Courseiva

ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity CC (CC) — Questions 301375

976 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

Page 4

Page 5 of 14

Page 6
301
MCQhard

An organization's business continuity plan designates a maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of 8 hours for its order processing system. The system's recovery time objective (RTO) is set at 4 hours, and work recovery time (WRT) is estimated at 2 hours. If a disaster occurs at 10:00 AM and the system is restored at 2:00 PM, but additional configuration and data validation take until 3:30 PM to complete, what is the total downtime and is the MTD met?

A.4 hours, MTD exceeded
B.5.5 hours, MTD met
C.4 hours, MTD met
D.5.5 hours, MTD exceeded
AnswerB

Total downtime includes recovery and work recovery time: 5.5 hours, which is less than MTD of 8 hours.

Why this answer

Total downtime is from 10:00 AM to 3:30 PM = 5.5 hours. MTD is 8 hours, so 5.5 hours is within MTD. However, note that RTO (4 hours) was exceeded because system restoration at 2:00 PM is 4 hours after 10:00 AM (exactly 4 hours? Actually 10 AM to 2 PM is 4 hours, so RTO exactly met.

WRT is separate. MTD is met.

302
MCQhard

During a disaster recovery exercise, the system fails to achieve the RTO. Analysis shows that restoring the database from tape takes 3 hours, but the RTO is 2 hours. Which is the most effective solution?

A.Use differential instead of full backups
B.Switch from tape to disk-based backups
C.Implement a hot standby database replica
D.Increase the RTO to 3 hours
AnswerC

A hot replica is synchronized and can be activated immediately, meeting RTO.

Why this answer

The RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a business requirement that cannot be changed by simply adjusting the backup method. A hot standby database replica (e.g., using synchronous replication or Oracle Data Guard) provides near-instant failover, reducing recovery time to minutes, which directly meets the 2-hour RTO. This solution addresses the root cause—the restore process is too slow—by eliminating the need to restore from backup entirely.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that improving backup speed (e.g., switching to disk or differential backups) is sufficient to meet RTO, when the real solution is to eliminate the restore process entirely with a high-availability replica.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because differential backups reduce the amount of data to restore but still require a full restore from tape, which takes 3 hours; the bottleneck is the tape read speed, not the backup type. Option B is wrong because switching to disk-based backups improves restore speed but still involves restoring a full database from backup, which may not reduce the time below 2 hours if the database is large; the fundamental issue is the restore process itself, not the media. Option D is wrong because increasing the RTO to 3 hours violates the business requirement and is not a technical solution; RTO is a predefined objective, not a negotiable parameter in a disaster recovery exercise.

303
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are essential elements of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Select 2 answers
A.A network topology diagram
B.List of all employees
C.Identification of critical business functions
D.Assignment of IP addresses
E.Determination of maximum acceptable outage (MAO)
AnswersC, E

A core element of BIA.

Why this answer

Identifying critical business functions is a core element of a BIA. The BIA determines which systems and processes are essential for business operations, and without this identification, you cannot prioritize recovery efforts or allocate resources effectively during a disaster.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between BIA elements (like critical functions and MAO) and technical implementation details (like IP addresses or network diagrams), so candidates mistakenly choose options that sound technical but are irrelevant to the BIA process.

304
MCQhard

After a security breach, the organization conducts a background check on a new vendor before signing a contract. This practice is known as:

A.Risk acceptance
B.Risk avoidance
C.Due diligence
D.Due care
AnswerC

Correct. Background checks are part of due diligence.

Why this answer

Due diligence involves investigating and verifying before acting.

305
MCQmedium

An attacker captures network traffic and forges the source IP address to impersonate a trusted host. Which type of network threat is this?

A.Sniffing
B.Spoofing
C.Man-in-the-middle
D.Denial of Service
AnswerB

Correct. Forging source IP is IP spoofing.

Why this answer

Spoofing involves falsifying source addresses (IP, ARP, email).

306
MCQeasy

During a disaster recovery test, the team discovers that the backup generator fails to start. What is the BEST immediate action?

A.Continue the test with manual procedures
B.Cancel the test
C.Document the issue and proceed
D.Shut down the data center
AnswerC

During a disaster recovery test, the immediate priority is to comprehensively identify all weaknesses within the recovery plan, not to fix issues as they arise. Documenting the generator failure and continuing the test allows the team to uncover further potential problems downstream that might be masked or missed if the test were halted. This approach ensures a complete assessment of the entire disaster recovery process, satisfying the diagnostic objective of a test scenario.

Why this answer

The immediate priority during a disaster recovery test is to document the failure and continue the test to evaluate the remaining components of the DR plan. The backup generator failure is a specific issue that should be logged for post-test remediation, but aborting the test prematurely would lose valuable data on other failover mechanisms, such as UPS runtime, network redundancy, or application recovery. Proceeding with documentation ensures the test's integrity while capturing the incident for root cause analysis.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that any hardware failure during a DR test automatically invalidates the entire test, tempting candidates to choose 'Cancel the test' (Option B) instead of recognizing that documentation and continuation preserve the test's value for other critical components.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because continuing the test with manual procedures bypasses the automated failover that the generator was supposed to support, invalidating the test's ability to measure true recovery time objectives (RTOs) and recovery point objectives (RPOs). Option B is wrong because canceling the test discards the opportunity to validate all other DR components (e.g., storage replication, DNS failover, load balancer health checks) that are independent of the generator; a partial test with documented issues is more valuable than no test. Option D is wrong because shutting down the data center is an extreme, unnecessary action that would cause a full outage, violating the principle of minimizing disruption during a test; the generator failure alone does not indicate an immediate safety or data loss risk.

307
MCQeasy

A Security Operations Center (SOC) Tier 1 analyst notices an alert for a failed login attempt from an unusual geographic location. What is the primary responsibility of a Tier 1 analyst in this scenario?

A.Escalate the alert to Tier 2 for further investigation.
B.Perform advanced forensic analysis on the affected system.
C.Conduct threat hunting to identify similar patterns.
D.Implement a firewall rule to block all traffic from that location.
AnswerA

Tier 1 triages and escalates suspicious alerts.

Why this answer

Tier 1 analysts monitor alerts, triage them, and escalate potential incidents to higher tiers for deeper investigation.

308
MCQhard

A company conducts a background check on a new vendor before signing a contract. This activity is an example of:

A.Due diligence
B.Risk avoidance
C.Due care
D.Risk transfer
AnswerA

Background checks are part of due diligence to assess risks before commitment.

Why this answer

Due diligence involves investigating and verifying a vendor's security posture and trustworthiness before engagement.

309
MCQmedium

In the context of identification and authentication, which of the following is an example of authentication?

A.Entering a username
B.Being assigned a user ID
C.Providing a fingerprint scan
D.Swiping an access badge
AnswerC

A biometric scan proves the claimed identity, thus authentication.

Why this answer

Authentication is the process of proving a claimed identity. Providing a fingerprint matches the user's biometric data, verifying identity.

310
Multi-Selecthard

During a ransomware incident, the incident response team has completed the containment and eradication phases. According to the NIST incident response framework, which THREE of the following activities are part of the post-incident activity phase?

Select 3 answers
A.Conduct a lessons learned meeting to identify improvements.
B.Retain evidence and logs for legal or regulatory purposes.
C.Notify affected customers of the data breach.
D.Update the incident response plan based on findings.
E.Harden system configurations to prevent reinfection.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct. Lessons learned is a key post-incident activity.

Why this answer

The post-incident activity phase includes lessons learned, evidence retention, and updating incident response plans. System hardening is part of eradication, and customer notification may occur during recovery or communication, but not strictly part of the post-incident phase in the NIST framework.

311
MCQmedium

After a ransomware attack, the IT team restores systems from backups. The CEO asks how quickly data can be recovered. Which metric addresses the acceptable amount of data loss?

A.Work Recovery Time (WRT)
B.Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
C.Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)
D.Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
AnswerD

RPO defines maximum data loss (e.g., last backup).

Why this answer

RPO defines the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time.

312
MCQeasy

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues and suspects a problem at the Data Link layer. Which of the following addresses would be most relevant to examine?

A.IP address
B.MAC address
C.Port number
D.Domain name
AnswerB

MAC addresses are used at Layer 2 for frame delivery.

Why this answer

The Data Link layer (Layer 2) uses MAC addresses to identify devices on the same network segment. IP addresses operate at the Network layer (Layer 3), and port numbers at the Transport layer (Layer 4).

313
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a patch management program. Which of the following is the BEST approach to minimize risk while maintaining operational stability?

A.Skip patches that are not related to security.
B.Apply patches to all systems simultaneously.
C.Only patch systems that are internet-facing.
D.Deploy patches to a test environment before production.
AnswerD

Testing identifies compatibility issues before production deployment.

Why this answer

The best approach because deploying patches to a test environment before production allows the organization to identify potential issues, such as compatibility problems or stability regressions, without affecting live systems. This minimizes operational risk while still addressing security vulnerabilities. Option A is risky because non-security patches may fix critical stability issues; Option B ignores the need for testing and could cause widespread outages; Option C overlooks vulnerabilities on internal systems, which can be exploited as pivot points.

314
MCQeasy

A network administrator needs to provide secure remote access to internal resources for employees working from home. The solution must encrypt all traffic and authenticate users before granting access. Which protocol should be used?

A.SSH
B.IPsec
C.SSL/TLS VPN
D.SNMPv3
AnswerC

SSL/TLS VPN provides encrypted remote access with user authentication, suitable for this requirement.

Why this answer

C is correct because SSL/TLS VPNs (e.g., Cisco AnyConnect) provide encrypted tunnels over HTTPS (port 443) and support user authentication via certificates, RADIUS, or LDAP. This allows secure remote access to internal resources without requiring a persistent IPsec tunnel, making it ideal for home workers with dynamic IPs.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between site-to-site IPsec (which is network-layer and device-oriented) and remote-access SSL/TLS VPNs (which are user-oriented and firewall-friendly), leading candidates to pick IPsec for any 'secure remote access' scenario.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SSH provides encrypted remote shell access but is not designed to tunnel all traffic or authenticate users for broad internal resource access; it typically requires a separate VPN solution for full network-layer encryption. Option B is wrong because IPsec VPNs require client software and often complex configuration (e.g., IKEv1/IKEv2, pre-shared keys), and while they encrypt traffic, they are less flexible for user-based authentication over HTTPS and can be blocked by firewalls. Option D is wrong because SNMPv3 provides encrypted management of network devices (using AES/SHA) but is not a remote access protocol; it is used for monitoring, not for user authentication or tunneling traffic to internal resources.

315
MCQhard

During a penetration test, an analyst discovers that a company's internal network has a switch configured with port security that allows only one MAC address per port. However, the analyst is able to plug a rogue device into a wall jack and successfully gain network access. What is the most likely weakness in this configuration?

A.The administrator configured 'port-security maximum 1' but forgot to enable 'port-security' globally.
B.The switchport security violation mode is set to 'shutdown' instead of 'restrict'.
C.The switchport uses sticky MAC learning, and the attacker used a MAC spoofing attack to mimic an authorized device.
D.The switchport is configured as an access port but the rogue device is using a VLAN trunk.
AnswerC

Sticky MAC learns the first MAC; spoofing that MAC allows access.

Why this answer

Port security with sticky MAC learning records the first MAC address seen on a port and then restricts access to that address only. However, if an attacker spoofs the MAC address of an already-authorized device, the switch sees the spoofed MAC as valid and permits access, bypassing the one-MAC-per-port restriction. This is a common bypass when sticky MAC is used without additional protections like 802.1X or MAC authentication bypass (MAB).

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that 'port-security maximum 1' alone prevents any unauthorized device, but the trap here is that sticky MAC learning does not prevent MAC spoofing—it only restricts the number of unique MACs, not the identity of the device using that MAC.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'port-security maximum 1' is a per-interface command; port security does not require a global 'enable' command—it is enabled per interface with 'switchport port-security'. Option B is wrong because changing the violation mode from 'shutdown' to 'restrict' would still drop or log violations but not prevent the initial spoofing attack—the issue is that the spoofed MAC is not considered a violation at all. Option D is wrong because configuring the port as an access port with a rogue device using a VLAN trunk would cause a mismatch (native VLAN or DTP negotiation), but the question states the attacker gains access, implying successful communication; trunking does not bypass MAC address filtering.

316
MCQmedium

A company wants to ensure that a message received was not altered in transit. Which principle is of primary concern?

A.Availability
B.Authentication
C.Confidentiality
D.Integrity
AnswerD

Integrity ensures data is unaltered.

Why this answer

Correct: D. Integrity ensures data has not been modified in transit. Option A (Availability) ensures that systems are accessible when needed, not related to data alteration.

Option B (Authentication) verifies the identity of users or systems, not data integrity. Option C (Confidentiality) protects data from unauthorized disclosure, not modification.

317
MCQmedium

A company requires all visitors to sign in, wear a visible badge, and be escorted while on premises. This is an example of:

A.Separation of duties
B.Logical access control
C.Defense in depth
D.Visitor management
AnswerD

Visitor management includes sign-in, badges, and escorts.

Why this answer

Visitor management procedures help control physical access of non-employees.

318
MCQmedium

During an incident, the incident response team identifies that a malware infection is spreading. They isolate affected systems to prevent further damage. Which phase of the incident response process are they performing?

A.Recovery
B.Eradication
C.Detection
D.Containment
AnswerD

Containment stops the spread and limits damage.

Why this answer

Containment aims to limit the scope of the incident.

319
MCQeasy

Which type of backup copies all data that has changed since the last full backup, regardless of any subsequent incremental or differential backups?

A.Full backup
B.Differential backup
C.Incremental backup
D.Synthetic full backup
AnswerB

Differential backup copies all changes since the last full backup.

Why this answer

Differential backup backs up all changes since the last full backup. Incremental backs up changes since any last backup.

320
MCQeasy

Which type of access control is implemented by a cable lock attached to a laptop?

A.Administrative access control
B.Physical access control
C.Logical access control
D.Technical access control
AnswerB

Correct. Cable locks are physical.

Why this answer

Cable locks are physical security controls that prevent theft.

321
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are primary objectives of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Comply with regulations
B.Ensure employee safety
C.Restore IT systems within RTO
D.Minimize financial loss
E.Protect brand reputation
AnswersB, D

Employee safety is the highest priority in any continuity plan.

Why this answer

BCP focuses on ensuring employee safety and minimizing financial loss. Restoring IT systems is part of disaster recovery, not the primary BCP goal.

322
MCQmedium

A company's physical security includes fencing, security guards, access badges, and biometric locks on server room doors. This layered approach is an example of which access control concept?

A.Least privilege
B.Need-to-know
C.Separation of duties
D.Defense in depth
AnswerD

Defense in depth is the strategy of using multiple security layers.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple overlapping physical and logical controls to protect assets.

323
MCQmedium

A company uses redundant servers and automated failover to ensure that its website remains accessible during a server outage. Which principle of the CIA triad is being addressed?

A.Non-repudiation
B.Integrity
C.Availability
D.Confidentiality
AnswerC

Redundancy and failover increase system uptime, ensuring availability.

Why this answer

Redundancy and failover ensure that authorized users can access systems when needed, which is availability.

324
MCQeasy

Which type of authentication factor involves something the user knows?

A.Type 1 (knowledge)
B.Type 2 (possession)
C.Type 4 (location)
D.Type 3 (inherence)
AnswerA

Correct. Knowledge factors are things the user knows.

Why this answer

Type 1 (knowledge) factors include passwords, PINs, and passphrases.

325
MCQhard

A company has implemented a role-based access control (RBAC) system. A new employee in the finance department is granted the 'Finance User' role, which allows them to view invoices but not create payments. However, after a system upgrade, it is discovered that the 'Finance User' role now includes the ability to create payments due to a misconfiguration. The employee did not request this additional privilege and has not exploited it. The security team is notified. Which principle has been violated, and what is the most appropriate immediate action?

A.Separation of duties; disable the employee's account until an investigation is complete
B.Accountability; remove the 'Finance User' role from all employees
C.Least privilege; revoke the employee's access permanently
D.Least privilege; correct the role permissions to only what is necessary
AnswerD

This restores the principle without impacting the employee's legitimate duties.

Why this answer

Correct: Least privilege is violated because the employee has more permissions than needed. The immediate action is to correct the role permissions to only what is necessary (option D). Option A is wrong because separation of duties is not the violated principle; the employee did not misuse the privilege, so disabling the account is too extreme.

Option B is wrong because accountability is not the issue, and removing the role from all employees is overly broad. Option C is wrong because revoking the employee's access permanently is too harsh and does not address the root cause.

326
MCQhard

An organization's security policy requires that all access to sensitive data must be approved by a data owner. An administrator configures a system to enforce this. Which principle is being implemented?

A.Accountability
B.Least privilege
C.Non-repudiation
D.Authorization
AnswerD

Authorization determines what actions an authenticated user is permitted to perform, based on approval from the data owner.

Why this answer

Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the authenticated user's permissions. In this scenario, the requirement that access must be approved by a data owner before granting access is a classic example of implementing authorization controls. Option A (Accountability) is incorrect because accountability involves tracking user actions and holding users responsible, not requiring approval.

Option B (Least privilege) is incorrect because least privilege is about granting the minimum necessary permissions, but it does not require a separate approval step by a data owner. Option C (Non-repudiation) is incorrect because non-repudiation ensures that a party cannot deny having performed an action, typically through digital signatures or logs, not through access approvals.

327
MCQhard

During an incident, the security team detects unusual outbound traffic from a server that normally does not communicate externally. The traffic appears to be encrypted and is sent to an unknown IP address. Which incident category best describes this scenario?

A.Malware
B.Denial of service
C.Social engineering
D.Data breach
AnswerD

Unusual outbound encrypted traffic to an unknown IP is a strong indicator of data exfiltration, which is a data breach incident.

Why this answer

Unauthorized access or data exfiltration is indicated by unusual outbound traffic to an unknown IP, suggesting a compromised server sending data externally.

328
MCQmedium

A company performs background checks on potential employees before hiring. This action demonstrates which concept?

A.Due diligence
B.Risk avoidance
C.Due care
D.Risk transfer
AnswerA

Background checks are an investigative process.

Why this answer

Due diligence involves investigating before acting, such as background checks.

329
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO principles are essential for ensuring accountability in an information system? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Confidentiality
B.Availability
C.Least privilege
D.Audit trails
E.Non-repudiation
AnswersD, E

Audit trails record actions, enabling traceability and accountability.

330
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are considered risk management strategies? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Risk acceptance
B.Risk assessment
C.Risk analysis
D.Risk transfer
E.Risk mitigation
AnswersA, D, E

Acceptance is a valid risk management strategy.

Why this answer

Risk management strategies include acceptance, mitigation, transfer, and avoidance. Acceptance, mitigation, and transfer are correct.

331
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of sensitive PII? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Name
B.Medical records
C.Email address
D.IP address
E.Biometric data
AnswersB, E

Correct. Medical records are sensitive PII.

Why this answer

Sensitive PII includes medical records and biometrics. Name and email are general PII; IP address is not PII alone.

332
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to recover a system from a verified backup after a ransomware attack into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Recovery requires isolation, backup verification, wiping, restoration, and scanning.

333
MCQhard

A session timeout automatically logs out a user after a period of inactivity. This control primarily protects against:

A.Password cracking
B.Unauthorized access from an unattended workstation
C.Brute force attacks
D.Shoulder surfing
AnswerB

Session timeouts reduce risk of session hijacking if user walks away.

Why this answer

Session timeouts prevent unauthorized access from an unattended active session.

334
MCQhard

A system administrator accidentally grants a user full administrative rights instead of read-only. Which control would best detect this error?

A.Preventive control
B.Deterrent control
C.Corrective control
D.Detective control
AnswerD

Detective controls like audit logs can detect the misconfiguration.

Why this answer

Detective controls, such as audit logs and monitoring, identify misconfigurations after they occur. Option A (Preventive) blocks errors. Option B (Deterrent) discourages.

Option C (Corrective) fixes issues. Option D (Detective) detects the error.

335
MCQeasy

A company is developing a business continuity plan. Which document identifies critical business functions and their dependencies, including the maximum acceptable downtime?

A.Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)
B.Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
C.Incident Response Plan (IRP)
D.Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
AnswerD

The BIA identifies critical functions, dependencies, and metrics like MTD, RTO, and RPO.

Why this answer

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies critical business functions, dependencies, and quantifies the impact of disruptions, including maximum tolerable downtime (MTD).

336
MCQmedium

An employee uses their username to claim an identity and then enters a password to prove it. What is the term for the process of proving the claimed identity?

A.Authorization
B.Accounting
C.Authentication
D.Identification
AnswerC

Authentication verifies the claimed identity.

Why this answer

Authentication is the process of proving a claimed identity (e.g., via password, biometric).

337
MCQhard

You are a security analyst at a medium-sized company with 500 employees. The company uses a centralized log management system that collects logs from all servers and network devices. For the past week, you have noticed a pattern: every night at 2:00 AM, a series of failed login attempts occurs on the domain controller from an internal IP address (10.10.50.100). The attempts use the username "Administrator" and are always from the same workstation in the accounting department. The accounting department operates 9 AM to 6 PM, so no one is in the office at 2 AM. You have checked the workstation's physical security; it is in a locked office with access only by authorized accounting staff. The workstation is running Windows 10 with up-to-date antivirus and has no signs of compromise. You also checked the network switch logs and see that the workstation is connected to a specific port. You suspect the workstation might be compromised or being used remotely. What is the most appropriate next step?

A.Reimage the workstation with a clean OS image and reset all passwords.
B.Perform a forensic analysis of the workstation to identify any malware or remote access tools.
C.Increase the password complexity requirements for the domain.
D.Immediately block the IP address at the firewall and disable the administrator account.
AnswerB

Forensic analysis can uncover the source of the logins and determine if the workstation is truly compromised.

Why this answer

The pattern of failed logins at 2 AM from a locked workstation with no signs of compromise strongly suggests a remote access tool (RAT) or hidden malware that is not detected by standard antivirus. Forensic analysis of the workstation is the most appropriate next step to identify the specific malware or remote access tool, its persistence mechanism, and the attacker's entry point, which is essential before taking any remediation actions. This aligns with the incident response process of identification and analysis before containment or eradication.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the candidate's ability to prioritize the incident response process; the trap here is that many candidates jump to containment (reimaging, blocking IP) or prevention (password complexity) without first performing forensic analysis to understand the scope and method of the compromise.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reimaging the workstation without first performing forensic analysis would destroy critical evidence needed to understand the attack vector, the malware's behavior, and the attacker's methods, potentially allowing the attacker to regain access through another compromised system. Option C is wrong because increasing password complexity does not address the root cause; the attacker is already using a valid username ('Administrator') and the failed logins are from a specific workstation, indicating a targeted attack rather than a brute-force password guessing issue. Option D is wrong because immediately blocking the IP address and disabling the administrator account is premature; the internal IP (10.10.50.100) belongs to a legitimate workstation, and disabling the account could disrupt business operations, while the attacker may have other access methods or accounts that would remain undetected.

338
MCQmedium

When implementing multi-factor authentication, which combination of factors is considered strongest?

A.Password and PIN
B.Password and security question
C.Smart card and biometric
D.Biometric and fingerprint
AnswerC

Smart card is Type 2 (possession) and biometric is Type 3 (inherence), combining two different types.

Why this answer

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) requires combining two or more different types of factors. The three categories are: something you know (Type 1), something you have (Type 2), and something you are (Type 3). A smart card falls under Type 2 (possession), while a biometric falls under Type 3 (inherence).

Combining two different categories is stronger than using two factors from the same category, such as password and PIN (both Type 1) or biometric and fingerprint (both Type 3).

339
MCQmedium

During a forensic investigation, it is crucial to preserve the original evidence. What is the first step the investigator should take when acquiring a hard drive?

A.Boot the drive to check for operating system errors
B.Turn off the computer and remove the hard drive
C.Create a forensic image using a write blocker
D.Calculate the hash of the original drive
AnswerC

A write-blocked forensic image ensures no data is altered during acquisition.

Why this answer

Creating a bit-for-bit forensic image using a write blocker preserves the original evidence. Option D (calculate the hash) is done after imaging to verify integrity. Option A (booting the drive) would modify data and compromise the evidence.

Option B (turning off the computer and removing the hard drive) may be necessary but is not the first step in acquisition; the first step is to create a forensic image with a write blocker.

340
MCQmedium

An attacker sends an email to an employee that appears to come from the CEO, asking for sensitive data. This is an example of which type of threat?

A.Spoofing
B.Phishing
C.Man-in-the-middle
D.Sniffing
AnswerB

Phishing is a social engineering attack where an attacker sends a fraudulent communication (often email) that appears to come from a trusted source to trick the recipient into providing sensitive information. This scenario perfectly matches phishing.

Why this answer

The attack is a form of phishing, where an attacker uses social engineering via email (appearing to be the CEO) to trick the employee into revealing sensitive data. Phishing is a broader category of social engineering attacks that often use spoofing techniques, but the threat itself is classified as phishing.

341
Multi-Selecthard

A company is implementing separation of duties for financial transactions. Which of the following are examples of this principle? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.One employee creates a purchase order, another approves it
B.Two managers must approve any payment over $5,000
C.A manager can both initiate and approve a wire transfer
D.All employees use the same password for the accounting system
E.A user has read-only access to financial reports
AnswersA, B

Dual control over purchases.

Why this answer

Separation of duties requires multiple people to complete a critical task to prevent fraud.

342
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are methods to ensure non-repudiation? (Select two).

Select 2 answers
A.Audit logs
B.Biometric authentication
C.Digital signatures
D.Access control lists
E.Encryption
AnswersA, C

Correct. Audit logs provide evidence of actions, supporting non-repudiation.

Why this answer

Digital signatures provide cryptographic proof of origin, and audit logs provide a record of actions. Together they ensure that a party cannot deny involvement.

343
Multi-Selectmedium

According to the NIST incident response lifecycle, which three phases are considered the core phases?

Select 3 answers
A.Root cause analysis
B.Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
C.Incident declaration
D.Detection and Analysis
E.Preparation
AnswersB, D, E

This phase focuses on stopping the incident and restoring operations.

Why this answer

The NIST incident response lifecycle (SP 800-61) defines four phases: Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment Eradication and Recovery, and Post-Incident Activity. The core phases that form the active response cycle are Preparation (option E), Detection and Analysis (option D), and Containment Eradication and Recovery (option B). These three are the essential operational phases, while Post-Incident Activity is a follow-up phase.

Options A and C are not separate phases but activities within other phases.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between the core phases and sub-activities within them, so candidates mistakenly select root cause analysis or incident declaration as separate phases instead of recognizing they are tasks within the Post-Incident Activity or Detection and Analysis phases.

344
MCQhard

A multinational corporation has a policy that all sensitive emails must be digitally signed and encrypted. However, during a recent internal audit, it was discovered that many employees were not using digital signatures because the process was cumbersome. As a result, the company could not prove that certain emails were actually sent by the claimed sender. The security team needs to improve compliance without sacrificing security. Which of the following is the best approach?

A.Implement a mandatory training program emphasizing the importance of digital signatures.
B.Reduce the encryption strength to speed up the signing process.
C.Integrate the signing process seamlessly into the email client to reduce friction.
D.Allow employees to use personal signing certificates.
AnswerC

Seamless integration improves user compliance while maintaining security.

Why this answer

Integrating the signing process seamlessly into the email client reduces friction and increases compliance while maintaining security. Training alone does not address the cumbersome process, reducing encryption strength weakens security, and allowing personal certificates complicates management.

345
MCQeasy

A small business has a single server that hosts critical applications. The server's hard drive fails, and the most recent backup is 3 days old. The backup is stored on an external drive that is kept in the same room as the server. The server is also the domain controller and file server. After replacing the drive and restoring from backup, the IT administrator discovers that some user files are missing because they were created after the backup. The administrator needs to minimize data loss in the future. Which of the following should be implemented?

A.Use a cloud-based backup solution.
B.Perform daily backups and store them offsite.
C.Implement RAID 1 for disk redundancy.
D.Enable versioning on the file server.
AnswerA

Provides automated offsite backups with flexible scheduling, reducing data loss risk.

Why this answer

A cloud-based backup solution automatically stores backups offsite, ensuring that even if the local site is compromised or the backup drive fails, recent data is recoverable. This minimizes data loss by enabling more frequent backups (e.g., hourly or continuous) without relying on manual intervention or physical media rotation, directly addressing the 3-day gap in the scenario.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between high availability (RAID, redundancy) and backup/disaster recovery, leading candidates to mistakenly choose RAID 1 as a solution for data loss when it only protects against hardware failure, not data corruption or user error.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because performing daily backups and storing them offsite still leaves a potential 24-hour data loss window, and the backup frequency (daily) does not address the need for more granular recovery of files created after the last backup. Option C is wrong because RAID 1 provides disk redundancy against a single drive failure but does not protect against data loss from accidental deletion, corruption, or the need to recover files created after a backup; it is not a backup solution. Option D is wrong because enabling versioning on the file server (e.g., Windows Previous Versions or Volume Shadow Copy) only protects against accidental modification or deletion of files that exist on the server, not against the loss of files that were created after the last backup and never existed in a previous version.

346
MCQmedium

A company experiences a data breach where customer PII was exfiltrated. The incident response team contains the breach and restores systems. Which step in the risk management process should the company prioritize next to prevent recurrence?

A.Risk mitigation
B.Risk communication
C.Risk assessment
D.Risk identification
AnswerA

Risk mitigation (treatment) is the next step to reduce the risk of recurrence.

Why this answer

After an incident, risk treatment involves implementing controls to reduce risk. Risk identification already occurred.

347
MCQmedium

A company's critical database must be recovered within 4 hours after a disaster, and they can tolerate losing up to 1 hour of data. During a disaster, after the systems are restored, it takes an additional 30 minutes to verify data integrity and resume normal operations. Which metric is represented by the 4-hour requirement?

A.Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)
B.Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
C.Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
D.Work Recovery Time (WRT)
AnswerB

RTO is the maximum time allowed to restore systems and data.

Why this answer

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time to restore systems and data after a disaster.

348
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is reviewing network traffic and notices that some devices are using a protocol that does not guarantee delivery and has no error recovery. Which ONE transport layer protocol fits this description? (Select ONE)

Select 1 answer
A.TCP
B.HTTP
C.ICMP
D.UDP
E.ARP
AnswersD

UDP is a transport layer protocol that is connectionless and does not guarantee delivery or provide error recovery, fitting the description perfectly.

Why this answer

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a transport layer protocol that does not guarantee delivery and has no error recovery. TCP is connection-oriented and provides reliability. HTTP and ARP are not transport layer protocols.

ICMP operates at the network layer, not the transport layer. Therefore, UDP correctly fits the description.

349
MCQmedium

In the OSI model, which layer uses MAC addresses to forward frames and supports VLANs?

A.Layer 2 - Data Link
B.Layer 4 - Transport
C.Layer 3 - Network
D.Layer 1 - Physical
AnswerA

Correct. MAC addressing, switching, and VLANs are Layer 2 functions.

Why this answer

Layer 2 (Data Link) uses MAC addresses and switches; VLANs operate at this layer.

350
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is implementing a security awareness program. Which THREE topics should be included to address common social engineering attacks? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Tailgating awareness
B.Secure coding practices
C.USB drop attack risks
D.Recognizing phishing emails
E.Password complexity requirements
AnswersA, C, D

Correct. Tailgating exploits human courtesy to gain physical access.

Why this answer

Phishing, tailgating, and USB drop attacks are common social engineering vectors. Password security, while important, is more about authentication hygiene.

351
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO are appropriate methods to test a disaster recovery plan?

Select 2 answers
A.Parallel test
B.Regression test
C.Acceptance test
D.Simulation test
E.Unit test
AnswersA, D

A common DR test method.

Why this answer

A parallel test is appropriate because it runs the DR site in parallel with the production environment, allowing validation of failover processes and data replication without impacting live operations. This method verifies that the backup systems can handle real workloads and that synchronization mechanisms (e.g., asynchronous replication or log shipping) are functioning correctly. It provides a high-confidence check of the DR plan's effectiveness while maintaining business continuity.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between DR testing methods (parallel, simulation, walkthrough) and software development testing types (unit, regression, acceptance), leading candidates to incorrectly select development tests as valid DR validation techniques.

352
Multi-Selectmedium

A security administrator is configuring a session timeout policy. Which of the following are valid reasons for implementing session timeouts? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enforce password complexity requirements
B.Limit the window for session hijacking attacks
C.Provide single sign-on functionality
D.Prevent brute-force attacks on passwords
E.Reduce the risk of unauthorized access from unattended workstations
AnswersB, E

Shorter timeouts reduce the time an attacker can use a stolen session.

Why this answer

Session timeouts mitigate unauthorized access from unattended sessions and reduce risk of session hijacking.

353
MCQmedium

A company's SIEM solution aggregates logs from various sources and generates an alert when multiple failed logins occur within a short timeframe. Which log source is most likely to provide the data for this alert?

A.System logs
B.Firewall logs
C.Application logs
D.Authentication logs
AnswerD

Authentication logs capture login successes and failures.

Why this answer

Authentication logs record login attempts, including failures, and are the primary source for detecting brute-force attacks.

354
MCQhard

A security analyst reviews firewall logs and notices a large number of outbound connections from a single internal IP to a known malicious IP on port 445. The analyst quarantines the workstation and runs an antivirus scan, which finds no malware. What should the analyst do next?

A.Conclude that the scan is clean and remove the quarantine.
B.Reimage the workstation immediately.
C.Block all outbound traffic on port 445 from the internal network.
D.Analyze network traffic to identify the process responsible for the connections.
AnswerD

Further investigation helps identify the root cause.

Why this answer

The absence of malware detection does not rule out malicious activity; the connections could be caused by a legitimate process that has been abused (e.g., a vulnerable service or script) or by fileless malware that evades signature-based scans. Analyzing network traffic with tools like Wireshark or NetFlow can identify the source process (e.g., via Windows Event Logs or Sysmon), the exact data being sent, and whether the traffic is encrypted or uses SMB protocol specifics on port 445. This forensic step is essential before taking irreversible actions like reimaging or broad blocking.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that a clean antivirus scan means the system is secure, when in reality, fileless malware or living-off-the-land binaries (LOLBins) can evade traditional scans and require network-level forensics to detect.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a clean antivirus scan does not guarantee the system is safe—fileless malware, PowerShell-based attacks, or legitimate tools (e.g., PsExec) can generate malicious outbound connections without leaving traditional malware files. Option B is wrong because reimaging destroys forensic evidence and may be premature without understanding the root cause; the analyst should first confirm the process and data exfiltration to determine if containment or remediation is needed. Option C is wrong because blocking all outbound traffic on port 445 from the internal network could disrupt legitimate SMB-based services (e.g., file sharing, printer access) and does not address the specific compromised host; a more targeted block (e.g., only to the malicious IP) or process-level restriction is appropriate.

355
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is deploying network security devices. Which TWO of the following are characteristics of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Select 2 answers
A.Can be placed inline to block malicious traffic
B.Operates in passive mode by monitoring a copy of traffic
C.Can automatically reconfigure firewall rules
D.Ensures zero false positives
E.Generates alerts when suspicious activity is detected
AnswersB, E

IDS typically uses a SPAN port or tap to monitor traffic passively.

Why this answer

IDS is passive, monitors traffic, and generates alerts but does not block traffic. It can be network-based or host-based.

356
MCQmedium

Which backup strategy offers the fastest restore time but requires the most storage space?

A.Incremental backup
B.Differential backup
C.Snapshot backup
D.Full backup
AnswerD

Full backup has fast restore but high storage.

Why this answer

A full backup copies all data, making restore fastest (only one set needed), but it consumes the most storage and time to perform.

357
MCQmedium

An organization's backup strategy includes daily full backups. However, recovery tests show that restoring from tape takes 6 hours longer than expected. What is the most likely cause?

A.Improperly documented recovery procedures
B.Tape drive failure
C.Inadequate storage capacity
D.Insufficient bandwidth
AnswerA

Poor documentation can cause steps to be missed or performed incorrectly, leading to delays.

Why this answer

Improperly documented recovery procedures can lead to incorrect steps or delays during restoration, which is a common cause of extended recovery times.

358
MCQhard

During an incident, a security analyst identifies a SQL injection attack. The team contains the threat by blocking the attacker's IP. Which step should be performed next in the incident response process?

A.Detection
B.Lessons Learned
C.Recovery
D.Eradication
AnswerD

Eradication removes the cause of the incident.

Why this answer

After containment, the next step is eradication to remove the root cause (e.g., fix the vulnerability) before recovery.

359
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE are key components of Active Directory? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Users
B.Firewalls
C.Groups
D.LDAP
E.Organizational Units (OUs)
AnswersA, C, E

Users are objects representing individuals.

Why this answer

Active Directory includes users, groups, and organizational units (OUs). LDAP is a protocol, not a component.

360
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE are core components of the CIA triad? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Confidentiality
B.Integrity
C.Accountability
D.Availability
E.Non-repudiation
AnswersA, B, D

Confidentiality is one of the three core CIA goals.

361
MCQmedium

What is the difference between due care and due diligence in security governance?

A.Due care is proactive; due diligence is reactive
B.They are synonymous
C.Due care refers to implementing security controls; due diligence refers to investigating risks and verifying controls
D.Due diligence is required by law; due care is voluntary
AnswerC

Due care is about doing what a reasonable person would do; due diligence is about assessing and verifying.

Why this answer

Due care is the minimum standard of care (implementing basic security), while due diligence is investigating before acting (e.g., vendor assessments).

362
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this ACL?

A.All HTTPS traffic is permitted
B.Only hosts from 10.0.1.0/24 can access HTTPS on 192.168.2.100
C.HTTPS traffic from 10.0.1.0/24 to 192.168.2.100 is permitted; all other HTTPS is denied
D.The ACL is invalid due to ordering
AnswerC

This accurately describes the combined effect of the permit and deny statements.

Why this answer

The ACL explicitly permits HTTPS (TCP port 443) traffic from source network 10.0.1.0/24 to destination host 192.168.2.100. Since ACLs have an implicit deny all at the end, any HTTPS traffic not matching this permit statement is denied. Option C correctly states that only this specific traffic is permitted and all other HTTPS is denied.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the implicit deny any at the end of ACLs, causing candidates to forget that even if a permit statement exists, all other traffic is denied unless explicitly permitted.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the ACL only permits HTTPS from 10.0.1.0/24 to 192.168.2.100, not all HTTPS traffic. Option B is wrong because it incorrectly implies that only hosts from 10.0.1.0/24 can access HTTPS on 192.168.2.100, but the ACL does not restrict other traffic types or deny other sources from accessing HTTPS on that host—it simply permits this specific flow and denies all other HTTPS implicitly. Option D is wrong because the ACL is valid; the order of a single permit statement does not make it invalid, and there is no rule requiring a specific order for a single entry.

363
MCQmedium

An analyst reviews the exhibit. Which security principle is being violated by allowing root login via SSH?

A.Fail-safe
B.Least privilege
C.Defense in depth
D.Separation of duties
AnswerB

Correct. Root should not be allowed to log in directly.

Why this answer

Allowing root login via SSH violates the principle of least privilege because it grants unrestricted administrative access to the system, bypassing any need for privilege escalation. In a properly secured SSH configuration, root login should be disabled (e.g., `PermitRootLogin no` in `/etc/ssh/sshd_config`), forcing administrators to log in as a regular user and then use `sudo` or `su` to elevate privileges only when necessary. This minimizes the attack surface and ensures that actions are auditable and tied to a specific user account.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between least privilege and defense in depth, where candidates mistakenly choose defense in depth because they think multiple security layers are involved, but the question specifically targets the principle of granting only the minimum necessary access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because fail-safe refers to a system defaulting to a secure state upon failure (e.g., a firewall dropping all traffic if it crashes), not to restricting root access. Option C is wrong because defense in depth involves multiple layers of security controls (e.g., firewalls, IDS, encryption), whereas disabling root login is a single access control measure. Option D is wrong because separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple individuals to prevent fraud or error, which is unrelated to the SSH root login configuration.

364
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to configure a wireless access point with WPA2-PSK security into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Configuring a wireless access point with WPA2-PSK requires a logical sequence: first set the SSID to identify the network, then choose WPA2 as the security mode, then define the pre-shared key (PSK) passphrase, and finally apply the settings. This order ensures all necessary parameters are in place before the configuration is activated, preventing the AP from broadcasting with incomplete security settings.

365
MCQeasy

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two segments separated by a firewall. The firewall rule allows traffic from 10.1.1.0/24 to 10.2.2.0/24 on TCP 443. Users in 10.1.1.0/24 can access the web server at 10.2.2.10, but users in 10.2.2.0/24 cannot access a web server in 10.1.1.0/24. What is the most likely cause?

A.The web server in 10.1.1.0 is blocking the IP range of 10.2.2.0/24.
B.The firewall rule is incorrectly applied to the wrong interface.
C.The subnet masks are misconfigured, causing routing issues.
D.The firewall is not stateful and does not automatically allow return traffic; a separate rule is needed.
AnswerD

Without stateful inspection, each direction requires an explicit rule. The existing rule only covers one direction.

Why this answer

The firewall rule only permits traffic from 10.1.1.0/24 to 10.2.2.0/24 on TCP 443. When users in 10.2.2.0/24 initiate a connection to the web server in 10.1.1.0/24, the firewall sees a new session that does not match the existing rule (source/destination reversed). If the firewall is not stateful, it will not automatically allow the return traffic for the reverse direction, and no separate rule exists to permit that traffic, causing the connectivity failure.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that a single firewall rule allowing traffic in one direction automatically permits the return traffic, but in stateless firewalls or when stateful inspection is disabled, you must explicitly create a rule for the reverse direction.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the web server in 10.1.1.0/24 is not blocking the IP range; the issue is at the firewall, not the server's access control. Option B is wrong because the rule is correctly applied to allow traffic from 10.1.1.0/24 to 10.2.2.0/24, and the problem is the missing rule for the reverse direction, not an interface misapplication. Option C is wrong because subnet mask misconfiguration would cause routing issues for both directions, but users in 10.1.1.0/24 can reach 10.2.2.10 successfully, indicating routing is working; the issue is specifically the lack of a firewall rule for the reverse traffic.

366
MCQeasy

A security administrator notices that a user's account has been used to access sensitive files at unusual hours. Which security principle would most effectively help detect this type of activity?

A.Non-repudiation
B.Availability
C.Integrity
D.Accountability
AnswerD

Accountability tracks user activities and enables detection.

Why this answer

Accountability enables tracking of user actions through logs and monitoring. Option A (Non-repudiation) prevents denial of actions but does not focus on detection. Option B (Availability) ensures data is accessible.

Option C (Integrity) ensures data accuracy.

367
MCQhard

A company is evaluating a new cloud service provider. As part of due diligence, they review the provider's security certifications, conduct a site visit, and check references. This process is an example of which risk management strategy?

A.Risk acceptance
B.Risk mitigation
C.Due diligence
D.Risk transfer
AnswerC

Due diligence is investigating before making decisions.

Why this answer

Due diligence involves investigating before taking action to identify and assess risks.

368
MCQmedium

During a security incident, the incident response team needs to preserve evidence for potential legal action. Which of the following is the most important action to take when collecting volatile data from a compromised server?

A.Capture the contents of RAM.
B.Make a bit-for-bit copy of all storage.
C.Create a forensic image of the hard drive.
D.Review system logs.
AnswerA

Capturing the contents of RAM is crucial because memory holds highly volatile data that would be irretrievably lost upon system shutdown or reboot. This includes active processes, network connections, loaded kernel modules, and potentially malicious code residing solely in memory. Preserving RAM contents directly addresses the requirement to collect 'volatile data' for forensic analysis, ensuring critical evidence is secured before it becomes ephemeral and unusable for potential legal action.

Why this answer

Volatile data in RAM is lost when power is removed. Capturing RAM preserves evidence that might contain running processes, network connections, and encryption keys. Disk images are non-volatile and can be collected later.

369
MCQhard

A security analyst detects an ARP spoofing attack on the local network. What is the primary goal of an ARP spoofing attack?

A.To disable the switch by sending fake VLAN tags
B.To overwhelm the network with broadcast traffic
C.To redirect traffic to the attacker's machine for eavesdropping or modification
D.To corrupt the DNS cache
AnswerC

Correct. ARP spoofing enables man-in-the-middle attacks.

Why this answer

ARP spoofing allows an attacker to intercept traffic by associating their MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate host.

370
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE elements are essential components of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Select 3 answers
A.Data backup schedules and procedures
B.Business impact analysis (BIA) results
C.Incident response team roster
D.Emergency contact lists
E.Detailed network topology diagrams
AnswersA, B, D

Backup procedures ensure data availability.

Why this answer

Data backup schedules and procedures are essential because they ensure that critical data can be restored after a disruption. A BCP must specify the frequency of backups (e.g., daily incremental, weekly full), the retention policy, and the recovery point objective (RPO) to meet business requirements. Without defined schedules and procedures, data loss or corruption could render the recovery process ineffective.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a BCP and an incident response plan, where candidates mistakenly include incident-specific elements like team rosters or forensic procedures as BCP components.

371
MCQmedium

An organization wants to place its public web server, email server, and DNS server in a network that is accessible from the internet but isolated from the internal corporate network. Which network design should be used?

A.DMZ
B.VPN
C.VLAN
D.Subnet
AnswerA

Correct. A DMZ hosts public-facing servers with controlled access.

Why this answer

A DMZ (demilitarized zone) is a buffer network for public-facing servers.

372
Multi-Selectmedium

A SOC analyst is reviewing a security alert about a potential brute-force attack on the company's VPN server. The analyst sees multiple failed login attempts from different IP addresses within a short time frame. Which TWO actions should the analyst take to verify and respond to this incident? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Implement an account lockout policy after a certain number of failed attempts
B.Review the VPN server logs for any successful logins following the failed attempts
C.Notify all users to change their passwords immediately
D.Block all source IP addresses that appeared in the failed attempts
E.Disable VPN access until the attack source is identified
AnswersA, B

Lockout policies mitigate brute-force attacks by limiting attempts.

Why this answer

Options A and B are correct. Implementing an account lockout policy after a certain number of failed attempts helps mitigate brute-force attacks by slowing down attackers. Reviewing VPN server logs for successful logins following the failed attempts helps determine if the attack succeeded and if any accounts were compromised.

Option C (notifying all users to change passwords) is premature and may cause unnecessary alarm; password changes should be based on confirmed compromise. Option D (blocking all source IPs) is not practical because attackers often use many IPs, and legitimate users may be affected. Option E (disabling VPN access) would disrupt business operations and is an extreme measure not yet warranted.

373
MCQmedium

During a disaster recovery test, backup tapes fail to restore data due to format incompatibility. Which element of the Business Continuity Plan should be updated?

A.Plan testing and maintenance
B.Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
C.Recovery strategies
D.Communication plan
AnswerA

This phase includes reviewing test results and updating the plan to fix discovered problems.

Why this answer

The failure of backup tapes to restore data due to format incompatibility indicates that the recovery procedures and tools were not validated during testing. This directly points to a deficiency in the 'Plan testing and maintenance' element, which ensures that backup media formats, restoration tools, and procedures are regularly verified and updated to match the current production environment. Without scheduled testing and maintenance, format drift between backup software versions or hardware changes can render tapes unreadable.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between 'plan testing and maintenance' (which validates technical execution) and 'recovery strategies' (which are high-level design choices), leading candidates to mistakenly select recovery strategies when the root cause is a failure in validation and upkeep.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies critical business functions, recovery time objectives (RTOs), and recovery point objectives (RPOs), but it does not address the technical compatibility of backup media or the validation of restoration procedures. Option C is wrong because recovery strategies define the high-level approach to restoring operations (e.g., hot site, cold site, cloud failover), not the specific testing of backup tape formats or restoration tools. Option D is wrong because the communication plan covers notification and escalation procedures during an incident, not the technical verification of backup media compatibility or the maintenance of restoration capabilities.

374
Multi-Selecthard

When designing a secure network, which TWO of the following are fundamental security principles that should be applied?

Select 2 answers
A.Fail secure
B.Complete mediation
C.Open design
D.Economy of mechanism
E.Least privilege
AnswersA, E

Fail secure ensures security during failures.

Why this answer

Fail secure ensures the system remains secure on failure. Least privilege restricts access to the minimum. The other options are important but less fundamental in network design.

375
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are examples of risk mitigation? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Implementing access controls to limit user permissions
B.Deciding not to fix a low-risk vulnerability due to cost
C.Encrypting sensitive data at rest
D.Installing antivirus software on all endpoints
E.Purchasing cyber insurance
AnswersA, C, D

Access controls reduce risk of unauthorized access.

Why this answer

Risk mitigation involves implementing controls to reduce risk. Installing antivirus, implementing access controls, and using encryption all reduce risk. Transferring risk to insurer is risk transfer, and accepting risk is risk acceptance.

Page 4

Page 5 of 14

Page 6