close the project budget and finalize costs
B.To evaluate the performance of the project team
C.To document lessons learned for future projects
D.To assess whether expected benefits were achieved
AnswerD

The post-implementation review determines if the system delivers the intended business value and helps identify areas for improvement.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of a post-implementation review (PIR) is to determine whether the system or project has delivered the expected business benefits, such as improved efficiency, cost savings, or enhanced functionality. This aligns with the IS auditor's focus on value realization and governance, ensuring that the investment achieved its intended objectives before the project is formally closed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the PIR's primary purpose with the project closure process (Option A) or the team's performance evaluation (Option B), but CISA emphasizes that the review's core objective is to confirm that the system delivers the expected business value, not just to complete administrative tasks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because closing the project budget and finalizing costs is a financial closure activity that occurs during project closeout, not the primary goal of a PIR, which focuses on benefits realization. Option B is wrong because evaluating the performance of the project team is a human resource or project management task, often done during or immediately after project execution, whereas the PIR assesses the system's outcomes against business case criteria. Option C is wrong because documenting lessons learned is a secondary output of a PIR, but the primary purpose is to verify that expected benefits were achieved; lessons learned support future projects but do not validate the current investment's success.

314
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a privileged access management (PAM) solution. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a PAM tool?

A.Elimination of shared accounts by providing individual credentials
B.Enforcement of segregation of duties between IT and security teams
C.Automated password resets for user accounts
D.Centralized management and monitoring of privileged account usage
AnswerD

This is the primary function of PAM.

Why this answer

PAM tools primarily help control and monitor the use of privileged accounts, thus reducing the risk of misuse by enforcing policies like session recording and just-in-time access.

315
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a new IT policy. What is the MOST important step to ensure compliance?

A.Publishing the policy on the intranet
B.Conducting training and awareness sessions
C.Establishing penalties for non-compliance
D.Assigning a policy owner
AnswerB

Training ensures employees understand the policy and their responsibilities.

Why this answer

Compliance depends on employees understanding the policy and knowing what is expected. Training and communication are critical to raise awareness and ensure adherence.

316
MCQeasy

Based on the exhibit, what is the default retention period for data?

A.365 days
B.30 days for Legal role only
C.The policy does not specify a default period
D.30 days
AnswerA

Correct. The default retention period is 365 days.

Why this answer

The JSON exhibit shows a default retention period of 365 days. Option B is incorrect; 30 days is the extension applied only to the Legal role, not the default. Option C is incorrect as the policy explicitly specifies a default period.

Option D is incorrect because 365 days, not 30 days, is the default retention period.

317
MCQeasy

Which testing phase is MOST effective for validating that the system meets business needs?

A.User acceptance testing
B.Regression testing
C.Unit testing
D.Integration testing
AnswerA

UAT is performed by users to validate business requirements.

Why this answer

User acceptance testing (UAT) is the final phase of testing where actual end-users validate the system against real-world business requirements and workflows. It confirms that the system meets the agreed-upon business needs, functional specifications, and operational criteria before production deployment. Unlike technical testing phases, UAT focuses on business process alignment and user satisfaction.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the misconception that integration testing or system testing validates business needs, but only UAT directly involves end-users and business stakeholders to confirm the system meets their operational requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Regression testing) is wrong because it focuses on verifying that recent code changes have not broken existing functionality, not on validating business needs. Option C (Unit testing) is wrong because it tests individual components or modules in isolation at the developer level, ensuring code correctness but not business requirement alignment. Option D (Integration testing) is wrong because it validates that combined modules or systems work together correctly, but it does not assess whether the overall system satisfies business objectives or user expectations.

318
MCQmedium

A company plans to outsource its data center operations to a cloud service provider. What is the MOST important governance consideration for the board before finalizing the contract?

A.Select a provider with the lowest cost per transaction.
B.Negotiate the transfer of existing IT staff to the provider.
C.Ensure the contract includes clauses for regulatory compliance and audit rights.
D.Define a detailed exit strategy for transitioning to another provider.
AnswerC

Compliance and audit rights are critical for governance and oversight.

Why this answer

The most important governance consideration because the board must ensure that the contract enforces regulatory compliance and provides audit rights to meet legal and regulatory obligations. Option A is wrong because cost reduction is secondary to compliance and governance. Option B is wrong because transferring staff is an HR/operational issue, not a board-level governance priority.

Option D is wrong while an exit strategy is important, contractually securing compliance and audit rights is more critical for governance oversight.

319
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key performance indicators (KPIs) for IT operations?

Select 2 answers
A.Number of unresolved incidents
B.Employee satisfaction score
C.Mean time to repair (MTTR)
D.System availability percentage
E.Budget variance
AnswersC, D

MTTR measures the efficiency of incident resolution.

Why this answer

Mean time to repair (MTTR) measures the average time taken to restore a failed IT service or component, directly reflecting operational efficiency and incident response effectiveness. It is a standard KPI for IT operations because it quantifies the speed of recovery, which is critical for minimizing downtime and maintaining service levels.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse operational metrics (like unresolved incidents) with KPIs, or they mistakenly include non-operational metrics (like employee satisfaction or budget variance) that are relevant to other domains but not to IT operations performance.

320
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is planning a risk-based audit of a financial system. Which TWO of the following factors should the auditor consider when assessing inherent risk? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Complexity of transactions
B.Volume of transactions
C.Auditor's experience with similar systems
D.Results of prior audits
E.Effectiveness of internal controls
AnswersA, B

Complexity of transactions is a direct indicator of inherent risk because intricate processes and calculations are inherently more susceptible to errors or misstatements, even before considering internal controls. For a financial system, highly complex transactions, such as those involving derivatives or multi-currency conversions, present a greater predisposition to material misstatement. An IS auditor must recognise this increased susceptibility when assessing the risk profile of the system.

Why this answer

Inherent risk is the susceptibility to misstatement before considering controls. Complexity of transactions and volume of transactions increase inherent risk. Control effectiveness is part of control risk, and auditor experience relates to detection risk.

321
MCQeasy

An organization is implementing a new financial system. Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure data integrity during the data migration phase?

A.Conducting a post-implementation review
B.Implementing reconciliation controls between source and target
C.Encrypting data in transit
D.Performing user acceptance testing
AnswerB

Reconciliation ensures data completeness and accuracy.

Why this answer

Reconciliation controls between source and target systems are the most critical control for ensuring data integrity during migration because they provide a systematic method to verify that every record has been accurately transferred without loss, duplication, or corruption. This typically involves comparing record counts, hash totals, or checksums (e.g., using MD5 or SHA-256) between the legacy and new databases, and flagging any discrepancies for correction before the system goes live.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse data integrity controls with security controls (like encryption) or validation activities (like UAT), failing to recognize that reconciliation is the only option that directly verifies the accuracy and completeness of the migrated data itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a post-implementation review occurs after the migration is complete and cannot prevent or detect data integrity issues during the migration process itself; it is a retrospective evaluation, not a real-time control. Option C is wrong because encrypting data in transit (e.g., using TLS 1.3 or IPsec) protects confidentiality and prevents unauthorized interception, but it does not ensure that the data being transferred is accurate, complete, or uncorrupted. Option D is wrong because user acceptance testing (UAT) focuses on validating that the system meets functional requirements and user expectations, not on verifying the completeness and accuracy of migrated data at the record level.

322
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An auditor finds that users are able to reuse previous passwords easily. Which setting should be modified to address this weakness?

A.Increase the password history to 10
B.Increase the minimum password age to 7 days
C.Enable password expiration notifications
D.Increase the maximum password age to 30 days
AnswerA

Correct. A higher password history forces users to wait longer before reusing a password.

Why this answer

Increasing the password history setting (e.g., to 10) prevents users from reusing their most recent passwords by storing a specified number of previous password hashes. When a user attempts to change their password, the system compares the new password against the stored history and rejects it if it matches any of the remembered passwords. This directly addresses the weakness of easy password reuse.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse password history with password age settings, thinking that increasing the maximum password age or minimum password age will prevent reuse, when in fact only password history directly blocks the use of previously used passwords.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because increasing the minimum password age to 7 days prevents users from changing passwords frequently to cycle back to an old password, but it does not prevent reuse of previous passwords after that period expires. Option C is wrong because enabling password expiration notifications only alerts users that their password will expire; it does not enforce any restriction on reusing old passwords. Option D is wrong because increasing the maximum password age to 30 days extends how long a password can be used before it must be changed, but it does not prevent the user from reusing a previous password when the change occurs.

323
MCQhard

What is the MOST significant weakness in the planned remediation?

A.The remediation only addresses a subset of projects.
B.The remediation may not eliminate the segregation of duties issue.
C.The remediation relies on technology rather than process.
D.The remediation does not include a compensating control.
AnswerB

An automated tool does not prevent the same developer from performing both coding and review if they run the tool.

Why this answer

The planned remediation (e.g., an automated code review tool) does not ensure that the developer who writes the code is different from the person who reviews it. This fails to address the root cause of segregation of duties, making it the most significant weakness. Options A, C, and D are either less critical or not as directly related to the core issue.

324
MCQhard

A company uses a RAID 5 array for its file server. One disk fails, and the system continues to operate. However, during the rebuild process, a second disk fails. What is the likely consequence?

A.Performance degrades but data remains intact
B.Data is still available from parity
C.The system automatically switches to a hot spare
D.Data loss occurs
AnswerD

With two failed disks, RAID 5 cannot reconstruct data.

Why this answer

RAID 5 can tolerate a single disk failure. If a second disk fails during rebuild, the array is broken and data loss occurs.

325
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a SMART recommendation? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Measurable
B.General
C.Time-bound
D.Specific
E.Subjective
AnswersA, C, D

Measurable allows tracking of progress.

Why this answer

SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound.

326
MCQmedium

A multinational corporation is deploying a new cloud-based collaboration platform for its 5,000 employees. The platform will store sensitive project data and intellectual property. The CISO mandates that all data must be encrypted at rest and in transit, and that access must be controlled via the company's identity provider (IdP) using SAML 2.0. During a pilot with the R&D department, the security team discovers that the platform's audit logs do not record failed login attempts from the IdP. The platform vendor states that the IdP is responsible for authentication, so the platform only logs successful assertions. The CISO is concerned about the lack of visibility into brute-force attacks. The company already has a SIEM that receives logs from the IdP and other sources. What is the BEST course of action?

A.Replace the cloud platform with one that provides built-in authentication logging
B.Enable detailed logging on the IdP for all authentication attempts and forward those logs to the SIEM for monitoring
C.Configure the cloud platform to require re-authentication for every session and log all authentication events locally
D.Implement a stricter password policy for the IdP to reduce the risk of brute-force attacks
AnswerB

The IdP can log failed attempts; forwarding to the SIEM provides the needed visibility.

Why this answer

The IdP is the authoritative source for authentication events in a SAML 2.0 federated identity model. The cloud platform only receives and logs successful SAML assertions, so it cannot log failed login attempts. Enabling detailed logging on the IdP for all authentication attempts (successes and failures) and forwarding those logs to the SIEM provides the necessary visibility into brute-force attacks without changing the platform or architecture.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume the cloud platform should handle all logging, but in a SAML 2.0 federation, the IdP is the sole source of authentication event logs, and the platform only logs successful assertions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the cloud platform is unnecessary and costly; the existing architecture with SAML 2.0 is standard and the IdP is the correct place to log authentication events. Option C is wrong because requiring re-authentication for every session would severely degrade user experience and still would not cause the platform to log failed IdP authentication attempts, as the platform only processes successful assertions. Option D is wrong because a stricter password policy reduces the risk of successful brute-force attacks but does not provide the visibility into failed attempts that the CISO requires for monitoring and detection.

327
MCQeasy

An IS auditor is reviewing the physical access controls at a data center. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to prevent tailgating?

A.Security guards at the entrance
B.CCTV cameras at the entrance
C.Mantrap
D.Biometric readers at all entrances
AnswerC

A mantrap physically prevents tailgating by allowing only one person through at a time.

Why this answer

A mantrap requires one person to enter at a time and prevents unauthorized individuals from following an authorized person through a door.

328
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing capacity management practices. Which TWO indicators suggest that proactive capacity management is being performed effectively?

Select 2 answers
A.Conducting business impact analysis (BIA) annually.
B.Reviewing backup logs for errors.
C.Monitoring resource utilization trends over time.
D.Setting threshold alerts for CPU, memory, and disk usage.
E.Analyzing historical cost data for IT infrastructure.
AnswersC, D

Trend analysis helps predict future capacity needs.

Why this answer

Effective proactive capacity management includes monitoring trends to forecast future needs and setting threshold alerts to trigger action before capacity issues occur. Analyzing historical costs is financial, not capacity; reviewing backup logs is operational; conducting BIA is for BCP.

329
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is performing a compliance audit of a data privacy regulation. Which of the following is the PRIMARY source of audit criteria?

A.Prior audit findings
B.Industry best practices
C.The specific requirements of the regulation
D.The organization's internal policies
AnswerC

Correct; the regulation provides the criteria for compliance.

Why this answer

For a compliance audit, the criteria are the specific requirements of the regulation or law that the organization must adhere to.

330
MCQhard

Based on the exhibit, which control deficiency is most critical for the IS auditor to address?

A.SSH is configured to allow root login
B.The admin user logged in successfully with a password
C.Public key authentication is not being used
D.The system lacks a policy to lock accounts after repeated failed login attempts
AnswerD

Correct. Multiple failed attempts for root from the same IP indicate a brute-force attack, and no lockout is evident.

Why this answer

The most critical deficiency because without an account lockout policy, the system is vulnerable to brute-force password guessing attacks. Even if other controls like SSH key authentication are missing, a lockout policy is a fundamental defense that directly mitigates repeated login attempts, which is a primary attack vector for gaining unauthorized access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on technical misconfigurations like root login or missing public key authentication, overlooking the foundational security control of account lockout, which is a direct defense against brute-force attacks and is frequently tested as a critical deficiency in CISA exams.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while allowing root login via SSH is a security risk, it is less critical than the absence of a lockout policy; root login can be mitigated with other controls like key-based authentication and sudo restrictions. Option B is wrong because a successful password login by the admin user is expected behavior and not a control deficiency; the issue is the lack of stronger authentication methods, not the act of logging in. Option C is wrong because although public key authentication is more secure than password authentication, its absence is a weakness but not as immediately critical as the lack of a lockout policy, which leaves the system exposed to brute-force attacks regardless of authentication method.

331
MCQeasy

An IS auditor is reviewing the incident response (IR) process. Which of the following is the BEST way to test the effectiveness of the IR plan?

A.Checking the availability of forensic tools
B.Interviewing the IR team
C.Conducting a tabletop exercise
D.Reviewing IR policies and procedures
AnswerC

This tests the plan in a controlled environment.

Why this answer

Tabletop exercises simulate real incidents and allow the team to practice their response, revealing gaps in the plan and coordination.

332
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following is the most significant risk associated with the backup policy for critical data?

A.Offsite backup storage is not configured
B.Retention period is insufficient to meet regulatory requirements
C.Backup frequency is too low to meet recovery point objectives
D.Encryption is not enabled for backup data
AnswerB

The policy retains backups for 30 days, but compliance requires 7 years. This is a critical gap.

Why this answer

The backup policy shows a retention period of only 30 days, which is insufficient to meet common regulatory requirements such as GDPR, HIPAA, or SOX that often mandate retention of critical data for months or years. Without adequate retention, the organization risks non-compliance, legal penalties, and inability to produce historical records during audits or litigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on operational risks like backup frequency or encryption, but the most significant risk is regulatory compliance failure due to insufficient retention, which can result in severe penalties and loss of business license.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because offsite backup storage is not configured; while this increases risk of data loss during a site disaster, it is less significant than regulatory non-compliance, and the policy could still meet RPO/RTO with local backups. Option C is wrong because backup frequency (daily) is typically sufficient to meet common recovery point objectives (RPOs) of 24 hours or less, and the question does not indicate a tighter RPO requirement. Option D is wrong because encryption of backup data, while a security best practice, is not the most significant risk here; the policy does not mention encryption, but the primary concern is retention compliance, not data confidentiality at rest.

333
MCQhard

A multinational corporation is implementing a global IT governance framework. Which of the following challenges is MOST likely to arise?

A.Conflicting regulatory requirements
B.Standardizing hardware across regions
C.Training users on new procedures
D.Software licensing costs
AnswerA

Correct. Different legal environments require careful navigation.

Why this answer

A multinational corporation implementing a global IT governance framework will most likely face conflicting regulatory requirements across different countries (option A). These legal and compliance issues are complex and vary significantly by jurisdiction (e.g., GDPR, data sovereignty), making them the primary challenge. Standardizing hardware (B) is a technical issue that can be addressed through procurement policies.

Training users (C) is an operational challenge that can be managed with change management processes. Software licensing costs (D) are a financial concern but not as fundamental as legal compliance. Therefore, option A is the most likely challenge.

334
MCQhard

During a software asset management (SAM) audit, it is discovered that the organization is using software that has reached end-of-life. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with this situation?

A.Incompatibility with new hardware
B.Lack of security patches
C.Increased maintenance costs
D.License compliance issues
AnswerB

No patches means higher risk of exploitation.

Why this answer

End-of-life software no longer receives security patches from the vendor, meaning any newly discovered vulnerabilities will remain unaddressed. This creates a direct and exploitable attack surface, making lack of security patches the most significant risk because it can lead to data breaches, system compromise, and regulatory non-compliance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on immediate operational or financial impacts like cost or compatibility, but the CISA exam prioritizes security risks, especially unpatched vulnerabilities, as the most critical consequence of end-of-life software.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because incompatibility with new hardware, while operationally inconvenient, is typically manageable through virtualization, compatibility layers, or hardware refreshes and does not introduce active security threats. Option C is wrong because increased maintenance costs, though a financial concern, are a secondary business impact rather than a primary security or compliance risk; the organization could choose to absorb the cost without immediate harm. Option D is wrong because license compliance issues are a legal and contractual risk, but end-of-life software often has no active license requirement, and the greater danger is the absence of security updates that protect the organization from exploitation.

335
MCQmedium

An IS auditor finds that a project failed to meet its objectives because key stakeholders were not involved in the requirements definition phase. Which phase of the SDLC was most neglected?

A.Requirements analysis
B.Development
C.Design
D.Testing
AnswerA

Stakeholder involvement is essential to define complete and accurate requirements.

Why this answer

The requirements analysis phase is where stakeholder needs are formally captured and documented. Without key stakeholder involvement, the project lacks a validated baseline of what must be built, leading to misaligned objectives and scope creep. The IS auditor’s finding directly points to a failure in this phase, as it is the only SDLC phase that defines the project’s success criteria from the user’s perspective.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the symptoms of failure (e.g., poor design or failed tests) with the root cause, which is always the phase where the input was missing—requirements analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the development phase focuses on coding and building the system based on already-defined requirements; neglecting stakeholder input here would not cause the initial objective failure. Option C is wrong because the design phase translates requirements into technical specifications and architecture; if requirements were incomplete, design would be flawed, but the root cause remains the earlier phase. Option D is wrong because testing verifies that the system meets the documented requirements; it cannot compensate for missing or incorrect requirements that were never captured.

336
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for implementing network segmentation?

A.To comply with licensing requirements.
B.To simplify IP address management.
C.To contain security breaches and limit lateral movement.
D.To improve network performance.
AnswerC

Segmentation restricts an attacker's ability to move within the network.

Why this answer

Segmentation limits the spread of attacks by isolating sensitive systems.

337
MCQhard

An organization is designing an IT balanced scorecard to align IT performance with business goals. Which perspective would include metrics related to IT employee skills and training?

A.Internal process
B.Customer
C.Financial
D.Learning and growth
AnswerD

This perspective covers employee training and skills development.

Why this answer

The learning and growth perspective in a balanced scorecard focuses on employee capabilities, skills, and training.

338
MCQmedium

An organization uses a cloud-based ERP system to manage financial transactions. The system is accessed by employees in finance, procurement, and sales departments. The IS auditor is reviewing the user access review process. The access review is performed quarterly by the IT manager using a report generated by the ERP system. The report lists all users and their roles. The IT manager manually checks off users who are still employed and approves the report. The auditor notes that the IT manager does not have detailed knowledge of job functions in each department. Additionally, the ERP system allows role combinations that may create segregation of duties conflicts, such as a user having both 'create purchase order' and 'approve purchase order' roles. The company's policy requires segregation of duties reviews to be performed by business process owners. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?

A.Increase the frequency of access reviews to monthly
B.Implement an automated tool to identify segregation of duties conflicts
C.Assign the access review to business process owners from each department
D.Require the IT manager to obtain confirmation from each department head
AnswerC

Business owners understand the necessary segregation of duties.

Why this answer

The core issue is that the IT manager lacks the business process knowledge to assess whether role combinations create segregation of duties (SoD) conflicts. Company policy explicitly requires SoD reviews to be performed by business process owners. Assigning the access review to business process owners from each department (Option C) directly aligns with policy and ensures that those with functional knowledge evaluate whether role assignments violate SoD rules, such as a user having both 'create purchase order' and 'approve purchase order' roles.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose an automated tool (Option B) as the 'best' technical solution, but the question emphasizes policy compliance and the need for business process owner involvement, not just technical detection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing the frequency of reviews does not address the root cause—the reviewer lacks the business knowledge to identify SoD conflicts; monthly reviews by an unqualified reviewer would still miss conflicts. Option B is wrong because while an automated tool can flag potential SoD conflicts, the question asks for the BEST recommendation given the policy requirement that business process owners perform SoD reviews; automation is a supporting control, not a substitute for assigning the review to the correct personnel. Option D is wrong because requiring the IT manager to obtain confirmation from department heads still leaves the IT manager as the primary reviewer, which violates the policy that business process owners themselves should perform the review, and it introduces a reliance on indirect confirmation rather than direct ownership.

339
MCQeasy

An organization has defined an SLA that requires critical incidents to be resolved within 4 hours. A P1 incident is reported at 10:00 AM. At what time must the incident be resolved to meet the SLA?

A.2:00 PM
B.4:00 PM
C.6:00 PM
D.12:00 PM
AnswerA

Correct. 4 hours after 10:00 AM is 2:00 PM.

Why this answer

P1 incidents are critical and require immediate resolution. With a 4-hour SLA from the time of reporting (10:00 AM), the resolution must occur by 2:00 PM.

340
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are typically included in the fieldwork phase of an IS audit? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Defining audit scope
B.Testing controls
C.Developing the audit program
D.Issuing the draft report
E.Performing walkthroughs
AnswersB, E

Testing controls is a fieldwork activity.

Why this answer

Fieldwork involves executing audit procedures; walkthroughs and testing controls are part of fieldwork.

341
MCQhard

An IS auditor is evaluating the encryption strategy for a healthcare organization subject to HIPAA. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk if the organization relies solely on encryption as a safe harbor?

A.Encryption keys are stored on the same server as the encrypted data.
B.The encryption algorithm used is not FIPS 140-2 validated.
C.Encryption is not applied to all ePHI in transit.
D.The encryption key rotation policy is not documented.
AnswerA

If keys are co-located, encryption can be easily bypassed, and safe harbor may not apply.

Why this answer

Encryption safe harbor only applies if encryption meets specific standards; gaps in key management can invalidate safe harbor.

342
Multi-Selecteasy

An IS auditor is reviewing the backup process for a critical database. Which TWO of the following are essential controls to ensure data recoverability?

Select 2 answers
A.Automated job scheduling for backups.
B.Offsite storage of backup media.
C.Regular restore testing of backups.
D.Encryption of backup data.
E.Backup retention period of at least one year.
AnswersB, C

Protects against physical disasters at the primary site.

Why this answer

Offsite storage of backup media (Option B) is essential because it protects against site-level disasters such as fire, flood, or physical theft. Without geographic separation, a single incident could destroy both the primary data and its backups, making recovery impossible. This control directly supports the recoverability objective by ensuring a usable copy exists outside the primary facility.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse operational controls (like scheduling or encryption) with recoverability controls, forgetting that a backup is only as good as its ability to be restored from a separate location.

343
MCQeasy

In a waterfall SDLC, which phase requires formal sign-off from the business owner before proceeding to the next phase?

A.Development phase
B.Requirements phase
C.Design phase
D.Testing phase
AnswerB

Formal sign-off on requirements is a key control to prevent scope creep.

Why this answer

In waterfall, each phase ends with a formal sign-off; the requirements phase is critical to ensure business needs are documented and approved.

344
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the design phase of a new procurement system. Which TWO of the following controls are MOST critical to include in the system design to prevent unauthorized purchases?

Select 2 answers
A.Mandatory approval workflows for purchase orders above a threshold.
B.Automated performance reports on purchase cycle times.
C.Segregation of duties between requisition and approval.
D.Real-time audit logging of all purchase transactions.
E.Encryption of purchase order data in transit.
AnswersA, C

Prevents unauthorized high-value purchases.

Why this answer

Mandatory approval workflows for purchase orders above a threshold are critical because they enforce a policy-based control that prevents unauthorized high-value purchases by requiring explicit authorization from a designated approver. This control is designed into the system to intercept transactions that exceed a predefined limit, ensuring that no single user can bypass financial authority limits.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (like audit logging) or security controls (like encryption) with preventive controls that directly stop unauthorized actions, failing to recognize that only preventive controls like approval workflows and segregation of duties address the root cause of unauthorized purchases.

345
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing an organization's data classification policy. Which of the following findings is MOST critical?

A.Employees receive data classification training only once per year
B.Data classification is performed manually without automated tools
C.Sensitive data is not encrypted at rest
D.Data owners have not been identified for most data assets
AnswerD

Without data owners, classification cannot be enforced.

Why this answer

Without identified data owners, no one is accountable for classifying, protecting, or granting access to data assets. This foundational gap undermines the entire data classification policy, making it impossible to enforce controls like encryption or access reviews. The CISA emphasizes that data owner assignment is the first step in any data governance framework.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on visible technical controls like encryption (Option C) rather than the foundational governance requirement of data ownership, which the CISA considers more critical for policy effectiveness.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because annual training, while not ideal, is a common baseline and does not directly break the classification policy; the critical failure is lack of ownership, not training frequency. Option B is wrong because manual classification can be acceptable in small environments or as a starting point; automated tools are a control enhancement, not a requirement. Option C is wrong because encryption at rest is a technical safeguard that should be applied based on classification, but without identified data owners, the classification itself is unenforceable.

346
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An IS auditor is reviewing an IAM policy for a cloud data platform. The auditor notices that user jdoe has READ_ONLY access to all tables matching 'sales_', but asmith has READ_WRITE access to the same set of tables. Which of the following is the MOST critical control issue?

A.Users should not be directly assigned roles; use groups
B.The roles data_analyst and data_scientist have overlapping permissions
C.User jdoe should not have access to the sales_ tables
D.The resource pattern '.*' in the regex could grant access to unintended tables
AnswerD

The pattern '.*' after 'sales_' matches any suffix, but the preceding '.*' in the dataset pattern is overly broad.

Why this answer

The regex pattern '.*' in the resource block is overly permissive and could match unintended tables beyond the intended 'sales_' prefix. In AWS IAM policies, the resource element uses regex-like patterns, and '.*' after 'sales_' would match any characters, including tables like 'sales_archive_private' or 'sales_2024_sensitive', potentially exposing sensitive data. This violates the principle of least privilege and is a critical control issue.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the misconception that direct user assignment or role overlap is the primary issue, when in fact the overly broad resource pattern is the most critical control weakness.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while using groups is a best practice, the direct assignment of roles to users is not inherently a critical control issue; the policy itself is flawed regardless of assignment method. Option B is wrong because overlapping permissions between roles is not inherently a control issue; roles can legitimately share permissions, and the question focuses on the policy's resource pattern, not role design. Option C is wrong because jdoe has READ_ONLY access to sales_ tables, which may be appropriate for a data analyst; the issue is not that jdoe should lose access, but that the regex pattern could grant unintended access to both users.

347
MCQhard

Which control failure is MOST significant?

A.Insufficient incident notification procedures
B.Lack of timely incident response
C.Delayed alerting
D.Inadequate monitoring
AnswerA

The 95-minute gap between alert and notification indicates a procedural failure.

Why this answer

Insufficient incident notification procedures are the most significant control failure because they directly undermine the entire incident response lifecycle. Without defined notification procedures, even if monitoring, alerting, and response are technically sound, the right stakeholders (e.g., CISO, legal, PR, regulators) may never be informed, leading to regulatory non-compliance, reputational damage, and failure to meet breach notification laws like GDPR Article 33 or SEC cyber rules. This procedural gap creates a systemic failure that cannot be compensated by technical speed alone.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between operational speed (response, alerting, monitoring) and procedural completeness (notification), leading candidates to overvalue technical timeliness over the foundational requirement of having a defined notification process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because lack of timely incident response is a downstream operational failure; if notification procedures are insufficient, response timeliness becomes irrelevant as the right teams may never be activated. Option C is wrong because delayed alerting is a technical monitoring issue (e.g., SIEM rule lag or log aggregation delay), but it is less critical than the complete absence of a notification framework that dictates who gets alerted and how. Option D is wrong because inadequate monitoring (e.g., missing syslog sources or insufficient log retention) can be compensated by other detective controls, whereas insufficient notification procedures create a legal and procedural void that cannot be patched by better monitoring alone.

348
Drag & Dropmedium

Order the steps for conducting an audit engagement from start to finish.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Audit engagement follows: planning (scope, program), fieldwork, analysis, and reporting with management review.

349
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the physical access controls at a data center. Which TWO of the following are the MOST effective controls to prevent unauthorized tailgating?

Select 2 answers
A.CCTV cameras at entry points.
B.Security guards checking badges.
C.Mantrap with interlocking doors.
D.Turnstiles that allow only one person per authentication.
E.Biometric authentication.
AnswersC, D

Mantraps physically prevent tailgating.

Why this answer

Mantraps and turnstiles are designed to prevent tailgating by allowing only one person per entry.

350
MCQhard

An IS auditor is reviewing the incident management process. Incidents are categorized as P1 (critical) through P4 (low). The SLA for P1 incidents requires initial response within 15 minutes and resolution within 4 hours. The auditor notes that the average time to respond to P1 incidents is 12 minutes, but the average resolution time is 6 hours. The root cause analysis shows that many P1 incidents are due to known errors documented in the known error database (KEDB). What is the most significant finding?

A.Problem management is not effectively utilizing the KEDB to prevent recurring incidents.
B.The average resolution time for P1 incidents exceeds SLA.
C.The average response time for P1 incidents is within SLA.
D.Incident management is not escalating P1 incidents properly.
AnswerA

Recurring P1 incidents from known errors indicate problem management failure.

Why this answer

If known errors are causing P1 incidents, problem management should have identified workarounds or permanent fixes. The fact that these incidents recur indicates a weakness in the problem management process, which should reduce incidents from known errors.

351
MCQmedium

During an agile software development project, a sprint review meeting is conducted. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this meeting from an IS audit perspective?

A.To identify and document lessons learned for process improvement
B.To demonstrate the working product increment to stakeholders and gather feedback
C.To assign tasks to team members for the current sprint
D.To plan the tasks for the next sprint
AnswerB

The sprint review is a control point where stakeholders review the increment and provide input, which is critical for iterative validation.

Why this answer

The sprint review is a key control in agile to demonstrate completed work to stakeholders and obtain feedback. It serves as a form of user acceptance testing and helps ensure the product meets stakeholder needs.

352
Multi-Selecteasy

An IS auditor is reviewing a request for proposal (RFP) for a new system. Which TWO elements should be included in the RFP?

Select 2 answers
A.Confidentiality agreement
B.Vendor's financial stability information
C.Sample contract terms
D.Employee resumes for the proposed team
E.Detailed technical specifications
AnswersB, E

Financial stability helps assess vendor viability.

Why this answer

In an RFP for a new system, including the vendor's financial stability information (B) is critical to assess the vendor's long-term viability and ability to support the system over its lifecycle. This helps mitigate the risk of vendor failure or bankruptcy, which could disrupt operations and leave the organization with an unsupported system.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse the RFP's purpose with later procurement stages, incorrectly including contract terms or personnel details that are better suited for the proposal evaluation or negotiation phase.

353
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this S3 bucket policy?

A.Anonymous read access is allowed only over HTTPS
B.The bucket is fully public for all actions
C.Write access is allowed over HTTP
D.Only authenticated users can access objects
AnswerA

The condition requires SecureTransport (HTTPS), and access is anonymous.

Why this answer

The S3 bucket policy includes a condition `aws:SecureTransport` set to `true`, which explicitly denies any request that is not made over HTTPS. The `Effect: Allow` on the `Principal: "*"` grants anonymous read access, but the `Condition` block ensures that only HTTPS requests are permitted, making anonymous read access allowed only over HTTPS.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the nuance that a policy granting anonymous access with a `Condition` block can still restrict the protocol, leading candidates to mistakenly think the bucket is fully public or that only authenticated users can access it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the bucket policy only allows `s3:GetObject` (read) access, not all actions like `s3:PutObject`, `s3:DeleteObject`, etc., so the bucket is not fully public for all actions. Option C is wrong because the condition `aws:SecureTransport: false` would deny HTTP requests, and the policy explicitly denies requests that are not using HTTPS, so write access (which is not even granted) would be blocked over HTTP. Option D is wrong because the policy grants access to `Principal: "*"`, which includes anonymous (unauthenticated) users, not only authenticated users.

354
MCQeasy

During a post-implementation review of a financial system, an IS auditor finds that several critical reports are not being generated correctly. Which of the following should the auditor recommend FIRST?

A.Conduct a new round of user acceptance testing.
B.Review the system configuration and compare with user requirements.
C.Disable the incorrect reports and create manual workarounds.
D.Immediately patch the system to fix the report generation.
AnswerB

This directly addresses the root cause of incorrect reports.

Why this answer

Reviewing the system configuration against user requirements (option B) is the correct first step because it directly addresses the root cause of incorrect report generation by verifying alignment with documented requirements. Conducting new user acceptance testing (option A) is premature without understanding the configuration issue; disabling reports (option C) and patching (option D) are reactive and skip necessary diagnosis.

355
Multi-Selecteasy

An organization is implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution. Which TWO of the following are key considerations for effective DLP deployment?

Select 2 answers
A.Implementing DLP in monitoring mode initially to baseline traffic
B.Deploying DLP agents on all endpoints before defining policies
C.Encrypting all data at rest and in transit as a prerequisite
D.Classifying data based on sensitivity and criticality
E.Replacing user security awareness training with automated DLP
AnswersA, D

Monitoring first helps tune policies and reduce false positives.

Why this answer

Options A and D are correct. A: Implementing DLP in monitoring mode initially allows baselining of normal traffic, reducing false positives when policies are enforced later. D: Classifying data based on sensitivity and criticality is fundamental for defining appropriate DLP policies and rules.

B is incorrect because policies should be defined before deploying agents to ensure targeted coverage. C is incorrect because encryption is a separate control; DLP can monitor and protect data without requiring encryption of all data. E is incorrect because DLP does not replace user security awareness training; it is a technical control that complements training.

356
MCQeasy

An IS auditor is evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's change management process. Which of the following is the most important control to verify during the audit?

A.All changes are approved by the IT manager.
B.Emergency changes are documented after implementation.
C.A segregation of duties exists between development and production.
D.Change requests are prioritized by business impact.
AnswerC

Segregation of duties is a key preventive control.

Why this answer

Segregation of duties between development and production environments ensures that code cannot be directly moved from development to production without independent review and testing. This control prevents unauthorized or untested code from affecting live systems, which is a fundamental principle of change management. Without this separation, a developer could introduce malicious or defective code directly into production, bypassing all quality and security checks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on approval or prioritization controls (options A and D) as the most important, overlooking the foundational technical control of segregation of duties that directly prevents unauthorized code from reaching production.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because requiring all changes to be approved by the IT manager is a basic authorization control, but it does not address the more critical risk of unauthorized code being introduced directly into production; approval alone cannot prevent a developer from bypassing the process. Option B is wrong because while documenting emergency changes after implementation is a compensating control, it is not the most important control; the highest priority is preventing unauthorized changes from reaching production, which segregation of duties achieves. Option D is wrong because prioritizing change requests by business impact is a project management activity that helps allocate resources, but it does not enforce any technical barrier against unauthorized code movement or ensure the integrity of the production environment.

357
MCQmedium

During an audit, the IS auditor discovers that the audit log for a critical server is overwritten every 24 hours. The auditor wants to ensure logs are preserved for a longer period. Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate?

A.Implement a manual backup of logs daily
B.Reduce the logging level to minimize data
C.Increase the log size to retain more data
D.Configure the server to archive logs to a centralized log management system
AnswerD

Centralized archiving provides secure, long-term storage and facilitates analysis.

Why this answer

The most appropriate recommendation is to configure the server to archive logs to a centralized log management system. This ensures logs are preserved beyond the 24-hour overwrite window by sending them to a separate, persistent storage location, which also supports security monitoring, forensics, and compliance requirements. Centralized logging (e.g., using syslog, SIEM, or a dedicated log collector) provides redundancy, integrity checks, and long-term retention without relying on the local server's limited storage.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose Option C (increase log size) thinking it solves the retention issue, but they overlook that it only postpones the overwrite rather than providing a permanent, auditable archive, which is the core requirement for compliance and forensic readiness.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because implementing a manual backup of logs daily is error-prone, relies on human intervention, and does not guarantee logs are captured before the 24-hour overwrite cycle completes; it also lacks automation and scalability. Option B is wrong because reducing the logging level to minimize data would discard potentially critical security events, defeating the purpose of preserving logs for audit and investigation. Option C is wrong because increasing the log size only delays the overwrite cycle but does not solve the fundamental retention problem; logs will still be overwritten once the increased capacity is exhausted, and it does not provide off-site or centralized storage.

358
MCQeasy

Which testing type is performed by end-users to verify that the system meets their needs?

A.Security testing
B.Integration testing
C.User acceptance testing
D.Unit testing
AnswerC

Correct. UAT involves end-users validating the system.

Why this answer

User acceptance testing (UAT) is the final phase of the testing lifecycle where actual end-users validate that the system fulfills their business requirements and is ready for production deployment. Unlike technical testing types, UAT focuses on real-world workflows, data accuracy, and usability to confirm the system meets the agreed-upon acceptance criteria.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse user acceptance testing with system testing or integration testing, assuming any 'end-user' involvement means UAT, but UAT specifically requires users to validate business needs, not technical correctness.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because security testing is a specialized technical test focused on identifying vulnerabilities, threats, and compliance gaps (e.g., OWASP Top 10, penetration testing), not on verifying that the system meets end-user needs. Option B is wrong because integration testing verifies that individual modules or services interact correctly (e.g., API contracts, data flow between subsystems), but it does not involve end-user validation of business requirements. Option D is wrong because unit testing is performed by developers on individual code components (e.g., functions, methods) to catch defects early, and it has no involvement from end-users.

359
MCQmedium

Which of the following is the BEST control to ensure that user acceptance testing (UAT) is effective?

A.UAT scripts are written by developers
B.UAT is performed after deployment
C.UAT testers are from the business and use realistic data
D.UAT is conducted by the quality assurance team
AnswerC

This ensures the system meets business needs.

Why this answer

UAT should be performed by actual end users using real data to validate business requirements.

360
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing a change management process. Which TWO elements should be documented in a normal change request to ensure adequate governance? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Test plan
B.Vendor contact information
C.Change requester's name
D.Rollback plan
E.Project budget remaining
AnswersA, D

A test plan ensures the change is validated before production deployment.

Why this answer

A change request should include a test plan to verify the change works as intended and a rollback plan to revert if the change fails. These are critical for risk management and governance.

361
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a new financial system and has completed user acceptance testing (UAT). The project manager reports that all critical defects have been fixed and retested, but several low-severity issues remain unresolved. What is the BEST course of action?

A.Document the unresolved defects as known issues in a risk acceptance form with a remediation plan, then proceed with go-live
B.Re-run all UAT test cases to ensure no regression occurs
C.Delay go-live until all defects are resolved
D.Obtain sign-off from business stakeholders acknowledging the risks and proceed with go-live
AnswerA

Best practice: formally track and accept residual risk.

Why this answer

In a financial system implementation, low-severity issues that do not impair core financial processing or controls can be accepted as known risks. Documenting them with a remediation plan and proceeding with go-live aligns with ISACA’s guidance that UAT sign-off does not require zero defects, only that critical and high-severity defects are resolved. This approach balances business needs with risk management, avoiding unnecessary delays while ensuring accountability through formal risk acceptance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'all defects must be fixed before go-live' with proper risk management, failing to recognize that ISACA allows go-live with documented, accepted low-severity issues as long as critical defects are resolved and a remediation plan exists.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because re-running all UAT test cases to check for regression is unnecessary and inefficient when only low-severity issues remain; regression testing should be targeted to affected areas, not a full re-execution. Option C is wrong because delaying go-live until all defects are resolved ignores the principle of risk-based decision-making—low-severity issues that do not affect critical functionality or compliance can be deferred without jeopardizing the system. Option D is wrong because obtaining sign-off from business stakeholders without a documented remediation plan or formal risk acceptance form leaves the organization without a clear accountability trail for tracking and resolving the known issues post-go-live.

362
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the organization's encryption key management program. Which of the following is the MOST critical control to ensure the confidentiality of encrypted data in the event of a key compromise?

A.Key rotation at regular intervals
B.Key generation using a strong random number generator
C.Key destruction procedures for retired keys
D.Key distribution via secure channels
AnswerA

Rotating keys limits the amount of data exposed if a key is compromised.

Why this answer

Key rotation ensures that if a key is compromised, only data encrypted with that key after a certain point is at risk; data encrypted with previous keys remains protected if those keys are properly destroyed.

363
MCQhard

An IS auditor is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and finds that a critical vulnerability on a web server has been open for 90 days beyond the remediation SLA. The system owner states that the vulnerability cannot be patched because it would break a legacy application. What should the auditor recommend?

A.Require the system owner to sign a risk acceptance form
B.Escalate the issue to the board of directors
C.Implement compensating controls and close the finding
D.Recommend decommissioning the web server
AnswerA

Formal risk acceptance documents the decision and accountability.

Why this answer

The appropriate action is to formally accept the risk through a documented risk acceptance process, with sign-off from management. This ensures accountability and awareness. The other options are either premature or inappropriate.

364
MCQhard

An IS auditor uses statistical sampling to test a population of 10,000 transactions. The auditor discovers 5 errors in the sample of 200. Which of the following conclusions is most appropriate?

A.The population error rate is exactly 2.5%
B.The population has a material weakness
C.The population error rate is 5%
D.The population error rate is likely between 1% and 4% at a given confidence level
AnswerD

Sampling yields a confidence interval around the sample error rate.

Why this answer

Based on sample results, the error rate is 2.5%, which can be projected to the population with a confidence level.

365
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is evaluating the change management process. Which of the following is the BEST indicator that emergency changes are being properly controlled?

A.Emergency changes are documented with a justification and promptly reviewed after implementation
B.Emergency changes are approved by the change manager within 24 hours
C.Emergency changes are tested in a production-like environment before implementation
D.Emergency changes require approval from the CAB before implementation
AnswerA

This ensures accountability and learning from emergencies.

Why this answer

Emergency changes require a documented rationale and timely post-implementation review to ensure proper authorization and minimal risk.

366
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is assessing the effectiveness of access controls. Which TWO procedures provide the strongest evidence? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Re-performance of access provisioning using a test account
B.Inspection of access violation audit logs
C.Inquiry of the security administrator
D.Inspection of user access review documentation
E.Observation of access request processing
AnswersA, B

Re-performance directly tests the control.

Why this answer

Re-performance and inspection of audit logs provide direct evidence of control effectiveness.

367
MCQeasy

Based on the log, what is the MOST likely root cause of the backup failure?

A.Network connectivity issues
B.Incorrect backup schedule
C.Backup software corruption
D.Insufficient storage capacity
AnswerD

The target directory is full, causing the failure.

Why this answer

The log clearly indicates the target directory is full. Options A, B, C are not indicated in the log.

368
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are essential components of a data classification program?

Select 3 answers
A.Data retention and disposal schedules
B.Regular vulnerability scanning
C.Assignment of data owners
D.Standardized labeling guidelines
E.Implementation of database encryption
AnswersA, C, D

Retention schedules specify how long classified data must be kept and how to dispose of it.

Why this answer

Data retention and disposal schedules are essential to a data classification program because they define how long each classification level of data must be retained and the secure methods for its disposal (e.g., degaussing, cryptographic erasure, or physical shredding). This ensures that data is not kept beyond its useful life, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or legal non-compliance. Without these schedules, the classification program lacks the lifecycle management component necessary for operational security.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse operational security controls (like vulnerability scanning or encryption) with the administrative and procedural components of a data classification program, which are specifically about defining ownership, labeling, and lifecycle management.

369
MCQeasy

A medium-sized e-commerce company recently suffered a ransomware attack that encrypted critical databases. The IT team restored systems from backups, but the incident exposed a lack of clear roles and responsibilities for incident response. The board has asked the IT governance committee to review and improve the incident response governance. The committee notes that while there is an incident response policy, it is not regularly tested, and staff are unsure of their roles. The company also lacks a formal communication protocol for notifying stakeholders. What should the committee prioritize to strengthen governance over incident response?

A.Invest in advanced endpoint detection and response tools.
B.Outsource incident response to a managed security service provider.
C.Define and communicate clear roles and responsibilities for incident response, and establish accountability.
D.Conduct a tabletop exercise to test the current plan.
AnswerC

Clear governance structure is foundational.

Why this answer

The root cause is a lack of clear roles, responsibilities, and accountability, which must be addressed first to strengthen governance. Option A is wrong because investing in technology alone does not fix governance gaps. Option B is wrong because outsourcing does not address internal governance deficiencies.

Option D is wrong, while testing is valuable, it should follow role definition and communication.

370
MCQhard

An organization is adopting an agile development methodology for a new financial application. During a sprint review, the product owner expresses concern that the system does not enforce segregation of duties (SoD). The development team argues that SoD will be addressed in a future sprint. As the IS auditor, what is the BEST recommendation?

A.Suggest that the product owner accept the residual risk.
B.Insist that SoD be implemented in the next sprint.
C.Accept the team's plan and document the risk.
D.Require immediate implementation of SoD in this sprint.
AnswerB

SoD should be addressed as soon as possible.

Why this answer

In agile development, security and compliance requirements like segregation of duties (SoD) must be addressed as early as possible, especially for a financial application where regulatory compliance is critical. Delaying SoD to a future sprint introduces significant risk and violates the principle of 'secure by design.' The IS auditor's best recommendation is to insist that SoD be implemented in the next sprint, ensuring that the control is prioritized and integrated into the development lifecycle without waiting for an indefinite future iteration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse 'accepting the risk' (Option A) with a valid risk management approach, but in this context, the auditor must advocate for timely implementation of a critical control rather than deferring to the product owner's risk appetite.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because suggesting the product owner accept residual risk abdicates the auditor's responsibility to enforce critical controls; SoD is a fundamental internal control for financial systems, not a discretionary risk. Option C is wrong because accepting the team's plan and documenting the risk without escalation allows a high-severity control deficiency to persist, which could lead to fraud or regulatory non-compliance. Option D is wrong because requiring immediate implementation in the current sprint may be impractical if the sprint is already committed to other user stories, and it ignores the agile principle of prioritizing work in the next sprint planning session.

371
MCQeasy

A small business wants to protect customer data stored on a local file server. Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective control to prevent unauthorized access?

A.Enable detailed audit logs
B.Configure file-level permissions
C.Implement full-disk encryption
D.Deploy biometric authentication
AnswerB

File permissions are a direct and low-cost way to control access.

Why this answer

Configuring file-level permissions (e.g., NTFS permissions on Windows or POSIX ACLs on Linux) is the most cost-effective control because it directly restricts which users or groups can read, write, or modify specific files and folders on the server. This granular access control prevents unauthorized access without requiring additional hardware or complex management, making it ideal for a small business with limited budget.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (audit logs) or encryption (which protects data at rest) with preventive access controls, leading them to choose a more expensive or less effective option instead of the simple, direct file permission configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because audit logs only record access events after they occur; they do not prevent unauthorized access in real time. Option C is wrong because full-disk encryption protects data at rest if the physical disk is stolen, but it does not control access while the server is running and the OS is booted. Option D is wrong because biometric authentication is expensive to deploy and maintain, and it addresses authentication at the system level rather than directly controlling access to specific files on the server.

372
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution. Which of the following is the BEST approach to reduce false positives during initial deployment?

A.Use default policies without modification
B.Limit scope to one department to minimize noise
C.Deploy in monitor-only mode and analyze alerts for a period
D.Block all sensitive data transmissions immediately
AnswerC

Monitor-only mode allows policy tuning without impact.

Why this answer

Deploying a DLP solution in monitor-only mode allows the organization to observe what data is being transmitted and generate alerts without blocking any traffic. This enables security teams to analyze the alerts against actual business workflows, fine-tune policies, and eliminate false positives before moving to an active enforcement mode. It is a best practice for initial deployment to avoid disrupting legitimate business operations.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think limiting scope (Option B) is the best way to reduce noise, but the question asks for the best approach to reduce false positives, and monitor-only mode provides the necessary feedback loop to tune policies before enforcement, whereas limiting scope only reduces volume, not the false positive rate.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because default policies are generic and not tailored to the organization's specific data types, workflows, or user behavior, which typically results in a high volume of false positives and potential missed detections. Option B is wrong because limiting scope to one department reduces the overall visibility and may miss data loss events in other departments, while still generating false positives within that department due to untuned policies. Option D is wrong because immediately blocking all sensitive data transmissions without first understanding normal traffic patterns will almost certainly disrupt legitimate business processes and cause significant operational impact.

373
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the user access recertification process. Which of the following findings would MOST concern the auditor regarding the effectiveness of access reviews?

A.The recertification report includes all users with active accounts
B.Reviews are performed quarterly instead of annually
C.Some users did not respond to the recertification request within the deadline
D.Managers approve all access requests without verifying job requirements
AnswerD

This shows that the review is not meaningful; access may not be justified.

Why this answer

If managers approve access without verifying actual job requirements, the recertification process is ineffective. This indicates a rubber-stamping issue. The other options are less critical or address different aspects.

374
MCQmedium

An organization's backup strategy includes full backups every Sunday and incremental backups on other days. On Wednesday, a failure occurs. Which backups are needed to restore the data?

A.Sunday's full backup only
B.Sunday's full backup and Wednesday's incremental backup
C.Wednesday's incremental backup only
D.Sunday's full backup and Monday through Wednesday incremental backups
AnswerD

All incremental backups since the last full backup are needed.

Why this answer

To restore from incremental backups, you need the last full backup (Sunday) and all incremental backups from Monday through Wednesday.

375
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. The IS auditor reviews the router's version output during an audit. What is the MOST significant finding?

A.The router was returned to ROM by power-on.
B.The router has been running for over two years without a reboot.
C.The system image is stored in flash memory.
D.The IOS version is outdated and may contain security vulnerabilities.
AnswerD

Outdated software is a critical finding.

Why this answer

The most significant finding is that the IOS version is outdated and may contain security vulnerabilities. An outdated IOS version can have known exploits that compromise the router's security, which is a critical risk for the organization. While other options describe operational states, they do not present the same level of immediate security threat as running unsupported or vulnerable firmware.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on operational details like uptime or boot process (options A and B) instead of recognizing that an outdated IOS version is a direct security risk, which is the most significant finding in an audit context.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'returned to ROM by power-on' is a normal boot process message indicating the router loaded the IOS from ROM after a power cycle, not a security finding. Option B is wrong because a router running for over two years without a reboot is not inherently a security issue; uptime alone does not indicate vulnerabilities or misconfigurations. Option C is wrong because storing the system image in flash memory is standard practice for Cisco routers and is not a finding; it is the expected location for the IOS image.

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