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Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA (CISA) — Questions 76150

995 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
MCQmedium

An organization uses shared accounts for system administration. Which of the following is the MOST significant audit concern?

A.Increased complexity of password management
B.Lack of individual accountability and audit trail
C.Violation of segregation of duties
D.Higher risk of password sharing outside the team
AnswerB

This is the primary concern with shared accounts.

Why this answer

Shared accounts make it impossible to attribute actions to specific individuals, leading to loss of audit trail and non-repudiation. This is critical for forensic investigations and accountability.

77
Multi-Selecthard

An IS auditor is reviewing the organization's incident management process. Which THREE of the following are essential components of an effective incident response plan?

Select 3 answers
A.Defined roles and responsibilities for the incident response team
B.Procedures for evidence collection and chain of custody
C.Communication procedures for internal and external stakeholders
D.A list of all employees and their contact information
E.A detailed technical guide for each software application
AnswersA, B, C

Clear roles ensure coordinated response.

Why this answer

An effective IR plan must include clear roles, communication procedures, and criteria for escalation and severity classification to ensure timely and coordinated response.

78
MCQmedium

Which of the following is an example of a detective control in the SDLC testing phase?

A.Security awareness training
B.Threat modeling
C.Penetration testing
D.Code review
AnswerC

Correct. Penetration testing detects security weaknesses.

Why this answer

Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is a detective control that identifies vulnerabilities in a running application.

79
MCQeasy

An IT auditor is reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) testing schedule. The organization conducts a test where participants discuss their roles and responses to a scenario without any actual system activation. Which type of test is this?

A.Parallel test
B.Walkthrough
C.Simulation
D.Tabletop exercise
AnswerD

Correct: Tabletop exercises are discussion-only and focus on roles and procedures.

Why this answer

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based test where participants walk through a scenario without executing procedures or activating systems.

80
MCQmedium

An IS auditor reviews the exhibit during an audit of database controls. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

A.Review the application code for missing commit statements
B.Enable automatic retry for failed transactions
C.Implement a locking strategy to prevent resource contention
D.Increase the database timeout parameter
AnswerC

A proper locking strategy, such as using row-level locks or scheduling, reduces contention.

Why this answer

The exhibit (not shown here, but implied by the context) likely depicts a deadlock graph or lock-wait chain, indicating that concurrent transactions are blocking each other. The most appropriate recommendation is to implement a locking strategy (e.g., row-level locking, lock ordering, or using snapshot isolation) to prevent resource contention and avoid deadlocks. This directly addresses the root cause of the observed performance or failure issues.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a deadlock or lock contention issue with a timeout or missing COMMIT problem, and choose to increase timeouts or add retries instead of addressing the fundamental locking strategy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because missing COMMIT statements would cause uncommitted transactions to hold locks indefinitely, but the exhibit shows contention, not missing commits; reviewing application code for missing COMMITs is a generic guess that does not solve the locking conflict. Option B is wrong because enabling automatic retry for failed transactions treats the symptom (deadlock retries) rather than preventing the underlying contention; it can lead to livelock or excessive retry overhead. Option D is wrong because increasing the database timeout parameter only delays the failure or extends lock waits, making contention worse; it does not resolve the root cause of resource contention.

81
MCQhard

An organization is implementing a change management process. A change that requires approval from the Change Advisory Board (CAB) but is scheduled to be implemented during the next maintenance window is classified as which type of change?

A.Emergency change
B.Standard change
C.Minor change
D.Normal change
AnswerD

A normal change is defined by its adherence to the full change management process, requiring formal assessment and authorisation. The scenario's explicit mention that the change requires approval from the Change Advisory Board (CAB) directly aligns with this classification. Additionally, scheduling the implementation during a future maintenance window signifies a planned, non-urgent deployment, confirming it follows the structured workflow typical of a normal change, rather than an emergency or pre-approved standard change.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-approved and low risk; emergency changes require urgent approval. Normal changes require CAB approval.

82
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key components of an IT governance framework?

Select 2 answers
A.Resource management
B.Strategic alignment
C.Performance measurement
D.Risk management
E.Value delivery
AnswersB, E

Strategic alignment ensures IT goals are in line with business goals, a core governance component.

Why this answer

Strategic alignment (B) is a key component of an IT governance framework because it ensures that IT strategies, investments, and operations are directly linked to business goals and objectives. This alignment is achieved through mechanisms such as balanced scorecards, IT steering committees, and portfolio management, which translate business strategy into IT priorities. Without strategic alignment, IT may operate in a silo, leading to wasted resources and missed opportunities for business value.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the five focus areas of COBIT (strategic alignment, value delivery, risk management, resource management, performance measurement) with the two core components of an IT governance framework, leading them to select all five or pick risk management as a core component.

83
MCQhard

In a RACI matrix for the change management process, who is typically Accountable for the overall change process?

A.The change requester
B.The system owner
C.The change manager
D.The IT director
AnswerC

The change manager is Accountable for the process.

Why this answer

The change manager is typically Accountable for the change management process, ensuring it is effective and compliant.

84
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing a vendor's SOC 2 report as part of a systems acquisition. Which TWO aspects should the auditor verify to ensure the report is reliable?

Select 2 answers
A.The report was issued within the last 12 months
B.The report includes a description of the vendor's business continuity plan
C.The report was prepared by an independent CPA firm
D.The report includes a list of the vendor's customers
E.The report contains the vendor's internal control objectives
AnswersA, C

Recency ensures relevance.

Why this answer

The auditor must ensure the SOC 2 report is from a qualified auditor and covers the relevant period for the current evaluation.

85
MCQmedium

An IT steering committee is reviewing a proposed project to migrate critical applications to the cloud. Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the IT steering committee in this decision?

A.To perform the technical feasibility study
B.To select the cloud service provider
C.To ensure the project aligns with business strategy
D.To manage the project budget and schedule
AnswerC

The IT steering committee's primary role is to ensure IT investments align with business strategy and provide strategic direction.

Why this answer

The IT steering committee ensures that IT investments align with business strategy. They are responsible for strategic alignment and approving major projects based on business value.

86
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are key components of an IT governance framework? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Network topology diagram
B.Help desk procedures
C.Hardware inventory
D.IT strategy
E.IT steering committee
AnswersD, E

Correct. Defines alignment with business goals.

Why this answer

D and E are correct. An IT strategy (D) and an IT steering committee (E) are key components of an IT governance framework. A (network topology diagram) is a technical document, B (help desk procedures) is operational, and C (hardware inventory) is operational, so they are not governance components.

87
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is implementing COBIT 2019. Which TWO of the following are governance enablers? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Hardware configuration
B.Project schedule
C.Organizational structures
D.Network performance
E.Culture, ethics and behavior
AnswersC, E

Correct. A COBIT enabler for governance.

Why this answer

Options C and E are correct because organizational structures and culture, ethics, and behavior are governance enablers in COBIT 2019. Option A (Hardware configuration) is incorrect as it is an implementation detail, not a governance enabler. Option B (Project schedule) is incorrect as it is a project management artifact.

Option D (Network performance) is incorrect as it is operational.

88
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing change management procedures. Which of the following situations would be of GREATEST concern?

A.A standard change was implemented without CAB approval
B.An emergency change was implemented and not reviewed after resolution
C.The change request did not include an impact analysis
D.A normal change had a rollback plan that was not tested
AnswerB

Post-review ensures emergency changes are documented and validated.

Why this answer

Emergency changes bypass normal controls; without post-change review, unauthorized or flawed changes may persist unnoticed.

89
MCQeasy

Which human resource control is PRIMARILY intended to detect fraud in IT operations?

A.Mandatory vacation
B.Separation of duties
C.Job rotation
D.Background checks
AnswerA

Mandatory vacation can uncover fraudulent activities when the employee is absent.

Why this answer

Mandatory vacation forces employees to take time off, during which irregularities may be discovered.

90
MCQeasy

In a RACI matrix for an IT change management process, who is responsible for performing the change?

A.The business process owner
B.The system administrator
C.The IT director
D.The change manager
AnswerB

The system administrator is the one who implements the change.

Why this answer

The 'R' in RACI stands for Responsible, which is the person who does the work.

91
MCQmedium

A financial institution is evaluating its IT governance structure. Which of the following roles is BEST suited to ensure independent oversight of IT investments?

A.Chief Information Officer (CIO)
B.Project Management Office (PMO) director
C.IT Audit Committee
D.Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
AnswerC

An independent audit committee provides objective oversight.

Why this answer

The IT Audit Committee is the correct answer because it provides independent oversight of IT investments by operating outside of management's direct reporting structure. Unlike the CIO, PMO director, or CISO, who are all part of management and may have vested interests in project approvals or resource allocation, the IT Audit Committee reports to the board of directors and ensures that IT investments align with enterprise strategy, risk appetite, and regulatory requirements without bias.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse operational management roles (CIO, PMO director, CISO) with governance roles, mistakenly believing that a senior IT manager can provide independent oversight when they are actually part of the management chain being overseen.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Chief Information Officer (CIO) is a senior management role responsible for the day-to-day operation and strategic planning of IT, which inherently lacks the independence required for oversight of IT investments. Option B is wrong because the Project Management Office (PMO) director is focused on project execution, resource management, and delivery metrics, not on independent governance or strategic alignment of IT investments. Option D is wrong because the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is primarily concerned with information security risk management and compliance, not with the broader financial and strategic oversight of IT investments.

92
MCQeasy

Based on the exhibit, what is the security risk of this bucket policy?

A.The bucket is publicly readable
B.The bucket allows public write access
C.The bucket policy restricts access to a specific IAM role
D.The bucket policy is not encrypted
AnswerA

Principal: * allows anonymous access.

Why this answer

The bucket policy grants public read access by setting `"Principal": "*"` and `"Effect": "Allow"` with `"Action": "s3:GetObject"`. This means any unauthenticated user on the internet can list and retrieve objects in the bucket, making it publicly readable. The policy does not require any authentication or authorization checks, which is a common misconfiguration leading to data exposure.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between read and write permissions in bucket policies, and the trap here is that candidates see `"Principal": "*"` and assume it means full public access (both read and write), but the specific `Action` determines the actual risk—only read access is granted in this case.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the policy only allows `s3:GetObject` (read) actions, not `s3:PutObject` or `s3:DeleteObject` (write) actions, so public write access is not granted. Option C is wrong because the policy sets `"Principal": "*"`, which applies to all principals, not restricting access to a specific IAM role; a restricted policy would specify an ARN like `"AWS": "arn:aws:iam::123456789012:role/MyRole"`. Option D is wrong because S3 bucket policies are not individually encrypted; they are stored as JSON documents within AWS IAM and are protected by AWS's infrastructure encryption at rest, and the question asks about a security risk, not a missing encryption feature that does not exist for policies.

93
MCQeasy

An IS auditor is evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following findings would be of GREATEST concern?

A.The backup tapes are stored in a locked cabinet in the server room
B.The BCP contact list has not been updated in six months
C.The BCP has not been tested in over two years
D.The BCP relies on manual workarounds for critical systems
AnswerC

Lack of testing means the plan may fail in a disaster.

Why this answer

The BCP has not been tested in over two years is the greatest concern because testing is the only way to validate that the plan works under real-world conditions. Without recent testing, the organization cannot be confident that recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs) are achievable, and any gaps or assumptions in the plan remain undiscovered. ISACA standards recommend testing at least annually, and a two-year gap significantly increases the risk of plan failure during an actual disaster.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on obvious physical security or documentation issues (like tape storage or outdated contact lists) and underestimate that the absence of testing renders all other BCP components unvalidated, making it the most critical finding from an audit perspective.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because storing backup tapes in a locked cabinet in the server room, while not ideal (they should be offsite for geographic redundancy), is a physical security control that does not directly invalidate the BCP's effectiveness; the greater risk is the lack of testing. Option B is wrong because a BCP contact list that has not been updated in six months is a maintenance issue, but it can be corrected quickly and does not indicate that the plan itself is unworkable; the lack of testing is a more fundamental flaw. Option D is wrong because relying on manual workarounds for critical systems is a design choice that may be acceptable if the manual procedures are documented, trained, and tested; the absence of testing is what makes this reliance dangerous.

94
MCQeasy

An organization wants to ensure that IT performance is measured against strategic goals. Which tool is BEST suited?

A.Balanced scorecard
B.Pareto chart
C.SWOT analysis
D.Gantt chart
AnswerA

BSC aligns IT metrics with strategic goals.

Why this answer

A balanced scorecard translates strategic goals into performance metrics across financial, customer, internal process, and learning perspectives. Gantt charts, SWOT analysis, and Pareto charts are not designed for this purpose.

95
MCQmedium

An IT auditor is reviewing the change management process for a financial application. The auditor finds that emergency changes are frequently implemented without post-implementation review. What is the MOST significant risk?

A.The change may not be documented properly
B.The change may cause an outage during the next backup cycle
C.Security vulnerabilities may be introduced and remain undetected
D.Users may not be notified of the change
AnswerC

Emergency changes bypass normal controls, and lack of review means any flaws are not corrected promptly.

Why this answer

The most significant risk of implementing emergency changes without post-implementation review is that security vulnerabilities may be introduced and remain undetected (Option C). Without review, there is no assurance that the change did not compromise security controls, potentially exposing the application to threats. While other concerns such as lack of documentation (A), potential outages (B), or user notification (D) are important, they are not as critical as the undetected introduction of security vulnerabilities, which could have long-term impacts on data integrity and confidentiality.

96
MCQhard

An organization's IT governance committee is reviewing a proposal to use a public cloud provider that does not meet the organization's data encryption standards. The board has set a low risk appetite for data privacy. What is the BEST action?

A.Accept the proposal with additional monitoring
B.Delegate the decision to the security team
C.Accept the proposal but require the provider to sign a waiver
D.Reject the proposal until encryption requirements are met
AnswerD

Correct. The proposal does not align with risk appetite.

Why this answer

Rejecting the proposal aligns with the board's low risk appetite for data privacy and ensures encryption standards are met before acceptance. Option A is incorrect because additional monitoring does not resolve the encryption gap. Option B is incorrect because delegation to the security team bypasses the governance committee's responsibility to enforce risk appetite.

Option C is incorrect because waivers do not mitigate the fundamental encryption non-compliance.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that risk can be mitigated through monitoring or waivers, when the core issue is non-compliance with encryption standards that directly contradicts the board's risk appetite.

97
MCQhard

An auditor finds that access reviews have not been completed for two quarters. What is the MOST significant risk?

A.Data integrity may be compromised
B.Unauthorized access may be granted and persist
C.System performance may degrade
D.Audit findings may be reported to management
AnswerB

Correct. Incomplete reviews allow inappropriate access to continue.

Why this answer

Access reviews are essential for detecting and revoking unauthorized or excessive permissions. Without them, unauthorized access may go undetected and persist, leading to potential security breaches. Option A is incorrect because while data integrity could be compromised as a secondary effect, the most direct risk is unauthorized access.

Option C is incorrect: system performance is unrelated to access reviews. Option D is incorrect because reporting audit findings is a consequence, not the primary risk.

98
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is selecting an appropriate audit sample. Which THREE of the following are factors that affect the sample size?

Select 3 answers
A.Tolerable error rate
B.Confidence level
C.Sampling interval
D.Expected error rate
E.Population standard deviation
AnswersA, B, D

Lower tolerable error rates require larger samples.

Why this answer

Sample size is influenced by the expected error rate, tolerable error rate, and confidence level.

99
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a new procurement system. The project team is considering using a rapid application development (RAD) methodology. Which of the following is a potential risk of using RAD?

A.Inadequate documentation
B.Reduced stakeholder involvement
C.Longer development time
D.Difficulty in prototyping
AnswerA

Speed can compromise documentation.

Why this answer

RAD prioritizes speed and iterative prototyping over formal documentation. Because the focus is on quickly delivering working software through user feedback and short development cycles, comprehensive documentation is often neglected or produced after the fact, leading to inadequate records for maintenance, auditing, and compliance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume RAD reduces stakeholder involvement due to its fast pace, but in reality RAD demands more frequent and active stakeholder participation to validate prototypes and provide feedback.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because RAD actually increases stakeholder involvement through continuous user feedback and prototyping, not reduces it. Option C is wrong because RAD is specifically designed to shorten development time through iterative cycles and time-boxed delivery, not lengthen it. Option D is wrong because prototyping is a core strength of RAD, not a difficulty; RAD relies on rapid prototyping to refine requirements and validate functionality.

100
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are components of the COBIT 2019 governance system?

Select 3 answers
A.Organizational structures
B.Information items
C.Processes
D.Service desk
E.Project management office
AnswersA, B, C

Organizational structures are a governance component.

Why this answer

Options A, B, and C are correct because COBIT 2019 defines governance system components as Organizational Structures, Information Items, and Processes. Option D (Service desk) is an operational process not a governance component. Option E (Project management office) is a management structure, not a governance component as defined in COBIT 2019.

101
Multi-Selectmedium

An IT auditor is reviewing the asset management process for hardware lifecycle. Which two controls should the auditor verify to ensure secure disposition of decommissioned servers?

Select 2 answers
A.Hardware warranty tracking
B.Performance benchmarking
C.Secure sanitization of storage media
D.Formal disposal policy with authorization
E.Asset tagging during procurement
AnswersC, D

Correct: Sanitization prevents data leakage from decommissioned hardware.

Why this answer

Secure sanitization of storage media (Option C) is critical because decommissioned servers often contain sensitive data that must be irrecoverably erased to prevent unauthorized access. A formal disposal policy with authorization (Option D) ensures that decommissioning follows a documented, approved process, including verification of sanitization and chain of custody. Together, these controls address both the technical and procedural aspects of secure disposition.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse operational lifecycle tasks (warranty, tagging, benchmarking) with security-specific disposition controls, overlooking that only sanitization and authorized policy directly address data confidentiality and disposal governance.

102
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is assessing the controls in an agile development environment. What is the MOST effective way to verify that security testing is performed iteratively?

A.Observing a daily standup meeting
B.Interviewing the product owner about security priorities
C.Examining the final security test report after release
D.Reviewing the project's definition of done for each sprint
AnswerD

The Definition of Done should include security testing criteria.

Why this answer

In agile development, security testing must be integrated into each sprint to ensure continuous validation. The 'definition of done' (DoD) is the team's checklist for completing a user story; if it explicitly includes security testing tasks (e.g., static analysis, dynamic scans, or penetration tests), then verifying the DoD proves that security testing was performed iteratively. Option D directly examines this artifact, providing objective evidence of iterative security testing.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'planning for security' (e.g., standups or product owner interviews) with 'evidence of security execution' (the DoD), or they mistakenly think a final report proves iterative testing when it only shows a single snapshot.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because observing a daily standup meeting only reveals what the team plans to discuss, not whether security testing was actually completed; standups are status updates, not evidence of testing execution. Option B is wrong because interviewing the product owner about security priorities captures intent and backlog ordering, but does not confirm that security testing was performed in each iteration. Option C is wrong because examining the final security test report after release shows only a single point-in-time assessment, not iterative testing across sprints; it misses the continuous integration of security checks throughout development.

103
Matchingmedium

Match each encryption key type to its usage.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Same key for encrypt and decrypt

Public/private key pair

Temporary key for a session

Kept secret by owner

Why these pairings

Symmetric keys are used for bulk encryption with a shared key, while public keys are distributed for encryption/verification. Asymmetric keys involve a key pair and are not optimized for bulk encryption; private keys must be kept secret for decryption/signing.

104
MCQhard

An IS auditor is evaluating the effectiveness of a control. The auditor observes the control being performed and then independently performs the same control to confirm the result. Which combination of evidence types is being used?

A.Inquiry and inspection
B.Inspection and observation
C.Analytical procedures and inquiry
D.Observation and re-performance
AnswerD

Observation sees the process; re-performance tests it.

Why this answer

Observation (watching) and re-performance (doing) are both used to test control effectiveness.

105
MCQeasy

An organization is negotiating a contract with a cloud service provider. Which clause is most important for the IS auditor to ensure is included?

A.Data localization requirements.
B.Right-to-audit clause.
C.Automatic renewal terms.
D.Service level agreement (SLA) with penalties.
AnswerB

This provides the organization with assurance over controls.

Why this answer

A right-to-audit clause allows the organization to verify the provider's controls and compliance, which is critical for third-party risk management.

106
MCQmedium

During a change advisory board (CAB) meeting, a proposed change to the database server is discussed. The change involves implementing a security patch that requires a reboot. The change is categorized as 'normal' and has been risk-assessed as low impact. What is the most likely role of the CAB in this scenario?

A.Review and approve the change
B.Implement the change directly
C.Reject the change as unnecessary
D.Defer the change to the next release cycle
AnswerA

The CAB is responsible for reviewing and approving changes, especially those categorized as normal.

Why this answer

The CAB reviews and approves changes based on risk and impact. For a low-risk normal change, the CAB typically authorizes the change, possibly with standard procedures.

107
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is evaluating the capacity management process. The auditor notices that CPU utilization has been consistently above 90% for the past three months. The IT manager states that no proactive capacity planning has been performed. What is the primary risk?

A.Potential service degradation or unplanned outages.
B.Increased licensing costs for software.
C.Inability to meet backup windows.
D.Increased energy costs for cooling.
AnswerA

High utilization can lead to slowdowns and crashes.

Why this answer

Consistently high utilization without planning risks performance degradation and outages. The organization may not be able to handle peak loads.

108
MCQhard

An organization is deciding between building a custom application and purchasing a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) product. The primary factor favoring the build option is:

A.Greater control over features
B.Faster time to market
C.Lower initial cost
D.Reduced vendor dependency
AnswerA

Correct. Building provides full control over customization and features.

Why this answer

Building a custom application allows for tailored functionality that meets unique business requirements, which is a key advantage over COTS.

109
MCQmedium

A financial institution recently experienced a data breach where an attacker exfiltrated customer data through an SQL injection vulnerability in a web application. The IS auditor has been asked to review the application security controls. The web application is developed in-house and runs on an application server behind a web application firewall (WAF). The auditor reviews the WAF logs and finds that no SQL injection attacks were detected before the breach, but the logs show many blocked XSS attempts. The developer states that all input validation is performed on the client side using JavaScript. During the audit, the auditor also finds that the application uses a shared database account with DBA privileges for all connections. What is the MOST significant weakness that directly contributed to the breach?

A.Client-side input validation is insufficient and server-side validation is missing.
B.The use of a shared DBA database account violates the principle of least privilege.
C.The WAF is misconfigured to detect only XSS attacks but not SQL injection.
D.The application server is not patched against known SQL injection vulnerabilities.
AnswerA

Without server-side validation, the application is vulnerable to SQL injection.

Why this answer

The most significant weakness that directly contributed to the SQL injection breach is that input validation is performed only on the client side, making it trivial for an attacker to bypass. Without server-side validation, malicious SQL payloads can be submitted directly to the server, allowing the attack to succeed. While the shared DBA account (option B) and WAF misconfiguration (option C) are security weaknesses, they are not as directly responsible for the breach; client-side-only validation is the immediate enabler.

Option D is unsupported because no evidence of missing patches is mentioned.

110
MCQeasy

Which of the following audit types is performed by an independent third-party auditor and is typically required for regulatory compliance?

A.External audit
B.Operational audit
C.IS audit
D.Internal audit
AnswerA

External audits are performed by third-party auditors for independent assurance.

Why this answer

External audits are conducted by third-party auditors to provide independent assurance, often required by regulations or standards.

111
MCQmedium

An organization outsources its data center operations to a third-party provider. Which of the following is the MOST important clause to include in the contract to ensure the organization can verify the provider's controls?

A.Exit strategy
B.Service level agreement (SLA)
C.Vendor concentration risk clause
D.Right-to-audit clause
AnswerD

Enables independent verification.

Why this answer

A right-to-audit clause allows the organization or its auditor to review the provider's controls.

112
MCQhard

An organization is deciding between developing a custom application and purchasing a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) product. The project manager favors a COTS solution because it offers faster deployment. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the IS auditor to evaluate in this build vs. buy decision?

A.Availability of skilled developers to maintain the custom solution
B.User training requirements for the new system
C.Total cost of ownership including maintenance and licensing
D.The degree of vendor dependency and ability to customize
AnswerD

Vendor lock-in can limit future options and increase costs if the vendor changes terms or goes out of business.

Why this answer

Vendor dependency is a critical risk in COTS acquisitions. The organization may become reliant on the vendor for updates, support, and customizations, which can affect long-term flexibility and costs.

113
MCQhard

An organization is selecting a disaster recovery (DR) site. The primary data center is located in a region prone to earthquakes. The DR site should be at a sufficient distance to avoid the same disaster. Which type of alternate site provides the best balance of cost and recovery time for a medium-sized organization?

A.Hot site
B.Warm site
C.Mobile site
D.Cold site
AnswerB

Correct: Warm sites offer a balance of cost and recovery time, with some equipment pre-installed.

Why this answer

A warm site is partially configured with some hardware, software, and data synchronization, offering a balance between cost and recovery time. For a medium-sized organization, it provides faster recovery than a cold site while being significantly less expensive than a hot site, making it suitable for a region prone to earthquakes where the DR site must be geographically distant.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'warm site' with 'hot site' due to the similar terminology, but the key differentiator is the level of data synchronization and hardware readiness, not just the distance from the primary site.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a hot site is a fully redundant, real-time mirror of the primary data center, which is excessively costly for a medium-sized organization and typically used only for mission-critical systems requiring near-zero recovery time objectives (RTOs). Option C is wrong because a mobile site is a portable, self-contained unit that is not designed for permanent, geographically distant disaster recovery; it is more suited for temporary or tactical needs, not for avoiding region-wide disasters like earthquakes. Option D is wrong because a cold site has no pre-installed hardware or software, requiring weeks to procure and configure, resulting in a recovery time that is too long for most medium-sized organizations, especially when the primary site is in a high-risk area.

114
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a key control during the deployment phase of a system development life cycle?

A.Rollback plan
B.Code review
C.Threat modeling
D.User acceptance testing (UAT)
AnswerA

A rollback plan is essential during deployment to ensure the ability to revert if issues arise.

Why this answer

The deployment phase should include a rollback plan to revert to the previous state if the new system fails. This is a critical control to minimize downtime and data loss.

115
MCQeasy

During the planning phase of an IS audit, which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a risk assessment?

A.To determine the audit budget
B.To obtain management approval
C.To select the audit team members
D.To identify high-risk areas for audit focus
AnswerD

Risk assessment drives audit scope and resource allocation.

Why this answer

A risk assessment identifies high-risk areas to prioritize audit efforts and allocate resources effectively.

116
MCQhard

During an information systems audit, the IS auditor finds that data classification labels are not consistently applied across the organization. What is the most likely root cause of this issue?

A.The data classification policy is too complex and has too many levels.
B.Insufficient training and awareness programs on data classification.
C.The organization does not enforce consequences for misclassification.
D.Lack of automated classification tools integrated with the document management system.
AnswerB

Users must be trained to classify data correctly; lack of awareness leads to inconsistent application.

Why this answer

Inconsistent application of data classification labels is most commonly caused by insufficient training and awareness programs. Without proper education, users do not understand how to correctly classify data according to the policy, leading to inconsistent labeling across the organization.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may focus on technical solutions (automated tools) or enforcement mechanisms, but the ISACA CISA exam emphasizes that the most common root cause of policy non-compliance is inadequate training and awareness, not technology or enforcement gaps.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while a complex policy with too many levels can contribute to confusion, the root cause is typically a lack of understanding of the existing policy, not the number of levels. Option C is wrong because lack of enforcement is a secondary issue; even with enforcement, users cannot comply if they do not know how to classify correctly. Option D is wrong because automated classification tools can help but are not the root cause; the primary issue is human error due to insufficient training, not the absence of technology.

117
MCQeasy

During a disaster recovery test, the recovery time objective (RTO) for a critical application was not met. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.The backup media was stored offsite
B.The standby server had insufficient storage capacity
C.The network connectivity was tested beforehand
D.The recovery procedures were documented
AnswerB

Correct: Lack of storage can prevent or delay data restoration.

Why this answer

Insufficient storage on the standby server delays data restoration, directly impacting RTO. Other options are good practices that would not cause failure.

118
Multi-Selectmedium

An IS auditor is assessing network security controls. Which TWO of the following are key elements of a firewall rule review?

Select 2 answers
A.Checking for default passwords on firewall
B.Verifying that each rule has a business justification
C.Comparing actual rules to documented rules
D.Testing firewall failover capabilities
E.Reviewing firewall performance metrics
AnswersB, C

Ensures rules are necessary and not overly permissive.

Why this answer

A firewall rule review should compare documented rules with actual configured rules and verify business justifications for each rule.

119
MCQmedium

A large financial institution is evaluating the effectiveness of its IT governance framework. The board has requested a review to ensure alignment with business objectives and regulatory requirements. Which of the following is the MOST important factor for the board to consider when assessing the IT governance framework?

A.The framework is integrated with enterprise governance and supports strategic objectives.
B.The framework includes a detailed incident response plan.
C.The framework focuses on achieving high technical efficiency.
D.The framework minimizes overall IT costs.
AnswerA

Integration with enterprise governance ensures IT supports business goals and regulatory compliance.

Why this answer

An effective IT governance framework must be integrated with enterprise governance to ensure alignment with business objectives and regulatory requirements. Option B is incorrect because incident response is an operational process, not a primary board-level governance consideration. Option C is incorrect because technical efficiency is a management concern, not a governance-level factor.

Option D is incorrect because minimizing IT costs is a tactical objective that may conflict with strategic priorities.

120
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An auditor finds that the file 'sensitive.txt' has world-writable permissions. Which of the following is the most appropriate remediation action?

A.Remove world-writable permissions using chmod 644.
B.Encrypt the file using GnuPG to protect its contents.
C.Apply an ACL to restrict access only to specific users.
D.Change the file owner to a different user using chown.
AnswerA

chmod 644 sets the file to rw-r--r--, removing world-writable and providing proper access.

Why this answer

The file 'sensitive.txt' has world-writable permissions, meaning any user on the system can modify or delete it. The most direct and appropriate remediation is to remove the world-writable permission using `chmod 644`, which sets the file to owner read-write, group read, and others read. This eliminates the security risk while preserving necessary access for the owner and group.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may overcomplicate the solution by choosing encryption or ACLs, when the simplest and most direct fix is to adjust the file permissions using `chmod`.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because encrypting the file with GnuPG protects its confidentiality but does not address the world-writable permission; the file remains modifiable by anyone, which could lead to data corruption or unauthorized changes. Option C is wrong because applying an ACL to restrict access to specific users is an alternative approach, but it is not the most appropriate remediation; the simplest and most direct fix is to remove the world-writable bit, and ACLs add complexity without necessity when a simple permission change suffices. Option D is wrong because changing the file owner using `chown` does not remove the world-writable permission; the new owner would still have the same permission issue unless the permissions are also modified.

121
MCQmedium

An IT steering committee is evaluating a proposal to migrate critical applications to the cloud. Which factor is MOST important to ensure alignment with business strategy?

A.The migration schedule and resource availability
B.How the cloud migration supports the organization's strategic objectives
C.The cloud provider's security certifications
D.Cost savings compared to on-premises solution
AnswerB

The proposal must directly contribute to achieving business goals.

Why this answer

IT strategy alignment requires that IT investments directly support business goals, such as enabling new business capabilities.

122
MCQeasy

In business continuity planning, a company identifies a critical business process with a maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of 4 hours. What is the primary purpose of this metric?

A.To define the backup frequency
B.To calculate the mean time between failures (MTBF)
C.To establish service level agreements (SLAs)
D.To determine the recovery time objective (RTO)
AnswerD

MTD directly influences the RTO, which must be less than or equal to MTD.

Why this answer

MTD defines the maximum time a process can be unavailable without causing severe business impact. It sets the recovery time objective (RTO) target.

123
MCQmedium

An organization is migrating data from a legacy system to a new ERP. What is the most critical data migration risk?

A.Data loss or corruption
B.Increased storage costs
C.Longer migration time
D.Incompatible hardware
AnswerA

Correct. Data integrity risk is paramount.

Why this answer

Data integrity is the top risk during migration, as errors can lead to incorrect business operations and decisions.

124
MCQeasy

According to ISACA IT Audit Standards, which phase of the audit process includes the development of an audit programme?

A.Planning
B.Reporting
C.Fieldwork
D.Follow-up
AnswerA

Correct phase.

Why this answer

The planning phase includes defining scope, risk assessment, and developing the audit programme.

125
MCQhard

Based on the exhibit, what is the MOST likely compliance issue requiring immediate remediation?

A.Access is not properly restricted.
B.Compliance checks are not being performed.
C.Backup media lacks encryption.
D.Retention period is too short.
AnswerC

Status explicitly states backup media not encrypted.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows backup tapes stored in an unsecured cabinet without any indication of encryption. Since backup media often contains sensitive data, the lack of encryption exposes the organization to data breaches if the media is lost or stolen. This is a direct violation of data protection requirements and requires immediate remediation.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between operational issues (e.g., retention period) and security controls (e.g., encryption), and the trap here is that candidates may focus on the visible retention label rather than the missing encryption safeguard.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the exhibit does not provide any evidence of access control mechanisms (e.g., ACLs, authentication logs) to conclude that access is improperly restricted. Option B is wrong because the exhibit does not show whether compliance checks are scheduled or performed; the issue is about the physical security of backup media, not the frequency of checks. Option D is wrong because the retention period is not indicated in the exhibit; the problem is the lack of encryption on backup media, not how long it is kept.

126
Multi-Selecthard

During a post-implementation review of a new accounting system, the IS auditor notes the following: the project was completed on time and within budget, but user satisfaction is low and there are several outstanding defect reports. Which THREE of the following are the MOST appropriate recommendations?

Select 3 answers
A.Compare actual benefits achieved against the business case
B.Establish a formal plan to resolve outstanding defects
C.Request additional budget to fix the defects
D.Immediately escalate the defect reports to the project sponsor
E.Conduct a lessons learned session to identify process improvements
AnswersA, B, E

This is a key part of post-implementation review.

Why this answer

The review should identify lessons learned, address outstanding defects, and assess whether objectives were met beyond budget/schedule.

127
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the governance status report, which component should be addressed as a priority?

A.Strategy Alignment
B.Performance Measurement
C.Resource Optimization
D.Risk Management
AnswerC

Red status requires urgent action.

Why this answer

Resource Optimization has a Red status, indicating critical risk or non-compliance, requiring immediate attention. Green and Yellow components are less urgent.

128
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are components of audit risk in IS auditing?

Select 2 answers
A.Detection risk
B.Financial risk
C.Business risk
D.Inherent risk
E.Operational risk
AnswersA, D

Detection risk is the risk that procedures fail to detect a misstatement.

Why this answer

Audit risk consists of inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk. The question asks for TWO; inherent and detection are correct.

129
MCQmedium

An organization's online transaction processing system experienced a sudden performance degradation. The database administrator checked system resources and found excessive I/O wait time on the storage subsystem. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?

A.An inefficient SQL query causing table scans
B.Inadequate disk spindles or a storage area network (SAN) bottleneck
C.Insufficient memory allocated to the database server
D.Network latency between the application and database servers
AnswerB

I/O wait is a clear indicator of storage subsystem saturation, often due to insufficient disk spindles or SAN performance issues.

Why this answer

Excessive I/O wait time directly indicates that the storage subsystem is the bottleneck, not the database server's CPU or memory. Inadequate disk spindles or a SAN bottleneck (e.g., insufficient HBA queue depth, oversubscribed SAN links, or slow RAID rebuilds) cause the storage layer to become saturated, forcing the OS to wait for I/O completions. This is the most likely root cause because the symptom is specifically I/O wait, not CPU or memory pressure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse I/O wait with general performance issues and incorrectly attribute it to SQL inefficiency or memory pressure, but the question specifically isolates the symptom to the storage subsystem, making a storage-level bottleneck the most direct and likely root cause.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an inefficient SQL query causing table scans would manifest as high CPU usage or memory consumption, not primarily as I/O wait—though it can increase I/O, the question states the DBA checked system resources and found excessive I/O wait, implying the storage subsystem itself is the bottleneck, not a single query. Option C is wrong because insufficient memory allocated to the database server typically causes paging or swapping, which would show as memory pressure or page faults, not directly as I/O wait on the storage subsystem. Option D is wrong because network latency between the application and database servers would appear as network-related metrics (e.g., high packet loss, TCP retransmissions, or increased round-trip time), not as I/O wait on the storage subsystem.

130
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common techniques for ensuring business resilience?

Select 3 answers
A.Insurance policies
B.Regular data backups
C.Annual employee training
D.Redundant hardware
E.Single point of failure analysis
AnswersA, B, D

Insurance provides financial resilience to recover from losses.

Why this answer

Correct answers are A, B, and D: redundant hardware, regular data backups, and insurance policies. C and E are not resilience techniques; C is a risk analysis step, E is training which is supportive but not a core resilience technique.

131
MCQeasy

A compliance audit is primarily concerned with:

A.Evaluating the effectiveness of internal controls
B.Assessing the efficiency of IT operations
C.Ensuring the organization is meeting its strategic objectives
D.Determining whether the organization is following applicable laws and regulations
AnswerD

Compliance audits verify adherence to external and internal requirements.

Why this answer

Compliance audits specifically assess adherence to laws, regulations, and policies. Efficiency and effectiveness are the focus of operational audits.

132
MCQmedium

An organization uses automated job scheduling for batch processing. A critical job fails due to a dependency on another job that has not completed. Which of the following controls would BEST prevent this issue?

A.Job failure alerts
B.Manual job scheduling
C.Rerun procedures
D.Dependency management
AnswerD

Ensures jobs wait for prerequisites.

Why this answer

Dependency management is the correct control because it ensures that job scheduling logic explicitly defines and enforces the order of execution based on predecessor/successor relationships. By configuring dependencies (e.g., using job control language (JCL) with COND parameters or scheduling tools like CA Workload Automation ESP), the system will automatically hold a job until all prerequisite jobs have completed successfully, preventing the failure scenario described.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (like alerts) with preventive controls, or assume that rerun procedures can prevent the initial failure, when in fact only dependency management addresses the root cause by enforcing execution order.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because job failure alerts are a detective control that notifies administrators after the failure has already occurred, not a preventive control that stops the issue from happening. Option B is wrong because manual job scheduling introduces human error and inefficiency, and does not inherently enforce dependency sequencing; it would actually increase the risk of similar failures. Option C is wrong because rerun procedures are corrective controls that handle recovery after a failure, not preventive measures that avoid the dependency-related failure in the first place.

133
MCQeasy

A healthcare organization must comply with HIPAA regulations regarding patient data privacy. The IT department has implemented technical controls, but the compliance officer discovers that some employees are sharing passwords. What is the BEST governance response?

A.Implement multi-factor authentication to prevent password sharing.
B.Enforce the existing policy through disciplinary actions and additional training.
C.Report the incident to the regulatory authority as a data breach.
D.Revise the password policy to require more complex passwords.
AnswerB

Enforcement and training are key governance controls.

Why this answer

The best governance response is to enforce the existing policy through disciplinary actions and additional training (option B). This addresses the root cause of non-compliance—employee behavior—by reinforcing the policy and educating staff. Option A (implementing MFA) is a technical control that may reduce password sharing but does not address the governance aspect; it could be a supporting measure but not the primary governance response.

Option C (reporting to regulatory authority) is premature because password sharing does not necessarily constitute a data breach; there is no evidence of actual exposure. Option D (revising the password policy to require more complex passwords) does not prevent sharing and may even increase it if passwords are harder to remember. Therefore, governance should focus on policy enforcement and training.

134
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of IT governance frameworks? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.COBIT 2019
B.PMBOK
C.ITIL 4
D.ISO/IEC 38500
E.Six Sigma
AnswersA, D

COBIT is a governance framework.

Why this answer

COBIT and ISO/IEC 38500 are IT governance frameworks. ITIL and PMBOK are management frameworks.

135
MCQhard

During an audit of network security controls, the IS auditor reviews firewall rule sets and identifies a rule that allows any-to-any traffic from the internal network to the Internet. The rule has a business justification. What is the auditor's BEST recommendation?

A.Add an intrusion prevention system (IPS) to monitor the traffic
B.Require all traffic to go through a proxy server
C.Implement a more restrictive rule set based on specific IP addresses and ports
D.Accept the risk because there is a business justification
AnswerC

This reduces the attack surface while meeting business needs.

Why this answer

Overly permissive rules should be tightened to reduce risk; the auditor should recommend implementing more specific rules based on actual needs.

136
MCQmedium

A company is integrating a third-party payment gateway into its e-commerce platform. Which of the following is the MOST important security control to implement?

A.Implement role-based access control
B.Log all transactions
C.Validate all input from the payment gateway
D.Encrypt all data with SSL
AnswerC

Prevents injection and data corruption.

Why this answer

Input validation from the payment gateway is the most critical security control. The payment gateway returns data (e.g., transaction status, amount, token) that is consumed by the e-commerce platform. Without strict validation, an attacker could inject malicious payloads (e.g., SQL injection, XSS) via manipulated gateway responses, leading to data breaches or unauthorized transactions.

This control directly prevents injection attacks at the integration boundary.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose encryption (SSL/TLS) as the most important control because it is a well-known security measure, but they overlook that encryption does not validate the trustworthiness of the decrypted data, which is the primary risk when integrating with an external system.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because role-based access control (RBAC) manages internal user permissions but does not protect against malicious data arriving from the external payment gateway. Option B is wrong because logging transactions is a detective control that records events after they occur; it does not prevent an attack from exploiting unvalidated input. Option D is wrong because encrypting data with SSL/TLS protects data in transit between the e-commerce platform and the payment gateway, but it does not validate the content of the data received; an encrypted malicious payload is still malicious.

137
MCQeasy

A medium-sized manufacturing company has recently deployed an ERP system to integrate its financial, supply chain, and HR processes. The IT department is small (5 staff) and reports to the CFO. The company has no formal IT governance committee; IT decisions are made by the CFO and CEO informally. During a recent audit, it was found that several critical security patches for the ERP system have not been applied, and there are no documented procedures for change management. The IT manager states that patches are applied when time permits, and changes are discussed via email. The CFO argues that the ERP is running fine and the audit findings are low risk. The IS auditor needs to recommend a course of action to improve IT governance. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step?

A.Elevate the issue to the board of directors with a recommendation to outsource IT management
B.Recommend the formation of an IT steering committee comprising key business stakeholders to oversee IT strategy, risk, and resource allocation
C.Develop a comprehensive patch management policy and present it to the CFO for approval
D.Insist that the IT manager immediately apply all missing patches within one week
AnswerB

Correct. This addresses the root cause of lack of governance and oversight.

Why this answer

The root cause is the absence of any formal governance structure. Establishing an IT steering committee with key business stakeholders (e.g., from finance, supply chain, HR) provides oversight, ensures that IT decisions align with business strategy, and creates a forum for prioritizing risks such as missing patches. This addresses the governance gap holistically.

Option A is not appropriate because outsourcing does not fix the lack of internal governance and is an extreme measure. Option C focuses only on patching, not on the underlying governance deficiency. Option D is an operational quick fix that bypasses the need for sustainable governance processes.

Exam trap

The trap is to pick a procedural fix (patch policy or immediate patching) or an extreme measure (outsourcing) instead of recognizing the fundamental governance deficiency.

138
Matchingmedium

Match each COBIT 5 domain to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Evaluate, Direct, and Monitor

Align, Plan, and Organize

Build, Acquire, and Implement

Deliver, Service, and Support

Monitor, Evaluate, and Assess

Why these pairings

COBIT 5 has five process domains: EDM (governance), APO (planning), BAI (acquisition/implementation), DSS (delivery/support), and MEA (monitoring). Correct matches are as above; common confusions involve swapping APO/MEA or DSS/APO.

139
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An IS auditor finds this bucket policy attached to an S3 bucket storing sensitive customer data. What should the auditor recommend?

A.Change the Resource to a different bucket.
B.Remove the Action "s3:GetObject and add "s3:PutObject".
C.Encrypt the bucket at rest.
D.Restrict the principal to specific IAM roles or users.
AnswerD

The policy grants public read access; principal should be limited.

Why this answer

The bucket policy grants access to any principal ("Principal": "*"), meaning any AWS user or anonymous user can perform the allowed actions on the bucket. For a bucket storing sensitive customer data, this is a critical security risk. Restricting the principal to specific IAM roles or users (Option D) ensures only authorized identities can access the bucket, aligning with the principle of least privilege.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus on the actions or resource fields, overlooking the fact that the "Principal": "*" is the most critical security flaw, as it allows any entity to invoke the permitted actions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing the Resource to a different bucket does not address the overly permissive principal; it merely moves the vulnerability to another bucket. Option B is wrong because removing 's3:GetObject' and adding 's3:PutObject' would still leave the bucket open to any principal, and it would also remove read access while introducing write access, which could lead to data corruption or unauthorized uploads. Option C is wrong because encrypting the bucket at rest protects data confidentiality if the data is accessed, but it does not prevent unauthorized access; encryption is a defense-in-depth measure, not a substitute for access control.

140
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An IS auditor is reviewing firewall logs and notices repeated denied SSH attempts from an internal host (10.0.1.50) to a server (172.16.0.1). After the denied attempts, the host initiates permitted HTTPS connections to another server (172.16.0.5). Which of the following is the BEST interpretation of this pattern?

A.The host may be attempting to bypass security controls by using different protocols
B.The firewall rule 101 is misconfigured and blocking legitimate traffic
C.The host is performing reconnaissance and has mapped allowed services
D.The host successfully accessed server 172.16.0.1 via SSH
AnswerA

The pattern indicates probing blocked service then using permitted service, possibly to evade detection.

Why this answer

The pattern of denied SSH attempts followed by successful HTTPS connections suggests the internal host is probing for an open SSH service and, when blocked, switches to an allowed protocol (HTTPS) to communicate with a different server. This behavior indicates an attempt to bypass security controls by leveraging a permitted protocol after initial reconnaissance or direct access attempts fail. The firewall logs show the host adapts its method, which is a classic indicator of protocol hopping or tunneling attempts.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may focus on the reconnaissance aspect (option C) and overlook the deliberate protocol switch, which is the key indicator of an attempt to bypass security controls rather than just map services.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because there is no evidence of misconfiguration; the firewall correctly denies SSH (rule 101 likely blocks SSH to 172.16.0.1) and permits HTTPS to 172.16.0.5, which is expected behavior. Option C is wrong because while the host may be performing reconnaissance, the key observation is the shift from a denied protocol to a permitted one, which is more indicative of bypassing controls than simple mapping of allowed services. Option D is wrong because the logs explicitly show denied SSH attempts, meaning the host did not successfully access server 172.16.0.1 via SSH; the subsequent HTTPS connections are to a different server (172.16.0.5).

141
MCQeasy

A small e-commerce company uses a cloud-based e-commerce platform with automatic scaling. The company's business continuity plan relies on the cloud provider's promise of 99.99% uptime. During a regional outage affecting the cloud provider's primary availability zone, the company's website became unavailable for 2 hours, resulting in lost sales. The IT manager wants to improve resilience. Which of the following is the BEST action?

A.Maintain a secondary on-premises server for failover.
B.Increase the reserved capacity in the cloud to handle spikes.
C.Negotiate a higher service-level agreement (SLA) with the provider.
D.Implement a multi-cloud strategy with active-active deployment.
AnswerD

Multi-cloud reduces dependency on a single provider and improves availability.

Why this answer

Implementing a multi-cloud strategy with active-active deployment (Option D) is the best action because it ensures that if one cloud provider experiences a regional outage, the application can continue operating from another provider, thus avoiding single points of failure. Option A (secondary on-premises server) would require significant investment and may not integrate seamlessly with the cloud platform; it also does not address the root cause of relying on a single provider. Option B (increasing reserved capacity) helps with scaling but does not protect against provider outages.

Option C (negotiating a higher SLA) may provide financial compensation but does not prevent downtime.

Exam trap

Candidates may confuse 'increasing capacity' or 'improving SLA' with resilience, but resilience requires redundancy across independent failure domains.

142
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is developing a business continuity strategy. According to best practices, which THREE of the following should be included in the strategy?

Select 3 answers
A.Customer and partner communications plan.
B.Vendor contract renewal dates.
C.Procedures for staff to work remotely.
D.IT asset inventory list.
E.Details of alternate processing facilities.
AnswersA, C, E

Stakeholder communication is critical.

Why this answer

A comprehensive BCP includes procedures for people, alternate facilities, and communications.

143
MCQmedium

During an audit of a financial application, the IS auditor discovers that user access reviews are performed quarterly instead of monthly as required by policy. Which of the following is the BEST initial action for the auditor?

A.Recommend that the policy be changed to allow quarterly reviews
B.Report the noncompliance with the policy as a finding immediately
C.Escalate the issue to senior management for immediate resolution
D.Determine if compensating controls mitigate the risk of less frequent reviews
AnswerD

Compensating controls may make quarterly reviews acceptable.

Why this answer

The IS auditor's primary role is to assess risk, not to enforce policy blindly. Quarterly reviews may still be acceptable if compensating controls (e.g., automated provisioning/deprovisioning, real-time monitoring, or role-based access controls) effectively reduce the risk of unauthorized access between reviews. Determining the presence and effectiveness of such controls is the best initial action before deciding whether to report noncompliance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume policy noncompliance must always be reported immediately as a finding, but the CISA exam emphasizes risk-based auditing where the auditor first evaluates whether compensating controls mitigate the risk before concluding on the finding's significance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because recommending a policy change without first assessing the risk impact of the deviation could weaken security posture and is premature. Option B is wrong because immediately reporting noncompliance as a finding without evaluating compensating controls may result in an incomplete or misleading audit report, failing to consider the actual risk. Option C is wrong because escalating to senior management without first gathering evidence on compensating controls bypasses the auditor's responsibility to perform due diligence and risk assessment.

144
MCQhard

Which of the following is the BEST indicator that an organization's data security governance is effective?

A.Number of security incidents.
B.Percentage of employees trained.
C.Audit findings show compliance with data protection policies.
D.Number of encryption keys managed.
AnswerC

Compliance indicates governance is effective.

Why this answer

Audit findings showing compliance with data protection policies directly indicate that governance controls are working. Option A is incorrect because incident count is a lagging indicator. Option B is incorrect because training alone does not ensure compliance.

Option D is incorrect because key count is not a measure of effectiveness.

145
MCQhard

An IS auditor is reviewing an emergency change that was implemented to fix a critical security vulnerability. What is the most important post-implementation step?

A.Document the change and obtain retrospective approval
B.Update the configuration management database
C.Notify all users
D.Conduct a risk assessment
AnswerA

Correct. Retrospective approval ensures accountability and control.

Why this answer

After an emergency change, it is essential to document the change and obtain retrospective approval to maintain change management integrity.

146
Multi-Selecthard

Which of the following are COBIT 2019 management objectives?

Select 4 answers
A.APO01 - Manage the IT Management Framework
B.DSS04 - Manage Continuity
C.MEA02 - Monitor, Evaluate and Assess the System of Internal Control
D.BAI06 - Manage Changes
E.EDM03 - Ensure Risk Optimization
AnswersA, B, C, D

APO01 is a management objective under the APO domain.

Why this answer

COBIT 2019 management objectives are classified under the APO, BAI, DSS, and MEA domains. APO01, DSS04, BAI06, and MEA02 are all valid management objectives. EDM03 is a governance objective, not a management objective.

Therefore, the correct answers are A, B, C, and D.

147
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a key component of an IT balanced scorecard from the 'internal process' perspective?

A.Customer satisfaction score
B.Employee satisfaction
C.System availability percentage
D.IT budget variance
AnswerC

System availability reflects internal process performance.

Why this answer

The internal process perspective focuses on operational efficiency and effectiveness, such as system availability.

148
MCQmedium

An organization's IT governance framework includes a policy that all system access must be reviewed quarterly. The internal audit finds that reviews are incomplete. What is the BEST action?

A.Implement an automated access review tool
B.Reinforce accountability with managers
C.Disable all non-compliant accounts
D.Update the policy to require monthly reviews
AnswerB

Correct. Holding managers responsible ensures reviews are completed.

Why this answer

Reinforcing accountability with managers directly addresses the root cause of incomplete reviews—lack of responsibility and follow-through. Option A is incorrect because implementing an automated access review tool may improve efficiency but does not address the underlying accountability issue. Option C is incorrect because disabling all non-compliant accounts could disrupt business operations without solving the process failure.

Option D is incorrect because updating the policy to require monthly reviews increases frequency but does not ensure reviews are completed.

149
MCQeasy

A project manager is selecting a development methodology for a project with well-defined requirements and low uncertainty. Which methodology is most appropriate?

A.Waterfall
B.Agile
C.Rapid Application Development (RAD)
D.Spiral
AnswerA

Waterfall works well with well-defined, stable requirements and low uncertainty.

Why this answer

Waterfall is the most appropriate methodology for projects with well-defined requirements and low uncertainty because it follows a linear, sequential approach where each phase (requirements, design, implementation, verification, maintenance) must be completed before the next begins. This structure minimizes risk when requirements are stable and unlikely to change, ensuring thorough documentation and predictable outcomes. In contrast, iterative or adaptive methods would introduce unnecessary complexity and overhead for such a deterministic project.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume Agile is always the 'modern' or 'best' choice, but the CISA exam tests the principle that methodology selection must match project characteristics—specifically, Waterfall is optimal when requirements are fixed and uncertainty is low, not when adaptability is needed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Agile) is wrong because Agile is designed for projects with high uncertainty and evolving requirements, emphasizing iterative development and customer collaboration, which would be inefficient and over-engineered for well-defined, low-uncertainty projects. Option C (Rapid Application Development) is wrong because RAD relies on prototyping and iterative user feedback, which is suited for projects with unclear requirements or high user involvement, not for those with already stable and clear specifications. Option D (Spiral) is wrong because Spiral is a risk-driven model that incorporates iterative prototyping and risk analysis, making it ideal for large, complex, or high-risk projects, but unnecessary and overly complex for low-uncertainty, well-defined projects.

150
MCQmedium

During an audit of a healthcare organization's information security program, the IS auditor finds that the security awareness training is conducted only at hire. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with this practice?

A.Failure to comply with regulatory data protection requirements
B.Employees may not be aware of new security threats and vulnerabilities
C.Increased cost of incident response due to lack of preparedness
D.Increased likelihood of password sharing among employees
AnswerB

One-time training becomes outdated as threats evolve, leaving employees unprepared.

Why this answer

Without ongoing training, employees are less likely to stay informed about evolving threats, increasing the risk of security incidents due to human error.

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