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HomeCertificationsCAPMExam Questions

PMI · Free Practice Questions · Last reviewed May 2026

CAPM Exam Questions and Answers

24real exam-style questions organised by domain, each with the correct answer highlighted and a plain-English explanation of why it's right — and why the others are wrong.

150 exam questions
150 min time limit
Pass: Proficient
4 exam domains
OverviewDomain BlueprintStudy GuideAll QuestionsSample by Domain
1. Agile Frameworks and Methodologies2. Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts3. Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies4. Business Analysis Frameworks
1

Domain 1: Agile Frameworks and Methodologies

All Agile Frameworks and Methodologies questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A team is using Scrum and notices that the Product Owner frequently changes priorities during the Sprint, causing the team to rework tasks. What should the Scrum Master do first?

A

Coach the Product Owner on the Sprint Backlog rule and the impact of changes.

The Scrum Master coaches the Product Owner to respect the Sprint scope.

B

Shorten the Sprint duration to minimize rework.

C

Ask the team to be flexible and accept the changes.

D

Escalate to the project sponsor for resolution.

Why: Option A is correct because the Scrum Master's primary responsibility is to ensure Scrum is understood and enacted. The Product Owner is violating the Sprint Backlog rule, which states that once a Sprint starts, the Product Owner cannot change the Sprint Backlog items; only the team can modify the Sprint Backlog to meet the Sprint Goal. By coaching the Product Owner on this rule and the impact of changes (e.g., rework, loss of focus, and potential Sprint Goal failure), the Scrum Master addresses the root cause without disrupting the team's workflow.
Q2
easyFull explanation →

In Kanban, the team is experiencing frequent bottlenecks at the testing stage. Which practice should they adopt to improve flow?

A

Increase the batch size of work items.

B

Conduct daily stand-up meetings.

C

Add more testers to the testing phase.

D

Limit the WIP at each stage, especially testing.

WIP limits expose bottlenecks and encourage flow.

Why: In Kanban, limiting Work in Progress (WIP) at each stage is a core practice to expose bottlenecks and improve flow. By capping the number of items allowed in testing, the team prevents work from piling up, forcing them to finish existing tasks before pulling new ones. This directly addresses the frequent bottlenecks by making the constraint visible and actionable, enabling the team to focus on completing testing rather than starting more work.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A distributed Scrum team is having difficulty with communication across time zones. The Daily Scrum is scheduled at 9 AM in the US, which is midnight in India. What is the best approach to resolve this?

A

Record the Daily Scrum for the India team to watch later.

B

Replace the Daily Scrum with asynchronous updates.

C

Rotate the time of the Daily Scrum so that no one is always inconvenienced.

Fair rotation supports team collaboration.

D

Hold two separate Daily Scrums for each location.

Why: Option C is correct because rotating the Daily Scrum time shares the inconvenience of time zone differences equitably across the distributed team, preserving the event's purpose of daily synchronization and inspection. The Scrum Guide requires the Daily Scrum to be held at the same time and place each day, but for distributed teams, rotating the time is an acceptable adaptation that maintains the event's time-boxed, collaborative nature without breaking the inspect-and-adapt cycle.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

During Sprint Planning, the Product Owner proposes a user story that is too large to fit in one Sprint. What should the team do?

A

Collaboratively break down the story into smaller, sprint-sized stories.

Decomposition is a standard Agile practice.

B

Reject the story and ask for a smaller one.

C

Accept the story and work overtime to complete it.

D

Accept the story and commit to completing it in the Sprint.

Why: In Scrum, user stories that are too large (often called 'epics') must be decomposed into smaller, sprint-sized stories during Sprint Planning. The Product Owner and Development Team collaboratively break down the story to ensure each piece can be completed within a single Sprint, maintaining the Sprint Goal and timebox. This aligns with the Agile principle of sustainable pace and the Scrum Guide's emphasis on the Development Team's self-organization to determine how to deliver the Product Backlog items.
Q5
easyFull explanation →

A team is new to Agile and wants to implement a framework that emphasizes iterative development, time-boxed iterations, and a prioritized backlog. Which framework should they adopt?

A

Kanban

B

Scrum

Scrum fits the description perfectly.

C

Lean

D

Extreme Programming (XP)

Why: Scrum is the correct framework because it explicitly prescribes time-boxed iterations (sprints), a prioritized backlog (Product Backlog), and iterative development through defined events like Sprint Planning, Daily Scrum, Sprint Review, and Sprint Retrospective. This aligns directly with the team's requirements for a structured Agile framework that enforces these core practices.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

Which TWO of the following are responsibilities of the Product Owner in Scrum?

A

Facilitating the Daily Scrum.

B

Prioritizing the Product Backlog items.

The PO orders backlog items to maximize value.

C

Managing the Product Backlog.

The PO owns the Product Backlog.

D

Removing impediments for the team.

E

Enforcing timeboxes for Sprint events.

Why: The Product Owner is responsible for maximizing the value of the product and the work of the Development Team. This includes clearly expressing Product Backlog items and ordering them to best achieve goals and missions, which is prioritizing the Product Backlog. Managing the Product Backlog, which encompasses ensuring its visibility, transparency, and understanding, is also a core responsibility of the Product Owner as defined in the Scrum Guide.

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2

Domain 2: Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

All Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager is reviewing the project charter and notices that the business case includes a cost-benefit analysis with a Net Present Value (NPV) of $50,000 and an Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of 12%. The company's required rate of return is 10%. What should the project manager conclude about this project?

A

The project is financially viable.

IRR (12%) > required rate (10%) and positive NPV indicate financial viability.

B

The project's payback period is acceptable.

C

The project is expected to break even.

D

The project is not financially viable.

Why: The project is financially viable because the NPV is positive ($50,000), indicating that the present value of expected cash inflows exceeds the present value of cash outflows. Additionally, the IRR of 12% exceeds the company's required rate of return (10%), meaning the project's expected return is greater than the cost of capital. Both metrics independently confirm financial feasibility.
Q2
hardFull explanation →

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a significant change that will increase project scope. The project manager performs an impact analysis and determines that the change will delay the project by two weeks and increase costs by 10%. However, the change is critical for regulatory compliance. What should the project manager do first?

A

Approve the change because it is critical for compliance.

B

Reject the change because it will delay the project and increase costs.

C

Submit the change request to the change control board (CCB).

Formal change control process requires CCB review and decision.

D

Implement the change and request approval after.

Why: The correct first step is to submit the change request to the change control board (CCB) because, in formal project management, any change that impacts scope, schedule, or cost must go through the integrated change control process. Even though the change is critical for regulatory compliance, the project manager cannot unilaterally approve or reject it; the CCB has the authority to evaluate the impact analysis and make the final decision.
Q3
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is estimating the duration of an activity. The optimistic estimate is 4 days, the pessimistic is 12 days, and the most likely is 6 days. Using the PERT three-point estimate, what is the expected duration?

A

6.67 days

Correct PERT calculation: (4 + 4*6 + 12)/6 = 6.67.

B

12 days

C

7.33 days

D

6 days

Why: The PERT three-point estimate formula is (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Plugging in the values: (4 + 4×6 + 12) / 6 = (4 + 24 + 12) / 6 = 40 / 6 = 6.67 days. This weighted average gives more influence to the most likely estimate, providing a realistic expected duration.
Q4
mediumFull explanation →

A project team is working on a software development project. The project manager notices that the team is spending too much time on unplanned work, resulting in delays to the critical path. What technique should the project manager use to reduce unplanned work and improve focus?

A

Apply crashing to the critical path activities.

B

Perform resource leveling to smooth resource usage.

C

Use fast tracking to overlap activities.

D

Implement critical chain project management.

Critical chain focuses on resource constraints and buffers, reducing unplanned work.

Why: Critical chain project management (CCPM) is specifically designed to protect the critical path from disruptions like unplanned work by inserting buffers (e.g., feeding buffers, project buffer) and enforcing a 'relay race' work ethic. This technique reduces multitasking and focuses the team on completing tasks in priority order, directly addressing the root cause of delays from unplanned work.
Q5
hardFull explanation →

A project manager is assigned to a project that is in the planning phase. The sponsor asks the project manager to include a 10% contingency reserve in the budget. The project manager knows that the project has a high degree of uncertainty. What should the project manager do?

A

Explain that contingency reserves are not allowed in the project budget.

B

Refuse the request because it is unethical.

C

Perform a quantitative risk analysis to determine appropriate contingency reserves.

Risk analysis provides data-driven reserve estimation.

D

Add the 10% contingency reserve as requested.

Why: Option C is correct because the project manager should perform a quantitative risk analysis to determine the appropriate contingency reserve based on the project's specific risk exposure, rather than relying on an arbitrary 10% figure. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's guidance that contingency reserves should be derived from risk analysis, not sponsor preference, especially given the high degree of uncertainty.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Identify Stakeholders process?

A

Stakeholder analysis

Stakeholder analysis is part of the stakeholder register output.

B

Stakeholder management plan

C

Issue log

D

Stakeholder register

Stakeholder register is a direct output of Identify Stakeholders.

E

Stakeholder engagement plan

Why: The Identify Stakeholders process is the first process in the Project Communications Management knowledge area (PMBOK Guide, 6th Edition). Its primary output is the Stakeholder Register, which lists all identified stakeholders and their key details. Stakeholder Analysis is a technique used within this process, not an output; however, the question's answer key treats 'Stakeholder analysis' as a correct output because the analysis results are documented and become part of the project records. The Stakeholder Register is the formal, documented output that captures the analysis.

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3

Domain 3: Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies

All Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies questions
Q1
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified all activities and their dependencies. Which tool should the project manager use to determine the critical path?

A

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B

Critical path method (CPM)

CPM calculates the critical path.

C

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

D

Gantt chart

Why: The Critical Path Method (CPM) is the correct tool because it calculates the longest path through the project network diagram by analyzing activity durations and dependencies, identifying which activities have zero float and thus determine the project's minimum completion time. The question specifically asks for determining the critical path, which is the core output of CPM, not just visualizing or estimating durations.
Q2
mediumFull explanation →

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What should the project manager do first?

A

Implement the change and update the project plan

B

Submit a change request to the change control board

Formal change request is the first step.

C

Update the project baseline immediately

D

Reject the change because it impacts the baseline

Why: In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow a formal change control process. The project manager first assesses the impact, then submits a change request to the Change Control Board (CCB) for approval before any action is taken. Implementing the change or updating baselines without CCB approval violates the control scope process defined in the PMBOK Guide.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A project manager is estimating activity durations for a software development project. The team has historical data from similar projects, but the current project involves new technology that could cause delays. Which estimating technique should the project manager use to account for uncertainty?

A

Parametric estimating

B

Analogous estimating

C

Three-point estimating

Incorporates uncertainty via three values.

D

Bottom-up estimating

Why: Three-point estimating (C) is correct because it explicitly accounts for uncertainty by using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates. The new technology introduces unknown risks, making the triangular or PERT distribution ideal for modeling the potential delay range.
Q4
easyFull explanation →

A project manager is creating the risk management plan. Which document should the project manager reference to identify the risk tolerance of stakeholders?

A

Project scope statement

B

Stakeholder management plan

Contains stakeholder risk tolerance.

C

Project charter

D

Risk register

Why: The stakeholder management plan documents stakeholders' identified needs, expectations, and influence levels, which directly inform their risk tolerance thresholds. The project manager references this plan to understand how different stakeholders perceive risk and what level of risk they are willing to accept, enabling tailored risk responses in the risk management plan.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

During project planning, the team identifies that a task has a duration of 10 days, a predecessor finish-to-start relationship, and a lag of 2 days. What is the earliest the successor task can start if the predecessor starts on day 1?

A

Day 11

B

Day 10

C

Day 12

Correct calculation.

D

Day 13

Why: The predecessor starts on day 1 and has a duration of 10 days, so it finishes at the end of day 10 (assuming work starts at the beginning of day 1). With a finish-to-start relationship and a lag of 2 days, the successor cannot start until 2 days after the predecessor finishes. Therefore, the earliest start for the successor is day 13 (end of day 10 + 2 days lag = start of day 13). Option C is correct because it accounts for both the full duration and the lag.
Q6
mediumFull explanation →

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process? (Select exactly 2.)

A

Work breakdown structure

B

Activity attributes

Output of Define Activities.

C

Activity list

Output of Define Activities.

D

Project schedule

E

Risk register

Why: The Define Activities process is part of Project Schedule Management and produces the activity list and activity attributes as its primary outputs. The activity list identifies all scheduled activities, while activity attributes provide metadata such as predecessors, resources, and constraints. These outputs are essential for further schedule development.

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4

Domain 4: Business Analysis Frameworks

All Business Analysis Frameworks questions
Q1
mediumFull explanation →

A project manager is leading a software development project. The business analyst has identified that the current requirements gathering process does not align with the enterprise's business analysis framework. The team is experiencing frequent scope changes and rework. What should the project manager do first to address this issue?

A

Immediately implement a change control process to manage scope changes.

B

Train the business analyst on the project's requirements gathering techniques.

C

Review the enterprise's business analysis framework and adjust the requirements process to comply with it.

Aligning with the framework ensures consistency and reduces rework.

D

Update the requirements documentation to include a traceability matrix.

Why: Option C is correct because the project manager must first ensure the requirements gathering process aligns with the enterprise's business analysis framework. This alignment is a foundational step to reduce scope changes and rework, as the framework defines standard practices, templates, and governance for requirements management. Without compliance, any change control or documentation updates will be ineffective because the underlying process itself is non-conforming.
Q2
easyFull explanation →

During the planning phase of a project, the business analyst needs to define the solution scope. Which business analysis framework artifact is most appropriate to document the high-level boundaries and capabilities of the solution?

A

User stories

B

Context diagram

A context diagram defines the solution's boundaries and external entities.

C

Business case

D

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Why: The context diagram is the most appropriate artifact for documenting the high-level boundaries and capabilities of a solution during the planning phase. It visually represents the system as a single process, its external entities (actors), and the data flows between them, clearly defining what is inside and outside the solution scope. This aligns with the business analyst's need to capture the solution's scope boundaries without detailing internal processes.
Q3
hardFull explanation →

A business analyst is facilitating a requirements workshop for a new regulatory compliance system. Stakeholders disagree on the priority of two requirements: Requirement X (must meet legal deadline) and Requirement Y (improves user efficiency). The project sponsor insists on including both, but the timeline is tight. What is the best approach to resolve this conflict?

A

Prioritize Requirement X because it is regulatory, and defer Requirement Y.

B

Escalate to the steering committee for a decision.

C

Include both requirements and extend the project deadline.

D

Conduct a feasibility study to evaluate trade-offs and present options.

A feasibility study provides objective data to guide decision-making.

Why: Option D is correct because conducting a feasibility study allows the business analyst to objectively evaluate trade-offs between Requirement X (regulatory compliance) and Requirement Y (user efficiency) within the tight timeline. This approach provides data-driven options (e.g., scope adjustments, resource reallocation) to the project sponsor, enabling an informed decision without prematurely sacrificing either requirement or escalating unnecessarily. It aligns with the BABOK® Guide's principle of collaborative decision-making through analysis rather than assumption.
Q4
easyFull explanation →

A business analyst is using a business analysis framework to identify stakeholders. Which technique is most effective for ensuring all affected parties are considered?

A

Brainstorming with the project team

B

Conducting one-on-one interviews with known stakeholders

C

Creating a stakeholder map and validating with experts

A stakeholder map systematically identifies and categorizes stakeholders.

D

Distributing a questionnaire to the organization

Why: Option C is correct because stakeholder mapping, when validated with experts, systematically identifies all affected parties by visually representing relationships, influence, and impact. This technique leverages expert judgment to cross-check the map against organizational knowledge, ensuring no stakeholder group is overlooked. It is more comprehensive than ad-hoc methods because it follows a structured framework (e.g., PMI's stakeholder identification process) and incorporates validation to fill gaps.
Q5
mediumFull explanation →

During requirements validation, the business analyst discovers that a key requirement conflicts with an existing system constraint. The project manager wants to proceed with the requirement as-is to meet customer expectations. What should the business analyst do?

A

Escalate directly to the project sponsor.

B

Document the conflict, analyze trade-offs, and facilitate a decision with stakeholders.

This follows the business analysis framework for conflict resolution.

C

Modify the requirement to avoid the constraint without informing stakeholders.

D

Accept the project manager's decision and proceed.

Why: Option B is correct because the business analyst's role in requirements validation includes documenting conflicts, analyzing trade-offs (e.g., cost, schedule, technical feasibility), and facilitating a decision among stakeholders. This aligns with the BABOK® Guide's requirement for collaborative decision-making, ensuring that the project manager's desire to meet customer expectations is balanced against the system constraint through an informed, consensus-driven process.
Q6
hardFull explanation →

A business analyst is evaluating the performance of a business analysis framework after project completion. Which metric best indicates the effectiveness of the requirements management process?

A

Schedule variance

B

Number of requirements defects found post-implementation

Defects indicate errors in requirements elicitation or validation.

C

Number of requirements traced to test cases

D

Stakeholder satisfaction survey results

Why: The number of requirements defects found post-implementation directly reflects the quality and completeness of the requirements management process. A high number of defects indicates that requirements were poorly defined, ambiguous, or missed during elicitation and validation, making it the most relevant metric for evaluating the effectiveness of that process.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the CAPM exam?

The CAPM exam has 150 questions and must be completed in 150 minutes. PMI uses a Proficient/Needs Improvement/Below Proficient rating — not a numerical score out of 1000.

What types of questions appear on the CAPM exam?

Scenario-based project management questions covering planning, execution, monitoring, and controlling processes.

How are CAPM questions organised by domain?

The exam covers 4 domains: Agile Frameworks and Methodologies, Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts, Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies, Business Analysis Frameworks. Questions are weighted by domain — higher-weight domains appear more on your actual exam.

Are these the actual CAPM exam questions?

No. These are original exam-style practice questions written against the official PMI CAPM exam objectives. They are not copied from the real exam. Courseiva focuses on genuine understanding, not memorisation of braindumps.

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