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Certified Information Systems Auditor CISA (CISA) — Questions 976995

995 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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976
MCQmedium

A company is considering restructuring its IT department from a centralized to a decentralized model to give business units more autonomy. What is a PRIMARY governance risk associated with this move?

A.Difficulty in managing vendor contracts due to decentralization.
B.Reduced innovation due to lack of central coordination.
C.Increased risk of project cost overruns.
D.Inconsistent IT policies and security controls across business units.
AnswerD

Inconsistent IT policies and security controls directly impact governance by undermining standardization and control.

Why this answer

The primary governance risk when moving from a centralized to a decentralized IT model is the potential for inconsistent IT policies and security controls across business units (Option D). Decentralization gives business units autonomy, which can lead to differences in how IT policies are interpreted and applied, increasing the risk of security gaps and non-compliance. Option A (difficulty in managing vendor contracts) is a valid operational concern but not a primary governance risk.

Option B (reduced innovation) is unlikely, as decentralization often fosters innovation. Option C (increased cost overruns) can occur but is typically a financial risk rather than a governance risk.

977
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An auditor reviews the ACL and notes that it allows traffic from a specific host while blocking other IPs in the same subnet. What is the most likely security issue?

A.The ACL blocks all traffic from the subnet except the host, which is desired.
B.The ACL is misconfigured because the permit any at the end bypasses the deny.
C.The ACL allows all traffic from the specific host, which is a risk.
D.The ACL should be reversed to deny first.
AnswerB

Correct. The permit any at the end makes the deny rule redundant, allowing all traffic from the subnet.

Why this answer

The ACL has a 'permit any' statement at the end, which overrides the preceding 'deny' statements. In Cisco ACLs, packets are processed sequentially from top to bottom; once a match is found, no further rules are evaluated. Therefore, the 'deny' for the subnet is never reached, and all traffic (including from the blocked subnet) is permitted, defeating the intended restriction.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume that a 'deny' statement earlier in the ACL will block traffic regardless of later 'permit any' statements, but Cisco ACLs process rules sequentially and the first match wins, so the 'permit any' overrides the deny.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the ACL does not block all traffic from the subnet except the host; the 'permit any' at the end permits all traffic, including from the subnet, so the desired behavior is not achieved. Option C is wrong because allowing traffic from the specific host is the intended function, not a risk; the real issue is that the 'permit any' allows unintended traffic. Option D is wrong because reversing the order (deny first) is not the core problem; the issue is the presence of the 'permit any' statement that bypasses the deny, not the sequence of existing rules.

978
MCQmedium

An organization has experienced several security incidents due to unauthorized changes to production systems. Which governance mechanism should be strengthened?

A.IT asset management
B.Configuration management database
C.Incident response plan
D.Change management process
AnswerD

This controls the approval and implementation of changes.

Why this answer

A change management process ensures that all changes are authorized, tested, and approved, directly addressing unauthorized changes. Asset management, CMDB, and incident response are supportive but not the primary control.

979
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. The IAM policy is intended to allow only requests originating from account 123456789012 to perform any S3 actions. Why does the policy NOT achieve this objective?

A.The Resource element is set to "*", which allows all actions on all resources regardless of the condition.
B.The condition key 'aws:SourceAccount' only applies when the request is made from another account; it does not restrict access to resources owned by the same account.
C.The policy should include a Deny statement for all other accounts to be effective.
D.The Version element is incorrect and should be updated to the latest version.
AnswerB

The condition key is misapplied; it does not limit the S3 resources to those in the specified account.

Why this answer

The 'aws:SourceAccount' condition key is designed for use in resource-based policies (like S3 bucket policies) to prevent cross-account confusion of resources. It does not restrict access within the same account; it only validates the source account when the request originates from a different account. Since the policy is an IAM identity-based policy (attached to a user/role), the 'aws:SourceAccount' condition is not evaluated for same-account requests, so any principal in account 123456789012 can still perform S3 actions without being restricted by this condition.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume 'aws:SourceAccount' works identically in both identity-based and resource-based policies, but it only restricts cross-account access and has no effect on same-account requests, leading to a false sense of security.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Resource element set to '*' is valid in an IAM identity-based policy and does not inherently cause the policy to fail; the issue is with the condition key, not the resource wildcard. Option C is wrong because adding a Deny statement for other accounts is unnecessary and would not fix the core problem—the condition key 'aws:SourceAccount' is already intended to restrict access, but it does not apply to same-account requests. Option D is wrong because the Version element (e.g., '2012-10-17') is correct and does not affect the policy's logic; the latest version is not required for functionality.

980
MCQeasy

An IT steering committee is reviewing a proposal for a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. Which of the following BEST demonstrates that the proposal aligns with the organization's strategic goals?

A.The business case includes a clear link to the organization's five-year strategic plan.
B.The project manager has extensive experience with CRM implementations.
C.The proposed system includes advanced analytics capabilities.
D.The vendor offers discounted licensing for the first year.
AnswerA

Direct reference to the strategic plan demonstrates alignment.

Why this answer

A clear link to the organization's five-year strategic plan demonstrates that the proposal aligns with strategic goals. Option B is about the project manager's experience, which does not indicate strategic alignment. Option C describes a feature that may be beneficial but is not inherently tied to strategic goals.

Option D is a cost-saving tactic, not evidence of strategic alignment.

981
MCQmedium

An IS auditor is reviewing the capacity management process for a server hosting a critical application. The server's CPU utilization has been consistently above 90% for the past three months, and memory usage is at 85%. There are no threshold alerts configured. The capacity plan shows that additional resources are scheduled to be added in six months. What should the auditor most recommend?

A.Review the capacity plan and adjust the forecast.
B.Accept the risk as the server has not failed yet.
C.Request immediate addition of resources to meet current demand.
D.Implement threshold alerts to monitor the situation.
AnswerC

Given sustained high utilization, immediate action is needed.

Why this answer

The high utilization indicates a need for immediate capacity expansion. The existing plan is too far in the future, risking performance degradation or outages. The auditor should recommend expediting the addition of resources.

982
MCQhard

An IT auditor is reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) for a financial services firm. The plan includes a hot site that is shared with another organization under a reciprocal agreement. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the auditor?

A.The hot site uses a different internet service provider than the primary site
B.The hot site has not been tested in the past 12 months
C.The reciprocal agreement does not guarantee exclusive use of the hot site during a disaster
D.The hot site is located in the same seismic zone as the primary site
AnswerC

If both organizations activate simultaneously, the hot site may not have sufficient capacity for both.

Why this answer

A reciprocal agreement for a shared hot site does not guarantee exclusive access during a disaster. If both organizations declare a disaster simultaneously, the site may become oversubscribed, leading to resource contention and potential failure of the BCP. This directly undermines the recovery capability, making it the most critical finding.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may focus on technical details like ISP diversity or testing frequency, but the core BCP principle is that a shared resource without guaranteed exclusive access is a fundamental design flaw that can render the entire plan ineffective during a concurrent disaster.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using a different ISP for the hot site is actually a best practice to avoid single points of failure and is not a concern. Option B is wrong because while annual testing is recommended, the lack of a test in 12 months is a finding but not as critical as the lack of guaranteed exclusive access; the plan could still be viable with more frequent testing scheduled. Option D is wrong because being in the same seismic zone is a risk, but it is less immediate than the operational risk of resource contention; many organizations accept this risk with geographic separation within the same region.

983
MCQhard

An organization is implementing a COTS application. The project team plans to heavily customize the application to meet unique business processes. Which of the following is the most significant risk?

A.Vendor lock-in
B.Incompatibility with future releases
C.Difficulties in applying future vendor upgrades
D.High implementation cost
AnswerC

Customizations break compatibility with standard upgrades, jeopardizing future support.

Why this answer

Heavy customization of a COTS application often leads to significant difficulties when applying future vendor upgrades, because custom code may not be compatible with new versions. This is the most direct and significant risk among the options. Vendor lock-in (A) is a concern but typically less immediate than upgrade issues.

Incompatibility with future releases (B) is a symptom or consequence of upgrade difficulties, not the primary risk itself. High implementation cost (D) is a separate concern and not as critical as the long-term maintainability issue posed by upgrade difficulties.

984
MCQmedium

A software development company uses a cloud-based source code repository (e.g., GitHub) to store proprietary code. The company has two-factor authentication (2FA) enabled for all accounts. A developer's personal computer was infected with malware that stole the developer's session cookies and local credentials. The attacker used the stolen session to access the code repository and exfiltrated the entire codebase. The company's security team reviews the incident and notes that the repository has audit logging, but the logs were not monitored in real time. The team wants to implement additional controls to prevent a similar incident. Which control would have been most effective in preventing the exfiltration?

A.Use a SIEM to alert on unusual access patterns in real time
B.Enforce code signing for all commits
C.Require access to the code repository only from company-managed IP addresses
D.Implement a shorter session timeout for the code repository
AnswerC

IP whitelisting prevents access from unauthorized locations.

Why this answer

Restricting access to the code repository to only company-managed IP addresses (e.g., via a VPN or a corporate NAT gateway) would have prevented the attacker from using the stolen session cookies from an external, non-corporate IP. Even though the attacker had valid session tokens, the repository's access control list (ACL) would have blocked the connection at the network layer, stopping the exfiltration before it could begin. This control addresses the root cause—unauthorized network origin—rather than relying on detection or session management alone.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose a detective or session-management control (like SIEM or shorter timeout) because they focus on the stolen session cookies, but the most effective preventive control is one that restricts the network origin of access, which the attacker cannot bypass without a corporate IP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a SIEM alerting on unusual access patterns is a detective control, not a preventive one; it would not stop the exfiltration in real time, especially if the attacker mimicked normal developer behavior. Option B is wrong because code signing ensures the integrity and authenticity of commits but does not prevent an attacker from cloning or exfiltrating the repository; it protects against tampered code, not unauthorized access. Option D is wrong because a shorter session timeout would only reduce the window of opportunity for an attacker using stolen cookies, but it would not prevent the exfiltration if the attacker acted within the valid session window; the session was already compromised.

985
MCQhard

An IS auditor is evaluating the patch management process. The auditor notes that critical security patches are applied within 30 days, but the policy requires 7 days. The IT manager states that the delay is due to testing requirements. What should the auditor recommend?

A.Implement a risk-based patching process that allows faster deployment for critical patches
B.Require automated patching without testing
C.Accept the current practice as a compensating control
D.Modify the policy to align with the actual patching timeline
AnswerA

This balances the need for testing and timely patching.

Why this answer

The auditor should recommend a risk-based approach that allows expedited patching for critical vulnerabilities while maintaining testing for less critical ones. The process should be reviewed to balance security and stability.

986
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are considered essential components of an information security policy framework? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Data classification policy
B.Business continuity plan
C.Incident response plan
D.Network architecture diagram
E.Acceptable use policy
AnswersA, E

Establishes data sensitivity categories.

Why this answer

A data classification policy is essential because it defines how information assets are categorized based on sensitivity and criticality (e.g., public, internal, confidential, restricted). This classification directly drives the selection and enforcement of appropriate security controls, such as encryption standards (e.g., AES-256 for confidential data) and access control mechanisms (e.g., role-based access control). Without it, security measures cannot be consistently applied across the organization, leading to gaps in protection.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the distinction between policies (high-level rules) and operational plans or technical artifacts, so candidates mistakenly select BCP or incident response plans as policy components because they are security-related, but they are not part of the policy framework itself.

987
MCQmedium

An organization is adopting a decentralized IT structure to better meet the needs of its business units. Which of the following is a potential risk of this approach?

A.Increased duplication of IT resources and inconsistent standards
B.Slower response to business unit needs
C.Higher initial setup costs for central services
D.Reduced alignment with corporate strategy
AnswerA

Without central coordination, business units may implement redundant systems and diverge in standards.

Why this answer

Decentralized IT can lead to duplication of efforts and inconsistent standards across units, increasing complexity and cost.

988
MCQmedium

An IT auditor is reviewing the change management process for a financial institution. The auditor finds that emergency changes are frequently approved by the change manager without CAB review. Which risk is most associated with this practice?

A.Increase in unauthorized changes
B.Excessive documentation overhead
C.Delayed incident resolution
D.Inadequate backup procedures
AnswerA

Lack of CAB oversight for emergency changes can lead to unauthorized modifications.

Why this answer

Emergency changes bypass normal review, increasing the risk of unauthorized or poorly tested changes that could disrupt operations or introduce security vulnerabilities.

989
MCQhard

A company plans to implement a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) application and requires significant customization to match its unique business processes. The vendor advises against extensive customization because it may complicate future upgrades. What is the BEST course of action?

A.Use the vendor's customization module to minimize upgrade risks
B.Customize but maintain detailed documentation for upgrade impact analysis
C.Proceed with extensive customization to meet business needs
D.Avoid customization and re-engineer business processes to match the COTS application
AnswerD

Minimizing customization is best practice to ensure smooth upgrades.

Why this answer

The best course of action is to avoid customization and re-engineer business processes to match the COTS application. This approach preserves the integrity of the vendor's standard codebase, ensuring that future upgrades and patches can be applied with minimal friction. Extensive customization creates a fork from the vendor's baseline, leading to costly regression testing, potential security gaps, and upgrade incompatibilities that undermine the long-term value of the COTS investment.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose 'customize but document' (Option B) because it sounds like a balanced, pragmatic approach, but the CISA exam emphasizes that any customization that deviates from the vendor's standard configuration introduces unacceptable upgrade and maintenance risks, making process re-engineering the only truly sustainable choice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using a vendor's customization module does not eliminate upgrade risks; it only provides a structured way to apply customizations, but those customizations still create dependencies on specific API versions or hooks that can break during major version upgrades. Option B is wrong because maintaining detailed documentation for upgrade impact analysis is a mitigation tactic, not a solution—it does not prevent the underlying technical debt, code conflicts, or the need for extensive rework when the vendor releases a new version. Option C is wrong because proceeding with extensive customization directly contradicts the vendor's guidance and industry best practices, leading to a 'customized fork' that makes future upgrades prohibitively expensive or impossible without re-implementing all custom logic.

990
MCQeasy

A financial institution is deploying a data loss prevention (DLP) solution. Which of the following is the MOST important prerequisite to ensure the DLP can effectively detect sensitive data?

A.Configuring incident response procedures
B.Installing endpoint agents on all devices
C.Implementing network segmentation
D.Performing a data classification exercise
AnswerD

Data classification identifies and labels sensitive data, allowing DLP to detect it accurately.

Why this answer

A DLP solution detects sensitive data by matching content against predefined patterns or rules. Without a data classification exercise, the organization cannot define what constitutes 'sensitive data' (e.g., PII, PCI, IP), making the DLP blind to what it should monitor. Classification provides the taxonomy and metadata (e.g., labels, tags) that the DLP engine uses to trigger alerts or blocks, ensuring detection is both accurate and aligned with policy.

Exam trap

ISACA often tests the misconception that deploying agents or configuring network controls is the first step, but the trap here is that technical controls are useless without first defining what data is sensitive through classification.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because incident response procedures are reactive steps taken after a DLP alert is generated, not a prerequisite for detection itself; configuring them before classification would leave the DLP without a detection baseline. Option B is wrong because endpoint agents are a deployment method for DLP, but without knowing what data is sensitive, agents cannot be configured to scan for the correct content or patterns. Option C is wrong because network segmentation controls data flow between zones but does not define what data is sensitive; a DLP can still fail to detect sensitive data crossing segments if it lacks classification rules.

991
MCQhard

An IT auditor is evaluating the capacity management process. Which of the following findings would be of MOST concern?

A.Alert thresholds are set at 80% utilization
B.Resource utilization trends are not monitored
C.Capacity thresholds are reviewed annually
D.Capacity reports are generated monthly
AnswerB

Without monitoring trends, the organization cannot proactively plan for capacity needs, leading to increased risk of outages.

Why this answer

The most concerning finding is that capacity planning is reactive, leading to performance degradation and potential outages before thresholds are raised. This indicates a lack of proactive management.

992
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a change management process based on ITIL. Which THREE change types should be included in the policy?

Select 3 answers
A.Planned change – scheduled during maintenance windows with no approval needed.
B.Emergency change – requires immediate implementation to resolve a major incident.
C.Standard change – pre-approved, low risk, follows a defined procedure.
D.Major change – requires executive approval and a separate risk assessment.
E.Normal change – requires approval from the Change Advisory Board (CAB).
AnswersB, C, E

Correct definition of emergency change.

Why this answer

ITIL defines an Emergency change as one that must be implemented as soon as possible—often to resolve a major incident or security vulnerability. This change type bypasses the normal CAB approval cycle and uses a dedicated Emergency CAB (ECAB) process to authorize and implement the fix rapidly while still maintaining control.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'Planned change' (a scheduling concept) with a formal ITIL change type, leading them to select Option A, but ITIL only recognizes Standard, Emergency, and Normal changes.

993
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a key performance indicator (KPI) for IT service management?

A.Revenue growth
B.Percentage of employees trained
C.Number of security incidents
D.Help desk first-call resolution rate
AnswerD

This measures how often issues are resolved on the first contact.

Why this answer

Help desk first-call resolution rate is a common KPI measuring efficiency and effectiveness of support services.

994
MCQhard

A company's availability monitoring shows that a critical application has an average MTBF of 720 hours and an average MTTR of 4 hours. What is the availability percentage?

A.99.72%
B.99.17%
C.99.95%
D.99.45%
AnswerD

Calculated as 720/(720+4)=0.9945.

Why this answer

Availability = MTBF / (MTBF + MTTR) = 720 / (720 + 4) = 720 / 724 ≈ 0.994475, or 99.45%.

995
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key benefits of using a system development life cycle (SDLC) methodology? (Select exactly two.)

Select 2 answers
A.It provides a structured approach to system development
B.It ensures user requirements are captured and validated
C.It prevents any scope changes during development
D.It eliminates the need for security testing
E.It reduces the overall cost of development
AnswersA, B

SDLC defines phases and deliverables.

Why this answer

SDLC provides a structured approach to system development (Option A), ensuring that phases are followed and projects are managed systematically. It also ensures that user requirements are captured and validated through continuous user involvement (Option B). Option C is incorrect because SDLC does not prevent scope changes; it helps manage and control them.

Option D is incorrect because security testing is an integral part of SDLC, not eliminated. Option E is incorrect because SDLC may involve additional upfront costs, though it reduces long-term rework costs.

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