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ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity CC (CC) — Questions 175

976 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are principles of the CIA triad? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Confidentiality
B.Integrity
C.Non-repudiation
D.Accountability
E.Authorization
AnswersA, B

Correct. Confidentiality is part of CIA.

Why this answer

Confidentiality is a core principle of the CIA triad, ensuring that data is accessible only to authorized entities. This is typically enforced through encryption (e.g., AES-256) and access control mechanisms, preventing unauthorized disclosure.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests candidates by listing security concepts like non-repudiation or authorization as distractors, expecting you to know that the CIA triad strictly includes only confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

2
MCQeasy

A company's security policy states that employees should only have access to the data necessary to perform their job functions. This is an example of which principle?

A.Defense in depth
B.Separation of duties
C.Fail-safe
D.Least privilege
AnswerD

Correct. Access is limited to what is needed.

Why this answer

The principle of least privilege dictates that users and systems should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their tasks. By restricting data access to job-required information, the company directly implements this security control, reducing the attack surface and limiting potential damage from compromised accounts.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests least privilege by contrasting it with separation of duties, where candidates mistakenly choose separation of duties because both involve restricting access, but separation of duties specifically splits conflicting tasks among different people to prevent collusion, not to limit data access per role.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because defense in depth is a layered security strategy using multiple controls (e.g., firewalls, IDS, encryption) to protect assets, not a single access restriction policy. Option B is wrong because separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple people to prevent fraud (e.g., one person requests a purchase, another approves it), not limiting data access per role. Option C is wrong because fail-safe ensures that a system defaults to a secure state upon failure (e.g., a firewall blocking all traffic when it crashes), not restricting user permissions to job-necessary data.

3
MCQhard

A company is deploying a security device that inspects HTTP and HTTPS traffic, applies OWASP rules, and can block malicious requests before they reach the web server. Which device best fits this description?

A.Honeypot
B.Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
C.Web Application Firewall (WAF)
D.Stateful firewall
AnswerC

Correct. WAF specializes in web traffic and OWASP rules.

Why this answer

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is specifically designed to protect web applications by inspecting HTTP/HTTPS traffic and applying rules like OWASP.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is implementing a new access control system based on the principle of least privilege. Which two of the following practices are essential to achieving least privilege? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Review permissions regularly
B.Use role-based access control
C.Grant users default full access and restrict later
D.Enable accounts after use
E.Provide write access to all users
AnswersA, B

Regular reviews help maintain minimal permissions by revoking unnecessary access.

Why this answer

Regular permission reviews are essential to maintaining least privilege over time. Users' roles and responsibilities change, and without periodic audits, excessive permissions can accumulate, violating the principle. This aligns with the NIST SP 800-53 AC-6 control for least privilege, which requires organizations to review user access rights at defined intervals.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests that candidates confuse the principle of least privilege with account management practices like enabling/disabling accounts, or mistakenly think starting with full access and restricting later is acceptable, when in fact least privilege requires a default-deny posture.

5
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is implementing backup strategies. Which THREE are characteristics of differential backups? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Backup time is generally faster than incremental backups
B.Requires all differential backups since the last full backup for a full restore
C.Requires only the last full backup and the latest differential backup for a full restore
D.Backs up all data changed since the last full backup
E.Restore time is generally faster than incremental backups
AnswersC, D, E

Only two sets needed: full and latest differential.

Why this answer

Differential backups copy all changes since the last full backup, making them medium-sized and faster to restore than incremental, but slower to back up than incremental.

6
MCQmedium

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a visitor log and escort policy?

A.To enforce least privilege for employees
B.To provide a record of visitor access and ensure they are supervised
C.To authenticate visitors using biometrics
D.To prevent visitors from accessing the internet
AnswerB

Visitor logs and escorts track and control visitor movement.

Why this answer

Visitor management controls physical access and ensures visitors are monitored.

7
MCQhard

An organization has a legacy system that cannot be patched due to vendor end-of-life. The system is critical for operations. Which compensating control is most appropriate to reduce the risk of exploitation?

A.Isolate the system on a separate network segment with strict access controls
B.Increase logging and monitoring without any network changes
C.Apply a virtual patch using a web application firewall
D.Remove the system from the network entirely
AnswerA

Network isolation limits attack surface and is a common compensating control.

Why this answer

Network isolation (segmentation) limits the system's exposure to potential attackers. A WAF can protect web-facing systems, but isolation is broader.

8
MCQeasy

A security administrator is configuring access rights for a new employee. Which principle ensures the employee is granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job duties?

A.Least privilege
B.Separation of duties
C.Need-to-know
D.Defense in depth
AnswerA

Least privilege grants only the minimum permissions needed for job functions.

Why this answer

Least privilege means granting only the minimum permissions needed, reducing the blast radius of account compromise.

9
MCQeasy

Which risk management strategy involves implementing security controls to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk?

A.Risk acceptance
B.Risk mitigation
C.Risk avoidance
D.Risk transfer
AnswerB

Mitigation reduces risk through controls.

Why this answer

Risk mitigation applies controls to reduce risk.

10
MCQeasy

The exhibit shows recent authentication logs. What type of attack is most likely indicated?

A.Man-in-the-middle attack
B.Brute-force attack
C.Phishing attack
D.Privilege escalation
AnswerB

Rapid failed logins then success suggests password guessing.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows repeated authentication attempts with different passwords for the same username, which is the hallmark of a brute-force attack. In authentication logs, a high frequency of failed login attempts (e.g., multiple 'Failed password' entries in quick succession) indicates an attacker systematically guessing credentials. This aligns with the CC domain of Access Controls, where brute-force attacks target weak password policies.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between brute-force and dictionary attacks; the trap here is that candidates may confuse repeated login attempts with a phishing attack, but phishing requires user interaction (e.g., clicking a link), whereas brute-force is automated against the authentication service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack would show evidence of intercepted or modified traffic (e.g., ARP spoofing, SSL stripping), not repeated login failures. Option C is wrong because a phishing attack relies on tricking users into revealing credentials via deceptive emails or websites, not on direct login attempts against the authentication server. Option D is wrong because privilege escalation involves gaining higher-level access after initial compromise (e.g., exploiting SUID binaries or misconfigured sudo), not repeated password guessing.

11
MCQhard

A configuration management tool detects that a critical server's security settings have changed from the approved baseline. What is the first action the security team should take?

A.Investigate the root cause of the configuration change
B.Isolate the server from the network
C.Automatically revert the settings to the baseline
D.Update the baseline to match the current configuration
AnswerA

Correct. Understanding why the change occurred is crucial.

Why this answer

The first step is to investigate the cause of the drift, as it may indicate a misconfiguration or compromise.

12
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. What does this indicate?

A.The source file changed during backup
B.The backup medium has errors
C.The verification algorithm is incorrect
D.The backup file is corrupt
AnswerA

File modification during backup leads to checksum mismatch.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows a backup verification failure where the checksum or hash of the source file does not match the backup copy. This typically occurs when the source file is modified during the backup process (e.g., an open file that is being written to), causing the verification algorithm to detect a mismatch. The correct answer is A because the backup software correctly identifies that the source changed, not that the backup medium or file is corrupt.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between backup file corruption and source file modification during backup, trapping candidates who assume any verification failure means the backup is corrupt, when the exhibit's wording or error message explicitly points to a source change.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because backup medium errors (e.g., bad sectors on tape or disk) would typically manifest as read/write failures or CRC errors during the backup or verification process, not as a checksum mismatch specifically indicating a source file change. Option C is wrong because the verification algorithm (e.g., MD5, SHA-1, or SHA-256) is a standard cryptographic hash function; if it were incorrect, the backup software would fail to compute any valid hash, not produce a mismatch between source and backup. Option D is wrong because a corrupt backup file would usually fail verification with a hash mismatch, but the exhibit explicitly indicates the source file changed during backup, which is a distinct scenario from post-backup corruption.

13
Multi-Selectmedium

A security policy requires that data classified as 'Confidential' must be encrypted both at rest and in transit. Which TWO of the following are likely data handling requirements for 'Confidential' data? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Data may be posted on the public website
B.Access to data must be restricted to authorized personnel only
C.Data can be shared with any vendor without a contract
D.Data must be encrypted when stored on servers
E.Data must be deleted after 30 days regardless of business need
AnswersB, D

Correct. Access controls are essential.

Why this answer

Confidential data typically requires encryption and strict access controls. Public posting would be inappropriate.

14
MCQmedium

An organization implements a redundant server infrastructure to ensure that services remain operational even if one server fails. This is an example of protecting which principle?

A.Availability
B.Integrity
C.Accountability
D.Confidentiality
AnswerA

Correct. Redundancy and failover are key availability mechanisms.

Why this answer

Redundancy ensures that systems remain available despite failures, directly supporting availability.

15
MCQmedium

A security analyst recommends implementing digital signatures to ensure that a software update has not been altered during distribution. Which aspect of the CIA triad is primarily being addressed?

A.Availability
B.Confidentiality
C.Non-repudiation
D.Integrity
AnswerD

Correct. Digital signatures ensure data integrity and authenticity.

Why this answer

Digital signatures provide integrity by allowing verification that data has not been modified and confirming the source.

16
MCQeasy

A security analyst is reviewing an alert from the IDS that shows a large number of TCP SYN packets sent to a single port on multiple internal hosts from a single external IP address. The analyst suspects a reconnaissance attack. Which type of attack is this most likely?

A.SYN flood
B.Ping sweep
C.Smurf attack
D.SYN scan
AnswerD

A SYN scan sends TCP SYN packets to determine which ports are open, characteristic of reconnaissance.

Why this answer

This is most likely a SYN scan (option D), a reconnaissance technique where an attacker sends TCP SYN packets to a specific port on multiple hosts to determine if the port is open. A SYN scan is stealthier than a full TCP connect scan because it never completes the three-way handshake, leaving fewer logs. The IDS alert describes the hallmark behavior of a SYN scan: a single external IP targeting the same port across many internal hosts.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a SYN flood (DoS) and a SYN scan (reconnaissance), and the trap here is that candidates confuse the use of SYN packets in a volumetric attack versus a probing technique.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a SYN flood is a denial-of-service (DoS) attack that aims to overwhelm a single target with SYN packets, exhausting its connection table, not a reconnaissance scan across multiple hosts. Option B is wrong because a ping sweep uses ICMP Echo Request packets (ping) to discover live hosts, not TCP SYN packets to a specific port. Option C is wrong because a Smurf attack is a distributed DoS attack that sends ICMP Echo Requests with a spoofed source IP to a broadcast address, causing amplification, and does not involve TCP SYN packets or port scanning.

17
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement best describes compliance with the recovery objectives?

A.Compliant with both RTO and RPO
B.Compliant with RTO but not RPO
C.Compliant with neither
D.Compliant with RPO but not RTO
AnswerB

RTO likely achievable, but RPO is violated due to infrequent backups.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows the required RTO is 4 hours and the actual RTO is 4 hours, meaning the system recovers within the allowed downtime, so it is compliant with RTO. However, the backup interval is 4 hours, so the actual RPO is 4 hours, which exceeds the required RPO of 1 hour. This means up to 4 hours of data could be lost, failing RPO compliance.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between RTO and RPO by presenting a scenario where one objective is met and the other is not, and the trap is that candidates confuse which metric measures downtime versus data loss, leading them to incorrectly select A or D.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it claims compliance with both RTO and RPO, but the actual RPO of 2 hours exceeds the required 1 hour, so RPO is not met. Option C is wrong because it states compliance with neither, but the actual RTO of 4 hours meets the required 4 hours, so RTO is compliant. Option D is wrong because it claims compliance with RPO but not RTO, which is the reverse of the actual situation: RTO is met and RPO is not.

18
MCQhard

A company's security policy requires that all sensitive data be encrypted at rest and in transit. However, a recent breach occurred because an attacker exploited a misconfigured web server that exposed a database directly. Which principle was most lacking in this scenario?

A.Least privilege
B.Fail securely
C.Complete mediation
D.Defense in depth
AnswerD

Defense in depth would have prevented single point of failure.

Why this answer

Efense in depth because it emphasizes multiple layers of security controls. A single misconfiguration exposed the database directly, indicating a lack of layered defenses. The other principles: Least privilege (A) is about limiting permissions, Fail securely (B) is about ensuring secure states on failure, and Complete mediation (C) is about checking every access.

Therefore, defense in depth was most lacking.

19
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of a digital signature?

A.Ensure data confidentiality
B.Control access to resources
C.Encrypt data at rest
D.Provide data integrity and non-repudiation
AnswerD

Digital signatures verify authenticity and integrity.

Why this answer

Digital signatures provide integrity (detect tampering) and non-repudiation (proof of origin).

20
MCQeasy

An organization is developing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). Which analysis is performed first to identify critical business functions and their dependencies?

A.Risk assessment
B.Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
C.Vulnerability assessment
D.Gap analysis
AnswerB

The BIA focuses on identifying critical business functions and their recovery requirements.

Why this answer

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies critical functions, dependencies, and recovery priorities, forming the foundation for the BCP.

21
MCQmedium

An organization wants to detect and alert on potential network intrusions but does not want to risk blocking legitimate traffic. Which system should they deploy?

A.Network-based Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
B.Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance
C.Firewall with deep packet inspection
D.Network-based Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS)
AnswerA

A NIDS is passive and only alerts on potential intrusions without blocking traffic, avoiding false positives that block legitimate traffic.

Why this answer

A Network-based Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) passively monitors network traffic and generates alerts when suspicious patterns are detected, but it does not take any inline action to block traffic. This makes it the correct choice for an organization that wants to detect and alert on potential intrusions without any risk of blocking legitimate traffic, as the NIDS operates out-of-band and cannot drop packets.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between detection (IDS) and prevention (IPS) by emphasizing that an IDS is passive and out-of-band, while an IPS is inline and can block traffic, so the trap here is confusing the alert-only capability of NIDS with the active blocking of NIPS or UTM appliances.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance typically includes intrusion prevention, antivirus, and content filtering that can actively block traffic, which introduces the risk of blocking legitimate traffic. Option C is wrong because a firewall with deep packet inspection (DPI) is an inline device that can drop or reject packets based on application-layer analysis, which could inadvertently block legitimate traffic. Option D is wrong because a Network-based Intrusion Prevention System (NIPS) is an inline device that actively drops or resets malicious traffic, directly contradicting the requirement to avoid blocking legitimate traffic.

22
MCQmedium

A company's security policy requires that all sensitive data be encrypted both at rest and in transit. This is an example of applying which security principle?

A.Separation of duties
B.Need to know
C.Least privilege
D.Defense in depth
AnswerD

Encrypting data at rest and in transit provides multiple layers of protection, a key element of defense in depth.

23
MCQeasy

A system administrator is configuring permissions for a new file server. To adhere to the principle of least privilege, which approach should the administrator take?

A.Grant permissions only to the IT department.
B.Grant permissions based on the user's department membership.
C.Grant each user only the permissions necessary to perform their job duties.
D.Grant all users full control to simplify management.
AnswerC

This directly implements least privilege by limiting access to what is required for the job.

24
MCQmedium

During a security incident, the incident response team needs to preserve evidence. Which of the following actions should be performed first?

A.Notify law enforcement
B.Capture a memory dump
C.Power off the system
D.Run antivirus scan
AnswerB

Memory dump captures volatile data crucial for forensic analysis.

Why this answer

Capturing a memory dump (volatile data) is the first priority because it contains critical evidence such as running processes, network connections, and encryption keys that will be lost when the system is powered off. The order of volatility dictates that volatile data must be collected before any non-volatile data, and before any actions that could alter system state.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the principle of order of volatility, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly think powering off the system preserves evidence, when in fact it destroys the most volatile and valuable forensic data.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because notifying law enforcement is a procedural step that should occur after evidence has been secured, not before, and it does not directly preserve volatile evidence. Option C is wrong because powering off the system destroys volatile memory (RAM) and may cause loss of critical forensic data, such as active network connections and malware in memory. Option D is wrong because running an antivirus scan modifies the system state (e.g., quarantining files, altering timestamps) and can destroy or contaminate evidence, violating forensic integrity.

25
MCQhard

A SOC analyst reviews a SIEM alert indicating a high volume of outbound traffic from a server to an external IP address known for command-and-control activity. The analyst has confirmed the alert is not a false positive. What is the most appropriate next step?

A.Escalate the alert to Tier 3 for advanced analysis.
B.Conduct a deeper investigation to identify affected systems and data.
C.Block the external IP address at the firewall immediately.
D.Reboot the server to terminate any malicious processes.
AnswerB

Tier 2 investigates to understand the incident's scope and impact.

Why this answer

Tier 2 analysts conduct deeper investigation to determine the scope and impact of a confirmed incident before initiating response actions.

26
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are examples of administrative access controls?

Select 3 answers
A.Mantraps
B.Password complexity requirements
C.Guard patrols
D.Security policies
E.Background checks
AnswersB, D, E

These are procedural rules, hence administrative.

Why this answer

Password complexity requirements are administrative access controls because they are defined in security policies and enforced through user behavior and organizational rules, not through hardware or software mechanisms. They fall under the administrative category of access control, which includes policies, procedures, and guidelines that govern user actions and access rights.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between administrative, technical, and physical access controls, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse password complexity requirements (administrative) with technical controls like password filters or account lockout mechanisms.

27
Multi-Selecthard

According to NIST SP 800-63 recommendations for password policies, which THREE practices are recommended? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Allow users to paste passwords to facilitate password manager use
B.Check passwords against known breached password lists
C.Require complex combinations of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols
D.Require frequent password changes every 30 days
E.Require a minimum length of 8 characters for most accounts
AnswersA, B, E

This supports use of password managers, which generate strong passwords.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-63 recommends checking passwords against breached lists, setting minimum length (8+ characters, 15+ for high assurance), and avoiding frequent forced changes unless compromised.

28
MCQhard

A security team discovers that an internal database server is sending large amounts of data to an unknown external IP address. The server is not supposed to communicate externally. Which security control should be implemented to prevent such data exfiltration?

A.Implement a VPN for all external communications
B.Install an intrusion detection system (IDS) on the network segment
C.Configure a firewall to deny all outbound traffic from the database server except to specific authorized destinations
D.Deploy a data loss prevention (DLP) system on the server
AnswerC

Egress filtering blocks unauthorized outbound connections, preventing data exfiltration.

Why this answer

A firewall with restrictive egress rules blocks unauthorized outbound traffic, preventing data exfiltration. Option A (VPN) would not stop the traffic; it could even encrypt and tunnel it. Option B (IDS) can detect but not block.

Option D (DLP) monitors content but may not effectively block at the network level.

29
MCQmedium

An employee receives an email from the CEO asking for an urgent wire transfer to a new vendor. The email address is slightly misspelled. What type of attack is this?

A.Shoulder surfing
B.USB drop attack
C.Tailgating
D.Phishing
AnswerD

Correct. Phishing uses deceptive emails to elicit actions.

Why this answer

This is a social engineering attack, specifically phishing (or business email compromise), aiming to trick the employee into transferring money.

30
MCQmedium

During a disaster recovery test, the IT team successfully restored systems from backups and achieved the recovery time objective (RTO). However, users could not resume normal work because additional configuration and data validation were needed. Which metric was NOT met?

A.Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
B.Work Recovery Time (WRT)
C.Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)
D.Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
AnswerB

WRT is the time to restore normal operations after systems are back, and it was not met.

Why this answer

Work Recovery Time (WRT) is the time needed to return to normal operations after systems are restored; it is separate from RTO.

31
MCQhard

Which of the following is the best practice for managing cryptographic keys in a large organization?

A.Embed keys in application code to ensure availability.
B.Distribute keys to administrators via email for convenience.
C.Use a single key for all encryption to simplify management.
D.Store keys in a centralized hardware security module (HSM) with strict access controls.
AnswerD

HSM provides tamper-resistant key storage and management.

Why this answer

A centralized Hardware Security Module (HSM) provides tamper-resistant, dedicated hardware for secure key generation, storage, and cryptographic operations. Strict access controls (e.g., role-based access, multi-factor authentication) ensure that only authorized personnel can manage keys, while the HSM prevents key extraction even if the host system is compromised. This aligns with NIST SP 800-57 guidelines for key management in large organizations.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that convenience (e.g., embedding keys in code or using a single key) is acceptable for key management, when in fact security and compartmentalization are paramount in enterprise environments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because embedding keys in application code exposes them to static analysis, reverse engineering, and version control leaks, violating the principle of key separation and making key rotation nearly impossible. Option B is wrong because distributing keys via email transmits them in cleartext over potentially insecure channels, exposing them to interception and violating confidentiality requirements (e.g., PCI DSS, GDPR). Option C is wrong because using a single key for all encryption violates key separation and compartmentalization; if that key is compromised, all encrypted data is exposed, and it prevents granular access control and rotation without massive re-encryption.

32
MCQhard

A security auditor discovers that a user has been granted read and write access to a sensitive file, but the user's job only requires read access. Which access control principle has been violated?

A.Job rotation
B.Need-to-know
C.Separation of duties
D.Least privilege
AnswerD

Least privilege requires minimal permissions; write access is excessive.

Why this answer

The principle of least privilege dictates that users should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions. Granting write access when only read access is required violates this principle by providing unnecessary and potentially harmful capabilities. This is a core access control concept in the CC exam.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests least privilege by contrasting it with need-to-know, where candidates mistakenly choose need-to-know because both involve limiting access, but least privilege focuses on the permission level (read vs. write) while need-to-know focuses on the data scope.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because job rotation is a security practice where users periodically switch roles to reduce fraud risk, not a principle about limiting permissions. Option B is wrong because need-to-know restricts access to specific data based on necessity, but the violation here is about the level of privilege (read vs. write), not the data itself. Option C is wrong because separation of duties ensures no single user has conflicting responsibilities (e.g., creating and approving transactions), which is not the issue in this scenario.

33
MCQeasy

A security administrator needs to ensure that a user cannot view the contents of a file but can execute it. Which access control principle should be applied?

A.Enforce separation of duties
B.Apply least privilege
C.Use defense in depth
D.Implement need-to-know
AnswerB

Least privilege grants only the permissions required for the task, which is execute without read.

Why this answer

Least privilege grants only the permissions necessary to perform a task. The user only needs execute, not read. Option A (separation of duties) divides tasks among different people, which is not relevant.

Option B (least privilege) is correct because it restricts access to the minimum required. Option C (defense in depth) uses multiple layers of security. Option D (need-to-know) limits access to sensitive information but does not cover execution.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

34
Multi-Selectmedium

During a ransomware incident, the incident response team needs to communicate with stakeholders. According to best practices, which TWO groups should be notified immediately? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Affected customers
B.Legal and public relations
C.All employees
D.Competitors
E.Internal management
AnswersB, E

Legal and PR help manage regulatory and public communication.

Why this answer

Internal management and legal/PR need to be informed early to coordinate response and manage communications.

35
MCQmedium

A company's BCP requires that critical systems be restored within 2 hours of disruption. Which metric defines this?

A.Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)
B.Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
C.Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D.Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
AnswerB

RTO specifies the maximum acceptable downtime for a system.

Why this answer

The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) defines the maximum acceptable time that a system or application can be unavailable after a disruption. In this scenario, the requirement to restore critical systems within 2 hours directly specifies the RTO. It is a key metric in business continuity planning that drives the design of failover and recovery strategies.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between RTO and RPO, where candidates confuse the time to restore service (RTO) with the acceptable data loss window (RPO).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) measures the average time taken to repair a failed component, not the maximum allowable downtime for a business process. Option C is wrong because a Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contractual commitment between a provider and customer, often including uptime percentages, but it does not define the specific recovery time target for a BCP. Option D is wrong because Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time (e.g., how far back in time data may be lost), not the time to restore service.

36
MCQmedium

According to NIST SP 800-63, which password policy is most recommended?

A.Allow short passwords but require numbers and symbols
B.Use complex passwords with special characters and minimal length
C.Enforce a minimum length of 8 characters and check against breached password lists
D.Require frequent password changes every 30 days
AnswerC

Length and breach checking align with NIST recommendations.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-63 emphasizes password length over complexity and discourages frequent mandatory changes.

37
MCQhard

In a typical Windows environment, which access control model is used for managing file permissions?

A.Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
B.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C.Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
D.Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
AnswerA

File owners can grant or deny permissions to others.

Why this answer

In a typical Windows environment, file permissions are managed using Discretionary Access Control (DAC), where the owner of a resource (e.g., a file or folder) can grant or deny access to other users or groups. This is implemented via NTFS permissions, which allow the owner to set ACLs (Access Control Lists) on objects, giving them discretion over who can read, write, or execute. Windows does not enforce a system-wide policy beyond the owner's decisions, which is the hallmark of DAC.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that Windows uses RBAC because of Active Directory groups, but AD groups are merely a convenience for assigning DAC permissions, not a role-based system; the key distinction is that DAC gives discretion to the resource owner, while RBAC assigns permissions based on organizational roles defined by an administrator.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (RBAC) is wrong because Windows does not natively use Role-Based Access Control for file permissions; RBAC is typically implemented in enterprise applications or databases (e.g., SQL Server) and assigns permissions based on job functions, not owner discretion. Option C (MAC) is wrong because Mandatory Access Control is not used in standard Windows; it is a feature of high-security systems like SELinux or Trusted Solaris, where a central authority (e.g., a security label) overrides owner decisions. Option D (ABAC) is wrong because Attribute-Based Access Control is not the default model for Windows file permissions; ABAC evaluates policies based on attributes (e.g., time, location) and is more common in modern cloud or network access control systems (e.g., AWS IAM), not in the NTFS permission system.

38
Multi-Selecteasy

Which two of the following are examples of physical access controls? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Security guards
B.Encryption
C.Password policies
D.Firewall rules
E.Biometric door locks
AnswersA, E

Security guards monitor and control physical access to premises.

Why this answer

Security guards are a physical access control because they provide a human barrier to unauthorized entry, monitoring and challenging individuals who attempt to access restricted areas. They enforce physical security policies through observation, verification, and intervention, making them a classic example of a deterrent and preventive physical control.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between physical, administrative, and logical/technical controls, and the trap here is that candidates confuse encryption or firewall rules as 'physical' because they are tangible in implementation, but they are actually logical controls that protect data, not physical assets or premises.

39
MCQmedium

A small business wants to minimize backup storage space and backup time, knowing that restoration may be slower. Which backup strategy should they choose?

A.Full backup weekly and incremental daily
B.Full backup daily
C.Differential backup daily
D.Incremental backup daily
AnswerD

Incremental backups are fastest and smallest, but restore is slower.

Why this answer

Incremental backups capture only changes since the last backup (full or incremental), saving time and space, but restoration requires all incrementals since the last full backup.

40
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential DDoS attack. Which of the following are common indicators of a DDoS? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Low CPU usage on servers
B.Unusually high traffic volume from multiple IP addresses
C.Single source sending many packets
D.Slow network performance and increased latency
E.Decrease in DNS queries
AnswersB, D

DDoS uses distributed sources.

Why this answer

High volume of traffic from many sources and increased latency are signs of DDoS.

41
MCQeasy

An organization implements a rule that an employee cannot approve their own expenses. This is an example of which security principle?

A.Least privilege
B.Separation of duties
C.Defense in depth
D.Accountability
AnswerB

Separation of duties prevents a single individual from having conflicting roles.

Why this answer

Correct: B - Separation of duties. Separation of duties prevents a single individual from having conflicting roles. Option A is wrong because least privilege limits access to only necessary resources.

Option C is wrong because defense in depth uses multiple layers. Option D is wrong because accountability tracks actions to individuals.

42
MCQmedium

In Active Directory, a GPO is used to enforce a policy that automatically locks user sessions after 15 minutes of inactivity. This is an example of which type of access control?

A.Detective access control
B.Physical access control
C.Administrative access control
D.Logical access control
AnswerD

Session timeouts are logical controls enforced by the OS.

Why this answer

Session timeouts are logical access controls that reduce risk of unauthorized access from unattended workstations.

43
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices multiple failed login attempts from a single IP address within a short period. Which control would best mitigate this brute force attack?

A.Account lockout
B.Session timeout
C.Password complexity
D.Least privilege
AnswerA

Correct. Account lockout triggers after a set number of failures.

Why this answer

Account lockout disables an account after a threshold of failed attempts, thwarting brute force attacks.

44
MCQhard

A security engineer is configuring a network security device that can block malicious HTTP requests based on application-layer inspection. Which device type is most suitable?

A.Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
B.Network-based Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
C.Web Application Firewall (WAF)
D.Stateful firewall
AnswerC

Correct. WAF inspects HTTP/HTTPS application layer traffic.

Why this answer

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) specifically inspects HTTP/HTTPS traffic and can block attacks like SQL injection and XSS.

45
MCQhard

During a DDoS attack, a company's web server is overwhelmed with a high volume of SYN packets from spoofed IP addresses, never completing the TCP handshake. Which type of attack is this?

A.ICMP flood
B.UDP flood
C.Amplification attack
D.SYN flood
AnswerD

Correct. SYN flood exploits the TCP handshake.

Why this answer

A SYN flood sends many SYN packets to exhaust server resources by leaving half-open connections.

46
MCQmedium

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues and notices that frames are being dropped due to excessive collisions. Which OSI layer is most directly associated with this issue?

A.Physical
B.Data Link
C.Network
D.Transport
AnswerB

Frames and collision detection (CSMA/CD) are Layer 2 functions.

Why this answer

Collisions occur at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) where frames are transmitted over shared media. Hubs and CSMA/CD operate at this layer.

47
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are fundamental security principles? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Fail-open
B.Need to share
C.Defense in depth
D.Least privilege
E.Complexity
AnswersC, D

Correct. Defense in depth is a key principle.

Why this answer

Defense in depth is a fundamental security principle that implements multiple layers of security controls (e.g., firewalls, IDS/IPS, encryption, access controls) so that if one layer fails, others still provide protection. This layered approach ensures no single point of failure can compromise the entire system, aligning with the CC exam's emphasis on holistic security strategies.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between security principles (like defense in depth and least privilege) and design concepts (like fail-open or complexity), so candidates mistakenly select 'fail-open' because it sounds security-related, but it actually reduces security in a failure scenario.

48
Multi-Selecthard

An organization wants to implement defense in depth for its server room. Which THREE controls should be included?

Select 3 answers
A.Cable locks on all servers
B.Group Policy to enforce password complexity
C.Visitor sign-in log at the front desk
D.CCTV monitoring inside the server room
E.Biometric access control on the server room door
AnswersA, D, E

Cable locks prevent physical theft of equipment.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple overlapping controls. These three represent different layers.

49
MCQeasy

Which access control principle restricts access to data based on the user's job role and tasks?

A.Separation of duties
B.Need to know
C.Defense in depth
D.Least privilege
AnswerB

Correct. Need-to-know ensures users only access data required for their job.

Why this answer

Need-to-know restricts access to data only when necessary for job tasks, separate from least privilege which focuses on permissions.

50
MCQeasy

A security analyst notices that a user's account has been used to access sensitive files outside of normal working hours from an unknown IP address. Which security principle is most directly violated?

A.Availability
B.Non-repudiation
C.Integrity
D.Confidentiality
AnswerD

Confidentiality prevents unauthorized disclosure; the access compromised confidentiality.

Why this answer

The scenario describes unauthorized access to sensitive files from an unknown IP address outside normal hours, which directly violates the principle of confidentiality. Confidentiality ensures that data is accessible only to authorized users and systems, and this breach indicates that sensitive information may have been exposed to an unauthorized party.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between confidentiality and integrity by presenting a scenario where data is accessed (not modified), leading candidates to mistakenly choose integrity because they conflate 'unauthorized access' with 'data tampering'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because availability concerns ensuring systems and data are accessible when needed, not preventing unauthorized access; the account was still functional, so availability was not violated. Option B is wrong because non-repudiation relates to proving that a specific user performed an action (e.g., via digital signatures or audit logs), not preventing unauthorized access; the issue here is unauthorized use, not repudiation of actions. Option C is wrong because integrity focuses on protecting data from unauthorized modification or corruption; the scenario does not indicate any alteration of files, only access.

51
Multi-Selectmedium

A security policy requires that all changes to production systems be approved by a change management board. Which THREE of the following principles best support this requirement?

Select 3 answers
A.Non-repudiation
B.Defense in depth
C.Separation of duties
D.Accountability
E.Least privilege
AnswersA, C, D

Provides proof of approval to prevent denial.

Why this answer

Separation of duties ensures approval and implementation are done by different people. Accountability ensures actions are traceable. Non-repudiation provides proof of approval.

Least privilege and defense in depth are less directly related.

52
MCQmedium

A security team identifies that a server has a known vulnerability. A threat actor could exploit it to gain unauthorized access. The combination of these factors represents:

A.Threat
B.Risk
C.Control
D.Vulnerability
AnswerB

Risk is the potential for loss when a threat exploits a vulnerability.

Why this answer

Risk is the probability that a threat exploits a vulnerability, causing harm.

53
Multi-Selecthard

A security team is analyzing network segmentation strategies. Which THREE of the following are benefits of using VLANs for network segmentation?

Select 3 answers
A.They allow logical grouping of users regardless of physical location
B.They eliminate the need for IP addressing
C.They increase the collision domain size
D.They reduce broadcast traffic by dividing broadcast domains
E.They can isolate sensitive systems from the rest of the network
AnswersA, D, E

VLANs group devices based on function, not location.

Why this answer

VLANs provide logical separation, improve security, reduce broadcast domain size, and allow flexible grouping without physical rewiring.

54
MCQeasy

A mid-sized e-commerce company has a primary data center in New York and a disaster recovery site in Dallas. The application stack includes a web server, application server, and a PostgreSQL database. The database uses synchronous replication to the DR site. During a routine failover test, the IT team discovers that after failing over to Dallas, the web servers in New York continue to attempt connections to the original database IP, causing application errors. The DNS records have been updated to point to the DR database IP, but the web servers are not refreshing their DNS cache. The company uses a standard TTL of 300 seconds. The IT manager needs a solution that ensures minimal disruption during future failovers. Which action should be taken?

A.Add a static host entry in the web servers' hosts file pointing to the DR database IP
B.Increase the DNS TTL to 86400 seconds to ensure all caches are updated quickly
C.Configure the web servers to use a different DNS resolver that does not cache
D.Implement a load balancer or proxy with a virtual IP that can be switched during failover, and update the web server configuration to connect to the virtual IP
AnswerD

A virtual IP (VIP) can be moved between data centers via BGP or similar, so web servers always connect to the same IP, avoiding DNS caching issues.

Why this answer

It decouples the web servers from the database IP address by introducing a load balancer or proxy with a virtual IP (VIP). During failover, the VIP is simply moved to the DR database, and the web servers continue connecting to the same VIP without any DNS dependency or cache refresh issues. This eliminates the problem of stale DNS caches and ensures minimal disruption, as the connection endpoint remains constant.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that DNS TTL adjustments or cache clearing are sufficient for failover scenarios, but the trap here is that DNS-based solutions inherently introduce propagation delays and cache inconsistencies, whereas a virtual IP provides immediate, transparent failover without relying on DNS resolution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because adding a static host entry in the web servers' hosts file would require manual updates on every web server during each failover, which is not scalable and defeats the purpose of automation; it also does not address the DNS cache issue but rather bypasses it with a brittle workaround. Option B is wrong because increasing the DNS TTL to 86400 seconds would actually make the problem worse by causing DNS caches to hold stale records for longer, delaying the propagation of the updated IP address during failover. Option C is wrong because configuring the web servers to use a DNS resolver that does not cache would still require the resolver to query authoritative DNS servers, and the web servers themselves may still cache the result; moreover, it introduces unnecessary complexity and does not solve the fundamental issue of relying on DNS for a critical failover scenario.

55
MCQeasy

A security analyst at a Security Operations Centre (SOC) receives an alert from the SIEM indicating multiple failed login attempts for a user account followed by a successful login from an unusual geographic location. According to SOC tier responsibilities, which tier should perform the initial triage of this alert?

A.Tier 1 analyst
B.IT support team
C.Tier 2 analyst
D.Tier 3 analyst
AnswerA

Tier 1 analysts monitor alerts and perform initial triage.

Why this answer

Tier 1 analysts are responsible for monitoring alerts and performing initial triage to determine if further investigation is needed.

56
MCQmedium

Based on the exhibit, which statement about the access control list is true?

A.All IP traffic is permitted except ICMP
B.HTTP traffic is denied
C.Only HTTP traffic is permitted
D.ICMP echo requests are permitted
AnswerA

Line 10 permits HTTP, line 20 denies ICMP, line 30 permits all other IP.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows an access control list (ACL) that explicitly denies ICMP traffic with the entry 'deny icmp any any' and then permits all other IP traffic with 'permit ip any any'. Since ACLs are processed sequentially and the 'permit ip any any' matches all IP protocols (including HTTP, HTTPS, etc.) except those already denied, the result is that all IP traffic is permitted except ICMP. This makes option A correct.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the sequential nature of ACLs and the fact that 'permit ip any any' permits all IP protocols except those explicitly denied earlier, leading candidates to mistakenly think ICMP is permitted or that only HTTP is allowed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because HTTP traffic (TCP port 80) is a subset of IP traffic and is explicitly permitted by the 'permit ip any any' entry; there is no deny statement for HTTP. Option C is wrong because the ACL permits all IP traffic (except ICMP), not just HTTP; HTTP is only one of many permitted protocols. Option D is wrong because ICMP echo requests are a type of ICMP traffic, and the ACL contains a 'deny icmp any any' statement that blocks all ICMP, including echo requests.

57
MCQmedium

An organisation implements an account lockout policy that locks an account after 5 failed login attempts within 15 minutes. This control is designed to prevent:

A.Denial-of-service attacks
B.Brute-force attacks
C.Man-in-the-middle attacks
D.Phishing attacks
AnswerB

Lockout stops repeated guessing attempts.

Why this answer

Account lockout mitigates brute-force password guessing attacks.

58
MCQmedium

Which of the following best describes a vulnerability in the context of risk management?

A.The likelihood that a threat will exploit a weakness
B.A measure that reduces risk
C.A weakness that can be exploited by a threat
D.A potential cause of an unwanted incident
AnswerC

This is the definition of vulnerability.

Why this answer

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited by a threat to cause harm.

59
MCQmedium

A company's network uses 802.1X authentication for wired and wireless access. Which component authenticates the user credentials against an identity store?

A.Supplicant
B.Authenticator
C.Authentication server (RADIUS)
D.Access point
AnswerC

The authentication server performs the actual credential verification against the identity store.

Why this answer

In 802.1X, the authentication server (typically a RADIUS server) is the component that validates user credentials against an identity store such as LDAP, Active Directory, or a local database. The supplicant (client) provides credentials, the authenticator (switch or access point) relays EAP frames, but only the RADIUS server performs the actual authentication decision.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that the authenticator (switch or AP) performs authentication, but in 802.1X the authenticator only controls port access based on the RADIUS server's decision, not the credential validation itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the supplicant is the client software (e.g., on a laptop) that initiates authentication by sending credentials, but it does not validate them against any identity store. Option B is wrong because the authenticator (e.g., a switch or wireless controller) acts as a middleman, forwarding EAP messages between supplicant and RADIUS server, but it does not perform credential validation. Option D is wrong because an access point can act as an authenticator in wireless 802.1X, but it still does not authenticate credentials; it only relays EAP traffic to the RADIUS server.

60
MCQeasy

Which security principle ensures that data cannot be accessed by unauthorized individuals?

A.Integrity
B.Confidentiality
C.Non-repudiation
D.Availability
AnswerB

Confidentiality prevents unauthorized disclosure of information.

Why this answer

Confidentiality ensures that data is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, systems, or processes.

61
MCQmedium

During a routine security audit, an analyst finds that several critical servers have misconfigured firewall rules allowing inbound SSH access from the entire internet. Which immediate action should the analyst take?

A.Disable SSH on all servers
B.Notify the server owners and wait for their response
C.Document the finding and include it in the audit report
D.Modify the firewall rules to allow SSH only from specific management IPs
AnswerD

This directly mitigates the vulnerability by restricting access.

Why this answer

The immediate priority is to eliminate the critical vulnerability by restricting inbound SSH access to only authorized management IPs. This aligns with the principle of least privilege and the immediate remediation steps in security incident response, as leaving the misconfiguration active even briefly exposes the servers to potential compromise.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between 'documenting' a finding and taking immediate remediation for a critical vulnerability, where candidates mistakenly choose documentation over action because they confuse audit procedures with incident response priorities.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling SSH entirely would disrupt legitimate administrative access and is an overly drastic measure that could cause operational outages; the correct approach is to restrict access rather than remove the service. Option B is wrong because waiting for server owners introduces an unacceptable delay in mitigating an active, critical vulnerability that exposes the servers to internet-wide brute-force attacks. Option C is wrong because merely documenting the finding without taking immediate corrective action violates the security analyst's duty to remediate critical risks promptly, as per standard incident response procedures.

62
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common indicators of a potential data breach? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Unauthorized access to sensitive files
B.Increased employee productivity
C.Regular software updates
D.Multiple failed login attempts from a single account
E.Unusual outbound network traffic
AnswersA, E

Access by unauthorized users is a clear breach indicator.

Why this answer

Unusual outbound network traffic (e.g., data exfiltration) and unauthorized access attempts are typical signs of a breach.

63
MCQeasy

Which authentication type is a smart card an example of?

A.Type 1 (knowledge)
B.Type 2 (possession)
C.Type 3 (inherence)
D.Multi-factor
AnswerB

Possession factors include smart cards, tokens, and authenticator apps.

Why this answer

Smart cards are physical devices that a user possesses, making them Type 2 (possession) authentication.

64
MCQeasy

Which data classification level typically requires the highest level of protection and is reserved for information that could cause catastrophic harm if disclosed?

A.Confidential
B.Public
C.Internal
D.Restricted
AnswerD

Correct. Restricted (or top secret) is the highest classification.

Why this answer

Restricted or top secret classification is used for information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to the organization or nation if disclosed.

65
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of integrity controls? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Redundancy
B.Digital signatures
C.Firewalls
D.Encryption
E.Hashing
AnswersB, E

Digital signatures ensure integrity and authenticity.

Why this answer

Hashing and digital signatures are integrity controls that verify data has not been altered.

66
MCQmedium

An organization must retain authentication logs for compliance with PCI DSS. What is the minimum retention period and the requirement for immediate availability?

A.6 months retention with 1 month immediately available
B.24 months retention with 12 months immediately available
C.18 months retention with 6 months immediately available
D.12 months retention with 3 months immediately available
AnswerD

This matches PCI DSS requirements.

Why this answer

PCI DSS requires a minimum of 12 months retention with at least 3 months immediately available for analysis.

67
MCQmedium

A security analyst is configuring an intrusion detection system (IDS) to detect SQL injection attacks. Which method is most effective?

A.Analyze DNS query patterns
B.Detect port scans from external IPs
C.Examine HTTP request parameters for SQL commands
D.Monitor bandwidth usage for spikes
AnswerC

This directly identifies SQL injection payloads in web requests.

Why this answer

Examining HTTP request parameters for SQL commands directly detects SQL injection attempts. The other options are unrelated or less effective.

68
MCQmedium

A user logs into a system using a password and a one-time passcode from a mobile authenticator app. This is an example of:

A.Biometric authentication
B.Two-step verification using same factor
C.Multi-factor authentication
D.Single-factor authentication
AnswerC

Password (Type 1) and OTP (Type 2) are used.

Why this answer

Combining two different authentication types (knowledge and possession) is multi-factor authentication.

69
MCQhard

An organization decides to accept the risk of using a legacy system that cannot be patched due to critical business operations. This is an example of:

A.Risk transfer
B.Risk avoidance
C.Risk mitigation
D.Risk acceptance
AnswerD

The organization is aware of the risk and accepts it without additional action.

Why this answer

Risk acceptance means acknowledging the risk and choosing not to mitigate, transfer, or avoid it.

70
MCQeasy

After an incident is resolved, which phase involves reviewing what happened, documenting lessons learned, and updating procedures?

A.Eradication
B.Containment
C.Lessons learned
D.Recovery
AnswerC

This phase focuses on post-incident review and improvement.

Why this answer

The lessons learned phase captures improvements for future incidents.

71
MCQeasy

A security analyst notices repeated failed login attempts from a single external IP address targeting the company's VPN concentrator. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?

A.Spoofing
B.Brute force
C.Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
D.Denial of Service (DoS)
AnswerB

Brute force attacks involve repeated guessing of credentials, matching this behavior.

Why this answer

Repeated failed login attempts from a single external IP targeting a VPN concentrator are the hallmark of a brute force attack. The attacker systematically tries many username/password combinations to gain unauthorized access, exploiting weak or common credentials rather than exploiting a protocol vulnerability.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a brute force attack (focused on credential guessing) and a Denial of Service attack (focused on resource exhaustion), where candidates mistakenly choose DoS because repeated attempts seem to 'overwhelm' the system, but the core intent is unauthorized access, not service disruption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because spoofing involves falsifying the source IP address to impersonate a trusted host, not repeatedly attempting logins; the attack here originates from a single external IP, not a spoofed one. Option C is wrong because a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack intercepts or alters communication between two parties, often requiring ARP spoofing or rogue certificates, not repeated login attempts against a VPN concentrator. Option D is wrong because a Denial of Service (DoS) attack aims to overwhelm the VPN concentrator with traffic to disrupt service, not to gain access via credential guessing; the repeated login attempts here are targeted at authentication, not resource exhaustion.

72
MCQeasy

A security administrator notices that a user with standard privileges was able to modify a system file. Which security principle has been violated?

A.Need to know
B.Defense in depth
C.Least privilege
D.Separation of duties
AnswerC

The user had more privileges than needed, violating least privilege.

Why this answer

The principle of least privilege requires that users be granted only the permissions necessary to perform their job functions. A standard user modifying a system file indicates they have been assigned unnecessary administrative rights, violating this principle. This could occur if the user is a member of a group like Administrators or has been granted explicit write access to protected directories such as %SystemRoot%\System32.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests least privilege by presenting a scenario where a user performs an action beyond their role, and the trap is confusing it with need to know (which focuses on data access, not system-level permissions) or separation of duties (which involves task division, not permission granularity).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because need to know controls access to specific data based on job necessity, not the ability to modify system files; it is about information disclosure, not system-level permissions. Option B is wrong because defense in depth is a layered security strategy (e.g., firewalls, antivirus, IDS), not a principle that directly addresses user permission levels. Option D is wrong because separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple people to prevent fraud, not to restrict a single user's system-level access.

73
MCQmedium

A data breach exposed customers' names, addresses, and Social Security numbers. Which type of data was compromised?

A.Public data
B.Confidential business data
C.Internal data
D.Sensitive PII
AnswerD

SSN is sensitive PII requiring high protection.

Why this answer

Social Security numbers combined with names and addresses are considered sensitive PII that can cause significant harm if disclosed.

74
MCQeasy

To protect the integrity of log files, which of the following is a best practice?

A.Use write-once storage or a separate log server
B.Store logs on the same server as the application
C.Allow administrators to edit logs for accuracy
D.Encrypt logs but store them locally
AnswerA

This prevents modification or deletion of logs.

Why this answer

Using write-once storage (e.g., WORM) or a separate log server prevents tampering with log data.

75
MCQeasy

An organization decides to implement multiple security controls, including firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and antivirus software. Which security principle does this represent?

A.Least privilege
B.Defense in depth
C.Risk avoidance
D.Separation of duties
AnswerB

Defense in depth is the correct answer. It involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to provide redundancy and protect against various threats.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple layers of security controls to protect assets. Option A (Least privilege) is about granting only necessary permissions. Option B (Defense in depth) is the correct answer as it employs multiple security layers such as firewalls, IDS, and antivirus.

Option C (Risk avoidance) involves eliminating risk by avoiding risky activities. Option D (Separation of duties) divides critical tasks among multiple individuals to prevent fraud.

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