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ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity CC (CC) — Questions 226300

976 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
MCQhard

A security manager is advised to implement 'due care' in their organization. Which action best exemplifies due care?

A.Purchasing cyber insurance
B.Performing a background check on a new vendor
C.Accepting the risk of a legacy system
D.Regularly updating antivirus software
AnswerD

Regular updates demonstrate a minimum standard of care to protect systems.

Why this answer

Due care means taking reasonable steps to protect assets, such as implementing basic security controls like patch management.

227
MCQmedium

A company deploys a network security device that can block malicious traffic in real-time by inspecting packet payloads and application data. However, the device occasionally blocks legitimate traffic. Which device is described?

A.IPS
B.Firewall
C.WAF
D.IDS
AnswerA

IPS can block, with risk of blocking legitimate traffic.

Why this answer

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) sits inline and can block traffic based on deep inspection, but may cause false positives that disrupt legitimate communications.

228
Multi-Selecteasy

A network security team is implementing a defense-in-depth strategy. Which TWO of the following controls are examples of network segmentation? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Implementing firewall rules between internal zones.
B.Deploying an intrusion detection system (IDS) on the core switch.
C.Configuring VLANs to separate departmental traffic.
D.Placing public-facing servers in a DMZ.
E.Using VPN for remote access.
AnswersA, C

Firewalls enforce segmentation by controlling traffic between zones.

Why this answer

Implementing firewall rules between internal zones is a form of network segmentation. By creating distinct security zones (e.g., inside, outside, DMZ) and applying access control lists (ACLs) or stateful firewall policies between them, traffic is restricted to only what is explicitly permitted, thereby isolating network segments and limiting lateral movement.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between segmentation (which actively isolates traffic) and other security controls like monitoring (IDS), placement (DMZ), or encryption (VPN), leading candidates to confuse architectural placement or tunneling with the actual act of segmenting the network.

229
MCQhard

A security analyst reviews firewall logs and sees a series of outbound connections from an internal server to a known command-and-control (C2) IP address at regular intervals. Which step should the analyst take first according to incident response best practices?

A.Isolate the server from the network immediately.
B.Check if the IP address is associated with known malware or threats.
C.Quarantine the server and begin forensic analysis.
D.Terminate the outbound connections by blocking the IP.
AnswerB

Checking the IP address against current threat intelligence feeds is the crucial first step. While the IP is identified as 'known command-and-control', verifying its specific associations with malware families or active campaigns provides essential context. This enrichment confirms the nature of the threat and informs subsequent incident response phases, satisfying the need for initial validation before proceeding with containment or eradication.

Why this answer

Per incident response best practices, the first step is to verify the alert through threat intelligence to confirm it's not a false positive. Checking if the IP address is associated with known malware or threats (option B) validates the alert before taking any disruptive actions. Immediately isolating, quarantining, or blocking (options A, C, D) without confirmation can cause unnecessary disruption if the alert is benign.

230
MCQmedium

A company is developing a disaster recovery plan for its database server. The database is updated transactionally and cannot tolerate any data loss. Which backup strategy meets this requirement?

A.Log shipping with 15-minute intervals
B.Full backups nightly
C.Continuous database mirroring
D.Differential backups every 6 hours
AnswerC

Provides real-time replication with zero data loss.

Why this answer

Continuous database mirroring (C) is correct because it maintains a synchronous copy of the database on a secondary server, ensuring that every committed transaction is immediately written to both servers. This provides zero data loss (RPO=0) and automatic failover, which is required for a transactional database that cannot tolerate any data loss.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between synchronous and asynchronous replication methods, and the trap here is that candidates confuse log shipping or differential backups (which have inherent recovery point gaps) with true zero-data-loss solutions like continuous database mirroring.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because log shipping with 15-minute intervals introduces a recovery point objective (RPO) of up to 15 minutes, meaning any transactions committed in that window would be lost if the primary fails. Option B is wrong because full backups nightly only capture the database state at the time of the backup, leaving all transactions since the last backup vulnerable to loss. Option D is wrong because differential backups every 6 hours still rely on a full backup and only capture changes since that full backup, resulting in an RPO of up to 6 hours and potential data loss.

231
Multi-Selecthard

A security architect is designing an access control policy based on the principle of need-to-know. Which TWO practices support this principle? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Implementing data classification labels
B.Using a single sign-on solution
C.Requiring two-factor authentication
D.Granting all employees access to the company directory
E.Providing access to customer data only for customer support staff
AnswersA, E

Labels help determine who needs access.

Why this answer

Need-to-know means only accessing data necessary for job functions. Data classification and role-based access help enforce this.

232
MCQhard

Which of the following is a common mitigation technique for a SYN flood attack?

A.SYN cookies
B.Use UDP instead of TCP
C.Disable TCP timestamps
D.Increase the TCP backlog queue
AnswerA

SYN cookies encode connection state in the SYN-ACK response.

Why this answer

SYN cookies allow the server to respond to SYN requests without maintaining state until the connection is verified, reducing the impact of SYN floods.

233
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are examples of implementing the principle of least privilege?

Select 2 answers
A.Installing a security camera at the data center entrance
B.Assigning a database administrator only the permissions required for their specific tasks
C.Requiring two-factor authentication for system administrators
D.Implementing a firewall to block all incoming traffic except on port 443
E.Granting a user read-only access to a file they need to view
AnswersB, E

This minimizes privileges to job duties.

Why this answer

The correct answers are B and E. Option B assigns a database administrator only the permissions required for their tasks, directly applying least privilege. Option E grants a user only read-only access to a file they need to view, also minimizing privileges.

Option A (security camera) is a physical security control, not least privilege. Option C (two-factor authentication) is an example of defense in depth. Option D (firewall rule) is a network security measure.

234
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following correctly describe components of a directory service distinguished name (DN) in LDAP? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.OU=Sales
B.UID=jsmith
C.SN=Smith
D.GID=1234
E.CN=John Smith
AnswersA, E

OU (Organizational Unit) is a valid DN component.

Why this answer

In LDAP, a distinguished name uses CN (Common Name), OU (Organizational Unit), and DC (Domain Component). CN=John Smith and OU=Sales are valid components.

235
MCQhard

An LDAP distinguished name is written as: CN=John Smith,OU=Sales,DC=company,DC=com. What do the 'OU' and 'DC' components represent?

A.OU = Organizational Unit; DC = Domain Component
B.OU = Organizational Unit; DC = Domain Controller
C.OU = Organizational Unit; DC = Distinguished Component
D.OU = Object Unit; DC = Domain Component
AnswerA

Correct.

Why this answer

OU = Organizational Unit, DC = Domain Component.

236
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following controls are examples of defense in depth?

Select 2 answers
A.Single sign-on
B.Encryption at rest
C.Network firewall
D.Anti-malware software
E.Strong password policy
AnswersC, D

A network firewall is a classic network layer control that filters traffic between networks, a key component of defense in depth.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple layers of security controls. Network firewall (Option C) provides network-level protection, and anti-malware software (Option D) provides host-level protection, together forming overlapping layers. Single sign-on (Option A) is an authentication convenience, not a security layer.

Encryption at rest (Option B) is a data protection control but is not typically considered a separate layer in defense in depth; it is often categorized under data security. Strong password policy (Option E) is a procedural control that supports authentication but does not constitute a distinct defensive layer.

237
MCQeasy

Which protocol is considered insecure because it transmits data in cleartext, including passwords?

A.SFTP
B.SSH
C.HTTPS
D.Telnet
AnswerD

Correct. Telnet uses cleartext transmission.

Why this answer

Telnet (port 23) sends all data, including credentials, in plaintext.

238
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are examples of Type 3 (inherence) authentication factors?

Select 2 answers
A.OTP token
B.Smart card
C.Retina scan
D.Password
E.Fingerprint scan
AnswersC, E

Retina scan is a biometric (inherence) factor.

Why this answer

Type 3 factors are biometric characteristics unique to an individual.

239
MCQhard

A legacy system cannot be patched due to vendor unavailability. Which compensating control would be most effective in reducing the risk of exploitation?

A.Increase logging and monitoring of the system.
B.Perform weekly vulnerability scans on the system.
C.Apply a virtual patch using an intrusion prevention system (IPS).
D.Deploy a web application firewall (WAF) in front of the system.
AnswerD

WAF can filter malicious traffic targeting known vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

Network isolation prevents attackers from reaching the vulnerable system, while a WAF adds an additional layer of defense for web-based vulnerabilities.

240
MCQmedium

Which of the following is an example of a logical access control?

A.Biometric reader on a server room door
B.Fencing around a building
C.Password policy requiring 8 characters
D.Security guards
AnswerC

Correct. Password policies are logical controls.

Why this answer

A password is a logical (software-based) control that authenticates users.

241
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.Determine the cost of implementing security controls
B.List all IT assets
C.Identify critical business processes and their recovery priorities
D.Assign incident response roles
AnswerC

The BIA determines the impact of disruptions and prioritizes recovery.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA) is to identify critical business processes and quantify the impact of their disruption, which directly determines recovery priorities and objectives (RTO/RPO). This output drives the business continuity and disaster recovery strategy, not asset inventory or cost estimation.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a BIA (which identifies critical processes and their recovery priorities) and a risk assessment (which identifies threats and vulnerabilities), leading candidates to confuse the BIA's purpose with asset listing or cost analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because determining the cost of implementing security controls is a function of risk management and cost-benefit analysis, not the BIA, which focuses on impact quantification rather than solution pricing. Option B is wrong because listing all IT assets is an inventory management or configuration management task (e.g., CMDB), whereas the BIA prioritizes business processes and their dependencies, not a simple asset list. Option D is wrong because assigning incident response roles is part of the incident response plan (IRP) development, not the BIA, which identifies recovery priorities before any roles are assigned.

242
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the log entries, what type of attack is most likely occurring?

A.Brute-force attack.
B.Dictionary attack.
C.Privilege escalation.
D.Denial of service.
AnswerB

Multiple usernames tried suggests a dictionary of common names.

Why this answer

The log entries show repeated failed login attempts using different usernames and passwords, which is characteristic of a dictionary attack where an attacker uses a list of common usernames and passwords to gain unauthorized access. Unlike a brute-force attack that tries all possible combinations, a dictionary attack uses a predefined list of likely credentials, making it more efficient and matching the pattern in the logs.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a dictionary attack and a brute-force attack, where candidates mistakenly choose 'brute-force' because they see many failed logins, but the key is whether the attempts use a predefined list (dictionary) versus exhaustive character combinations (brute-force).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a brute-force attack systematically tries every possible combination of characters (e.g., aaa, aab, aac), which would generate a much higher volume of attempts and not be limited to a list of common words or names as seen in the logs. Option C is wrong because privilege escalation involves an attacker gaining higher-level permissions after initial access, not repeated login attempts from the start. Option D is wrong because a denial of service attack aims to overwhelm a system with traffic or requests to disrupt service, not to authenticate via repeated login attempts.

243
MCQmedium

An online retailer has a DR plan that includes active-active data centers. During a major DDoS attack, one data center's external connectivity is saturated. The internal network is operational. The security team has identified the attack traffic pattern and is working with the ISP to filter. To maintain service availability, what action should be taken?

A.Shut down the attacked data center and fail all traffic to the other data center.
B.Redirect all traffic to a cloud-based scrubbing center.
C.Implement rate limiting on the affected network segment.
D.Continue monitoring and let the ISP handle the attack.
AnswerB

Filters attack traffic and maintains service availability.

Why this answer

A cloud-based scrubbing center (DDoS mitigation service) can filter malicious traffic before it reaches the retailer's network, preserving the active-active data center architecture. Since the internal network is operational, the attack only saturates external connectivity; redirecting traffic to the scrubbing center allows clean traffic to be re-injected into the data centers, maintaining service availability without taking any site offline.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that shutting down a data center is the safest failover action during a DDoS, but the trap here is that active-active designs require keeping both sites operational to maintain capacity and redundancy, and scrubbing centers are the correct mitigation technique for external saturation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because shutting down the attacked data center violates the active-active DR principle and would cause unnecessary downtime; the internal network is still functional, so the site can continue serving traffic once clean traffic is returned. Option C is wrong because rate limiting on the affected network segment would also drop legitimate traffic, degrading service availability rather than preserving it; it does not address the root cause of DDoS saturation. Option D is wrong because continuing to monitor while relying solely on the ISP is passive and insufficient; the ISP filtering may take time, and the retailer must take immediate action to maintain availability during the attack.

244
MCQhard

After a major DDoS attack, a company deploys redundant internet connections and load balancers to ensure continued access to its web services. Which principle of the CIA triad is being strengthened?

A.Confidentiality
B.Non-repudiation
C.Availability
D.Integrity
AnswerC

Correct. Redundancy and load balancing ensure services remain available.

Why this answer

Redundancy and load balancing help maintain access for authorized users, supporting availability.

245
MCQmedium

A company discovers a critical vulnerability in a widely used software application. The vendor has released a patch, but the company's patch management policy requires testing before deployment. What is the best course of action?

A.Apply the patch using emergency change control to critical systems first, then test and deploy to others
B.Wait for the next scheduled maintenance window to apply the patch
C.Deploy the patch immediately without testing to all systems
D.Test the patch in a staging environment and then deploy to production
AnswerA

Correct. Emergency patching prioritizes critical systems with expedited testing.

Why this answer

For critical vulnerabilities being actively exploited, emergency patching should bypass normal testing cycles to reduce risk quickly.

246
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a security baseline for new servers. Which THREE components are typically included in a hardened baseline configuration? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Allowing remote desktop access from any IP address.
B.Disabling unnecessary services and ports.
C.Enabling automatic login for administrators.
D.Enforcing strong password policies.
E.Installing all available security patches.
AnswersB, D, E

Reduces attack surface.

Why this answer

Hardened baselines include disabling unnecessary services to reduce attack surface, enforcing strong password policies, and applying security updates to fix known vulnerabilities.

247
MCQmedium

A SOC analyst detects a pattern of outbound traffic from an internal server to a known malicious IP address. Which SOC tier should this alert be escalated to for a deeper investigation?

A.Tier 3
B.Tier 2
C.Tier 1
D.Incident Response Team
AnswerB

Correct. Tier 2 conducts in-depth investigation.

Why this answer

Tier 2 analysts conduct deeper investigation to confirm if the activity is malicious and determine the scope.

248
MCQmedium

An organization requires employees to enter a password and then approve a push notification on their mobile device to access the corporate network. What type of authentication is this?

A.Biometric authentication
B.Two-factor authentication
C.Multi-layer authentication
D.Single-factor authentication
AnswerB

Correct. It uses two different factors: knowledge and possession.

Why this answer

Combining a password (Type 1) and a mobile device approval (Type 2) constitutes multi-factor authentication.

249
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are commonly used techniques to detect phishing emails? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Scanning for specific file extensions.
B.Disabling automatic image loading.
C.Sandboxing email attachments in a secure environment.
D.Analyzing sender reputation and email headers.
E.Implementing DKIM and DMARC records.
AnswersC, D

Sandboxing can detect malicious attachments by executing them safely.

Why this answer

Sandboxing email attachments in a secure environment (Option C) is a common technique to detect phishing emails because it allows suspicious attachments to be executed and analyzed in an isolated virtual machine. This process observes the attachment's behavior for malicious activities, such as attempting to connect to a command-and-control server or dropping malware, without risking the actual endpoint. It is a core technology used in advanced email security gateways and threat intelligence platforms.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between email authentication protocols (DKIM/DMARC) and detection techniques, causing candidates to mistakenly select Option E as a detection method when it is actually a preventive authentication standard.

250
MCQmedium

A company wants to host a public-facing web server and an email server while protecting the internal network. Which network architecture is best suited for this purpose?

A.Subnetting
B.Full mesh topology
C.Virtual LAN (VLAN)
D.DMZ
AnswerD

DMZ is designed to host public-facing services securely.

Why this answer

A DMZ (demilitarized zone) is a segmented network that sits between the internet and the internal network, hosting public-facing servers while allowing controlled access from both sides.

251
MCQmedium

During a phishing investigation, a security analyst identifies that an employee clicked a malicious link. The analyst isolates the workstation. What is the NEXT best step?

A.Capture a memory image of the workstation for analysis
B.Update the company's acceptable use policy
C.Notify all employees about phishing risks
D.Reimage the workstation
AnswerA

Memory forensics can reveal running malware.

Why this answer

After isolating the workstation, the next best step is to capture a memory image (RAM) to preserve volatile evidence such as running processes, network connections, and malware artifacts that would be lost on shutdown. This follows the order of volatility (RFC 3227) and is critical for forensic analysis to determine the scope of the compromise.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the order of volatility (RFC 3227) and the principle that volatile data (memory) must be captured before non-volatile data (disk), so the trap here is that candidates may choose to reimage the workstation immediately to 'clean' it, not realizing that destroys forensic evidence needed for attribution and prevention.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because updating the acceptable use policy is a long-term administrative control, not an immediate incident response step; it does not preserve evidence or contain the threat. Option C is wrong because notifying all employees about phishing risks is a general awareness activity that should occur after the investigation, not before evidence is collected, and it could cause unnecessary panic or tip off an attacker. Option D is wrong because reimaging the workstation destroys all volatile and non-volatile evidence, making it impossible to perform a root-cause analysis or identify indicators of compromise (IOCs) that could prevent future incidents.

252
MCQmedium

An organization has implemented a network-based intrusion prevention system (IPS) in inline mode. After deployment, users report that legitimate web traffic is being blocked. What is the most likely cause?

A.The IPS is not receiving traffic due to a tap failure.
B.The IPS is placed behind the firewall instead of in front.
C.The IPS is configured in promiscuous mode.
D.The IPS signature set is too aggressive or includes false positives.
AnswerD

Aggressive signatures can flag legitimate traffic as malicious, causing blocks.

Why this answer

An inline IPS actively inspects and can block traffic based on its signature database. If the signature set is too aggressive or contains false positives, legitimate traffic matching those signatures will be incorrectly blocked. This is the most direct cause of blocking legitimate web traffic after deployment.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between inline and promiscuous modes, where candidates mistakenly think promiscuous mode can block traffic, but only inline mode allows active blocking.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a tap failure would cause the IPS to not receive traffic at all, resulting in no blocking (legitimate or otherwise), not the selective blocking of legitimate web traffic. Option B is wrong because placing the IPS behind the firewall does not inherently cause false positives; it affects traffic flow and security posture, but the blocking of legitimate traffic is a signature issue, not a placement issue. Option C is wrong because promiscuous mode means the IPS monitors traffic passively without being inline, so it cannot block traffic at all; blocking requires inline mode.

253
MCQhard

A company's network uses a perimeter firewall and an internal firewall. The DMZ sits between them. A new application server needs to be accessible from the internet on TCP port 8443 and must be able to make outbound HTTPS connections to an external license server. Which firewall rules should be implemented? (Assume default deny)

A.Allow inbound from internet to server on 8443; allow outbound from server to internet on 443; allow inbound from internet to server on 443 for license server response
B.Allow inbound from internet to server on 8443; allow outbound from server to internet on 443 with stateful inspection
C.Allow inbound from internet to server on 8443; allow outbound from server to internet on 443
D.Allow inbound from internet to server on 8443 and 443; allow outbound from server to internet on any
AnswerB

Stateful inspection automatically allows return traffic for the outbound connection.

Why this answer

It allows inbound traffic on TCP 8443 to the server and outbound traffic on TCP 443 from the server to the internet. Stateful inspection automatically tracks the outbound HTTPS connection and permits the return traffic (the license server's response) without needing an explicit inbound rule. This matches the requirement while maintaining a default-deny posture.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that return traffic for outbound connections requires an explicit inbound allow rule, when in fact stateful inspection automatically permits the reply packets.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it adds an unnecessary explicit inbound rule for TCP 443 from the internet to the server for license server responses; stateful inspection handles return traffic automatically, and this rule would expose the server to unsolicited inbound connections on 443. Option C is wrong because it lacks stateful inspection; without stateful tracking, the firewall would drop the return packets from the license server, breaking the outbound HTTPS connection. Option D is wrong because it opens inbound ports 8443 and 443 (unnecessarily exposing the server) and allows outbound traffic on any port, violating the principle of least privilege and default-deny.

254
MCQhard

An organization implements a role-based access control (RBAC) system. To maintain the principle of least privilege, what should the administrator do when a user changes roles?

A.Remove the previous role's access and assign the new role's access.
B.Keep all access and let the manager manually remove as needed.
C.Use a single role for all users to simplify management.
D.Add the new role's access while keeping the previous role's access.
AnswerA

This ensures the user has only the permissions needed for their new role, following least privilege.

255
MCQeasy

Which of the following protocols operates at the Transport layer and provides reliable, connection-oriented communication?

A.HTTP
B.TCP
C.IP
D.UDP
AnswerB

TCP provides reliable, connection-oriented communication.

Why this answer

TCP provides reliable delivery via acknowledgments and retransmissions, and uses a three-way handshake to establish a connection. UDP is connectionless and unreliable.

256
MCQeasy

An organization is creating a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). Which analysis should be performed first to identify critical business functions and their dependencies?

A.Risk Assessment
B.Business Impact Analysis
C.Vulnerability Assessment
D.Gap Analysis
AnswerB

BIA identifies critical business functions and their recovery requirements.

Why this answer

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is the first step in BCP to identify critical functions, dependencies, and recovery priorities.

257
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator needs to restore a database file from two weeks ago, but the backup log shows success. What is the most likely reason the file cannot be restored?

A.The retention policy deleted it
B.The schedule was incorrect
C.The backup source did not include that file
D.The encryption key changed
AnswerC

Only files under /srv/db are backed up; the needed file might be elsewhere.

Why this answer

The backup log only records the success or failure of the backup job as a whole, not the inclusion of every individual file. If the database file was not selected in the backup source configuration (e.g., a file-level backup job that excluded the database directory or a volume shadow copy that did not include the file), the backup would complete successfully without backing up that file. When the administrator attempts to restore, the file is missing from the backup set, even though the job log shows success.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that a successful backup log guarantees all intended data was backed up, when in reality the backup source configuration determines what is actually captured.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a retention policy deletes backup sets after a specified period, but the question states the backup log shows success from two weeks ago, implying the backup set still exists; if the retention policy had deleted it, the restore would fail with a 'backup set not found' error, not a missing file error. Option B is wrong because an incorrect schedule would cause the backup to run at the wrong time or not run at all, but the log shows a successful backup, so the schedule executed correctly. Option D is wrong because an encryption key change would affect the ability to decrypt the backup data, not the presence of the file in the backup; the restore would fail with a decryption error, not a missing file error.

258
MCQmedium

A security team is designing a network for a hospital. They need to ensure that patient data is accessible to doctors only when needed, but also protected from unauthorized access. Which principle BEST balances these requirements?

A.Defense in depth
B.Least privilege
C.Non-repudiation
D.Balancing the CIA triad
AnswerD

Balancing confidentiality and availability is key; doctors need timely access but unauthorized access must be prevented.

Why this answer

The question asks for the principle that best balances accessibility with protection. The CIA triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) is the foundational model for balancing these three competing priorities. In a hospital network, doctors need availability of patient data when needed, but confidentiality must protect against unauthorized access; balancing the triad means making trade-offs between these goals, such as using role-based access controls to ensure availability for authorized users while enforcing confidentiality.

Option D directly addresses this balancing act, whereas the other options focus on a single aspect.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that 'least privilege' is the best answer for balancing access and protection, but the trap is that least privilege is a component of confidentiality, not a principle for balancing all three CIA goals; the question specifically asks for the principle that 'best balances' the requirements, which is the CIA triad itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because defense in depth is a layered security strategy (e.g., firewalls, IDS, encryption) that does not inherently balance accessibility with protection; it focuses on preventing breaches, not on ensuring data is available when needed. Option B is wrong because least privilege restricts access to the minimum necessary, which can hinder doctors' ability to access patient data in emergencies if not carefully implemented with break-glass mechanisms; it prioritizes confidentiality over availability. Option C is wrong because non-repudiation ensures that actions (e.g., accessing records) cannot be denied, typically via digital signatures or audit logs, but it does not address the balance between access and protection; it is about accountability, not availability.

259
MCQeasy

Which authentication factor does a smart card represent?

A.Something you know
B.Something you have
C.Somewhere you are
D.Something you are
AnswerB

Smart cards are physical tokens.

Why this answer

A smart card is a physical device that stores cryptographic keys or certificates, making it a classic 'something you have' factor. It requires possession of the card to authenticate, even if the user knows a PIN, because the PIN unlocks the card but does not replace the physical possession requirement.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between 'something you have' and 'something you know' by including a PIN as part of smart card usage, leading candidates to mistakenly classify it as 'something you know' instead of recognizing the card itself as the primary factor.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'something you know' refers to knowledge-based factors like passwords or PINs, not a physical device. Option C is wrong because 'somewhere you are' is a location-based factor typically verified via GPS or IP geolocation, not a smart card. Option D is wrong because 'something you are' refers to biometric traits like fingerprints or iris scans, which are inherent to the user, not a separate physical token.

260
MCQeasy

A network engineer is configuring a firewall rule to allow inbound HTTPS traffic to a web server. Which port must be opened?

A.3389
B.22
C.80
D.443
AnswerD

Port 443 is the standard port for HTTPS traffic.

Why this answer

HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses TLS/SSL encryption over TCP port 443 by default. To allow inbound HTTPS traffic to a web server, the firewall rule must permit TCP destination port 443. Port 80 is used for unencrypted HTTP, not HTTPS.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between HTTP (port 80) and HTTPS (port 443), and the trap here is that candidates confuse the two or assume HTTPS uses port 80 because both are web protocols.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) for remote desktop access, not for web traffic. Option B is wrong because port 22 is used by SSH for secure remote administration, not for HTTPS. Option C is wrong because port 80 is used for HTTP (unencrypted web traffic), not HTTPS; HTTPS requires TLS encryption on port 443.

261
MCQeasy

A security operations team is implementing a new SIEM solution. They want to ensure that logs from all critical systems are collected and analyzed in real time. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when designing the log collection architecture?

A.Ensure sufficient network bandwidth and storage capacity
B.Use a standardized log format for all systems
C.Encrypt all log transmissions in transit
D.Define a log retention policy of at least one year
AnswerA

Insufficient bandwidth can cause log loss, and inadequate storage can lead to data being overwritten before analysis.

Why this answer

The most critical factor in real-time log collection is ensuring that the network can handle the volume of log data without congestion and that storage can ingest and retain the data without dropping events. Without sufficient bandwidth, logs will be delayed or lost, defeating the purpose of real-time analysis. Storage capacity directly impacts the ability to retain and query logs for immediate and historical investigation.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between operational feasibility (bandwidth/storage) and security or compliance features, leading candidates to over-prioritize encryption or retention policies when the core requirement is real-time ingestion.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because while a standardized log format (e.g., syslog, CEF, JSON) simplifies parsing, it is not the most important consideration for real-time collection; the SIEM can normalize diverse formats after ingestion. Option C is wrong because encrypting log transmissions in transit (e.g., TLS) is a security best practice but does not directly affect the feasibility of real-time collection; it adds overhead but is not the primary bottleneck. Option D is wrong because a log retention policy defines how long logs are kept, not how they are collected in real time; retention is a compliance and storage planning concern, not an architectural design priority for ingestion.

262
MCQhard

A security auditor discovers that a user's account has been granted full access to all financial databases, even though the user only needs to view quarterly reports. Which access control principle has been violated most directly?

A.Least privilege
B.Separation of duties
C.Need-to-know
D.Defense in depth
AnswerA

The user has more permissions than needed, violating least privilege.

Why this answer

Least privilege requires granting only the minimum permissions necessary to perform job functions.

263
MCQhard

A Privileged Access Management (PAM) solution is used to:

A.Control and monitor privileged accounts and sessions
B.Encrypt data at rest
C.Manage user passwords and enforce complexity
D.Provide single sign-on for all applications
AnswerA

PAM focuses on privileged accounts with elevated rights.

Why this answer

PAM solutions control, monitor, and audit privileged access to critical systems.

264
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is reviewing event logs and notices multiple failed login attempts from a single IP address followed by a successful login. Which TWO actions should the analyst take next?

Select 2 answers
A.Disable the user account immediately.
B.Escalate to the incident response team.
C.Investigate the source IP address for malicious activity.
D.Block the IP address at the firewall.
E.Reset the password for the affected account.
AnswersB, C

Escalation ensures proper handling and coordination, especially if the incident indicates a broader attack.

Why this answer

Options B and C are correct. Investigating the source IP address for malicious activity (C) helps determine if there is a broader threat, and escalating to the incident response team (B) ensures proper handling. The other options—disabling the account, blocking the IP at the firewall, or resetting the password—may be necessary later but should not be performed without further investigation.

265
MCQmedium

A security professional is asked to choose an authentication method for a high-security facility. The requirement is to use something the user 'is'. Which authentication type should be selected?

A.Type 3 – Inherence factor
B.Multi-factor authentication
C.Type 2 – Possession factor
D.Type 1 – Knowledge factor
AnswerA

Biometrics are inherent traits; they are something you are.

Why this answer

Biometrics (fingerprint, retina, iris) fall under Type 3 (inherence) authentication, which checks 'something you are'.

266
MCQmedium

A company's security policy mandates that all changes to the firewall configuration must be approved by two different administrators before implementation. This is an example of which security principle?

A.Defense in depth
B.Need to know
C.Separation of duties
D.Least privilege
AnswerC

Requiring two administrators for approval is a classic example of separation of duties.

Why this answer

The requirement for two different administrators to approve firewall configuration changes enforces separation of duties. This principle ensures that no single individual has the authority to make unilateral changes, reducing the risk of unauthorized or malicious modifications. In firewall management, this prevents a single admin from bypassing security controls or introducing backdoors without oversight.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests separation of duties by presenting scenarios that involve dual approval or task division, and the trap here is confusing it with least privilege, as both limit individual power but least privilege focuses on permissions scope rather than collaborative authorization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because defense in depth involves multiple layers of security controls (e.g., firewall, IDS, encryption) to protect assets, not administrative approval workflows. Option B is wrong because need to know restricts access to information based on job requirements, not the authorization process for changes. Option D is wrong because least privilege limits users to the minimum permissions necessary for their role, but does not inherently require dual approval for actions; separation of duties specifically addresses the division of critical tasks among multiple individuals.

267
MCQhard

An organization uses a layered security approach: perimeter fencing, access badge readers at building entrances, biometric scanners in server rooms, and cable locks on laptops. This strategy best exemplifies which access control concept?

A.Need-to-know
B.Defense in depth
C.Least privilege
D.Separation of duties
AnswerB

Multiple overlapping physical controls create defense in depth.

Why this answer

Defense in depth employs multiple, overlapping layers of security controls to protect assets; if one layer fails, others still provide protection.

268
MCQmedium

An organization requires that financial transactions over $10,000 be approved by two different managers. This is an example of which access control principle?

A.Separation of duties
B.Defense in depth
C.Need to know
D.Least privilege
AnswerA

Correct. This requirement enforces separation of duties.

Why this answer

Separation of duties ensures that no single individual has complete control over a critical action, reducing the risk of fraud or error.

269
MCQeasy

A network administrator configures the ACL on a router as shown. What is the effect of this access list?

A.Blocks Telnet traffic entering the interface, but allows all other traffic
B.Blocks SSH traffic (port 22) from entering the interface
C.Blocks Telnet traffic leaving the interface, but allows all other traffic
D.Blocks all TCP traffic except Telnet
AnswerA

The deny statement blocks port 23 (Telnet), and the permit any permits everything else.

Why this answer

The ACL denies TCP traffic to port 23 (Telnet) and permits all other IP traffic. Option B is wrong because SSH is port 22. Option C is wrong because the ACL is applied inbound on Gig0/1, so it filters incoming traffic only, not outgoing.

Option D is wrong because it applies to all TCP traffic, not just Telnet.

270
MCQmedium

A company places a web server and an email server in a separate network segment that is accessible from the internet but isolated from the internal LAN. What is this segment called?

A.VLAN
B.DMZ
C.Honeypot
D.Subnet
AnswerB

DMZ is a buffer network for public services.

Why this answer

A DMZ (demilitarized zone) hosts public-facing services with controlled access to internal network.

271
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is updating its incident response plan. Which THREE elements should be included in the preparation phase? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Restoring data from backups
B.Notifying law enforcement
C.Conducting tabletop exercises
D.Acquiring forensic analysis tools
E.Creating an incident response team
AnswersC, D, E

Exercises test the plan and train staff.

Why this answer

Preparation includes establishing tools, training staff, and developing the plan.

272
MCQhard

A security analyst investigates a possible data exfiltration. The analyst sees a large amount of data being sent to an external IP address at regular intervals. Which of the following is the most likely technique being used?

A.DNS tunneling
B.SQL injection
C.Phishing
D.Man-in-the-middle
AnswerA

DNS tunneling encodes data in DNS requests, allowing stealthy exfiltration.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling encodes data within DNS queries and responses, allowing attackers to bypass network security controls by exfiltrating data through UDP port 53, which is often allowed through firewalls. The regular intervals of large data transfers to an external IP address are characteristic of a DNS tunnel, as the attacker segments data into multiple DNS queries to avoid detection.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests DNS tunneling as a data exfiltration technique because candidates may overlook that DNS traffic is commonly allowed through firewalls, making it a stealthy channel compared to other attack methods.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because SQL injection is an attack against a database via web application input fields, not a method for exfiltrating data over the network at regular intervals. Option C is wrong because phishing is a social engineering technique used to steal credentials or deliver malware, not a direct data exfiltration technique that sends large amounts of data to an external IP. Option D is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack intercepts communications between two parties to eavesdrop or modify traffic, but it does not inherently involve sending large volumes of data to an external IP at regular intervals.

273
MCQhard

An organization wants to prevent malicious HTTP requests targeting a web application. Which security device is specifically designed for this purpose?

A.NIDS
B.HIDS
C.WAF
D.IPS
AnswerC

WAF is designed to protect web applications from attacks like SQL injection and XSS.

Why this answer

WAF (Web Application Firewall) inspects HTTP/HTTPS traffic and applies OWASP rules.

274
MCQmedium

A small company with 50 employees uses a flat network with no VLANs. They recently experienced a ransomware attack that spread from an infected workstation to a file server. The IT manager wants to implement network segmentation to prevent future lateral movement. The company uses a single /24 subnet (192.168.1.0/24) with a single switch and a router/firewall. They have three departments: Sales, HR, and IT. Each department has about 15-20 computers. The file server is in the IT department. The company has a limited budget and cannot purchase new hardware. Which of the following is the MOST effective and practical approach to segment the network given these constraints?

A.Replace the switch with three separate physical switches, each connected to a separate router interface.
B.Create three VLANs on the switch, one for each department, and configure ACLs on the router to allow only necessary inter-VLAN traffic.
C.Implement MAC address filtering on the switch to only allow authorized devices to communicate with the file server.
D.Install a software firewall on each workstation to block traffic from other subnets.
AnswerB

VLANs logically separate traffic, and ACLs enforce policy; uses existing hardware if the switch supports VLANs (most do).

Why this answer

Creating three VLANs on the existing switch segments the flat /24 network into separate broadcast domains, preventing lateral movement by default. Configuring ACLs on the router allows only necessary inter-VLAN traffic (e.g., Sales and HR can access the file server in IT), which stops the ransomware from spreading across departments without requiring new hardware.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that physical separation (Option A) is always required for segmentation, when in fact VLANs provide logical separation at no extra cost, and that MAC filtering (Option C) or host-based firewalls (Option D) can substitute for network-level segmentation, which they cannot because they fail to isolate broadcast domains or prevent Layer 2 attacks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the switch with three separate physical switches violates the budget constraint (no new hardware) and would require additional router interfaces or subinterfaces, which is more expensive and less practical than using VLANs. Option C is wrong because MAC address filtering only controls which devices can communicate with the file server at Layer 2, but it does not segment the network; all devices remain in the same broadcast domain, so ransomware can still spread laterally via ARP spoofing or broadcast-based attacks. Option D is wrong because installing a software firewall on each workstation is impractical to manage across 50 machines, does not prevent Layer 2 lateral movement within the same subnet, and adds no segmentation at the network level—traffic between departments still traverses the flat network without restriction.

275
MCQmedium

A security analyst detects unusual outbound network traffic from a server that normally does not communicate externally. After confirming a malware infection, the analyst isolates the server from the network. Which incident response phase is the analyst performing?

A.Recovery
B.Detection
C.Containment
D.Eradication
AnswerC

Isolation is a containment measure.

Why this answer

Isolating the server is a containment action to prevent spread.

276
MCQeasy

An organization's security policy mandates that data must be encrypted both at rest and in transit. Which combination of controls meets this requirement?

A.AES encryption for files and IPsec for network traffic
B.BitLocker and EFS
C.S/MIME for email and RBAC for file access
D.Full-disk encryption and TLS for network communications
AnswerD

Full-disk encryption secures data at rest, and TLS secures data in transit.

Why this answer

Full-disk encryption protects data at rest, and TLS encrypts data in transit. Option A is incorrect because AES is an encryption algorithm, not a protocol; IPsec encrypts in transit but does not provide at-rest encryption. Option B is incorrect because BitLocker and EFS both provide at-rest encryption but do not encrypt data in transit.

Option C is incorrect because S/MIME encrypts email in transit but does not provide at-rest encryption, and RBAC manages access control, not encryption.

277
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. Which security control is MOST likely triggered?

A.Intrusion prevention system
B.Account lockout policy
C.Antivirus software
D.Firewall rule
AnswerB

Correct. The message 'account locked due to multiple failed attempts' directly indicates this.

Why this answer

The log shows an account lockout after multiple failed authentication attempts, indicating an account lockout policy is in effect.

278
MCQhard

A company's security policy states that sensitive data must be encrypted using AES-256. During an audit, it is found that some data is encrypted with AES-128. Which security objective is most directly compromised?

A.Integrity
B.Availability
C.Confidentiality
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerC

Correct. Weaker encryption undermines confidentiality by reducing the effort required to break the encryption.

Why this answer

AES-256 offers a higher security margin than AES-128. Using weaker encryption (AES-128) directly reduces the confidentiality protection, making it easier for an attacker to decrypt the data.

279
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a logical access control?

A.Password policies
B.Security guards
C.Perimeter fencing
D.Biometric reader on server room door
AnswerA

Passwords are logical controls that authenticate users.

Why this answer

Logical access controls are technology-based mechanisms that restrict access to systems and data, such as passwords.

280
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

A.Encrypt sensitive data at rest
B.Manage user passwords and access controls
C.Aggregate and correlate logs to generate alerts
D.Block malicious network traffic in real time
AnswerC

This is the core function of a SIEM.

Why this answer

A SIEM aggregates and correlates logs from various sources, generates alerts, and stores historical data for analysis and forensics.

281
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO are examples of logical access controls? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Fencing around the property
B.Password complexity requirements
C.Guard at building entrance
D.Biometric door lock
E.Account lockout policy
AnswersB, E

Password policies are logical controls implemented in software.

Why this answer

Logical controls are software-based. Passwords and account lockout are logical.

282
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential man-in-the-middle attack. Which two techniques are commonly used by attackers to perform MITM attacks? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.SYN flood
B.Packet sniffing
C.ARP poisoning
D.Rogue Wi-Fi access points
E.IP spoofing
AnswersC, D

ARP poisoning allows interception by associating attacker's MAC with a legitimate IP.

Why this answer

ARP poisoning and rogue Wi-Fi are common MITM techniques. IP spoofing can be part of MITM but is not a standalone technique; SYN flood is DoS.

283
MCQeasy

A security administrator notices that an employee is able to access files in a project folder they should not have access to. Which security principle is being violated?

A.Least privilege
B.Non-repudiation
C.Separation of duties
D.Defense in depth
AnswerA

Least privilege means users get only necessary permissions; unauthorized access violates this.

Why this answer

The scenario describes an employee accessing files they should not have access to, which directly violates the principle of least privilege. This principle mandates that users and processes should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions. The administrator's observation indicates that the employee's access rights exceed what is required, leading to unauthorized file access.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests least privilege by presenting a scenario where a user has more access than needed, and candidates may confuse it with separation of duties because both involve access control, but the key distinction is that least privilege focuses on the level of access per user, while separation of duties focuses on dividing responsibilities among multiple users.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because non-repudiation ensures that a party cannot deny the authenticity of their actions (e.g., via digital signatures or audit logs), but it does not address the assignment or restriction of access permissions. Option C is wrong because separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple individuals to prevent fraud or error (e.g., one person requests access, another approves), but the issue here is excessive permissions for a single user, not a lack of task division. Option D is wrong because defense in depth is a layered security strategy (e.g., firewalls, IDS, encryption) that provides multiple controls, but it does not specifically govern the granularity of user permissions; the violation is about over-provisioned access, not insufficient layers.

284
MCQmedium

A healthcare organization experiences a data breach involving protected health information (PHI). Under GDPR, within how many hours must the organization notify the relevant supervisory authority?

A.24 hours
B.48 hours
C.72 hours
D.7 days
AnswerC

GDPR requires notification within 72 hours.

Why this answer

GDPR requires notification to the supervisory authority within 72 hours of becoming aware of a personal data breach.

285
MCQeasy

Which data classification level typically requires the highest level of protection?

A.Internal
B.Confidential
C.Top secret
D.Public
AnswerC

Top secret is the most sensitive.

Why this answer

Top secret is the highest classification and requires strict controls.

286
MCQeasy

A network administrator notices unusual traffic from an internal workstation to an external IP address on port 443. The workstation has no business reason for such communication. Which action should the administrator take first?

A.Disable the workstation's network port.
B.Block all outbound traffic from that workstation immediately.
C.Investigate the workstation for possible malware.
D.Configure a firewall rule to allow the traffic and log it.
AnswerC

Investigating helps determine if the traffic is malicious or a false positive.

Why this answer

The first priority when encountering unexpected outbound traffic to an external IP on port 443 (HTTPS) is to investigate the workstation for possible malware. This traffic could indicate a command-and-control (C2) beacon or data exfiltration, and immediate investigation allows the administrator to gather forensic evidence before taking disruptive actions. Disabling the port or blocking traffic without investigation could destroy evidence or alert an attacker, while allowing the traffic would be negligent.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the principle of 'investigate before acting' to avoid destroying evidence, and the trap here is that candidates may choose a reactive security measure (like blocking or disabling) instead of following proper incident response procedures.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling the network port immediately may destroy volatile evidence (e.g., active network connections, running processes) and could alert an attacker if malware is present, preventing further forensic analysis. Option B is wrong because blocking all outbound traffic without investigation is overly disruptive and may also destroy evidence; a more targeted approach (e.g., using ACLs to log but not block) is preferred initially. Option D is wrong because configuring a firewall rule to allow the traffic and log it would permit potentially malicious communication to continue, increasing risk of data exfiltration or further compromise, and is not a secure first step.

287
MCQhard

A critical vulnerability is discovered in a widely used VPN appliance that is actively being exploited in the wild. The vendor has released an emergency patch. However, the organization's patch management policy requires testing in a staging environment before production deployment. What should the security team do?

A.Apply a workaround from the vendor and skip patching
B.Deploy the patch immediately without testing to all devices
C.Wait for the scheduled patch cycle to test thoroughly
D.Disconnect the VPN appliance until the next patch cycle
AnswerB

Emergency patching is justified to mitigate active exploitation risk.

Why this answer

For critical vulnerabilities under active exploitation, emergency patching should bypass normal testing to reduce risk, but compensating controls can be applied if immediate patching is not possible.

288
MCQmedium

An AWS administrator attached this IAM policy to a user. What is the effect of this policy?

A.The user can delete the bucket if allowed by another policy.
B.The user can still delete objects inside the bucket.
C.The user can delete any bucket except critical-data.
D.The user cannot delete the bucket critical-data.
AnswerD

The Deny effect prevents deletion of the specified bucket.

Why this answer

The policy explicitly denies the s3:DeleteBucket action on the critical-data bucket, overriding any allow.

289
Multi-Selectmedium

A SOC analyst is investigating a potential data exfiltration incident. Which TWO log sources would be most useful for identifying outbound data transfers? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Firewall logs
B.Patch management logs
C.Proxy logs
D.System logs
E.Authentication logs
AnswersA, C

Correct. Firewall logs record outbound connections.

Why this answer

Firewall logs show allowed outbound connections, and proxy logs can reveal web traffic and file uploads, both critical for detecting exfiltration.

290
MCQeasy

Which concept ensures that a user cannot deny having performed a specific action?

A.Non-repudiation
B.Availability
C.Integrity
D.Authorization
AnswerA

Non-repudiation provides irrefutable evidence of an action, preventing denial.

Why this answer

Non-repudiation ensures that a user cannot deny having performed a specific action, typically by using cryptographic mechanisms such as digital signatures or audit logs. In the context of the CC exam, this is most commonly achieved through public key infrastructure (PKI) where a private key signs an action, and the corresponding public key verifies the signature, providing irrefutable proof of origin. This prevents a user from later claiming they did not send a message or perform a transaction.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the confusion between non-repudiation and integrity, where candidates mistakenly think that ensuring data hasn't changed (integrity) also proves who changed it, but non-repudiation specifically requires a binding identity proof like a digital signature.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Availability) is wrong because it ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed, often through redundancy and fault tolerance, not by preventing denial of actions. Option C (Integrity) is wrong because it guarantees that data has not been altered or tampered with, typically via hashing or checksums, but does not provide proof of who performed an action. Option D (Authorization) is wrong because it controls what resources a user can access or what actions they can perform, based on policies or permissions, but does not create an irrefutable record of those actions.

291
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is developing a data classification policy. Which THREE of the following should be classified as Confidential or higher? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Customer personally identifiable information (PII)
B.Public company press releases
C.Financial records and projections
D.Trade secrets and intellectual property
E.Marketing brochures
AnswersA, C, D

PII is typically classified as Confidential or higher due to privacy laws.

Why this answer

Confidential data typically includes trade secrets, customer PII, and financial records. Public information and marketing brochures are public data.

292
MCQeasy

A security operations center receives an alert that a workstation has been infected with ransomware. The infection is isolated to one machine. What is the first step in the containment phase of incident response?

A.Restore the workstation from a recent backup
B.Disconnect the workstation from the network
C.Reboot the workstation in safe mode
D.Run a full antivirus scan
AnswerB

Network isolation is the primary containment step to halt lateral movement.

Why this answer

The first step in the containment phase is to disconnect the workstation from the network. This immediately stops the ransomware from spreading laterally to other systems via SMB, RDP, or other network protocols. Containment prioritizes preventing further damage over remediation or analysis.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between containment and eradication/recovery phases, and the trap here is that candidates mistake a recovery action (restore from backup) or a detection action (antivirus scan) for the first containment step.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because restoring from backup is a recovery-phase action, not a containment step; attempting recovery before containment risks re-infection if the ransomware is still active on the network. Option C is wrong because rebooting in safe mode may allow the ransomware to execute its payload during startup or trigger persistence mechanisms, and it does not stop network-based propagation. Option D is wrong because running a full antivirus scan is a detection/eradication step that can take significant time, during which the ransomware could encrypt additional shares or spread to other hosts.

293
MCQhard

A company has a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 1 hour for its financial database. It performs full backups every night at 11 PM and incremental backups every 4 hours. If the system fails at 2:30 PM, what is the maximum data loss in terms of time?

A.1 hour
B.15.5 hours
C.3.5 hours
D.1.5 hours
AnswerC

Data from the last incremental backup at 11 AM to the failure at 2:30 PM could be lost.

Why this answer

The last backup was the incremental backup at 11 AM (assuming 4-hour intervals from 11 PM). The failure at 2:30 PM means data from 11 AM to 2:30 PM (3.5 hours) could be lost, which exceeds the 1-hour RPO.

294
MCQmedium

A company configures its firewall to block all inbound traffic except for specific necessary services. This approach aligns with which access control principle?

A.Separation of duties
B.Defense in depth
C.Need-to-know
D.Least privilege
AnswerD

Deny by default, allow only necessary traffic is least privilege for networks.

Why this answer

Least privilege in network security means denying all traffic except explicitly allowed.

295
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three of the following are best practices for securing a network switch? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Enable Telnet for remote management.
B.Disable unused ports.
C.Use VLANs to segment traffic.
D.Enable STP protection features like BPDU guard.
E.Set all ports to trunk mode by default.
AnswersB, C, D

Reduces attack surface.

Why this answer

Disabling unused ports on a network switch prevents unauthorized physical access and eliminates the risk of an attacker connecting to an open port to launch attacks such as ARP spoofing or DHCP starvation. This is a fundamental security best practice that reduces the attack surface by ensuring that only necessary ports are active and can be administratively controlled.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that Telnet is acceptable for management if a password is set, but the exam expects you to recognize that Telnet lacks encryption and is therefore never a best practice for securing a switch.

296
MCQmedium

After a reorganization, a company using RBAC finds that many users have accumulated permissions that no longer align with their job functions. What is the best practice to address this?

A.Assign permissions directly to each user based on their manager's request
B.Create new roles for each new position and assign users to them
C.Conduct a quarterly review and recertification of role memberships and permissions
D.Delete all existing permissions and re-add them based on current job descriptions
AnswerC

Periodic recertification aligns RBAC with changing job functions.

Why this answer

Conducting a quarterly review and recertification of role memberships and permissions is the industry-standard practice for maintaining the principle of least privilege in an RBAC system. This process ensures that role assignments are periodically validated against current job functions, removing accumulated permissions that no longer align with user responsibilities. It directly addresses permission creep by enforcing a formal, auditable lifecycle for role membership.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that a one-time cleanup (Option D) or ad-hoc direct assignments (Option A) are sufficient, when the real requirement is a continuous, auditable recertification process to maintain least privilege over time.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because assigning permissions directly to each user bypasses the RBAC model entirely, leading to user-specific permission assignments that are difficult to audit, manage, and revoke, which exacerbates permission creep rather than resolving it. Option B is wrong because creating new roles for each new position without reviewing existing roles leads to role explosion, increasing administrative overhead and making the RBAC model less scalable and harder to maintain. Option D is wrong because deleting all existing permissions and re-adding them based on current job descriptions is a disruptive, high-risk approach that can cause immediate access outages and does not provide a sustainable, recurring process for managing role membership changes.

297
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are best practices for securing a wireless network? (Select exactly two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Use WEP encryption for compatibility
B.Disable SSID broadcast
C.Implement MAC address filtering
D.Disable DHCP and use static IP addressing
E.Enable WPA3 encryption
AnswersC, E

MAC filtering can restrict which devices can connect, though it can be spoofed.

Why this answer

MAC address filtering restricts network access to devices with pre-approved MAC addresses, adding a layer of access control. While not foolproof (MACs can be spoofed), it is a recognized best practice for reducing the attack surface in small or home networks.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that hiding the SSID or using static IPs are effective security measures, when in fact they are easily bypassed and do not protect against modern wireless attacks.

298
MCQmedium

An organization configures account lockout after 5 failed login attempts within 15 minutes. This control is designed to mitigate which type of attack?

A.Phishing
B.Brute-force attack
C.Social engineering
D.Man-in-the-middle attack
AnswerB

Lockout stops automated password guessing by limiting attempts.

Why this answer

Account lockout thresholds (typically 3-10 attempts) help prevent brute-force attacks by temporarily disabling the account after repeated failures.

299
MCQmedium

After a ransomware attack, the company wants to ensure that critical data can be restored. Which principle is being addressed?

A.Integrity
B.Confidentiality
C.Availability
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerC

Availability ensures data is accessible when needed; backups support recovery.

Why this answer

Correct: C - Availability. Availability ensures data is accessible when needed, and backups are a key control. Option A is wrong because integrity ensures data accuracy.

Option B is wrong because confidentiality prevents unauthorized disclosure. Option D is wrong because non-repudiation ensures actions cannot be denied.

300
Matchingmedium

Match each security policy type to its focus.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Rules for using company assets

How long data is kept

Steps to restore IT after a disaster

Maintain operations during disruptions

Why these pairings

The correct matches pair each policy type with its primary focus. Common confusions involve swapping definitions between similar policies, such as Acceptable Use with Access Control, or Incident Response with Data Retention.

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