Courseiva

CCNA Process — Managing Technical Aspects Questions

64 of 439 questions · Page 6/6 · Process — Managing Technical Aspects · Answers revealed

Practice these questionsDomain overviewAll questions
376
MCQmedium

A project manager is developing the project schedule and needs to account for a resource that is only available 50% of the time. Which technique should be used to adjust the schedule?

A.Crashing
B.Resource leveling
C.Fast tracking
D.Critical path method
AnswerB

Resource leveling adjusts start and finish dates to match resource availability.

Why this answer

Resource leveling is the correct technique because it adjusts the schedule to account for resource constraints, such as a resource being available only 50% of the time. This technique modifies start and finish dates based on resource availability, ensuring the resource is not over-allocated. In this scenario, leveling would spread the resource's work across the schedule to match the 50% availability, potentially extending the project duration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse resource leveling with schedule compression techniques like crashing or fast tracking, mistakenly thinking they can adjust for resource constraints when they are designed to shorten the schedule, not manage limited availability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because crashing is a schedule compression technique that adds resources or increases work hours to shorten the schedule, not to adjust for limited resource availability. Option C is wrong because fast tracking involves performing activities in parallel that were originally sequential, which increases risk and does not address resource availability constraints. Option D is wrong because the critical path method (CPM) calculates the longest path of dependent activities and determines the shortest project duration, but it does not inherently adjust for resource limitations or partial availability.

Practice this question →
377
MCQhard

Your project is in the executing phase, and you receive a formal complaint from a team member that another team member is consistently late to daily standups and not completing tasks on time. This is causing friction in the team. You have discussed this with both individuals, but the behavior continues. What should you do NEXT?

A.Immediately remove the late team member from the project to restore team harmony.
B.Schedule a team-building workshop to improve collaboration.
C.Document the issue in the issue log and escalate to the functional manager with a request for performance improvement.
D.Ask the team to resolve the conflict themselves during the next retrospective.
AnswerC

The PM should formally document the issue and engage the functional manager for performance management, as the PM may not have direct authority.

Why this answer

After addressing the issue directly with the individuals and it persists, the project manager should escalate the issue formally by documenting it in the issue log and involving the functional manager or HR if necessary. Option A is too lenient, B may escalate prematurely, and D is not the best first step after direct discussion.

Practice this question →
378
MCQmedium

During a project execution phase, two senior team members have a conflict over the technical approach. The conflict is causing delays. What should the project manager do first?

A.Meet with each team member separately to understand their perspectives
B.Escalate the conflict to the functional manager
C.Decide on the technical approach yourself and direct the team to implement it
D.Bring the team members together in a meeting and mediate a discussion
AnswerA

Active listening and understanding both sides is the first step in conflict resolution.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the PM should first understand the issue through direct conversation with the individuals. Option B is wrong because it may escalate the issue unnecessarily. Option C is wrong because it avoids finding a solution.

Option D is wrong because it does not address the root cause.

Practice this question →
379
MCQhard

A project manager is leading a software development project using agile methodology. The team has completed 3 sprints, but the product owner is dissatisfied because the delivered features do not meet the expected business value. The team claims they followed the prioritized backlog. What should the project manager do?

A.Facilitate a retrospective with the product owner and team to review the definition of done and acceptance criteria
B.Create a detailed report showing the team's velocity and completed stories
C.Replace the product owner with someone who has better domain knowledge
D.Ask the team to add more features to the next sprint to increase value
AnswerA

A retrospective helps identify process improvements and realign on value delivery.

Why this answer

The core issue is a misalignment between what the team delivered and what the product owner expects, despite following the prioritized backlog. The project manager should facilitate a retrospective to review the definition of done and acceptance criteria, as this ensures both parties have a shared understanding of what constitutes a completed, valuable feature. This aligns with agile principles of continuous improvement and stakeholder collaboration, directly addressing the root cause of the dissatisfaction.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume the team is correct because they followed the backlog, and thus choose a metric-based or escalation option, missing the need for collaborative process improvement to realign expectations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because creating a detailed report on velocity and completed stories does not address the underlying issue of misaligned expectations; it only provides metrics without resolving the value gap. Option C is wrong because replacing the product owner is a drastic, non-collaborative action that ignores the need for communication and shared understanding, and it may not solve the problem if the backlog prioritization itself is flawed. Option D is wrong because asking the team to add more features in the next sprint increases scope without ensuring that the definition of done and acceptance criteria are aligned with business value, likely leading to continued dissatisfaction.

Practice this question →
380
Multi-Selectmedium

During project execution, a key supplier notifies you that they will be unable to deliver a critical component on time. This component is on the critical path. The risk was identified, and the response strategy was to accept the risk. Which THREE actions should you take? (Select exactly three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Document the issue in the issue log and update the risk register
B.Communicate the potential delay to key stakeholders and the project sponsor
C.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor for a decision
D.Wait for the supplier to provide a new delivery date before taking action
E.Evaluate alternative suppliers or workarounds to minimize the schedule impact
AnswersA, B, E

Documenting is essential for tracking and transparency.

Why this answer

The PM should first document the issue in the issue log (A), then evaluate alternatives to mitigate the delay (B), and communicate with stakeholders about the impact (D). Waiting for the supplier to resolve (C) is passive, and escalating to the sponsor (E) may be premature before exploring options.

Practice this question →
381
MCQhard

Your project is in the execution phase. The earned value metrics are: EV=$200,000, PV=$250,000, AC=$220,000. The project is behind schedule and over budget. You need to present a recovery plan to the steering committee. Which combination of actions is BEST aligned with PMI best practices?

A.Ask the team to work overtime without additional cost.
B.Conduct root cause analysis of variances, then consider fast tracking or crashing as appropriate.
C.Reduce scope to meet the schedule and cost baselines.
D.Crash the schedule by adding resources and request additional budget.
AnswerB

Analyze variances first, then select corrective actions.

Why this answer

The correct approach is to analyze root causes and develop options. Option D includes root cause analysis and schedule compression, which are appropriate. Options A, B, C are reactive or incomplete.

Practice this question →
382
MCQmedium

During a daily standup, a developer mentions that a critical integration task is blocked because the API documentation from an external vendor is incomplete. The sprint ends in three days, and this task is on the critical path. What should the scrum master do FIRST?

A.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor immediately.
B.Ask the developer to create the missing documentation themselves.
C.Inform the product owner and ask them to reprioritize the backlog.
D.Work with the vendor to obtain the missing documentation and update the team.
AnswerD

The scrum master removes impediments.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the scrum master's role is to remove impediments. Option B is incorrect as the scrum master should not assign a team member to fix the vendor's issue. Option C is incorrect because escalating without first trying to resolve is not the best first step.

Option D is incorrect; the product owner can help but removing the impediment is the scrum master's primary responsibility.

Practice this question →
383
MCQeasy

Two senior developers on your agile team have a disagreement about the best technical approach for a user story. The disagreement is causing delays and tension in the team. What should the scrum master do?

A.Facilitate a meeting where both developers present their approaches and the team decides.
B.Decide on the technical approach yourself to resolve the conflict quickly.
C.Ask the developers to resolve it on their own without intervention.
D.Escalate the issue to the product owner for a decision.
AnswerA

Facilitating collaboration aligns with agile principles.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the scrum master should facilitate a discussion to reach consensus. Option A is incorrect as the scrum master should not impose a solution. Option C is incorrect; escalating to the product owner is not appropriate for technical decisions.

Option D is incorrect; ignoring the conflict may worsen it.

Practice this question →
384
Multi-Selecthard

During project execution, you notice that the project's cost performance index (CPI) is 0.9 and schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.95. The project is currently 50% complete. Which THREE actions should you take?

Select 3 answers
A.Communicate the current performance and planned corrections to stakeholders
B.Request additional budget from the sponsor to cover the cost overrun
C.Crash the project schedule without considering cost impact
D.Analyze the root causes of the cost and schedule variances
E.Implement corrective actions to bring the project back on track
AnswersA, D, E

Stakeholders need to be informed of performance and corrective plans.

Why this answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule. The PM should analyze variances, implement corrective actions, and communicate with stakeholders. Simply asking for more budget or compressing schedule without analysis is premature.

Practice this question →
385
MCQmedium

Your project team is using a hybrid approach. During a sprint, an executive stakeholder contacts a developer directly and asks them to add a new feature without going through the product owner. The developer is confused about what to do. What should you, as the project manager, do to address this?

A.Submit a change request on behalf of the executive stakeholder to formalize the request
B.Allow the developer to add the feature since it comes from an executive
C.Tell the developer to ignore the executive's request and continue with the sprint backlog
D.Speak with the executive stakeholder privately and remind them that all scope changes must go through the product owner and change control process
AnswerD

The PM should engage the stakeholder to reinforce the proper process and prevent future bypassing.

Why this answer

The stakeholder is bypassing the agreed process. The PM should communicate the importance of following the change control process and reinforce the roles and responsibilities.

Practice this question →
386
MCQeasy

Your project's cost performance index (CPI) is 0.8, and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.1. The project is in the execution phase. What is the most likely reason for these indices?

A.The team had to rework deliverables due to quality issues
B.The project is experiencing scope creep
C.The team is working more efficiently than planned
D.The project manager used crashing to meet a deadline, adding resources and increasing costs
AnswerD

Crashing adds cost to gain schedule, explaining high cost and ahead-of-schedule performance.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because CPI < 1 indicates cost overrun, while SPI > 1 indicates ahead of schedule, often due to crashing (adding resources). Option A is wrong because scope reduction would likely improve CPI. Option B is wrong because fast tracking would affect schedule.

Option D is wrong because rework would worsen both.

Practice this question →
387
MCQhard

Your project is using a predictive approach, and you are at the midpoint. The earned value analysis shows: EV = $450,000, PV = $500,000, AC = $550,000. The CPI is 0.82 and SPI is 0.90. The sponsor asks for a forecast of the total cost at completion. What is the best estimate for EAC assuming the current cost performance is typical of future performance?

A.$1,219,512
B.$1,250,000
C.$1,100,000
D.$1,050,000
AnswerA

EAC = BAC/CPI = 1,000,000/0.82 ≈ $1,219,512, assuming typical cost performance.

Why this answer

When current CPI is expected to continue, the formula EAC = BAC/CPI is appropriate. BAC is not given but can be derived: BAC = PV * 2 = $1,000,000. So EAC = $1,000,000 / 0.82 ≈ $1,219,512.

Practice this question →
388
MCQhard

You are managing a project with a fixed-price contract. Midway, a new regulation requires additional compliance testing that was not in the original scope. The cost of this testing is significant. The project has no contingency reserve left. What is the best course of action?

A.Proceed with the testing and absorb the cost to ensure compliance, as it is mandatory
B.Stop work until the customer agrees to pay for the additional testing
C.Ask the team to find ways to reduce costs elsewhere to fund the testing
D.Submit a change request to the customer to secure additional funding for the required testing
AnswerD

The change control process allows for scope and cost adjustments when requirements change.

Why this answer

Option B is correct: The new regulation represents a change in requirements. Following the change control process is necessary. Option A ignores the regulation, C is premature, D violates contract terms.

Practice this question →
389
MCQhard

Your project is 80% complete, and the sponsor asks you to skip the final testing phase to release the product early and capture market share. The testing phase is critical for quality. What is the BEST response?

A.Explain the risks of skipping testing and propose a compromise, such as testing the most critical functions first
B.Agree to skip testing to accommodate the sponsor's request
C.Refuse the request and insist on full testing as planned
D.Update the risk register and proceed with the release
AnswerA

Communicate risks and seek a balanced solution.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because it demonstrates proactive risk management and stakeholder negotiation. By explaining the risks of skipping testing and proposing a compromise—such as testing critical functions first—you address the sponsor's urgency while preserving the project's quality objectives. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's emphasis on managing technical aspects through iterative validation and risk-based testing prioritization.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose option D (update the risk register) thinking it is sufficient for risk management, but the PMP exam requires active risk response—not just documentation—when a critical quality activity is threatened.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because agreeing to skip testing entirely violates the project's quality management plan and could lead to undetected defects, rework, and reputational damage. Option C is wrong because outright refusal without negotiation fails to consider the sponsor's business need for market capture and may damage stakeholder relationships; it also ignores the possibility of a risk-based testing approach. Option D is wrong because merely updating the risk register without taking proactive action to mitigate the identified risks (e.g., by performing partial testing) is insufficient; the risk of releasing untested software must be actively managed, not just documented.

Practice this question →
390
MCQmedium

You are the project manager for a software development project using a hybrid approach. During a sprint review, the product owner requests a significant change to a feature that has already been accepted in a previous sprint. The change would require rework and impact the critical path. What should you do FIRST?

A.Add the change to the product backlog for a future sprint without formal approval
B.Submit a change request and evaluate the impact on the project constraints
C.Instruct the team to implement the change immediately to maintain stakeholder satisfaction
D.Reject the change because the feature was already accepted
AnswerB

This follows the Integrated Change Control process, which is the correct first step.

Why this answer

Any change, even to accepted work, must go through the change control process to assess impacts on schedule, cost, and scope before approval.

Practice this question →
391
Multi-Selecthard

A new regulatory requirement is discovered mid-project that will require additional deliverables. The project uses a hybrid approach. What THREE actions should the project manager take?

Select 3 answers
A.Submit a change request to formally evaluate the impact of the new requirement
B.Have the team begin working on the new requirement immediately
C.Communicate the potential impact to key stakeholders
D.Update the risk register with the new regulatory compliance risks
E.Instruct the team to stop all work until the requirement is analyzed
AnswersA, C, D

Changes must go through change control to assess impact on scope, schedule, cost.

Why this answer

Option A (submit change request) is correct as per Integrated Change Control. Option C (update risk register) is correct as new regulatory risks may arise. Option D (inform stakeholders) is correct to manage expectations.

Option B is reactive (stop work) without analysis. Option E bypasses the team.

Practice this question →
392
MCQhard

Your project is behind schedule due to an unexpected delay from a key supplier. The critical path analysis shows that the total float is now negative. What is the BEST course of action?

A.Reduce project scope by eliminating non-essential deliverables
B.Update the risk register and inform stakeholders of the delay without taking action
C.Immediately apply fast tracking to overlap activities on the critical path
D.Crash the schedule by adding resources to critical path activities
AnswerD

Crashing adds resources to critical path tasks, which directly addresses negative float.

Why this answer

Crashing the schedule involves adding resources to critical path activities to compress the schedule, which is appropriate when float is negative.

Practice this question →
393
MCQeasy

A project manager is developing the project schedule. After defining activities and sequencing them, what is the next step in the schedule development process?

A.Estimate activity resources
B.Estimate activity durations
C.Estimate costs
D.Develop the schedule baseline
AnswerA

Resource estimation is the logical next step after sequencing, per PMBOK process flow.

Why this answer

In the schedule development process, after defining activities and sequencing them, the next step is to estimate the resources required for each activity (option A). This is because resource availability and constraints directly impact activity durations, and you must know what resources are available before you can estimate how long each activity will take. The PMBOK Guide's schedule management process follows the order: Plan Schedule Management → Define Activities → Sequence Activities → Estimate Activity Resources → Estimate Activity Durations → Develop Schedule.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the order of processes in the schedule development sequence, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly think duration estimation comes immediately after sequencing, overlooking the prerequisite resource estimation step.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because estimating activity durations comes after estimating activity resources, as resource availability affects duration estimates. Option C is wrong because estimating costs is a separate process (in the cost management knowledge area) that typically occurs after the schedule is developed, not a direct step in schedule development. Option D is wrong because developing the schedule baseline is the final step in the schedule development process, after durations are estimated and the schedule is analyzed and optimized.

Practice this question →
394
Multi-Selectmedium

A project manager is developing the schedule for a new product development project. Which TWO techniques can be used to compress the schedule?

Select 2 answers
A.Fast tracking
B.Monte Carlo analysis
C.Critical chain method
D.Crashing
E.Resource leveling
AnswersA, D

Performing activities in parallel that were originally sequential.

Why this answer

Fast tracking and crashing are schedule compression techniques. Resource leveling adjusts resources but does not compress the schedule. Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique.

Critical chain method adds buffers.

Practice this question →
395
Multi-Selectmedium

During project execution, the quality manager reports that a deliverable does not meet the quality requirements. The project manager needs to take corrective action. Which TWO actions should the PM take?

Select 2 answers
A.Issue a change request to correct the defect
B.Rework the deliverable to meet the requirements
C.Add the issue to the lessons learned for future projects
D.Escalate the issue to the sponsor
E.Update the quality management plan
AnswersA, B

Corrective action to fix a quality issue is handled through a change request.

Why this answer

A change request for corrective action is appropriate to fix the defect. Updating the quality management plan is not required unless a process change is needed.

Practice this question →
396
MCQeasy

A stakeholder bypasses you and gives direct instructions to a team member to add a new report. The team member has already started working on it. What should the project manager do first?

A.Ignore it to avoid conflict, but document the incident
B.Meet with the stakeholder to reinforce the change control process and request that all changes go through you
C.Escalate to the sponsor that the stakeholder is interfering
D.Ask the team member to ignore the stakeholder's request and stop working
AnswerB

Communicating the proper process is proactive and aligns with PMI principles.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the PM must first communicate with the stakeholder to reinforce the change control process. Option A is wrong because ignoring it may set a precedent. Option B is wrong because it doesn't address the root cause and is reactive.

Option D is wrong because the PM should not bypass the stakeholder.

Practice this question →
397
MCQhard

In a hybrid project, the development team is using Scrum, and the project manager is responsible for overall coordination. During a sprint, the product owner asks the team to add a high-priority user story that was not included in the sprint planning. The team is concerned about overcommitment. What should the project manager do?

A.Remove a lower-priority story from the sprint to make room for the new one.
B.Allow the team to add the story if they can accommodate it without affecting the sprint goal.
C.Escalate to the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
D.Ask the product owner to add the story to the product backlog and prioritize it for the next sprint.
AnswerD

This is the correct Scrum practice; the sprint is protected, and the story can be planned for the next sprint.

Why this answer

In Scrum, the sprint backlog is fixed once sprint planning is completed. The product owner cannot add work during the sprint. The correct action is to ask the product owner to add the story to the product backlog for prioritization in a future sprint.

This respects the team's commitment and the sprint goal.

Practice this question →
398
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common causes of project change requests?

Select 3 answers
A.Regulatory changes
B.Team member vacation
C.Budget surplus
D.Scope creep
E.Stakeholder feedback
AnswersA, D, E

New regulations may require changes to project deliverables.

Why this answer

Regulatory changes are a common cause of project change requests because new laws or compliance requirements (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS) can mandate modifications to project scope, deliverables, or processes. These external mandates often require immediate adjustments to avoid legal penalties, making them a frequent trigger for formal change requests in technology projects.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse operational issues like team member vacation or budget surplus with legitimate triggers for formal change requests, but the PMP exam emphasizes that change requests must stem from external or internal factors that alter the project baseline, not routine resource or financial adjustments.

Practice this question →
399
MCQmedium

A project team is implementing a new software feature. During testing, a critical defect is found that could delay the release. The project manager needs to determine the root cause. Which tool or technique should be used?

A.Scatter diagram
B.Control chart
C.Delphi technique
D.Cause-and-effect diagram
AnswerD

Cause-and-effect diagrams systematically explore potential root causes of a defect.

Why this answer

The cause-and-effect diagram (also known as a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram) is the correct tool for root cause analysis because it systematically maps potential causes of a defect across categories like people, process, technology, and environment. In this software testing scenario, the project manager would use it to brainstorm and visually trace the critical defect back to its underlying technical root cause, such as a coding logic error or integration failure, rather than just observing symptoms.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse root cause analysis tools with quality control tools, mistakenly selecting scatter diagrams or control charts because they associate them with defect analysis, but only the cause-and-effect diagram directly structures the search for underlying causes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a scatter diagram shows the relationship between two variables (e.g., code complexity vs. defect count) but does not identify root causes; it only indicates correlation, not causation. Option B is wrong because a control chart monitors process stability over time using statistical control limits, but it cannot pinpoint the specific root cause of a single critical defect found during testing. Option C is wrong because the Delphi technique is a consensus-building method used for forecasting or expert judgment, not for technical root cause analysis of a software defect.

Practice this question →
400
Multi-Selectmedium

Your agile project is experiencing a drop in velocity for the third consecutive sprint. The team reports that they are spending too much time in unplanned meetings and dealing with frequent requirement changes. Which TWO actions should you take to address this?

Select 2 answers
A.Encourage the team to work overtime to catch up.
B.Add more team members to increase capacity.
C.Increase the sprint duration to give the team more time.
D.Implement a process to control scope changes during the sprint.
E.Limit work-in-progress (WIP) to reduce multitasking.
AnswersD, E

Controlling scope changes reduces disruptions and helps the team maintain focus on sprint goals.

Why this answer

Limiting work-in-progress (WIP) can reduce context switching and improve focus. Implementing a change control process for scope changes during a sprint helps stabilize requirements. Both address root causes of velocity drop.

Practice this question →
401
MCQeasy

During a sprint retrospective, the team identifies that velocity has dropped due to too many interruptions. What agile technique should the Scrum Master recommend to address this?

A.Add buffer time to each task estimate
B.Implement a Work in Progress (WIP) limit to reduce multitasking
C.Conduct more frequent retrospectives
D.Increase the sprint duration to accommodate interruptions
AnswerB

WIP limits help the team focus and minimize task-switching interruptions.

Why this answer

Option A is correct: limiting Work in Progress (WIP) reduces multitasking and interruptions. Option B does not address interruptions. Option C is about schedule, not interruptions.

Option D is a ceremony, not a countermeasure.

Practice this question →
402
MCQmedium

A project using a predictive approach is 40% complete. The earned value (EV) is $200,000, the planned value (PV) is $250,000, and the actual cost (AC) is $230,000. What should the project manager do NEXT?

A.Report the variances to stakeholders immediately and ask for more budget
B.Analyze the variances to determine root causes and implement corrective actions
C.Calculate the estimate at completion (EAC) and rebaseline the project
D.Apply schedule compression techniques such as crashing
AnswerB

The PM should first understand why the variances occurred and then take action.

Why this answer

The project is behind schedule (SPI < 1) and over budget (CPI < 1). Option B is correct: analyze root causes and take corrective action. Option A is wrong because EAC may change; Option C is wrong because you communicate after analysis; Option D is a possible technique but not the next step.

Practice this question →
403
Multi-Selectmedium

You are managing a project that is experiencing scope creep. Several stakeholders have been informally requesting additional features directly from team members. Which TWO actions should you take to address this?

Select 2 answers
A.Refuse all new requests until the project is completed.
B.Conduct a meeting with stakeholders to review the project scope and re-baseline if necessary.
C.Update the stakeholder engagement plan to limit stakeholder interactions with the team.
D.Educate the team on the importance of following the change control process.
E.Remind the team to direct all change requests to the project manager for formal evaluation.
AnswersD, E

Training the team helps prevent scope creep at the source.

Why this answer

To prevent scope creep, the PM should educate the team on the change control process so they know not to accept informal requests. Additionally, the PM should reinforce the communication plan to ensure all requests go through the proper channels. Option A is reactive; Option D is not the best practice.

Practice this question →
404
MCQmedium

A project is 60% complete. The earned value (EV) is $120,000, the planned value (PV) is $150,000, and the actual cost (AC) is $130,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI) and what does it indicate?

A.CPI = 0.80; the project is under budget
B.CPI = 1.08; the project is under budget
C.CPI = 0.92; the project is behind schedule
D.CPI = 0.92; the project is over budget
AnswerD

Correct calculation; over budget.

Why this answer

CPI = EV/AC = $120,000/$130,000 = 0.92. A CPI less than 1 indicates the project is over budget.

Practice this question →
405
Multi-Selectmedium

Your agile team is struggling with consistently low velocity. The team is demotivated. Which THREE actions should the project manager take to address this?

Select 3 answers
A.Replace underperforming team members with new resources
B.Facilitate a retrospective to identify root causes of low velocity
C.Work with the team to remove impediments that are slowing them down
D.Reduce the sprint backlog to match current velocity without analysis
E.Encourage the team to maintain a sustainable pace and avoid overtime
AnswersB, C, E

A retrospective allows the team to inspect and adapt.

Why this answer

Options B, C, and D are correct: facilitating a retrospective, removing impediments, and ensuring sustainable pace are key agile practices to improve team performance.

Practice this question →
406
MCQmedium

You are managing a software upgrade project. A senior executive bypasses you and directly instructs a team member to include a new feature in the release. The team member is confused and asks for your direction. What should you do FIRST?

A.Submit a change request on behalf of the executive without assessment.
B.Advise the team member to follow the executive's instruction.
C.Escalate the situation to the executive's manager immediately.
D.Speak with the executive to explain the change control process and the impact of the request.
AnswerD

Direct communication is the first step to realign with governance.

Why this answer

The PM should clarify the proper process and communicate with the executive. Option B is correct because it addresses the bypass and reinforces change control. Option A escalates without conversation; Option C ignores the issue; Option D violates process.

Practice this question →
407
MCQmedium

During a sprint retrospective, the team identifies that their velocity has dropped significantly in the last two sprints. What should the scrum master do FIRST?

A.Facilitate a discussion to identify root causes and create an action plan
B.Add more team members to increase velocity
C.Reduce the sprint backlog to improve velocity metrics
D.Encourage the team to work faster in the next sprint
AnswerA

The retrospective is for continuous improvement; use it to analyze and address issues.

Why this answer

The correct first action is to facilitate a root cause analysis and create an action plan because the sprint retrospective is the prescribed Agile ceremony for continuous improvement. The Scrum Master's role is to coach the team to self-organize and address impediments, not to impose solutions. Jumping to staffing or scope changes without understanding the underlying technical or process issues violates the empirical process control principle of transparency.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a velocity drop with a performance problem, leading them to choose a quick fix (like adding people or reducing scope) instead of following the Agile principle of inspect and adapt through root cause analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because adding team members often decreases velocity in the short term due to onboarding overhead and communication channels (Brooks' Law), and does not address the root cause of the drop. Option C is wrong because reducing the sprint backlog only masks the velocity metric without solving the underlying issue, and it may hide technical debt or process inefficiencies. Option D is wrong because simply encouraging the team to 'work faster' ignores systemic problems like technical debt, unclear requirements, or external dependencies, and can lead to burnout and quality degradation.

Practice this question →
408
MCQhard

During a project, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will add two weeks to the schedule but no additional cost. The change request is approved by the change control board (CCB). What should the project manager do next?

A.Update the schedule baseline and inform all stakeholders of the approved change.
B.Reject the change because it will delay the project.
C.Instruct the project team to begin working on the additional scope immediately.
D.Update the work breakdown structure (WBS) and communicate the change to the project team.
AnswerA

The schedule baseline is part of the project management plan and must be updated to reflect the change, then communicate.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because, after the CCB approves a change that increases scope, the project manager must update the schedule baseline to reflect the approved two-week delay. This ensures the project plan remains accurate and serves as the basis for performance measurement. Informing all stakeholders of the approved change is a key communication requirement per the PMBOK Guide's Manage Communications process.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the order of actions after CCB approval, mistakenly thinking that communicating to the team or updating the WBS should come before updating the schedule baseline, but the baseline must be formally revised first to maintain control over the project plan.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the change request has already been approved by the CCB, so the project manager cannot unilaterally reject it; doing so would violate the established change control process. Option C is wrong because instructing the team to begin work immediately bypasses the necessary updates to the project management plan (e.g., schedule baseline, WBS) and risks misalignment with the approved change. Option D is wrong because while updating the WBS is part of the process, it is not the immediate next step; the schedule baseline must be updated first to reflect the approved two-week delay, and communication to the project team should occur after the plan is updated.

Practice this question →
409
MCQmedium

In a hybrid project, the team has been using both Kanban and traditional planning. The product owner requests that the team focus on completing all work in the current iteration before taking on new tasks. However, the team has been pulling new work as capacity allows. What is the BEST action for the project manager?

A.Instruct the team to follow the product owner's request immediately
B.Allow the team to continue as they are, since they are productive
C.Escalate to the project sponsor for a decision
D.Facilitate a meeting between the product owner and the team to agree on the workflow and update the process accordingly
AnswerD

This promotes collaboration and ensures alignment.

Why this answer

The hybrid approach should respect the agreed-upon framework. The PM should facilitate a discussion to align on the process and document the decision.

Practice this question →
410
Multi-Selectmedium

A project is falling behind schedule, and the project manager wants to get it back on track. Which TWO schedule compression techniques are most appropriate?

Select 2 answers
A.Resource smoothing
B.Critical chain method
C.Monte Carlo simulation
D.Crashing
E.Fast tracking
AnswersD, E

Adding resources to critical path activities.

Why this answer

Fast tracking and crashing are the standard schedule compression techniques. Resource smoothing does not compress the schedule; critical chain adds buffers; Monte Carlo is simulation.

Practice this question →
411
Multi-Selectmedium

Your project is using a hybrid approach. During a mid-project review, you discover that the team has been gold-plating deliverables—adding extra features not requested by the customer. Which THREE actions should you take?

Select 3 answers
A.Praise the team for their initiative and innovation
B.Investigate why the team felt the need to add extra features
C.Review the work completed and remove any unapproved features
D.Update the scope baseline to include the extra features
E.Remind the team to only work on approved requirements
AnswersB, C, E

Understanding the root cause can prevent recurrence.

Why this answer

Gold-plating adds no value and wastes resources. The PM should stop the behavior, communicate with the team, and reinforce scope boundaries.

Practice this question →
412
MCQmedium

In an agile project, the team's velocity has been declining over the last three sprints. The team is delivering fewer story points each sprint. The product owner is concerned about the release date. What should the Scrum Master do first?

A.Ask the product owner to descope some features to meet the release date
B.Facilitate a retrospective focused on identifying root causes of the declining velocity
C.Add more story points to the next sprint to compensate for the loss
D.Extend the sprint duration to give the team more time
AnswerB

The Scrum Master should help the team inspect and adapt to improve.

Why this answer

Option D is correct: Understanding the root cause is the first step. Option A ignores the causes, B is reactive, C may be a result but not the first action.

Practice this question →
413
Multi-Selecthard

Your project is using a hybrid approach with both predictive and agile elements. Mid-project, a key stakeholder requests a significant scope change that would affect the critical path. Which THREE actions should you take?

Select 3 answers
A.Add the change to the product backlog to be addressed in a future iteration.
B.Assess the impact on the critical path, schedule, cost, and quality.
C.Implement the change immediately since the stakeholder is key to project success.
D.Inform the stakeholder of the potential impact on the project constraints.
E.Submit a change request to the change control board.
AnswersB, D, E

Impact analysis is a critical step before approving any change.

Why this answer

PMI requires following the change control process: formally submit a change request, evaluate the impact on the critical path and project constraints, and communicate the impact to stakeholders before approval.

Practice this question →
414
MCQmedium

During a project status meeting, an executive stakeholder informs the team that they have instructed a developer to add a new feature to the product without going through the change control process. The developer has already completed the work. What should the project manager do NEXT?

A.Inform the executive that this violates the change control process and ignore the change
B.Remove the new feature from the product
C.Ask the executive to reverse the change immediately
D.Document the change and submit a retroactive change request to the change control board
AnswerD

The PM should formalize the change to maintain integrity of the project management plan.

Why this answer

Option A is correct. The PM must document the change and formally assess its impact, then submit a change request retroactively to validate the work. Option B is wrong because ignoring it sets a bad precedent.

Option C is wrong because confronting the executive directly may damage relationships. Option D is wrong because the PM should not reverse work without assessment.

Practice this question →
415
MCQmedium

Your project is 60% complete. The cost performance index (CPI) is 1.1, and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.85. The project sponsor is concerned about the schedule delay. Which of the following is the BEST action to take?

A.Reduce scope to meet the schedule deadline
B.Analyze the schedule and evaluate options such as fast-tracking or crashing with the cost savings
C.Immediately add more resources to the critical path to speed up work
D.Update the schedule baseline to reflect the current actuals
AnswerB

The PM should analyze the schedule and consider compression techniques, using available cost reserves if needed.

Why this answer

Since the project is under budget but behind schedule, the best action is to analyze the schedule to determine if schedule compression techniques can be applied, using the cost savings to fund crashing or fast-tracking.

Practice this question →
416
MCQmedium

Your project is 40% complete, but the Earned Value (EV) is $50,000, Planned Value (PV) is $60,000, and Actual Cost (AC) is $70,000. The cost performance index (CPI) is 0.71, and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.83. What is the most likely impact on the project?

A.The project is under budget but behind schedule
B.The project is under budget and ahead of schedule
C.The project is over budget but ahead of schedule
D.The project is over budget and behind schedule
AnswerD

CPI < 1 and SPI < 1 indicate cost overrun and schedule delay.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because CPI < 1 indicates cost overrun, and SPI < 1 indicates schedule delay. Options B and C are incorrect because both cost and schedule are unfavorable. Option D is incorrect because both are negative.

Practice this question →
417
MCQhard

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase project scope by 15% but will also reduce operational costs by 20% after deployment. The project is currently on schedule and under budget. The project manager should FIRST:

A.Implement the change as it provides clear business value.
B.Reject the change because it increases scope beyond the approved baseline.
C.Document the change request and analyze its impact on the project constraints.
D.Present the change to the Change Control Board (CCB) for approval.
AnswerC

The first step is to document and analyze the impact of the change request.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because, per the PMBOK Guide, the project manager must first document any change request and analyze its impact on the project constraints (scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources, and risk) before any decision is made. Even though the change appears beneficial, the formal change control process requires a documented impact analysis to ensure the trade-offs are fully understood and the change is properly evaluated against the project's baselines.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a change with clear business value can be implemented immediately, ignoring the mandatory first step of documenting and analyzing the change request before any decision or escalation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because implementing the change without following the formal change control process violates the project's change management plan and could lead to uncontrolled scope creep, even if the change appears to provide business value. Option B is wrong because rejecting a change solely because it increases scope beyond the approved baseline ignores the possibility that the change could be approved through the proper change control process after a thorough impact analysis. Option D is wrong because presenting the change directly to the Change Control Board (CCB) for approval skips the critical first step of documenting the change request and analyzing its impact on project constraints, which is the project manager's responsibility before escalation.

Practice this question →
418
MCQhard

You are the project manager for a large IT infrastructure upgrade. An executive stakeholder has been bypassing you and directly assigning tasks to team members. This has caused confusion and rework. What should you do FIRST?

A.Update the stakeholder engagement plan and communicate the escalation path
B.Schedule a meeting with the executive stakeholder to discuss the impact of bypassing the PM and reinforce the communication plan
C.Instruct the team members to ignore any requests from the executive
D.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and request intervention
AnswerB

Direct communication with the stakeholder is the best first step to resolve the issue.

Why this answer

PMI emphasizes communication and stakeholder management. The PM should address the issue directly with the stakeholder, clarifying roles and the impact of bypassing the PM.

Practice this question →
419
MCQeasy

During a daily standup, a developer mentions that they have started working on an additional feature requested by the product owner, which was not in the sprint backlog. What should the scrum master do?

A.Escalate the issue to the project manager after the standup
B.Allow the work to continue since it adds value to the product
C.Remind the team that work should only be added to the sprint through the product owner and should be deferred to the backlog for prioritization
D.Praise the developer for being proactive and customer-focused
AnswerC

The scrum master protects the sprint goal and ensures changes go through proper channels.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the scrum master should remind the team that no work should be added to the sprint without going through the product owner and change control. Option A is wrong because gold-plating is not allowed. Option C is too permissive.

Option D is reactive.

Practice this question →
420
Multi-Selecthard

Your agile project is experiencing declining velocity, and the team is frustrated with frequent interruptions from stakeholders requesting ad-hoc features. Which TWO actions should you take to address this situation?

Select 2 answers
A.Add all ad-hoc requests to the product backlog for prioritization
B.Allow the team to accept some ad-hoc requests to keep stakeholders happy
C.Increase the sprint length to accommodate more work
D.Reduce the team size to minimize communication overhead
E.Ask the product owner to enforce a strict 'no changes during sprint' policy
AnswersA, E

All new requests should be added to the backlog and prioritized by the product owner.

Why this answer

Protecting the team from interruptions and ensuring proper backlog prioritization are key agile practices.

Practice this question →
421
MCQhard

A new government regulation is announced that will impact your project's deliverables. The regulation requires additional compliance testing that was not in the original scope. The project is currently on schedule and within budget. What should you do FIRST?

A.Add the testing tasks to the project schedule and continue
B.Immediately implement the necessary changes to comply with the regulation
C.Inform the sponsor and ask for more budget and time
D.Submit a change request to formally assess and incorporate the new requirements
AnswerD

Following the change control process is the correct first step.

Why this answer

The PM should assess the impact of the regulation on the project and submit a change request to address it through the formal change control process.

Practice this question →
422
MCQmedium

You are managing a software development project using an Agile approach. The team consists of 8 developers and 2 testers. During the last three sprints, the team has consistently delivered about 70% of planned story points. The product owner is frustrated because key features are being delayed. The team reports that they are spending too much time fixing defects found during testing, and that the testers are a bottleneck. Upon reviewing the definition of done, you notice that unit tests are required but not always written, and integration tests are done only at the end of the sprint. What is the BEST course of action to address the root cause?

A.Reduce the sprint backlog size to 50% of current capacity to allow more time for testing.
B.Require that all code have unit tests before being merged, and implement continuous integration to run automated tests every few hours.
C.Ask the product owner to defer non-critical features to later releases.
D.Add two more testers to the team to increase testing capacity.
AnswerB

This addresses the root cause of late defect discovery by shifting quality left.

Why this answer

Option B directly addresses the root cause: the team is spending too much time fixing defects because unit tests are not always written and integration tests are deferred to the end of the sprint. By requiring unit tests before merging and implementing continuous integration (CI) with automated tests running every few hours, defects are caught earlier, reducing rework and eliminating the tester bottleneck. This aligns with Agile principles of built-in quality and early feedback, which improves velocity and predictability.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose to add resources (Option D) or reduce scope (Option A/C) instead of addressing the process and technical practice gap—specifically, the lack of automated testing and continuous integration, which is the true root cause of the bottleneck and low velocity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reducing the sprint backlog size only treats the symptom (low throughput) without fixing the underlying quality issues; it may even mask the problem and delay value delivery further. Option C is wrong because deferring features does not address the technical debt or testing bottleneck; it merely shifts scope without improving the development process or defect rate. Option D is wrong because adding more testers increases capacity but does not solve the root cause—defects are still found late, and the team remains dependent on manual testing rather than shifting quality left through automated unit and integration tests.

Practice this question →
423
MCQmedium

You are managing a project to develop a new mobile app. During the testing phase, the quality assurance team discovers a critical bug that could delay the release by two weeks. The product owner insists on releasing on the original date to meet a market opportunity. What should you do?

A.Present the impact of the bug to the product owner and recommend either fixing it or accepting the risk of releasing with the bug
B.Agree to release on time and fix the bug in the next update
C.Release as planned but skip the regression testing to save time
D.Delay the release without consulting the product owner to fix the bug
AnswerA

The PM should provide data and let the product owner make an informed decision based on risk tolerance.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because the PM must communicate the risks of releasing with a critical bug and let the stakeholders make an informed decision. Option A is wrong because hiding the bug is unethical and could damage the company's reputation. Option B is wrong because the PM should first discuss the risks with the product owner.

Option C is wrong because releasing without quality assurance bypasses the process.

Practice this question →
424
MCQhard

You are managing a construction project. During a quality audit, you find that the concrete used in the foundation does not meet the specified strength requirements. The team has already poured the concrete. The project is on a tight schedule, and rework will delay the project by three weeks. What should you do NEXT?

A.Submit a change request to perform rework and update the project management plan accordingly.
B.Reinforce the concrete to meet strength requirements without removing it.
C.Instruct the team to continue work and document the deviation as a lesson learned.
D.Replace the project manager responsible for quality control.
AnswerA

This follows the correct process: document the issue, assess impact, and obtain approval for corrective action.

Why this answer

Since the non-conformance has been identified, the next step is to create a corrective action request and follow the change control process to address the issue properly.

Practice this question →
425
MCQmedium

During the execution phase of a road construction project, the team discovers an unmarked underground utility line that was not shown on any plans. Working near it poses a safety risk, and the project must halt until the utility is identified and mapped. The risk register did not include this specific risk. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A.Instruct the team to work carefully around the utility to avoid delays
B.Stop work in the area and engage a utility locating service to identify the line
C.Update the risk register with this new risk and continue work
D.Submit a change request to adjust the project schedule
AnswerB

Safety first; then gather information to assess and respond.

Why this answer

Safety is paramount. The PM should first ensure the safety of the team and then work to identify the utility. This is a new risk that needs to be assessed.

Practice this question →
426
MCQeasy

During a daily standup, a developer mentions that a risk identified in the risk register has occurred and is causing a one-day delay. The risk response plan includes a mitigation strategy that can be implemented immediately. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A.Update the issue log and inform stakeholders of the delay
B.Implement the planned risk response as documented in the risk register
C.Escalate the issue to the sponsor for guidance
D.Conduct a new risk assessment to determine the best response
AnswerB

The risk response plan exists to address the risk. Implementing it is the correct proactive action.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the risk response plan already provides a course of action. The PM should implement the planned response without hesitation.

Practice this question →
427
MCQmedium

Your project is behind schedule, and you need to compress the schedule. The critical path has been identified. What is the BEST schedule compression technique to use if you have additional budget available?

A.Fast tracking
B.Crashing
C.Resource smoothing
D.Resource leveling
AnswerB

Crashing adds resources to critical path activities to shorten duration, typically with increased cost.

Why this answer

Crashing adds resources to critical path activities and is appropriate when budget allows. Option A is correct. Option B does not compress schedule.

Option C may not reduce duration. Option D is not defined.

Practice this question →
428
MCQmedium

Your project is using a predictive approach, and you are in the execution phase. A key stakeholder requests a minor change that you believe will improve the product but is not in the scope. What should you do?

A.Submit a change request and follow the Integrated Change Control process
B.Implement the change and document it later
C.Refuse the change because the project is already in execution
D.Approve the change yourself since it is minor and will improve the product
AnswerA

This is the correct process per PMI.

Why this answer

Even minor changes must go through the change control process to maintain baseline integrity.

Practice this question →
429
MCQeasy

The project team is in the process of identifying risks. Which tool or technique should the project manager use to identify risks?

A.Quality audits
B.Earned value management
C.Brainstorming
D.Critical path method
AnswerC

Brainstorming is a key technique in identify risks process.

Why this answer

Option A is correct: brainstorming is a common technique for risk identification. Options B, C, D are used in other processes.

Practice this question →
430
MCQeasy

A project manager is reviewing the quality metrics of a software development project. The testing team has found that the defect rate has increased significantly in the last two builds. What is the first action the project manager should take?

A.Conduct a root cause analysis to identify why the defect rate increased.
B.Increase the testing resources to catch more defects.
C.Ask the development team to redo the last two builds.
D.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.
AnswerA

Root cause analysis is the first step in addressing quality issues.

Why this answer

The PM should first investigate the root cause before taking corrective action. Option B is correct because it follows the quality management process.

Practice this question →
431
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. The project's S3 bucket policy allows read access only from the internal IP range (10.0.0.0/8) and denies access if not using HTTPS. A developer reports that they can access the bucket from a machine with IP 10.0.0.5 using HTTPS. However, they cannot access it from a machine with IP 10.0.0.6 using HTTP. What is the most likely reason?

A.The Deny statement for HTTP overrides the Allow statement.
B.The policy requires both IP and HTTPS conditions to be met simultaneously.
C.The IP address 10.0.0.5 is not in the allowed range.
D.The IP address 10.0.0.6 is not in the allowed range.
AnswerA

Explicit Deny prevents access when SecureTransport is false.

Why this answer

The correct answer is A because in AWS IAM policy evaluation logic, an explicit Deny always overrides any Allow. The policy includes a Deny statement that blocks access when HTTPS is not used. Since HTTP access from 10.0.0.6 triggers this Deny, it overrides the Allow statement that permits access from the internal IP range, resulting in denied access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume that if an IP is in the allowed range, all access is permitted, ignoring that an explicit Deny for a specific condition (like HTTP) takes precedence over any Allow.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the policy does not require both conditions to be met simultaneously; it uses separate Allow and Deny statements, and the Deny for HTTP is evaluated independently. Option C is wrong because the IP address 10.0.0.5 is within the allowed range (10.0.0.0/8) and the developer confirmed successful access via HTTPS, so it is allowed. Option D is wrong because the IP address 10.0.0.6 is also within the allowed range (10.0.0.0/8), but the Deny for HTTP overrides the Allow, so the issue is not about IP range membership.

Practice this question →
432
MCQmedium

A critical risk identified in the risk register has occurred. The planned response was to mitigate, but the impact is higher than anticipated. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A.Develop a new response from scratch because the impact changed
B.Update the risk register and ignore the planned response
C.Implement the planned mitigation response and then reassess the situation
D.Escalate the risk to the project sponsor immediately
AnswerC

The planned response should be executed, then evaluate if additional actions are needed.

Why this answer

The risk response plan should be executed first, then reassess and update the risk register. PMI recommends implementing the planned response and evaluating its effectiveness.

Practice this question →
433
Multi-Selecthard

You are managing a project that has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.1. The project is behind schedule? The earned value data shows EV = $80,000, PV = $72,727, and AC = $100,000. Which THREE actions should you take?

Select 3 answers
A.Analyze the cost variance to identify root causes, such as inefficiencies or inaccurate estimates
B.Reduce the project scope to cut costs
C.Implement schedule compression techniques like crashing to bring the schedule back on track
D.Validate that all work performed is within the approved scope and that no gold-plating has occurred
E.Review the work breakdown structure to ensure that all work packages are properly estimated
AnswersA, D, E

Understanding why costs are higher than planned is essential for corrective action.

Why this answer

Options A, C, and E are correct. A: The cost variance is negative ($20,000), so investigate the root cause. C: The project is ahead of schedule (SPI>1), but cost overruns may be due to fast-tracking; consider schedule compression techniques that are more cost-effective.

E: The overrun could be due to scope creep; ensure all changes go through change control. Option B is incorrect because the project is ahead of schedule, not behind. Option D is incorrect because reducing scope unilaterally is not appropriate without change control.

Practice this question →
434
MCQeasy

During a daily standup, a team member mentions she is blocked because another department has not provided necessary data. As the project manager, what is the FIRST thing you should do?

A.Tell the team member to resolve it herself
B.Ask the team member to work on another task while waiting
C.Update the issue log and move on
D.Escalate the issue to the other department's manager immediately
AnswerD

Removing impediments is a key PM responsibility; escalating to the appropriate person is the first proactive step.

Why this answer

The first step is to understand the issue and its impact, then work to unblock the team member, often by escalating to the appropriate stakeholder.

Practice this question →
435
MCQmedium

Your construction project is ahead of schedule but over budget. The earned value metrics are: EV = $500,000, PV = $450,000, AC = $550,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI)?

A.CPI = 1.11, SPI = 0.91
B.CPI = 0.91, SPI = 1.11
C.CPI = 1.10, SPI = 0.91
D.CPI = 0.91, SPI = 0.91
AnswerB

Correct calculation: CPI = 500k/550k = 0.91; SPI = 500k/450k = 1.11.

Why this answer

Option B is correct: CPI = EV/AC = 500,000/550,000 = 0.91; SPI = EV/PV = 500,000/450,000 = 1.11.

Practice this question →
436
Multi-Selecteasy

You are closing a project phase. Which THREE activities should be performed during the project closure process?

Select 3 answers
A.Conduct a lessons learned session with the team.
B.Obtain formal acceptance of the deliverables from the customer.
C.Archive project documents and records.
D.Evaluate team member performance and provide feedback.
E.Update the risk register with residual risks.
AnswersA, B, C

Lessons learned are documented to improve future projects.

Why this answer

Project closure includes obtaining formal acceptance, archiving documents, and conducting lessons learned. Updating the risk register is done throughout the project, and team performance appraisals may be done separately.

Practice this question →
437
MCQeasy

During project execution, a key team member resigns. The project manager needs to fill the position quickly. What is the FIRST step the project manager should take?

A.Review the project resource management plan and update the staffing requirements.
B.Immediately hire a replacement with similar skills.
C.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor for approval to hire.
D.Ask the team to redistribute the workload.
AnswerA

The plan outlines roles and requirements, guiding the search.

Why this answer

The project resource management plan contains the procedures for acquiring, developing, and managing the project team. When a key team member resigns, the first step is to review this plan to identify the pre-defined staffing requirements, roles, and acquisition methods (e.g., hiring, reassignment) before taking any action. This ensures alignment with the project's resource constraints and avoids ad-hoc decisions that could disrupt the project's technical execution.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the misconception that the project manager should immediately escalate or take reactive action (like hiring or redistributing work) rather than first consulting the project management plan, which is the authoritative source for process-driven decisions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because immediately hiring a replacement without reviewing the resource management plan may violate budget constraints, skill requirements, or organizational policies, and could lead to onboarding an unsuitable candidate. Option C is wrong because escalating to the sponsor for approval to hire bypasses the project manager's authority and the established resource management processes; the sponsor is typically involved only for budget or scope changes, not routine staffing. Option D is wrong because asking the team to redistribute the workload without first assessing the resource plan can lead to burnout, skill gaps, and schedule delays, and ignores the formal process for filling vacancies.

Practice this question →
438
MCQeasy

A change request that affects the critical path has been approved. What is the NEXT step for the project manager?

A.Implement the change immediately without updating documents
B.Instruct the team to ignore the change until next sprint
C.File the change request in the project archives
D.Communicate the change to stakeholders and update the project management plan and baselines
AnswerD

Approved changes must be incorporated into plans and communicated to stakeholders.

Why this answer

After approval, the PM must update the project management plan and baselines to reflect the change.

Practice this question →
439
MCQmedium

You are the project manager for a software development project using a hybrid approach. During a sprint review, the product owner requests a new feature that was not in the backlog. The team believes it can be completed within the current sprint without impacting the sprint goal. What should you do FIRST?

A.Submit a change request to the change control board to evaluate the impact on the project.
B.Add the feature to the product backlog for prioritization in a future sprint.
C.Ask the team to implement the feature immediately since it won't affect the sprint goal.
D.Allow the product owner to approve the change since it is within the sprint.
AnswerA

PMI requires formal change control for scope changes.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because any change to scope, even within a sprint, should follow the change control process to ensure alignment with project objectives. Option A is incorrect as it bypasses change control. Option C is incorrect because the product owner alone cannot approve scope changes outside of the change control board.

Option D is incorrect because simply adding to the backlog without formal evaluation is not the best first step.

Practice this question →
← PreviousPage 6 of 6 · 439 questions total

Ready to test yourself?

Try a timed practice session using only Process — Managing Technical Aspects questions.

Start 20-question session