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HomeCertificationsPK0-005Exam Questions

CompTIA · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026

PK0-005 Exam Questions and Answers

24real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.

95 exam questions
90 min time limit
Pass: 710/1000 / 1000
4 exam domains
OverviewDomain BlueprintStudy GuideAll QuestionsSample by Domain
1. Project Life Cycle Phases2. Basics of IT Infrastructure and IT Project Management3. Project Management Concepts4. Tools and Documentation
1

Domain 1: Project Life Cycle Phases

All Project Life Cycle Phases questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager is reviewing lessons learned from a previous project and notices that scope creep occurred because stakeholders requested changes after the project moved into the execution phase. Which action should the project manager take in the current project to prevent this issue?

A

Close the project early if any scope changes are requested.

B

Involve all stakeholders in the project planning phase to ensure requirements are fully captured.

C

Include a detailed list of all deliverables in the project charter to avoid ambiguity.

D

Establish a change control board during the planning phase to review and approve any change requests.

A CCB provides a structured process to evaluate changes, preventing unauthorized scope creep.

Why: Option D is correct because establishing a change control board (CCB) during the planning phase provides a formal, documented process for reviewing and approving or rejecting scope changes. This prevents uncontrolled scope creep by ensuring that any change request is evaluated for impact on cost, schedule, and resources before implementation, which is a key practice in the PMBOK Guide for the execution phase.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

During the execution phase, a project manager discovers that the development team has been using an unauthorized software library to accelerate work. The library has a license that could create legal risks for the company. What is the best course of action?

A

Document the issue in the lessons learned and continue with the library to avoid delay.

B

Immediately stop using the library, assess the impact on the schedule, and develop a plan to replace it.

This mitigates the risk by removing the unauthorized component and allows the team to plan for rework.

C

Continue using the library but add a note in the risk register about potential licensing issues.

D

Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and request a decision on whether to continue using the library.

Why: Option B is correct because using an unauthorized software library with a license that creates legal risks must be stopped immediately to protect the company from potential litigation. The project manager must then assess the schedule impact and develop a replacement plan, as continuing use without addressing the legal risk violates compliance and project governance standards.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is planning a software development project and needs to determine the sequence of activities. The team will first gather requirements, then design the architecture, then develop the code, then test, and finally deploy. Which project life cycle model is being used?

A

Iterative

B

Agile

C

Waterfall

Waterfall is linear and sequential, with phases completed one after another.

D

Spiral

Why: The Waterfall model (Option C) is correct because it follows a strictly sequential, phase-by-phase progression: requirements, design, development, testing, and deployment, with no overlap or iteration. This linear approach is characteristic of the Waterfall life cycle, where each phase must be completed before the next begins, as described in the PMBOK Guide for predictive life cycles.
Q4
hardFull explanation →

A project is in the execution phase, and the project manager receives a change request to add a new feature that is not in the scope statement. The change request has been approved by the change control board. What must the project manager do next?

A

Conduct a meeting with stakeholders to discuss the impact of the change.

B

Update the project management plan and baseline to reflect the approved change.

The PM must adjust plans and baselines to incorporate the change and keep the project aligned.

C

Defer the change to the next project phase to minimize disruption.

D

Inform the development team to continue with the original scope and ignore the change.

Why: Once the change control board (CCB) approves a change request, the project manager must formally integrate the approved change into the project by updating the project management plan and the associated baselines (scope, schedule, cost). This ensures that all future project work, performance measurement, and reporting are aligned with the new approved scope, maintaining the integrity of the project's control processes as defined in the PMBOK Guide.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is creating a work breakdown structure (WBS) during the planning phase. The WBS should decompose the project deliverables into smaller, manageable components. What is the lowest level of a WBS called?

A

Planning package

B

Work package

Work packages are the smallest units in a WBS, facilitating assignment and estimation.

C

Control account

D

Activity

Why: The lowest level of a work breakdown structure (WBS) is the work package, which represents the smallest unit of work that can be reliably estimated, assigned, and managed. Decomposing deliverables into work packages enables precise cost, resource, and schedule planning during the project planning phase.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

During the closing phase of a project, which TWO activities should be performed?

A

Archive project documents and lessons learned.

Archiving ensures historical data is preserved for future projects.

B

Update the risk register with new risks identified during execution.

C

Obtain formal acceptance of deliverables from stakeholders.

Formal acceptance confirms that deliverables meet requirements and closes the project.

D

Create the project charter.

E

Develop a work breakdown structure.

Why: Archiving project documents and lessons learned (Option A) is a key closing-phase activity because it preserves project knowledge for future reference and organizational process assets. Formal acceptance of deliverables from stakeholders (Option C) ensures that all project outputs have been reviewed and approved, formally closing the project scope. Both activities are explicitly part of the closing process group in the CompTIA PK0-005 exam objectives.

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2

Domain 2: Basics of IT Infrastructure and IT Project Management

All Basics of IT Infrastructure and IT Project Management questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is deploying a new web application to a cloud environment. The application requires high availability and automatic scaling based on traffic. Which IT infrastructure component should the project manager use to meet these requirements?

A

Load balancer

A load balancer distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers and can be integrated with auto-scaling to handle varying loads.

B

Firewall

C

DNS server

D

VPN concentrator

Why: A load balancer distributes incoming traffic across multiple instances of the web application, enabling high availability by rerouting traffic if an instance fails, and automatic scaling by integrating with cloud auto-scaling groups to add or remove instances based on demand. This directly meets the requirements for both high availability and automatic scaling.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

During a database migration project, the team encounters an error when trying to connect to the new database server from the application server. The network team confirms that the ports are open and the firewall rules are correct. The database team reports that the database service is running and listening on the expected port. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the connectivity issue?

A

Misconfigured DNS server

B

Missing route on the database server's routing table

Without a return route to the application server, the database server can receive packets but cannot send responses, resulting in a timeout or connection failure.

C

Incorrect subnet mask on the application server

D

Expired SSL certificate on the database server

Why: The most likely cause is a missing route on the database server's routing table. Even with correct firewall rules and an active database service, the database server may not have a return route to the application server's subnet, causing packets to be dropped. This is a common Layer 3 issue where the destination server can receive traffic but cannot reply because it lacks a route back to the source.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A project manager is overseeing the implementation of a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. The vendor requires access to the company's internal network to install and configure the software. Which of the following is the BEST practice to ensure security while allowing vendor access?

A

Provide the vendor with access to the guest Wi-Fi network

B

Set up a VPN connection with two-factor authentication

A VPN creates an encrypted tunnel, and two-factor authentication ensures the vendor's identity is verified, providing secure remote access.

C

Allow the vendor to use remote desktop protocol (RDP) directly over the internet

D

Create a local user account with administrative privileges for the vendor

Why: Setting up a VPN connection with two-factor authentication is the best practice because it creates an encrypted tunnel over the internet, ensuring data confidentiality and integrity, while two-factor authentication adds an extra layer of security beyond just a password. This approach allows the vendor to access only the internal network resources necessary for installation and configuration, without exposing the entire network to unauthenticated or unencrypted access.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

Which TWO of the following are key considerations when designing an IT infrastructure for a new data center?

A

Open floor plan with no raised flooring

B

Redundant power supplies and UPS systems

Redundant power ensures continuous operation during outages.

C

Use of low-cost, consumer-grade hardware

D

Environmental controls for temperature and humidity

Proper cooling and humidity control prevent hardware damage.

E

Single point of failure for critical systems

Why: Redundant power supplies and UPS systems are critical for ensuring high availability and fault tolerance in a data center. They protect against power outages, fluctuations, and hardware failures, maintaining uptime for critical IT services. This aligns with industry best practices for Tier II and above data center designs.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is leading a project to upgrade the storage area network (SAN) for a hospital's electronic health records (EHR) system. The current SAN is reaching capacity and has performance issues during peak hours. The new SAN must support high availability with synchronous replication between two data centers located 10 km apart. The project budget is tight, and the timeline is aggressive. During a risk assessment, the project manager identifies that the fiber optic cable between the data centers is owned by a third-party provider and has a history of outages. The project sponsor is concerned about meeting the go-live date and asks the project manager to recommend a course of action to mitigate the risk of cable outages affecting the SAN replication. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A

Purchase redundant SAN controllers to provide failover in case of a controller failure

B

Increase the synchronous replication interval to reduce the impact of potential outages

C

Work with the fiber provider to install a second, diverse fiber path between the data centers

A diverse path provides redundancy; if one cable fails, replication continues over the other, maintaining high availability.

D

Replace synchronous replication with asynchronous replication over the existing WAN connection

Why: Option C is correct because the risk is specifically a single point of failure in the fiber path between data centers. Installing a second, diverse fiber path eliminates this single point of failure, ensuring synchronous replication can continue even if one cable is cut. This directly addresses the sponsor's concern about go-live delays due to cable outages, without changing the replication mode or adding unnecessary hardware.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager is planning the deployment of a new web application. The IT team has identified the following requirements: the application must be accessible 24/7, handle traffic spikes, and maintain session persistence. Which TWO infrastructure components should the project manager include in the design to meet these requirements?

A

An auto-scaling group of web servers

Auto-scaling groups automatically add or remove web server instances based on demand, which handles traffic spikes. When combined with a load balancer, they also support session persistence.

B

A content delivery network (CDN)

C

A single web server with a large instance type

D

A database cluster with replication

E

A load balancer with session affinity

A load balancer distributes traffic and with session affinity (sticky sessions) ensures session persistence. It also improves availability by routing away from failed servers.

Why: An auto-scaling group of web servers (A) ensures the application can handle traffic spikes by automatically adding or removing instances based on demand, supporting 24/7 availability. A load balancer with session affinity (E) distributes traffic across the web servers while maintaining session persistence, ensuring that a user's requests are consistently routed to the same server. Together, these components address all three requirements: high availability, scalability, and session stickiness.

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3

Domain 3: Project Management Concepts

All Project Management Concepts questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager is leading a software development project. The team is consistently delivering work late, causing schedule delays. The project manager suspects the initial duration estimates were too optimistic. What is the best action to improve future estimation accuracy?

A

Review historical data and lessons learned from similar projects.

Historical data improves estimation accuracy.

B

Extend the project schedule to accommodate delays.

C

Assign additional team members to complete tasks faster.

D

Increase all future estimates by 20% to account for unknowns.

Why: Reviewing historical data and lessons learned from similar projects (Option A) directly addresses the root cause of inaccurate estimates by leveraging empirical evidence from past work. This aligns with the PMI's iterative estimation approach, where actual performance data (e.g., velocity from previous sprints) is used to calibrate future estimates, improving accuracy over time. In software development, this is analogous to using historical cycle times or story point completion rates to refine planning poker sessions.
Q2
easyFull explanation →

A project sponsor proposes increasing the project budget to add a new feature requested by a key stakeholder. What should the project manager do first?

A

Update the project plan to include the new feature.

B

Inform the stakeholder that the feature cannot be added.

C

Ask the sponsor to fund the feature separately.

D

Submit a change request to the change control board.

Formal change control is required.

Why: The project manager must first submit a formal change request to the change control board (CCB) because adding a new feature after the budget has been approved constitutes a change to the project scope, schedule, and cost. This follows the formal change control process defined in the project management plan, ensuring that all changes are evaluated for impact, approved, and documented before implementation. Without CCB approval, updating the plan or proceeding with the feature would violate the project’s baseline and governance procedures.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

During project execution, a critical team member resigns. The project manager must reassign tasks. The project has a tight deadline and no backup resources. Which technique best minimizes schedule impact?

A

Crash the schedule by adding overtime.

Overtime can accelerate critical path.

B

Fast track remaining tasks.

C

Implement resource smoothing.

D

Resource level to balance workload.

Why: Crashing the schedule by adding overtime directly increases the work hours available to complete critical path tasks without requiring additional resources. Since the project has no backup resources and a tight deadline, overtime is the only option that can compress the schedule by applying more effort to the existing team, thereby minimizing the schedule impact from the resignation.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager is creating a risk register. The team identifies a risk that could cause a data breach if a server is misconfigured. The probability is low, but impact is high. Which risk response strategy is most appropriate?

A

Transfer the risk by purchasing cyber insurance.

B

Accept the risk because probability is low.

C

Mitigate by implementing configuration management.

Reduces likelihood of misconfiguration.

D

Avoid the risk by not using that server.

Why: Option C is correct because implementing configuration management directly reduces the likelihood of a server misconfiguration, which is the root cause of the potential data breach. This is a classic risk mitigation strategy that proactively addresses the risk's probability by enforcing standardized, auditable server configurations (e.g., using tools like Ansible or Puppet with CIS benchmarks).
Q5
hardFull explanation →

A project is 40% complete. The earned value (EV) is $80,000, planned value (PV) is $100,000, and actual cost (AC) is $90,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI)?

A

CPI = 0.80, SPI = 0.89

B

CPI = 0.89, SPI = 0.80

Correct formulas applied.

C

CPI = 1.13, SPI = 1.25

D

CPI = 0.89, SPI = 1.25

Why: The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is calculated as EV/AC = $80,000/$90,000 = 0.89, indicating cost overrun. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is EV/PV = $80,000/$100,000 = 0.80, indicating schedule delay. Option B correctly matches these values.
Q6
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is assigned to a new project. The sponsor provides a high-level scope and asks for a cost estimate. Which estimation technique should the project manager use at this early stage?

A

Three-point estimating

B

Parametric estimating

C

Bottom-up estimating

D

Analogous estimating

Best for early, high-level estimating.

Why: At the early stage of a project when only a high-level scope is available, analogous estimating is the most appropriate technique. It uses historical data from similar past projects to produce a rough order-of-magnitude (ROM) estimate quickly, without requiring detailed breakdowns. This aligns with the PMBOK guide's recommendation for early, top-down estimates when information is limited.

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4

Domain 4: Tools and Documentation

All Tools and Documentation questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager is using a tool to track project tasks, dependencies, and resource assignments. The team needs to see the critical path and adjust schedules when tasks are delayed. Which tool should the project manager use?

A

Pareto chart

B

RACI matrix

C

Gantt chart

Gantt charts display tasks, durations, dependencies, and critical path, enabling schedule adjustments.

D

Kanban board

Why: The Gantt chart is the correct tool because it visually displays project tasks, their dependencies, durations, and resource assignments along a timeline. It explicitly shows the critical path (the longest sequence of dependent tasks) and allows the project manager to adjust schedules dynamically when tasks are delayed, making it ideal for schedule management and impact analysis.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

During project execution, a project manager notices that team members are spending excessive time on non-essential tasks, and the project is falling behind schedule. Which tool should the project manager use first to identify the root cause of the delays?

A

Gantt chart

B

Fishbone diagram

Fishbone diagram helps identify root causes of problems like delays.

C

Pareto chart

D

RACI matrix

Why: The fishbone diagram (Ishikawa diagram) is the correct first tool because it is designed for root cause analysis, helping the project manager systematically brainstorm and categorize potential causes of delays (e.g., people, process, tools) before collecting data. Unlike other tools, it does not require pre-existing quantitative data, making it ideal for the initial investigative step when the root cause is unknown.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A project team is working on a software development project. The project manager wants to ensure that all changes to the codebase are reviewed and approved before they are integrated. Which type of tool should be used?

A

Issue tracking system

B

Time tracking tool

C

Collaboration tool

D

Version control system

Version control systems track changes and enforce review/approval workflows.

Why: A version control system (VCS) like Git enforces code review workflows through pull requests or merge requests, ensuring that changes are reviewed and approved before integration into the main branch. This directly supports the project manager's requirement for a controlled integration process, as VCS tracks every change and requires explicit approval via branch protection rules or merge checks.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager needs to document the process for submitting and approving change requests. Which document should the project manager create?

A

Change management plan

Change management plan outlines the change control process.

B

Risk register

C

Lessons learned

D

Project charter

Why: The change management plan is the correct document because it specifically defines the process for submitting, reviewing, approving, and tracking change requests. This plan outlines the roles, responsibilities, and procedures for managing changes to project baselines, ensuring that all modifications are controlled and documented.
Q5
hardFull explanation →

A project manager is tracking project performance and notices that the SPI is 0.8 and the CPI is 1.2. What does this indicate about the project?

A

Ahead of schedule and under budget

B

Ahead of schedule and over budget

C

Behind schedule and under budget

SPI < 1 = behind schedule; CPI > 1 = under budget.

D

Behind schedule and over budget

Why: SPI (Schedule Performance Index) of 0.8 indicates that for every unit of planned work, only 0.8 units have been completed, meaning the project is behind schedule. CPI (Cost Performance Index) of 1.2 indicates that for every dollar spent, $1.20 worth of work has been earned, meaning the project is under budget. Therefore, the project is behind schedule and under budget, making option C correct.
Q6
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is creating a document that identifies all project stakeholders and their influence, interest, and impact on the project. Which document is being created?

A

Stakeholder register

Stakeholder register records stakeholder details, influence, and interest.

B

Project scope statement

C

Communication plan

D

Risk register

Why: The stakeholder register is the document that captures all stakeholders along with their influence, interest, and impact on the project. This register serves as the foundational input for stakeholder analysis and engagement planning, directly matching the description in the question.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the PK0-005 exam?

The PK0-005 exam has 95 questions and must be completed in 90 minutes. The passing score is 710/1000.

What types of questions appear on the PK0-005 exam?

Scenario questions on project management concepts, initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, and communication.

How are PK0-005 questions organised by domain?

The exam covers 4 domains: Project Life Cycle Phases, Basics of IT Infrastructure and IT Project Management, Project Management Concepts, Tools and Documentation. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.

Are these the actual PK0-005 exam questions?

No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official CompTIA PK0-005 exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.

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