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ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity CC (CC) — Questions 451525

976 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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451
MCQmedium

A security engineer is designing a DMZ for a web server that must be accessible from the internet. The web server needs to query an internal database server. Which network security approach best limits exposure?

A.Use a single firewall with rules that allow all traffic from the internet to the internal network.
B.Place both servers in the same subnet with a firewall allowing all traffic.
C.Place the database server in the DMZ with the web server.
D.Place the web server in the DMZ and the database server in the internal network, with a firewall allowing only specific traffic from the web server to the database.
AnswerD

This provides proper segmentation and least privilege.

Why this answer

It implements a true DMZ architecture: the web server resides in the DMZ (a semi-trusted zone) while the database server remains in the internal network, protected by a firewall that permits only specific traffic (e.g., TCP/3306 for MySQL or TCP/1433 for MSSQL) from the web server. This minimizes the attack surface by ensuring that even if the web server is compromised, the database server is not directly reachable from the internet, and the firewall enforces strict stateful inspection and access control.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that placing both servers in the DMZ simplifies security, but the trap is that the database server should never be in the DMZ because it contains sensitive data and must be isolated behind an additional firewall layer to enforce defense in depth.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because allowing all traffic from the internet to the internal network bypasses any security boundary, exposing the entire internal network to direct attack and violating the principle of least privilege. Option B is wrong because placing both servers in the same subnet with a firewall allowing all traffic eliminates network segmentation; if the web server is compromised, the database server is on the same broadcast domain and can be attacked laterally without any firewall restriction. Option C is wrong because placing the database server in the DMZ with the web server exposes the database to the internet (even if indirectly), as the DMZ is a less trusted zone; an attacker who compromises the web server can then directly access the database without traversing an additional firewall layer.

452
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of preventive security controls?

Select 2 answers
A.Encryption
B.Backup
C.Antivirus software
D.Firewall
E.Intrusion detection system
AnswersC, D

Antivirus prevents malware execution.

Why this answer

Firewalls and antivirus software are preventive controls that block or stop attacks. IDS is detective, encryption is protective but not primarily preventive, and backup is corrective.

453
MCQeasy

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a session timeout?

A.To automatically log out inactive users
B.To enforce password complexity
C.To restrict access based on need-to-know
D.To prevent brute-force attacks
AnswerA

A session timeout is a crucial security mechanism designed to automatically terminate a user's active session after a specified period of inactivity. This process invalidates the session token or cookie, forcing re-authentication and preventing unauthorised access to an unattended workstation or application. Its primary purpose, as the stem asks, is to enhance security by ensuring inactive users are logged out, mitigating risks of session hijacking or data exposure.

Why this answer

Session timeouts automatically log out idle users after a period of inactivity, reducing the risk of unauthorized access if a user leaves a session open.

454
MCQeasy

Which incident category involves an attacker tricking an employee into revealing their login credentials through a fraudulent email?

A.Social engineering
B.Malware
C.Unauthorised access
D.Denial of service
AnswerA

Social engineering manipulates people into divulging confidential information.

Why this answer

Social engineering, specifically phishing, uses deception to obtain sensitive information.

455
MCQmedium

A user enters a username and password to access a system. Which phase of the access control process does entering the username represent?

A.Accounting
B.Authentication
C.Authorisation
D.Identification
AnswerD

The username identifies who the user claims to be.

Why this answer

Identification is the act of claiming an identity (e.g., username).

456
MCQeasy

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing packets based on IP addresses?

A.Data Link layer
B.Transport layer
C.Network layer
D.Physical layer
AnswerC

Correct. The Network layer routes packets using IP addresses.

Why this answer

The Network layer (Layer 3) handles logical addressing and routing of packets.

457
MCQmedium

An organization is adopting the 3-2-1 backup rule. They currently have data on a primary server and a daily backup to an external hard drive. To comply with the rule, what is the minimum additional requirement?

A.A second external hard drive stored on-site
B.An incremental backup to a network share
C.A full backup on tape stored in the same room
D.A cloud backup stored offsite
AnswerD

Adds a third copy on different media (cloud) and offsite.

Why this answer

3-2-1 rule: 3 copies, 2 different media, 1 offsite. They have 2 copies on 1 media (hard drive). Need a third copy on different media and offsite.

458
MCQmedium

An organization adopts the 3-2-1 backup rule. Which combination of backups satisfies this rule?

A.Primary storage and one tape backup stored offsite
B.Primary storage and two tape backups in the same room
C.Primary storage, backup server (disk), and a second backup server (disk) in the same building
D.Primary storage, backup server (disk), and cloud storage
AnswerD

Three copies: primary, backup server, cloud; two media: disk and cloud; one offsite: cloud.

Why this answer

3-2-1 rule: 3 copies of data, on 2 different media types, 1 offsite. Option D meets all: 3 copies (primary, backup server disk, cloud), 2 media (disk and cloud), 1 offsite (cloud).

459
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst reviews this log entry. What type of attack is most likely occurring?

A.Pass-the-hash attack
B.Brute-force attack
C.Password spraying attack
D.Kerberos ticket attack
AnswerB

Repeated failed attempts on the same account indicate brute-force.

Why this answer

The log entry shows repeated failed authentication attempts against a single username from a single source IP, trying numerous different passwords in a short period. This pattern is characteristic of a brute-force attack, where an attacker systematically tries many password guesses against one target account.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between brute-force and password spraying attacks, where the trap is that candidates confuse the target pattern—brute-force focuses on a single user with many passwords, while password spraying uses one password across many users.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a pass-the-hash attack involves capturing and reusing NTLM or LM password hashes from a compromised system, not repeated login attempts from a single source. Option C is wrong because a password spraying attack uses a single common password against many usernames across multiple accounts, not multiple passwords against a few usernames as shown in the log. Option D is wrong because a Kerberos ticket attack (e.g., Golden Ticket or Silver Ticket) exploits forged or stolen Kerberos TGTs or service tickets, not repeated authentication failures against local or network logins.

460
Multi-Selecteasy

An organization wants to ensure the integrity of a software update before deployment. Which two methods can be used to verify integrity? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Encryption
B.Redundant servers
C.Digital signature
D.Access control lists
E.Hashing
AnswersC, E

Digital signatures provide both authenticity and integrity verification.

Why this answer

Integrity ensures data has not been altered. Hashing produces a digest that can be compared to verify the file has not changed. Digital signatures use asymmetric cryptography to verify authenticity and integrity.

Encryption provides confidentiality, not integrity. Access controls limit who can modify data but do not verify integrity after the fact. Redundancy supports availability.

461
MCQhard

An organization wants to ensure that even if an attacker compromises a user's account, the damage is limited. Which principle is most directly applied?

A.Least privilege
B.Separation of duties
C.Defense in depth
D.Need-to-know
AnswerA

Least privilege minimizes permissions, reducing potential damage.

Why this answer

Least privilege reduces the blast radius of an account compromise.

462
MCQeasy

An organization wants to ensure that critical security events are not missed during off-hours. What is the best practice?

A.Rely on automatic responses
B.Assign on-call duties only to senior analysts
C.Schedule nightly scans
D.Configure a central SIEM with 24/7 monitoring
AnswerD

SIEM provides continuous monitoring and alerting for critical events.

Why this answer

A central SIEM with 24/7 monitoring ensures that security events are continuously analyzed and alerted upon, even during off-hours. This is the best practice because it provides real-time correlation and escalation of critical events, preventing them from being missed. Relying on automatic responses or periodic scans lacks the human oversight needed for complex threat validation.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between proactive security measures (like scheduled scans) and reactive monitoring practices (like 24/7 SIEM analysis), leading candidates to confuse vulnerability management with real-time event detection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because automatic responses (e.g., playbooks or auto-blocking) can only handle predefined, low-complexity events and may miss novel or nuanced threats that require human analysis. Option B is wrong because assigning on-call duties only to senior analysts creates a single point of failure and burnout risk; a layered on-call rotation with all qualified staff is more sustainable. Option C is wrong because scheduling nightly scans (e.g., vulnerability scans) is a proactive measure for finding weaknesses, not a reactive practice for detecting and responding to real-time security events during off-hours.

463
MCQhard

A financial institution has a security operations center that monitors network traffic using a SIEM. The SIEM receives logs from all network devices, servers, and endpoints. One analyst notices an anomaly: a user account, 'jsmith', which is normally used during business hours (9 AM to 5 PM), has been logging in from a remote IP address at 2 AM every day for the past week. The logins are successful, and the user is accessing internal file shares. The user jsmith works in the accounting department and has access to sensitive financial reports. The analyst checks the user's workstation logs and finds that the workstation is powered off at the time of the remote logins. The company uses two-factor authentication, but the log entries show that only the password was used. Which of the following is the most likely explanation and the best immediate action?

A.The user is working overtime from home; no action needed
B.The two-factor authentication system is malfunctioning; reconfigure the 2FA server
C.The user's credentials have been stolen and are being used by an attacker; disable the account
D.The user's workstation is infected with a remote access trojan; run antivirus
AnswerC

This matches the indicators: off-hours, remote IP, no 2FA, workstation off.

Why this answer

The anomaly—successful logins at 2 AM from a remote IP while the user's workstation is powered off and only a password (bypassing 2FA) is used—strongly indicates credential theft and account takeover. The SIEM logs show authentication without the second factor, which means the attacker either obtained the password and bypassed 2FA (e.g., through a phishing attack that captured both factors or a session cookie) or the 2FA was not enforced for this specific remote login. Disabling the account immediately stops the unauthorized access to sensitive financial shares.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a compromised account (where credentials are stolen and used remotely) and a compromised endpoint (where malware is present), and the trap here is that candidates may assume the user's workstation is infected (Option D) because the logins are successful, but the powered-off workstation proves the attacker is authenticating directly from a different device.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the workstation is powered off during the logins, so the user cannot be working from home; the remote logins are from an attacker. Option B is wrong because a 2FA malfunction would likely affect all users or generate error logs, not selectively allow only password-based logins for a single account at odd hours; the issue is credential compromise, not a system misconfiguration. Option D is wrong because the workstation is powered off, so a remote access trojan cannot be active on it; the attacker is logging in directly with stolen credentials, not via malware on the user's machine.

464
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is developing a data classification policy. Which THREE of the following are common classification levels?

Select 3 answers
A.Confidential
B.Restricted
C.Critical
D.Public
E.Sensitive
AnswersA, B, D

Confidential data requires protection.

Why this answer

Public, confidential, and restricted are typical classification levels.

465
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO are phases of the NIST incident response life cycle? (Select exactly 2.)

Select 2 answers
A.Preparation
B.Documentation
C.Assessment
D.Authorization
E.Containment
AnswersA, E

Preparation is the first phase.

Why this answer

Preparation is the first phase of the NIST SP 800-61 incident response life cycle, focusing on establishing policies, tools, and training before an incident occurs. This phase ensures the organization is ready to detect and respond to security events effectively.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between the official NIST phase names and common but incorrect terms like 'Assessment' or 'Documentation', expecting candidates to recall that only 'Preparation' and 'Containment' (as part of Containment/Eradication/Recovery) are explicitly listed phases.

466
MCQeasy

An organization wants to ensure that system logs are tamper-proof after generation. Which control should be implemented?

A.Compress logs before archiving.
B.Use a write-once read-many (WORM) storage device.
C.Store logs on the local hard drive of each server.
D.Encrypt logs during transmission.
AnswerB

WORM devices ensure data cannot be overwritten or deleted.

Why this answer

WORM storage prevents modification or deletion of logs, ensuring tamper-proofing after generation. Option A (compressing logs) does not prevent tampering. Option C (local hard drive) is not tamper-proof.

Option D (encryption in transit) protects during transmission but not at rest on the storage device.

467
MCQhard

A company deploys a firewall that inspects packet headers and maintains a state table to track active connections. It drops any incoming packets that do not match an established connection. What type of firewall is this?

A.Application proxy firewall
B.Stateful inspection firewall
C.Next-generation firewall
D.Packet filtering firewall
AnswerB

Correct. Stateful inspection tracks connection state.

Why this answer

A stateful inspection firewall tracks connections and blocks unsolicited inbound traffic.

468
MCQhard

A financial services firm has a data center that houses customer financial records. They have implemented a defense-in-depth strategy including firewalls, IDS/IPS, and encryption. Recently, an internal audit revealed that a junior administrator has been logging into the database server with a shared admin account and has made unauthorized changes to customer records. The company wants to prevent such incidents in the future while maintaining operational efficiency. The current environment uses Linux servers with PostgreSQL databases. There is no centralized authentication system. What is the BEST action to take?

A.Increase the frequency of password changes for the shared admin account
B.Disable all shared accounts and implement individual accounts with role-based access control and audit logging
C.Use database encryption to prevent unauthorized changes
D.Implement a network access control (NAC) solution to restrict database access to specific IP addresses
AnswerB

Correct. This enforces accountability and least privilege.

Why this answer

The core issue is the lack of accountability due to a shared admin account. Disabling shared accounts and implementing individual accounts with role-based access control (RBAC) and audit logging directly addresses this by ensuring each action is tied to a specific user, enabling non-repudiation and precise forensic analysis. This aligns with the principle of least privilege and is the most effective way to prevent unauthorized changes while maintaining operational efficiency through granular permission management.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that encryption or network controls can solve insider threats, when in reality, only user-level accountability and audit trails can prevent and trace unauthorized actions by authenticated users.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing password change frequency for a shared account does not solve the lack of accountability; multiple users still share credentials, making it impossible to trace who made specific changes. Option C is wrong because database encryption protects data at rest or in transit from external interception, but it does not prevent an authenticated user (the junior admin) from making unauthorized modifications. Option D is wrong because network access control (NAC) restricts which IP addresses can connect to the database, but it does not address the internal threat of an authorized user with a shared account making unauthorized changes from an allowed IP.

469
MCQhard

In a directory service using LDAP, what is the distinguished name (DN) for a user named John Smith in the Sales organizational unit of the company domain company.com?

A.DC=company, DC=com, OU=Sales, CN=John Smith
B.OU=Sales, CN=John Smith, DC=company, DC=com
C.CN=John Smith, OU=Sales, DC=company, DC=com
D.CN=John Smith, DC=Sales, DC=company, DC=com
AnswerC

Correct. This follows the LDAP DN syntax: CN, OU, DC.

Why this answer

The DN format includes CN (common name), OU (organizational unit), and DC (domain components) in order from specific to general.

470
MCQmedium

An organization determines that its critical financial application has a maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of 8 hours. The recovery time objective (RTO) is set to 6 hours, and the work recovery time (WRT) is 2 hours. If the application is restored from backup in 5 hours, but additional configuration takes 3 hours, what is the total downtime, and is the MTD met?

A.Total downtime 10 hours, MTD exceeded
B.Total downtime 8 hours, MTD met
C.Total downtime 8 hours, MTD exceeded
D.Total downtime 5 hours, MTD met
AnswerB

The total downtime is calculated by summing the 5 hours required to restore the application from backup and the 3 hours for additional configuration, equalling 8 hours. This 8-hour total downtime precisely meets the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) of 8 hours specified in the scenario. Consequently, the MTD constraint is satisfied.

Why this answer

Total downtime = restoration (5 hours) + configuration (3 hours) = 8 hours, which equals MTD of 8 hours. So MTD is met (equal to MTD is acceptable).

471
MCQmedium

A security engineer is designing a backup strategy for a critical database. The database must be recoverable within four hours in the event of a failure. Which security principle primarily drives this requirement?

A.Availability
B.Integrity
C.Non-repudiation
D.Confidentiality
AnswerA

The requirement specifies recovery within a time frame, which is a measure of availability.

Why this answer

Availability ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed. The requirement to recover the database within four hours defines a Recovery Time Objective (RTO), which is an availability requirement. Therefore, Option A is correct.

Option B (Integrity) ensures data accuracy and protection from unauthorized modification, not recovery time. Option C (Non-repudiation) prevents denial of actions, which is unrelated. Option D (Confidentiality) protects data from unauthorized disclosure.

472
MCQmedium

A security administrator is configuring a system to prevent unauthorized access after a user leaves their workstation unattended. Which access control mechanism should be implemented?

A.Password complexity
B.Biometric authentication
C.Session timeout
D.Account lockout
AnswerC

Correct. Session timeout automatically logs out idle users.

Why this answer

Session timeouts automatically log out idle users to prevent unauthorized access.

473
MCQhard

In a defense-in-depth strategy, which access control mechanism provides the most granular control over user permissions?

A.Network segmentation
B.Access control lists (ACLs) on files
C.Physical security controls
D.Firewall rules
AnswerB

ACLs provide fine-grained control over who can read, write, or execute individual files.

Why this answer

Access control lists (ACLs) on files provide the most granular control because they allow permissions to be set at the individual file or object level, specifying exactly which users or groups can read, write, execute, or modify that specific resource. This is in contrast to broader mechanisms like network segmentation or firewall rules, which operate at the network or subnet level and cannot distinguish between individual files within a system. ACLs are a fundamental component of discretionary access control (DAC) and are implemented in file systems such as NTFS, ext4, and ZFS.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between network-level controls (like firewall rules and segmentation) and system-level controls (like file ACLs), leading candidates to mistakenly choose a network mechanism when the question asks for the most granular control over user permissions on a resource.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because network segmentation divides a network into smaller segments to limit lateral movement, but it does not control permissions on individual files or objects—it operates at Layer 2/3 and cannot enforce user-level granularity on a file. Option C is wrong because physical security controls (e.g., locks, biometrics, guards) protect the physical environment and assets, but they cannot differentiate between users accessing specific files on a system; they are a coarse, perimeter-level control. Option D is wrong because firewall rules filter traffic based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols at Layers 3/4 (and sometimes Layer 7), but they do not manage permissions on files or objects within an operating system—they control network access, not user permissions on resources.

474
Multi-Selectmedium

A company's security policy requires that employees use only the minimum permissions needed to perform their job functions. This practice reduces the potential impact if an account is compromised. Which TWO access control principles are being applied?

Select 2 answers
A.Defense in depth
B.Separation of duties
C.Privileged access management
D.Need-to-know
E.Least privilege
AnswersD, E

Need-to-know restricts access to data required for the job.

Why this answer

Least privilege ensures users have only the permissions necessary for their role. Need-to-know complements it by limiting access to data that is essential for job duties. Both principles reduce the blast radius of account compromise.

475
MCQhard

You are a security analyst at a mid-sized financial firm. The company has a policy that all remote access must be secured using a VPN. Recently, an employee reported that they were able to connect to the internal network from a coffee shop without using the VPN client. The employee accidentally left the client running but it was not authenticating. Upon investigation, you find that the network administrator had configured a rule on the firewall to allow RDP traffic from any public IP to a specific internal server for maintenance purposes. The rule was supposed to be temporary but was never removed. The server contains sensitive customer data. The incident has been reported to management. Which of the following is the most immediate corrective action you should take?

A.Remove the temporary firewall rule that allows RDP from any public IP
B.Disable RDP access on all servers
C.Conduct a full audit of all firewall rules
D.Implement a security awareness training program for all employees
AnswerA

This immediately closes the unauthorized access path.

Why this answer

The most immediate corrective action is to remove the temporary firewall rule that allows RDP from any public IP. This directly closes the unauthorized access path and mitigates the risk of data exposure. Option B is too broad; disabling RDP on all servers would disrupt legitimate maintenance activities and is not necessary since only one rule is at fault.

Option C, while important, is not immediate; conducting a full audit takes time and does not instantly remove the vulnerability. Option D is a long-term preventive measure and does not address the immediate security gap.

476
Multi-Selecthard

A SOC analyst is investigating an incident where an employee's workstation was compromised via a phishing email. The analyst has captured the following indicators: the email originated from a known malicious domain, the attachment was a macro-enabled document, and the macro executed a PowerShell command that downloaded a payload from a remote server. Which TWO actions should the analyst take immediately as part of the incident response process? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Contact law enforcement immediately.
B.Isolate the workstation from the network.
C.Analyze the macro code in a sandbox.
D.Block the malicious domain at the email gateway.
E.Delete the phishing email from all mailboxes.
AnswersB, D

Isolation contains the threat and prevents spread.

Why this answer

Isolating the workstation from the network is a critical containment step in incident response. It immediately stops the compromised system from communicating with the attacker's command-and-control server, preventing further data exfiltration or lateral movement. This aligns with the NIST SP 800-61 containment strategy, which prioritizes stopping the spread of an incident before deeper analysis.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between immediate containment actions (isolate, block at gateway) and later forensic or administrative steps (analyze macro, contact law enforcement, delete emails) to see if candidates understand the priority of stopping the threat first.

477
MCQeasy

Which OSI layer is responsible for routing packets across networks using IP addresses?

A.Layer 1 - Physical
B.Layer 3 - Network
C.Layer 4 - Transport
D.Layer 2 - Data Link
AnswerB

Correct. Routing and IP addressing occur at Layer 3.

Why this answer

The Network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for logical addressing and routing. It uses IP addresses to determine the best path for packets to travel from source to destination across different networks. Protocols like IP (IPv4/IPv6), OSPF, and BGP operate at this layer to perform routing decisions.

Exam trap

A common pitfall is confusing the Data Link layer's local delivery role (Layer 2) with the Network layer's internetwork routing function (Layer 3). Remember that routing across networks using IP addresses occurs at Layer 3.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Layer 1 (Physical) deals with the physical transmission of raw bits over media (e.g., cables, voltages, frequencies) and has no concept of IP addresses or routing. Option C is wrong because Layer 4 (Transport) provides end-to-end communication, segmentation, and reliability (e.g., TCP/UDP), but it does not perform routing or use IP addresses for path selection. Option D is wrong because Layer 2 (Data Link) handles frame delivery within a single network segment using MAC addresses and protocols like Ethernet, not IP routing across networks.

478
MCQmedium

A system administrator implements version control for all configuration files. Which principle is being strengthened?

A.Availability
B.Confidentiality
C.Accountability
D.Integrity
AnswerD

Version control tracks changes and maintains data integrity.

Why this answer

Version control helps ensure data accuracy and prevents unauthorized changes, supporting integrity.

479
MCQeasy

Which protocol operates at the Transport layer and provides reliable, connection-oriented data delivery?

A.TCP
B.UDP
C.IP
D.HTTP
AnswerA

TCP is reliable and connection-oriented.

Why this answer

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) uses a three-way handshake, sequencing, and acknowledgments to ensure reliable delivery.

480
MCQhard

A cloud security engineer reviews a cloud storage bucket policy that grants read access to all users, including anonymous users. What is the primary security risk?

A.The bucket does not have encryption enabled [wrong]
B.The bucket policy permits deletion of objects by anyone [wrong]
C.The bucket allows unauthorized users to write objects [wrong]
D.The bucket is publicly readable, allowing anyone to access its contents [CORRECT]
AnswerD

Principal: * allows anonymous access, and GetObject permits reading.

Why this answer

The bucket policy allows any user to read objects, making the bucket publicly readable. This is the primary security risk. Option A is incorrect because encryption is not addressed in the policy.

Option B is incorrect because the policy does not grant delete permissions. Option C is incorrect because the policy does not grant write access. Therefore, the risk is unauthorized read access (Option D).

481
MCQeasy

A security administrator is configuring user permissions and ensures that each user has only the minimum rights needed to perform their job. Which access control principle is the administrator applying?

A.Separation of duties
B.Need-to-know
C.Defense in depth
D.Least privilege
AnswerD

Least privilege ensures users have only the minimum permissions required.

Why this answer

Least privilege grants users only the permissions necessary to perform their tasks, reducing the potential impact of account compromise.

482
MCQmedium

A security analyst detects unusual outbound network traffic from a server that typically only handles internal file sharing. The traffic appears to be exfiltrating sensitive data. Which phase of the incident response process should the analyst initiate next?

A.Containment
B.Analysis
C.Lessons learned
D.Eradication
AnswerB

Analysis is the third phase, following detection, to investigate the alert and confirm it is a real incident.

Why this answer

After detection (phase 2), the next step is analysis to confirm the incident and understand its scope before containment.

483
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is prioritizing incidents based on severity. Which TWO factors are most important for determining incident severity?

Select 2 answers
A.Sensitivity of the data potentially compromised
B.Type of operating system involved
C.Number of users affected
D.Time of day the incident occurred
E.Color of the server room
AnswersA, C

Data sensitivity impacts severity.

Why this answer

Severity is based on impact (e.g., data sensitivity, criticality) and scope (affected users/systems).

484
MCQmedium

An organization experiences a ransomware attack that encrypts critical files. The incident response team follows the standard IR phases. After containing the infection and eradicating the malware, what is the next phase?

A.Detection
B.Preparation
C.Recovery
D.Lessons learned
AnswerC

Recovery follows eradication to restore operations.

Why this answer

After eradication, the next phase is recovery, where systems are restored and returned to normal operations.

485
MCQhard

You are a security analyst investigating a potential insider threat incident. An employee from the finance department has been behaving suspiciously: printing large volumes of sensitive financial reports, accessing files outside their normal work hours, and attempting to bypass the company's data loss prevention (DLP) controls by renaming files before emailing them. The employee has been with the company for 10 years and has a clean record. The company's policy requires that any investigation be conducted discreetly to avoid alerting the employee. You need to gather evidence to confirm or refute the suspicion. Which of the following actions should you take FIRST?

A.Confront the employee directly to ask for an explanation.
B.Review the employee's system logs and DLP alerts in detail to establish a pattern.
C.Disable the employee's network access immediately to prevent data exfiltration.
D.Notify the employee's manager about the suspicion.
AnswerB

Logs provide objective data; this step is non-intrusive and evidence-gathering.

Why this answer

The first step in any insider threat investigation is to gather and analyze available evidence discreetly, as required by policy. Reviewing system logs (e.g., Windows Event Logs, file server audit logs) and DLP alerts allows you to establish a behavioral pattern—such as anomalous access times, file rename operations, and email attachments—without alerting the employee. This evidence-based approach ensures you can confirm or refute the suspicion before taking any disruptive or confrontational actions.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the principle that investigative actions must be non-disruptive and evidence-driven first, tempting candidates to jump to containment (Option C) or escalation (Option D) before analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because confronting the employee directly violates the policy of conducting the investigation discreetly, may tip off a potential insider, and could lead to evidence tampering or escalation. Option C is wrong because immediately disabling network access is a reactive containment step that should only be taken after sufficient evidence is gathered; it also alerts the employee and may be premature if the behavior is benign. Option D is wrong because notifying the employee's manager without first establishing a pattern of suspicious activity could breach confidentiality, cause unnecessary alarm, and potentially compromise the investigation if the manager inadvertently alerts the employee.

486
MCQmedium

A security engineer is configuring a firewall to allow web traffic but block all other inbound connections. The firewall is set to deny all traffic by default and only allow specific ports. Which security principle is being applied?

A.Default deny
B.Defense in depth
C.Fail-safe
D.Least privilege
AnswerA

Correct. The firewall denies everything by default.

Why this answer

Default deny. The scenario describes a firewall configured to deny all traffic by default and then explicitly allow only specific ports (e.g., TCP 80/443 for web traffic). This directly implements the default deny security principle, where any traffic not explicitly permitted is blocked.

This contrasts with a default allow posture, which would permit all traffic unless explicitly denied.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between 'default deny' (a firewall ACL posture) and 'least privilege' (a user/process access control model), causing candidates to confuse network-level traffic filtering with user-level permissions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because defense in depth is a layered security strategy using multiple controls (e.g., firewall, IDS, antivirus), not a single rule about default traffic handling. Option C is wrong because fail-safe ensures a system defaults to a secure state upon failure (e.g., a firewall blocking all traffic if it crashes), not the initial configuration of allowing only specific ports. Option D is wrong because least privilege grants users or processes only the minimum access needed to function, which applies to user permissions, not to firewall rule sets that control network traffic.

487
MCQeasy

An organization classifies data as 'confidential' and requires encryption at rest and in transit. Which data classification level is likely being used?

A.Public
B.Internal/Private
C.Confidential
D.Restricted/Top Secret
AnswerC

Confidential data typically requires encryption to prevent unauthorized disclosure.

Why this answer

Confidential data is sensitive and requires protection; it is a common classification level.

488
Multi-Selecthard

During a security incident, the crisis communication team must notify stakeholders. According to best practices, which THREE groups should always be included in initial notifications? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Legal department
B.Internal management
C.Affected customers
D.Law enforcement
E.Public relations
AnswersA, B, E

Legal must be involved to ensure compliance and protect the organization.

Why this answer

Initial notifications should include internal management (for decision-making), legal (to address liability and regulatory requirements), and public relations (to manage external messaging). Affected customers may be notified later, and law enforcement is notified if required, but not always initially.

489
MCQmedium

An LDAP distinguished name (DN) is written as 'CN=John Smith,OU=Sales,DC=company,DC=com'. What does 'CN' represent?

A.Common Name
B.Domain Component
C.Organizational Unit
D.Country Name
AnswerA

CN stands for Common Name.

Why this answer

In LDAP, CN stands for Common Name, which is typically the user's name.

490
MCQmedium

A security analyst is reviewing a log that shows an unauthorized user attempted to modify a payroll database. Which security principle is most directly threatened?

A.Confidentiality
B.Non-repudiation
C.Integrity
D.Availability
AnswerC

Integrity ensures data is not altered by unauthorized parties.

Why this answer

Unauthorized modification threatens integrity.

491
MCQeasy

An organization is developing a security policy that defines the rules for acceptable use of company resources. Which principle should guide the creation of this policy to ensure it is enforceable and effective?

A.Non-repudiation
B.Defense in depth
C.Least privilege
D.Separation of duties
AnswerC

Least privilege ensures users have only necessary access, making policy enforceable.

Why this answer

Least privilege minimizes risk by granting only necessary access. Other principles are less relevant for policy enforcement.

492
MCQeasy

A security analyst notices that an internal web server is receiving a high volume of TCP SYN packets from a single external IP address, but the server is not sending SYN-ACK replies. The server's CPU and memory usage are normal. What is the most likely cause?

A.A firewall rule is blocking inbound SYN-ACK packets
B.The server is under a SYN flood attack, filling the connection queue
C.The server's TCP/IP stack has crashed
D.The server is experiencing a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack
AnswerB

SYN flood attacks fill the server's half-open connection queue, preventing it from sending SYN-ACKs.

Why this answer

A SYN flood attack works by sending a high volume of TCP SYN packets to a server, filling its half-open connection queue (the backlog) and preventing it from completing the three-way handshake. Since the server's CPU and memory are normal, the issue is not resource exhaustion but rather the queue being saturated, causing the server to stop sending SYN-ACK replies to new connection requests.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a SYN flood (which fills the connection queue) and a DDoS (which involves multiple sources), so candidates mistakenly choose D when the key detail is the single external IP address.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a firewall rule blocking inbound SYN-ACK packets would not prevent the server from sending SYN-ACK replies; it would only block those replies from reaching the client, and the server would still generate them. Option C is wrong because if the server's TCP/IP stack had crashed, the server would likely stop all network communication, not just SYN-ACK replies, and CPU/memory usage would typically be abnormal. Option D is wrong because a DDoS attack involves multiple sources, but the question specifies a single external IP address, making it a simple SYN flood rather than a distributed attack.

493
MCQhard

During a vendor risk assessment, a company discovers that a potential vendor has poor security practices. The company decides not to hire the vendor. This is an example of:

A.Risk mitigation
B.Risk acceptance
C.Risk transfer
D.Risk avoidance
AnswerD

Avoiding the vendor altogether eliminates the risk.

Why this answer

Risk avoidance involves eliminating the risk by not engaging in the activity.

494
MCQmedium

A company’s backup strategy: Full backup every Sunday, differential backups Monday through Saturday. On Thursday, the system fails. How many backups are needed to restore the data?

A.Two: Sunday full and Thursday differential
B.One: Thursday differential only
C.Four: Monday through Thursday differentials
D.Five: Monday through Thursday differentials plus full
AnswerA

Correct: full + differential.

Why this answer

A differential backup contains all changes since the last full backup. So you only need the full backup from Sunday and the differential from Thursday.

495
MCQmedium

A company implements two-factor authentication (2FA) for all remote access. Which primary security goal is this enhancing?

A.Availability
B.Integrity
C.Confidentiality
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerC

2FA ensures only authorized users access data, protecting confidentiality.

Why this answer

2FA strengthens authentication, ensuring only authorized users access data, thereby protecting confidentiality. Option A (Availability) is about system uptime and access. Option B (Integrity) is about data accuracy.

Option D (Non-repudiation) is about proof of actions. Therefore, 2FA primarily enhances confidentiality.

496
MCQeasy

Which phase of the incident response process involves actions to stop the incident from causing further damage, such as isolating affected systems?

A.Eradication
B.Analysis
C.Containment
D.Detection
AnswerC

Containment prevents further damage.

Why this answer

Containment is the phase where actions are taken to limit the scope and impact of the incident.

497
MCQeasy

A security analyst receives an alert indicating multiple failed login attempts from a single IP address targeting a user account. Which action should the analyst take FIRST?

A.Disable the user account immediately
B.Verify the alert and check if the account is compromised
C.Escalate the alert to law enforcement
D.Block the IP address at the firewall
AnswerB

Verification ensures the alert is not a false positive.

Why this answer

The first step in incident response is to validate the alert. The analyst must verify that the failed login attempts are not a false positive (e.g., a user mistyping their password) and then check if the account has been compromised by reviewing logs for successful logins from the same IP or anomalous behavior. Prematurely disabling the account or blocking the IP could disrupt legitimate access or alert an attacker, while escalation to law enforcement is premature without confirmation of a breach.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the principle that verification and analysis must precede any containment or eradication action, tempting candidates to jump to blocking the IP or disabling the account as a quick fix without confirming the alert's validity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling the user account immediately without verifying the alert could lock out a legitimate user and does not address the root cause; the account may not be compromised. Option C is wrong because escalating to law enforcement is a drastic step that should only occur after confirming a security incident and following organizational policy, not as a first action. Option D is wrong because blocking the IP address at the firewall may be a reactive measure, but it could block a legitimate user (e.g., a shared IP) and does not confirm whether the account is compromised; verification must come first.

498
MCQmedium

An organization uses a SIEM to correlate logs from multiple sources. A rule triggers when a user logs in from two geographically distant locations within a short time. What type of attack does this rule primarily detect?

A.Denial of service attack
B.Brute-force attack
C.Credential theft or session hijacking
D.Man-in-the-middle attack
AnswerC

Logins from impossible travel locations indicate that credentials may be used by an attacker.

Why this answer

The SIEM rule detects impossible travel — a user authenticating from two geographically distant locations within a time window too short for physical travel. This behavior strongly indicates that an attacker has stolen the user's credentials (credential theft) or taken over an active session (session hijacking) and is using them from a different location. The SIEM correlates authentication logs (e.g., from Active Directory, VPN, or web apps) with geolocation data (IP-to-location mapping) to flag this anomaly.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the concept of 'impossible travel' as a specific indicator of credential theft or session hijacking, and candidates mistakenly associate any unusual login pattern with brute-force attacks, failing to recognize that brute-force focuses on failed attempts, not successful logins from distant locations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a denial of service attack aims to overwhelm a system with traffic or requests, not to generate geographically disparate login events; the rule focuses on authentication patterns, not resource exhaustion. Option B is wrong because a brute-force attack involves repeated login attempts from a single or few IPs, not two successful logins from distant locations; the rule triggers on successful authentications, not failed attempts. Option D is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack intercepts communications between two parties without necessarily producing distinct login events from two far-apart IPs; the rule detects post-compromise lateral movement or credential misuse, not active interception.

499
MCQmedium

A network administrator is configuring a switch to logically separate the Accounting and HR departments on the same physical switch. Which technology should be used?

A.Subnetting
B.DMZ
C.VLAN
D.Honeypot
AnswerC

VLANs provide Layer 2 separation.

Why this answer

VLANs can partition a physical switch into multiple logical segments, isolating traffic between groups.

500
MCQhard

During a data breach investigation, the incident response team discovers that personally identifiable information (PII) of EU residents was exfiltrated. Under GDPR, what is the maximum time frame for notifying the supervisory authority?

A.72 hours
B.7 days
C.48 hours
D.24 hours
AnswerA

GDPR Article 33 requires notification within 72 hours.

Why this answer

GDPR requires notification to the supervisory authority within 72 hours of becoming aware of a personal data breach.

501
MCQhard

An organization is designing a security architecture for a cloud-based application. They implement firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and encryption, and also conduct regular security awareness training. This approach demonstrates which security principle?

A.Defense in depth
B.Security through obscurity
C.Least privilege
D.Separation of duties
AnswerA

Defense in depth uses multiple layers of security controls, both technical and administrative.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple layered controls. The combination of technical and administrative controls is key.

502
MCQmedium

A security operations center (SOC) analyst notices unusual outbound network traffic from a server that typically only receives connections. The traffic is encrypted and goes to an unknown external IP. Which step should the analyst perform FIRST?

A.Check the server's running processes and connections
B.Power off the server
C.Block the outbound traffic at the firewall
D.Notify the system owner
AnswerA

Local investigation helps confirm compromise.

Why this answer

The first step when encountering suspicious outbound traffic is to investigate without disrupting potential evidence. Checking the server's running processes and open connections (Option A) allows the analyst to identify the source process or compromised service generating the traffic. This preserves volatile data and informs subsequent containment decisions.

Powering off the server (B) or blocking traffic (C) prematurely may destroy evidence and hinder root cause analysis. Notifying the system owner (D) is important but should occur after initial investigation to provide accurate information.

503
MCQeasy

During a patch management cycle, a new vulnerability is disclosed in a widely used web server software. What is the first step an organization should take in the patch lifecycle?

A.Apply compensating controls if the patch cannot be installed.
B.Deploy the patch immediately to all production servers.
C.Test the patch in a staging environment.
D.Wait for the vendor to release a patch.
AnswerD

Vendor release is a prerequisite for testing and deployment.

Why this answer

The patch lifecycle begins with disclosure of the vulnerability, which prompts the vendor to develop and release a patch.

504
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is planning to deploy a DMZ to host web and email servers accessible from the internet. Which three security best practices should be implemented for the DMZ? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Use a single firewall to connect internet, DMZ, and internal network
B.Allow all traffic from the DMZ to the internal network for ease of management
C.Use a separate VLAN for DMZ servers to isolate traffic
D.Place a firewall between the internet and the DMZ, and another between the DMZ and the internal network
E.Configure strict access control rules to allow only necessary services
AnswersC, D, E

VLAN segmentation adds another layer of isolation.

Why this answer

Firewalls on both sides, strict access rules, and separate VLANs are best practices. Direct internal access and single firewall are not recommended.

505
Multi-Selectmedium

A security administrator is selecting controls to protect the confidentiality of a database containing customer PII. Which TWO controls are most appropriate?

Select 2 answers
A.Hashing
B.Load balancing
C.Access control lists
D.Database encryption
E.Redundant power supplies
AnswersC, D

Access controls prevent unauthorized access.

Why this answer

Encryption protects data confidentiality; access controls restrict who can view data.

506
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE are commonly defined in a disaster recovery plan? (Select exactly 3.)

Select 3 answers
A.Recovery point objective
B.Business impact analysis
C.Recovery time objective
D.Cost-benefit analysis
E.Annual loss expectancy
AnswersA, B, C

RPO defines the maximum acceptable data loss.

Why this answer

Recovery point objective (RPO) is a core metric defined in a disaster recovery plan because it specifies the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. For example, an RPO of 1 hour means backups must be taken at least every hour to ensure no more than 60 minutes of data is lost. This directly drives backup frequency and replication technology choices, such as synchronous vs. asynchronous replication.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between the DR plan components (RPO, RTO, BIA) and risk management calculations (ALE, cost-benefit analysis), trapping candidates who confuse the outputs of a BIA with separate financial analysis tools.

507
MCQmedium

According to NIST SP 800-63, which password policy is most effective for user authentication?

A.Require a mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols, and force password changes every 30 days
B.Require a minimum length of 6 characters with no other requirements
C.Require a minimum length of 15 characters and check against breached password lists, without requiring complexity or frequent changes
D.Require a minimum length of 8 characters and check against breached password lists
AnswerC

Correct. This aligns with NIST guidance: favor length, avoid forced changes unless compromised, and screen against known breaches.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-63 recommends favoring longer passwords (15+ characters for high assurance) over complexity, and avoiding frequent forced changes unless compromised.

508
MCQmedium

An attacker intercepts communications between a client and server by establishing independent connections with each. The client believes it is talking to the server, but the attacker relays messages. What is this attack?

A.Phishing
B.Man-in-the-middle
C.Replay attack
D.DoS
AnswerB

The attacker positions between client and server.

Why this answer

A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack involves an attacker intercepting and relaying messages between two parties.

509
MCQhard

An organization's backup strategy includes daily full backups and hourly incremental backups. During a restoration, they discover that a critical file was corrupted 6 hours ago. Which backup set is required for the restoration?

A.The most recent incremental backup only.
B.The most recent full backup only.
C.The most recent full backup plus the incremental backups from the last 6 hours.
D.The most recent full backup plus all incremental backups since.
AnswerC

Restores the state just before corruption.

Why this answer

Restoring a file that was corrupted 6 hours ago requires the most recent full backup as the base, plus all incremental backups taken in the last 6 hours. Incremental backups only store changes since the last backup (full or incremental), so to reconstruct the file as it existed 6 hours ago, you need the full backup and every incremental backup from that point forward until the corruption time. Without all those increments, the file state cannot be fully reconstructed.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that only the most recent incremental backup is needed, or that all increments since the full backup are required, when in fact the correct set is determined by the specific point in time to which you are restoring.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an incremental backup alone contains only changes since the last backup, not the complete file data; without the full backup as a base, the file cannot be restored. Option B is wrong because the most recent full backup alone does not include changes made in the last 6 hours, so the file would be restored to its state at the time of the full backup, not 6 hours ago. Option D is wrong because it includes incremental backups taken after the corruption occurred (i.e., the last 6 hours plus later increments), which would overwrite the corrupted state with even newer changes, failing to restore the file to the exact point 6 hours ago.

510
MCQhard

Which statement best describes a warm site in disaster recovery?

A.It has replicated data but no active systems
B.It is fully operational with real-time data synchronization
C.It has hardware and network equipment but requires data restoration from backups
D.It has no hardware or infrastructure installed
AnswerC

Warm site has equipment but not live data, so restore is needed.

Why this answer

A warm site is a middle-ground disaster recovery option that has hardware and network infrastructure pre-installed but does not have live, synchronized data. Instead, data must be restored from backups (e.g., tape or disk snapshots) before operations can resume. This contrasts with a hot site, which maintains real-time data replication and fully active systems.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between warm and hot sites by making candidates confuse 'pre-installed hardware' (warm) with 'real-time data synchronization' (hot), so the trap is assuming that any site with hardware must also have live data.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a site with replicated data but no active systems describes a cold site with data replication, not a warm site; warm sites have hardware but require data restoration. Option B is wrong because a fully operational site with real-time data synchronization defines a hot site, which has zero recovery time objective (RTO) and continuous replication (e.g., synchronous SAN replication). Option D is wrong because a site with no hardware or infrastructure installed is a cold site, which requires full setup before recovery can begin.

511
MCQmedium

A company wants to isolate its public web server from internal networks to reduce risk. The server must be accessible from the internet. Which network architecture should be used?

A.Implement a DMZ
B.Place the server on the internal LAN with a strong firewall rule
C.Use a VLAN to logically separate the server
D.Connect the server directly to the internet without firewall
AnswerA

A DMZ is specifically designed to host public-facing services with controlled access.

Why this answer

A DMZ (demilitarized zone) is a segmented network that hosts public-facing servers, providing an extra layer of security between the internet and the internal network.

512
MCQmedium

An organization deploys firewalls at the network perimeter, antivirus on endpoints, and encryption for data at rest. This approach best exemplifies which security principle?

A.Separation of duties
B.Diversity of defense
C.Least privilege
D.Defense in depth
AnswerD

Correct. Defense in depth uses multiple, overlapping security controls (firewall, antivirus, encryption) to protect assets, providing resilience if one layer fails.

Why this answer

Correct: D - Defense in depth. Defense in depth uses multiple, overlapping security controls such as firewalls, antivirus, and encryption to protect assets. Option A is wrong because separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple people to prevent fraud.

Option B is wrong because diversity of defense, while related, is not the primary principle demonstrated; the key is the layered approach. Option C is wrong because least privilege restricts access rights to the minimum necessary.

513
MCQhard

An organization experiences intermittent network outages. The security team notices that the ARP cache on several switches has entries pointing to an unknown MAC address for the default gateway. Which attack is most likely occurring?

A.ARP spoofing
B.DNS poisoning
C.IP spoofing
D.MAC flooding
AnswerA

ARP spoofing falsifies IP-to-MAC mappings.

Why this answer

ARP spoofing (or ARP poisoning) involves sending forged ARP messages to associate the attacker's MAC with the IP of the default gateway, causing traffic to be misrouted. This can lead to man-in-the-middle attacks or denial of service.

514
MCQmedium

A hospital's electronic health record (EHR) system must be available 24/7. The disaster recovery plan specifies an RTO of 4 hours and an RPO of 1 hour. Which combination of backup and site strategy best meets these objectives?

A.Cloud-based recovery with daily snapshots
B.Warm site with weekly full backups
C.Hot site with continuous data replication
D.Cold site with daily full backups
AnswerC

Hot site can achieve RTO of hours and continuous replication meets RPO of minutes.

Why this answer

A warm site with hourly incremental backups can achieve RTO of days? Actually, warm site RTO is typically days, so more suitable is hot site. But given options, warm site plus differential may be plausible? Better: hot site with frequent backups. However, the correct answer should be hot site with continuous replication to meet RPO of 1 hour and RTO of 4 hours.

515
MCQeasy

Which of the following best describes a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

A.A plan to restore IT systems after a disruption
B.A plan to evacuate personnel during an emergency
C.A plan to identify critical business functions
D.A plan to keep the business running during a disruption
AnswerA

Correct definition of DRP.

Why this answer

A DRP focuses specifically on restoring IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption.

516
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices an unusually high number of incomplete TCP connection requests. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?

A.SYN flood
B.Smurf attack
C.ARP spoofing
D.DNS amplification
AnswerA

Correct. SYN flood is a DoS attack that sends many SYN packets to exhaust server resources.

Why this answer

SYN flood attacks exploit the TCP three-way handshake by sending many SYN packets without completing the handshake, exhausting server resources.

517
MCQeasy

A security administrator is configuring user permissions and wants to ensure that each user has only the access rights necessary to perform their job. Which principle is being applied?

A.Separation of duties
B.Need to know
C.Defense in depth
D.Least privilege
AnswerD

Correct. Least privilege ensures users have only the access needed for their roles.

Why this answer

Least privilege means granting only the minimum permissions needed for a user to perform their job, reducing the potential impact of a compromised account.

518
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst sees these logs from a Linux server. Which security control should the analyst recommend to address this pattern?

A.Enable account lockout after 5 failed attempts.
B.Disable root login via SSH.
C.Block the IP address 192.168.1.100 via firewall.
D.Implement two-factor authentication for SSH access.
AnswerD

2FA prevents unauthorized access even if passwords are compromised.

Why this answer

The logs show repeated failed SSH login attempts from a single IP (192.168.1.100) targeting the root account, which is a classic brute-force attack pattern. Two-factor authentication (2FA) for SSH access is the most effective control because it adds a second authentication factor (e.g., TOTP or hardware token) that an attacker cannot bypass even if they guess the password, thus neutralizing the brute-force attack regardless of the number of attempts or the account targeted.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between reactive controls (like blocking an IP or locking an account) and proactive controls (like 2FA) that address the root cause of authentication attacks, leading candidates to pick a quick fix like IP blocking instead of the more robust security measure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because account lockout after 5 failed attempts would only lock the root account, but root is a privileged account that should never be locked out for administrative access; also, an attacker could simply switch to another username or wait for the lockout timer to expire. Option B is wrong because disabling root login via SSH does not prevent the attacker from trying other usernames (e.g., admin, user) or from continuing the brute-force attack against non-root accounts; the logs show the attack is against root, but the underlying brute-force pattern remains. Option C is wrong because blocking the IP address 192.168.1.100 via firewall is a reactive, static measure that only stops that specific IP; attackers often rotate IPs or use botnets, so this does not address the broader brute-force pattern and can be easily bypassed.

519
MCQhard

During a forensic investigation, an analyst acquires a live system memory dump. Which tool is most appropriate for capturing the contents of volatile memory on a Windows system?

A.DumpIt
B.Wireshark
C.FTK Imager
D.dd
AnswerA

DumpIt is designed specifically for capturing volatile memory on Windows systems.

Why this answer

DumpIt is a lightweight, standalone tool designed specifically for capturing the full contents of volatile memory (RAM) on a Windows system. It creates a raw memory dump file without requiring installation or complex configuration, making it ideal for forensic acquisition of live system memory.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between tools for capturing volatile memory versus non-volatile storage, and candidates may mistakenly choose FTK Imager because it is a well-known forensic suite, but it is not the primary tool for live memory acquisition on Windows.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for capturing and inspecting network traffic, not for acquiring system memory dumps. Option C is wrong because FTK Imager is primarily a disk imaging and forensic analysis tool; while it can capture a memory dump via a separate plugin (e.g., FTK Imager Lite), it is not the most appropriate or direct tool for live memory acquisition. Option D is wrong because dd is a Unix/Linux command-line utility for bit-for-bit disk cloning; it is not natively available on Windows and does not interface with Windows memory structures without additional drivers or wrappers.

520
MCQhard

A company is designing a new application that processes credit card payments. They want to ensure that no single administrator can bypass security controls to approve a fraudulent transaction. Which principle should be implemented?

A.Separation of duties
B.Defense in depth
C.Least privilege
D.Need to know
AnswerA

Separation of duties ensures that no single individual has control over all parts of a critical transaction, reducing fraud risk.

Why this answer

Separation of duties ensures that no single administrator has the authority to both initiate and approve a credit card transaction. By dividing critical functions among multiple individuals, the company prevents a single compromised account from authorizing fraudulent payments. This principle directly addresses the risk of insider threats or credential misuse in payment processing systems.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests separation of duties by presenting a scenario about preventing fraud or abuse, and the trap is that candidates confuse it with least privilege, thinking limiting permissions alone solves the problem, when in fact the core issue is splitting conflicting tasks across different people.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Defense in depth) is wrong because it refers to multiple layers of security controls (e.g., firewalls, IDS, encryption) rather than dividing administrative responsibilities. Option C (Least privilege) is wrong because it limits access rights to the minimum necessary for a role, but does not prevent a single administrator from having both the ability to create and approve a transaction. Option D (Need to know) is wrong because it restricts access to information based on job function, not the separation of conflicting duties in a transaction workflow.

521
MCQmedium

After a security audit, a company discovers that several employees have access to financial systems that are not required for their job roles. Which access control model would best prevent this issue in the future?

A.Mandatory access control (MAC)
B.Discretionary access control (DAC)
C.Role-based access control (RBAC)
D.Attribute-based access control (ABAC)
AnswerC

RBAC aligns permissions with job roles, preventing unnecessary access.

Why this answer

Role-based access control (RBAC) assigns permissions based on job roles, ensuring users have only the access needed for their role. DAC allows owners to give access arbitrarily, which could lead to over-provisioning. MAC is rigid and label-based, not ideal for dynamic business needs.

ABAC is flexible but more complex to implement than RBAC for this scenario.

522
MCQhard

In a Bell-LaPadula MAC model, which of the following operations is prohibited?

A.A Top Secret subject reads a Confidential object
B.A Top Secret subject reads a Top Secret object
C.A Top Secret subject writes to a Top Secret object
D.A Top Secret subject writes to an Unclassified object
AnswerD

Write down is prohibited.

Why this answer

In the Bell-LaPadula model, the *-property (star property) prohibits a subject from writing to an object at a lower classification level. A Top Secret subject writing to an Unclassified object would cause a downgrade of sensitive information, violating this property. Therefore, option D is the prohibited operation.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that the *-property (no write down) applies to writing to higher-level objects, when in fact it only restricts writing to lower-level objects, and candidates may confuse it with the simple security property (no read up).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the simple security property (no read up) allows a Top Secret subject to read a Confidential object, as it reads down. Option B is wrong because reading an object at the same classification level (Top Secret) is permitted under both the simple security property and the *-property. Option C is wrong because writing to an object at the same classification level (Top Secret) is allowed by the *-property, as it does not involve a downgrade.

523
MCQmedium

A security administrator is reviewing physical access controls. Which control is considered an external perimeter security measure?

A.Biometric reader on server room door
B.Cable locks on laptops
C.Visitor badge policy
D.Fencing around the property
AnswerD

Fencing is a typical external perimeter control.

Why this answer

External perimeter controls include fencing, bollards, and lighting to deter or delay intruders.

524
MCQhard

A multinational corporation deploys redundant servers in geographically diverse data centers and uses a load balancer to distribute traffic. This setup primarily addresses which security concern?

A.Availability
B.Confidentiality
C.Integrity
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerA

Redundant systems and load balancing prevent single points of failure.

Why this answer

Redundancy and load balancing ensure that systems remain accessible, supporting availability.

525
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of a Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution?

A.To provide single sign-on for all applications
B.To manage visitor access to the building
C.To enforce password complexity for all users
D.To control and monitor privileged access to critical systems
AnswerD

Correct. PAM manages privileged accounts, including session recording and just-in-time access.

Why this answer

PAM controls and monitors the use of privileged accounts (e.g., admin) to reduce risk of misuse or compromise.

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