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ISC2 Certified in Cybersecurity CC (CC) — Questions 151225

976 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
MCQmedium

A system administrator has an account with full administrative privileges. To reduce risk, the organization implements a policy requiring the admin to use a separate, non-privileged account for daily tasks like email and web browsing. This practice aligns with which principle?

A.Separation of duties
B.Need-to-know
C.Least privilege
D.Defense in depth
AnswerC

Using a separate daily account with limited privileges embodies least privilege for admins.

Why this answer

Least privilege for administrators means using a separate admin account only when needed, limiting exposure of high-privilege credentials.

152
MCQmedium

A financial company requires that any transaction over $10,000 must be approved by two different managers before being processed. This is an example of which access control principle?

A.Least Privilege
B.Need-to-Know
C.Dual Control
D.Separation of Duties
AnswerD

SoD ensures that no single individual has complete control over a sensitive process by requiring multiple approvals.

Why this answer

The requirement for two different managers to approve a transaction over $10,000 enforces Separation of Duties (SoD). This access control principle ensures that no single individual has the authority to execute a high-risk action alone, thereby preventing fraud or error by splitting critical tasks across multiple roles. In this scenario, one manager cannot both initiate and approve the transaction, which directly aligns with SoD's goal of distributing responsibility.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between Dual Control and Separation of Duties, where Dual Control implies simultaneous action (e.g., two keys turned together) while Separation of Duties implies sequential or divided responsibilities, causing candidates to mistakenly choose Dual Control when the question describes sequential approval.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (Least Privilege) is wrong because it focuses on granting users only the minimum permissions needed to perform their job, not on requiring multiple approvals for a single action. Option B (Need-to-Know) is wrong because it restricts access to data based on necessity for a specific task, not on enforcing collaborative authorization for transactions. Option C (Dual Control) is wrong because while it involves two individuals, it is a subset of Separation of Duties that specifically requires simultaneous action (e.g., two keys turned at once), whereas the question describes sequential approval by two managers, which is classic Separation of Duties.

153
MCQhard

A company deploys a device that inspects HTTP and HTTPS traffic to block SQL injection and cross-site scripting attacks. This device is best described as a:

A.Stateful firewall
B.Web application firewall (WAF)
C.Honeypot
D.Network-based IPS
AnswerB

WAF is purpose-built for web traffic and application-layer attacks.

Why this answer

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is specifically designed to protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP/HTTPS traffic, often using rules like OWASP to block common attacks.

154
MCQhard

After a security incident, the incident response team closes the case. What is the MOST important final step to improve future security posture?

A.Revoke all compromised credentials
B.Patch all systems
C.Restore all systems from backup
D.Conduct a post-incident review and update policies
AnswerD

Ensures continuous improvement.

Why this answer

The post-incident review (often called a lessons-learned meeting) is the final step that analyzes root causes, identifies gaps in detection or response, and drives updates to policies, playbooks, and security controls. Without this review, the same vulnerability or misconfiguration could be exploited again, even if immediate containment steps like credential revocation or patching were performed. The goal is to close the incident with a feedback loop that improves the overall security posture, not just restore operations.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between immediate remediation steps (like patching or credential revocation) and the final continuous improvement step (post-incident review), trapping candidates who confuse containment/recovery with the ultimate goal of preventing future incidents.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because revoking compromised credentials is a containment step performed during the early stages of incident response, not the final step; it does not address underlying vulnerabilities or process improvements. Option B is wrong because patching all systems is a remediation action that may be necessary but is not the final step—it focuses on technical fixes without analyzing why the incident occurred or updating policies to prevent recurrence. Option C is wrong because restoring systems from backup is a recovery step that returns operations to normal but does not provide any insight into the incident's root cause or lead to long-term security improvements.

155
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization wants to protect its internal network from unsolicited inbound traffic while allowing responses to outbound connections. Which TWO firewall features or types are best suited for this? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Packet filtering (stateless)
B.NGFW
C.Application proxy
D.Stateful inspection
E.IDS
AnswersB, D

NGFW includes stateful inspection and provides this capability.

Why this answer

Stateful inspection tracks connection state to allow return traffic. NGFW includes stateful inspection plus advanced features. Packet filtering alone is stateless; proxy and IDS are not optimal.

156
MCQeasy

A help desk technician receives a report that a user cannot access a shared network drive. The technician checks the file server and sees that the disk is full. What is the most immediate action the technician should take?

A.Reboot the file server
B.Free up space by deleting unnecessary files or moving data
C.Run antivirus scan
D.Increase disk quota
AnswerB

This directly addresses the root cause (disk full) and can quickly restore access.

Why this answer

Freeing up space restores access. The other options are either not immediate or do not directly address the disk full issue.

157
MCQhard

During a security audit, it is discovered that a contractor has access to customer databases that were not required for their project. Which step should be taken first to mitigate the risk?

A.Notify the contractor's manager
B.Revoke the contractor's access immediately
C.Perform a risk assessment
D.Log the access for evidence
AnswerB

Revoking access immediately stops the unauthorized access and reduces risk.

Why this answer

The immediate priority is to revoke the contractor's access to the unauthorized customer databases to stop any potential data exfiltration or misuse. Access controls follow the principle of least privilege, and any discovered over-provisioning must be corrected instantly to contain the risk. Delaying revocation for notification, assessment, or logging leaves the sensitive data exposed to an unauthorized user.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the candidate's ability to prioritize containment over investigation or notification, trapping those who choose risk assessment or logging first instead of immediate access revocation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because notifying the contractor's manager does not remove the active access; the contractor can still query or exfiltrate data while the notification is processed. Option C is wrong because performing a risk assessment is a secondary step that should occur after access is revoked; leaving access in place during assessment violates the security principle of containment. Option D is wrong because logging access for evidence is important for forensics but does not mitigate the ongoing risk; the access must be terminated first to prevent further unauthorized actions.

158
MCQeasy

Which firewall type operates at Layer 3 and Layer 4, making decisions based solely on source/destination IP and port numbers?

A.Stateful inspection firewall
B.Packet filtering firewall
C.Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
D.Application proxy firewall
AnswerB

Packet filtering decisions are based on L3/L4 headers only.

Why this answer

Packet filtering firewalls are stateless and examine packet headers in isolation.

159
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. ``` { "Version": "2012-10-17", "Statement": [ { "Effect": "Allow", "Action": "s3:GetObject", "Resource": "arn:aws:s3:::example-bucket/*" } ] } ``` A security analyst reviews this AWS S3 bucket policy. The policy currently allows anyone to read objects. Which change would implement the principle of least privilege?

A.Remove the policy entirely.
B.Add a principal element with specific user ARNs.
C.Add a condition to require MFA.
D.Change "Allow" to "Deny".
AnswerB

Adding a principal restricts access to specific authorized users, implementing least privilege by limiting who can act.

160
MCQmedium

A company uses a reciprocal agreement for disaster recovery. What is a primary risk of this strategy?

A.Data confidentiality issues
B.Both organizations may be impacted by the same disaster
C.Slow recovery due to lack of equipment
D.High cost of maintaining the agreement
AnswerB

If they are in the same geographic area, a disaster could affect both.

Why this answer

In a reciprocal agreement, two organizations agree to host each other's systems. A key risk is that both may be affected by the same disaster (e.g., regional power outage) or that the partner's capacity may be insufficient.

161
MCQmedium

A SOC analyst is reviewing logs from a web server and sees the following entry: GET /../../../../etc/passwd HTTP/1.1 Which type of attack is being attempted?

A.Cross-site scripting
B.SQL injection
C.Directory traversal
D.Cross-site request forgery
AnswerC

The '..' sequence indicates an attempt to navigate directories.

Why this answer

The log entry shows a GET request with '../' sequences attempting to navigate outside the web root to access the '/etc/passwd' file. This is the classic signature of a directory traversal attack, which exploits insufficient path sanitization to read arbitrary files on the server. The correct answer is C because the attack targets the file system, not the application's data layer or client-side scripts.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests directory traversal by including a file path like '/etc/passwd' in the URL, which candidates may mistakenly associate with SQL injection or XSS due to the presence of 'passwd' or the GET method, but the key indicator is the '../' sequence indicating file system navigation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because cross-site scripting (XSS) involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users, not manipulating file paths in HTTP requests. Option B is wrong because SQL injection targets database queries by inserting SQL commands into input fields, whereas this request is a simple GET with path traversal sequences and no SQL syntax. Option D is wrong because cross-site request forgery (CSRF) tricks a user's browser into making unintended requests on their behalf, but the log shows a direct attacker-controlled request, not a forged one.

162
MCQmedium

An organization wants to implement the principle of least privilege for its database administrators. Which approach best achieves this goal?

A.Implement mandatory access control (MAC) with labels for all data.
B.Use role-based access control (RBAC) to grant permissions specific to each administrator's duties.
C.Allow administrators to self-assign permissions as needed.
D.Assign each administrator full database admin rights for simplicity.
AnswerB

RBAC aligns with least privilege by scoping permissions to roles.

Why this answer

Role-based access control (RBAC) directly enforces the principle of least privilege by granting database administrators only the permissions required for their specific job functions. Unlike MAC, which focuses on data classification labels, RBAC maps roles (e.g., backup admin, security admin) to precise sets of privileges, ensuring no user has unnecessary access.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between MAC (which controls access based on data labels) and RBAC (which controls access based on job roles), and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly choose MAC because they associate 'least privilege' with strict classification systems, not realizing that RBAC is the practical, role-specific mechanism for limiting database administrator permissions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because mandatory access control (MAC) enforces system-wide security labels (e.g., Top Secret, Secret) and is typically used in military or high-security environments; it does not granularly restrict permissions based on an administrator's specific duties, and it can be overly complex for database administration. Option C is wrong because allowing administrators to self-assign permissions violates the principle of least privilege entirely, as it gives them unchecked authority to escalate their own access. Option D is wrong because assigning full database admin rights to every administrator directly contradicts least privilege by granting excessive, unrestricted access to all database resources, increasing the risk of accidental or malicious damage.

163
MCQmedium

A network administrator is configuring a wireless network for a small office. Security requirements include strong encryption and pre-shared key authentication. Which protocol should be used?

A.WPA2-PSK with AES
B.WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X
C.Open with MAC address filtering
D.WEP with TKIP
AnswerA

Provides strong encryption with PSK.

Why this answer

WPA2-PSK with AES is the correct choice because it provides strong encryption (AES-CCMP) and uses a pre-shared key for authentication, meeting the requirements for a small office without a RADIUS server. WPA2-PSK is widely supported and offers robust security against common attacks when a strong passphrase is used.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between PSK and Enterprise modes, where candidates mistakenly choose WPA3-Enterprise because it is newer, ignoring the explicit requirement for pre-shared key authentication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X requires a RADIUS server for authentication, which is unnecessary and overcomplicated for a small office using pre-shared key authentication. Option C is wrong because Open with MAC address filtering provides no encryption and can be easily bypassed by MAC spoofing, failing the strong encryption requirement. Option D is wrong because WEP with TKIP is deprecated and insecure—WEP uses RC4 encryption that can be cracked in minutes, and TKIP is a legacy protocol that does not meet strong encryption standards.

164
MCQeasy

Which access control principle ensures that a user is granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions?

A.Least privilege
B.Need-to-know
C.Defense in depth
D.Separation of duties
AnswerA

Least privilege grants the minimum permissions required to perform a role.

Why this answer

Least privilege limits permissions to reduce the potential damage from accidents or attacks.

165
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. Which security principle is this policy primarily enforcing?

A.Non-repudiation
B.Defense in depth
C.Confidentiality
D.Least privilege
AnswerD

Granting only specific permissions from a specific IP is least privilege.

Why this answer

Correct: D - Least privilege. The policy allows only get access to a specific bucket from a specific IP range, granting the minimum necessary access. Confidentiality is addressed indirectly, but the design emphasizes least privilege.

Defense in depth and non-repudiation are not shown.

166
MCQmedium

A network administrator needs to segment traffic between departments without additional hardware. Which technology allows this logical separation on a Layer 2 switch?

A.Subnetting
B.VLAN
C.VPN
D.DMZ
AnswerB

Correct. VLANs provide logical segmentation on a Layer 2 switch.

Why this answer

VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allow logical segmentation on a switch, separating traffic at Layer 2 without extra hardware.

167
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a benefit of using VLANs in a network?

A.Logical segmentation without additional hardware
B.Elimination of all broadcast traffic
C.Faster data transfer speeds
D.Increased physical security
AnswerA

VLANs segment traffic logically on the same switch.

Why this answer

VLANs allow logical segmentation of a network at Layer 2, improving security and reducing broadcast traffic without requiring additional physical switches.

168
MCQhard

An organization's password policy requires passwords to be at least 8 characters long and prohibits common passwords found in breach databases. This policy aligns with which guideline?

A.COBIT
B.ISO 27001
C.NIST SP 800-63
D.PCI DSS
AnswerC

NIST SP 800-63 recommends length over complexity and breach checking.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-63 recommends favoring length over complexity, minimum 8 characters, and checking passwords against known breached lists.

169
MCQmedium

An organization needs to retain authentication logs for compliance with PCI DSS. What is the minimum retention period required, and how long must the logs be immediately available?

A.18 months retention, 6 months immediately available
B.12 months retention, 3 months immediately available
C.6 months retention, 1 month immediately available
D.24 months retention, 12 months immediately available
AnswerB

This matches PCI DSS requirements.

Why this answer

PCI DSS requires logs to be retained for at least 12 months, with the most recent 3 months immediately accessible for analysis.

170
MCQeasy

A firewall that filters traffic based solely on source and destination IP addresses and ports without considering the state of connections is known as a:

A.Application proxy
B.Stateless firewall
C.Stateful firewall
D.Next-generation firewall
AnswerB

Stateless firewalls inspect packets individually.

Why this answer

A stateless (packet-filtering) firewall examines each packet independently and does not track connection state.

171
MCQeasy

An organization has multiple network segments for accounting, HR, and engineering. They want to prevent unauthorized traffic between segments while allowing necessary communication. Which security control should be implemented?

A.VLAN segmentation with ACLs
B.Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
C.Proxy server
D.Honeypot
AnswerA

VLANs logically segment networks, and ACLs enforce traffic rules between them, achieving the desired control.

Why this answer

VLAN segmentation with ACLs is the correct choice because VLANs create separate broadcast domains at Layer 2, isolating traffic between network segments (accounting, HR, engineering). ACLs applied to the Layer 3 interface (SVI) or trunk ports then enforce granular rules to permit only necessary inter-VLAN communication, such as allowing HR to access a shared server while blocking all other cross-segment traffic.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between passive detection (IDS) and active prevention (firewall/ACL), so candidates mistakenly choose IDS thinking it blocks traffic, but it only alerts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Intrusion Detection System) is wrong because an IDS is a passive monitoring tool that detects and alerts on malicious activity but does not actively block or prevent unauthorized traffic between segments. Option C (Proxy server) is wrong because a proxy operates at Layer 7 (application layer) to mediate client-server requests, not to enforce Layer 2/3 segmentation or access control between network segments. Option D (Honeypot) is wrong because a honeypot is a decoy system designed to attract and analyze attackers, not a control to prevent unauthorized inter-segment traffic.

172
MCQmedium

A security administrator is concerned about MAC address spoofing on the network. Which technology can help mitigate this risk by associating a specific MAC address with a port?

A.Port security
B.Dynamic ARP inspection
C.DHCP snooping
D.VLAN hopping prevention
AnswerA

Port security limits the number of MAC addresses on a port and can associate specific MACs, preventing spoofing.

Why this answer

Port security is the correct answer because it directly mitigates MAC address spoofing by allowing an administrator to statically or dynamically associate a specific MAC address with a switch port. When a device with a different MAC address attempts to use that port, port security can either disable the port (errdisable) or drop the traffic, preventing unauthorized access. This is a Layer 2 security feature that enforces MAC-to-port binding.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between features that prevent MAC spoofing (port security) versus features that prevent ARP spoofing (DAI) or DHCP attacks (DHCP snooping), leading candidates to confuse the purpose of each technology.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Dynamic ARP inspection) is wrong because it validates ARP packets based on DHCP snooping bindings to prevent ARP spoofing, not MAC address spoofing on a port. Option C (DHCP snooping) is wrong because it filters DHCP messages to prevent rogue DHCP servers and builds a binding table, but it does not directly associate a MAC address with a specific switch port. Option D (VLAN hopping prevention) is wrong because it protects against attacks that allow a device to jump to a different VLAN (e.g., via DTP or double tagging), not against MAC address spoofing on a single port.

173
MCQmedium

A company deploys a new intrusion detection system (IDS) on the internal network. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of this system?

A.Block malicious traffic in real time.
B.Detect and alert on potential security incidents.
C.Encrypt sensitive data at rest.
D.Prevent unauthorized access to the network.
AnswerB

The core function of an IDS is detection and alerting.

Why this answer

An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a passive monitoring technology that analyzes network traffic or system activity for signs of malicious behavior or policy violations. Unlike an intrusion prevention system (IPS), an IDS does not take inline action to block traffic; its primary purpose is to detect suspicious activity and generate alerts for security personnel to investigate and respond.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between IDS and IPS, where candidates mistakenly assume an IDS can block traffic because they conflate detection with prevention.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because blocking malicious traffic in real time is the function of an intrusion prevention system (IPS), not an IDS; an IDS operates out-of-band and cannot actively block traffic. Option C is wrong because encrypting sensitive data at rest is a data protection mechanism typically handled by encryption tools, file-level encryption, or full-disk encryption, not by an IDS. Option D is wrong because preventing unauthorized access to the network is the role of firewalls, access control lists (ACLs), or authentication systems, whereas an IDS only monitors and alerts on potential threats without enforcing access controls.

174
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is implementing a visitor management policy. Which THREE should be included? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Background checks for all visitors
B.Issuance of temporary visitor badges
C.Visitor sign-in with host notification
D.Escort policy requiring visitors to be accompanied
E.Biometric authentication for visitors
AnswersB, C, D

Badges identify visitors and distinguish them from employees.

Why this answer

Visitor management typically includes sign-in, escort policies, and visitor badges to track and control visitor access.

175
MCQhard

An organization uses a 3-2-1 backup strategy. They have a primary full backup on a local NAS, a second copy on tape stored offsite, and a third copy in the cloud. During a ransomware attack, the local NAS and the tape library are both encrypted. Which copy should be used for recovery?

A.The tape backup
B.The local NAS backup
C.The cloud backup
D.A new full backup from production data
AnswerC

The cloud copy is offsite and likely unaffected by the local attack.

Why this answer

The 3-2-1 rule ensures one copy is offsite and isolated. The cloud copy is likely immutable or separate, so it can be used for recovery.

176
MCQmedium

A financial institution's incident response team is handling a denial-of-service (DoS) attack that is affecting customer access. The team has identified the attack source IPs and implemented filtering rules on the perimeter firewall. Which phase of incident response is being performed?

A.Detection
B.Recovery
C.Eradication
D.Containment
AnswerD

Containment involves actions to limit the impact, such as blocking attack sources.

Why this answer

Implementing filtering rules to stop the attack is containment, as it prevents the attack from affecting systems further.

177
MCQhard

An organization has an RTO of 4 hours and an RPO of 1 hour for its customer database. After a disaster, the IT team restores the database from backups that are 2 hours old, and the system becomes operational in 3 hours. Which of the following is true?

A.Neither the RTO nor RPO was met.
B.The RPO was met, but the RTO was not.
C.Both the RTO and RPO were met.
D.The RTO was met, but the RPO was not.
AnswerD

RTO met (3h < 4h), but RPO exceeded (2h data loss > 1h allowed).

Why this answer

The system was restored in 3 hours, which is within the 4-hour RTO. However, data loss is 2 hours, exceeding the 1-hour RPO.

178
MCQmedium

A company's public web server is placed in a separate network segment that is accessible from the internet but isolated from the internal LAN. What is this network architecture called?

A.Subnet
B.Honeypot
C.VLAN
D.DMZ
AnswerD

DMZ provides controlled access to public servers while protecting the internal network.

Why this answer

A DMZ (demilitarized zone) is a buffer network for public-facing services.

179
MCQeasy

An organization implements an access control system where users are assigned to groups, and permissions are granted to groups rather than individuals. This is known as:

A.Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
B.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C.Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
D.Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
AnswerB

RBAC uses roles/groups to manage permissions efficiently.

Why this answer

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) assigns permissions to roles (or groups) rather than to individual users. Users are then made members of these roles, inheriting the permissions associated with the role. This matches the description in the question, where users are assigned to groups and permissions are granted to those groups.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between RBAC and ABAC by describing group-based assignment (RBAC) versus policy-based evaluation of multiple attributes (ABAC), leading candidates to confuse the two when the question mentions 'attributes' or 'policies'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Mandatory Access Control (MAC) enforces access based on system-wide security labels (e.g., classification levels) and is not based on user group membership. Option C is wrong because Discretionary Access Control (DAC) allows individual resource owners to set permissions on their objects, typically using Access Control Lists (ACLs), not by assigning users to groups with predefined permissions. Option D is wrong because Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) evaluates policies based on multiple attributes (user, resource, environment) at the time of access, not on static group membership.

180
MCQhard

What is the primary purpose of a digital signature?

A.Ensure confidentiality
B.Authenticate users via password
C.Encrypt the data
D.Provide non-repudiation and integrity
AnswerD

Digital signatures bind the signer to the document and detect tampering.

Why this answer

Digital signatures provide integrity by ensuring data has not been altered, and non-repudiation by proving the signer's identity and intent.

181
MCQmedium

Which of the following is an example of a vulnerability?

A.An unlocked server room door
B.A malicious hacker attempting to gain access
C.A firewall blocking unauthorized traffic
D.The risk of data loss
AnswerA

An unlocked door is a physical weakness that can be exploited.

Why this answer

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited. An unpatched software flaw is a classic example.

182
MCQhard

During a tabletop exercise, the IT team realizes that the backup tapes are stored in the same building as the servers. Which risk does this highlight?

A.Insufficient off-site storage
B.Single point of failure
C.Lack of redundancy
D.Inadequate segregation of duties
AnswerA

Backups should be stored off-site to survive a site-level disaster; storing them on-site creates a single point of failure.

Why this answer

Storing backup tapes in the same building as the primary servers violates the fundamental principle of geographic separation for disaster recovery. If a fire, flood, or physical security breach destroys the building, both the primary data and the backup tapes are lost simultaneously, rendering the backups useless. This directly indicates a lack of off-site storage, which is a core requirement for a viable backup strategy.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between 'lack of redundancy' (duplicate hardware) and 'insufficient off-site storage' (geographic separation of backups), trapping candidates who confuse high-availability concepts with disaster recovery requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'single point of failure' typically refers to a component (like a power supply or network link) whose failure stops the entire system, not to the physical co-location of backups. Option C is wrong because 'lack of redundancy' implies missing duplicate components (e.g., a second server or disk array), whereas the issue here is the absence of geographic separation for existing backups. Option D is wrong because 'inadequate segregation of duties' is a security control related to separating administrative roles (e.g., backup operator vs. system admin), not a physical storage location problem.

183
MCQeasy

An employee reports receiving a suspicious email with an attachment from an unknown sender. What is the first action the employee should take?

A.Open the attachment to check its content.
B.Report the email to the security team.
C.Forward the email to all employees as a warning.
D.Delete the email immediately.
AnswerB

Ensures proper handling of the potential security incident.

Why this answer

Reporting the email to the security team allows professionals to analyze and respond appropriately. Deleting the email or opening the attachment can be dangerous; forwarding may spread the threat.

184
MCQhard

A system administrator runs `iptables -L INPUT` and sees this rule. What is the immediate effect on the system?

A.All SSH traffic is blocked, including established sessions.
B.New SSH connections are blocked, but current SSH sessions remain active.
C.The rule has no effect because the policy is ACCEPT.
D.All outbound SSH connections are blocked.
AnswerB

The rule drops NEW packets for SSH, so new connections are blocked; established connections are unaffected.

Why this answer

The rule drops all new TCP connections to port 22 (SSH) from any source, preventing new SSH connections.

185
MCQeasy

A help desk technician needs to reset a user's password, but the security policy requires that the technician does not know the new password. Which access control concept prevents the technician from knowing the password?

A.Discretionary access control (DAC)
B.Need to know
C.Least privilege
D.Separation of duties
AnswerB

Need to know ensures users only access information required for their job tasks.

Why this answer

The 'need to know' concept restricts access to information based on whether the user requires that information to perform their job functions. In this scenario, the technician must reset the password but does not need to know the new password itself, so the policy enforces that the technician cannot view or retain the new password. This is distinct from least privilege, which limits permissions to the minimum necessary, but does not inherently prevent knowledge of the password if the technician has the reset permission.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between 'least privilege' and 'need to know' by presenting a scenario where a user has permissions but should not know the data, leading candidates to mistakenly choose least privilege because it sounds similar, when 'need to know' specifically addresses knowledge of the information itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because discretionary access control (DAC) allows the resource owner to set permissions, which does not inherently prevent the technician from knowing the password; it focuses on owner-based control, not on limiting knowledge. Option C is wrong because least privilege ensures the technician has only the minimum permissions needed (e.g., the ability to reset passwords), but it does not specifically prevent the technician from seeing the new password; a technician with reset rights could still view it unless a separate control like 'need to know' is applied. Option D is wrong because separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple people to prevent fraud (e.g., one person resets, another sets the password), but the scenario describes a single technician performing the reset, not a split of responsibilities.

186
MCQhard

An organization uses a network segmentation strategy that creates separate broadcast domains on a single switch. Which technology is being used?

A.DMZ
B.Honeypot
C.Subnetting
D.VLAN
AnswerD

VLANs create separate broadcast domains on a switch.

Why this answer

VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) logically segment a switch into multiple isolated broadcast domains, improving security and reducing broadcast traffic.

187
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibit, why was the packet denied?

A.Source IP is internal
B.The packet was blocked by an outbound access list
C.Destination IP is external
D.The packet was blocked by an inbound access list
AnswerD

The message specifies 'due to access-group INTERNET_IN', which is applied inbound.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows an inbound access list applied to the interface, and the packet is denied because its source IP matches a deny entry in that inbound ACL. Inbound access lists filter traffic before it is processed by the router, so the packet is dropped upon arrival. The correct answer is D because the packet was blocked by an inbound access list, as indicated by the ACL configuration and the deny action.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between inbound and outbound ACLs, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse the direction of the ACL application (inbound vs. outbound) or assume that a packet is denied because of the source or destination IP alone, rather than focusing on the ACL rule that explicitly denies the traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the source IP being internal is not a reason for denial; ACLs filter based on configured rules, not the mere fact that an IP is internal. Option B is wrong because the packet was blocked by an inbound access list, not an outbound one; outbound ACLs filter traffic leaving the interface, but the exhibit shows the ACL is applied inbound. Option C is wrong because the destination IP being external is irrelevant; ACLs can permit or deny traffic regardless of destination being internal or external, and the denial is due to the ACL rule, not the destination's location.

188
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is implementing controls to protect the integrity of a database. Which TWO of the following controls would best achieve this goal?

Select 2 answers
A.Load balancing
B.Encryption
C.Digital signatures
D.Hashing
E.Redundant servers
AnswersC, D

Digital signatures provide integrity and non-repudiation.

Why this answer

Hashing and digital signatures both ensure data has not been altered.

189
MCQhard

A financial firm has a data center with strict access controls. Employees must use smart cards and PINs to enter a mantrapped entrance. Recently, an unauthorized person gained access by following an employee through the mantrapped door (tailgating). The security team reviews logs and finds that the door was opened twice in quick succession, indicating tailgating occurred. The firm wants to implement a solution that prevents tailgating without slowing down authorized access. Which action should they take?

A.Require employees to log access requests in advance
B.Install a biometric scanner that requires fingerprint and retina scan
C.Implement a turnstile that allows only one person per smart card authentication
D.Increase the number of security guards at the entrance
AnswerC

Turnstiles physically enforce one person per credential, directly preventing tailgating.

Why this answer

A turnstile physically enforces one-person-per-authentication by rotating only after a valid smart card read and allowing a single passage, then locking until the next authentication. This directly prevents tailgating without adding delay, as each authorized user passes through at their own pace without needing additional steps like biometric scans or pre-approval.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between detection (e.g., logs, cameras) and prevention (e.g., turnstiles, mantrap doors), so candidates mistakenly choose biometric or procedural options that only detect or deter rather than physically block tailgating.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because requiring advance access logs does not physically prevent tailgating; it only creates an audit trail after the fact, and the unauthorized person could still follow an employee through the door. Option B is wrong because biometric scanners (fingerprint and retina) add significant authentication time and user friction, slowing down authorized access, and they still do not prevent a second person from slipping through immediately after the first is authenticated. Option D is wrong because increasing security guards is a personnel-based solution that is costly, inconsistent, and still relies on human vigilance to spot tailgating, which can fail during busy periods or distraction.

190
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst reviews an alert indicating a high number of failed login attempts from a single external IP address targeting multiple user accounts. Which security control is most effective at preventing this type of attack?

A.Deploying a web application firewall
B.Enabling verbose logging for authentication events
C.Increasing password complexity requirements
D.Implementing account lockout policies
AnswerD

Account lockout policies limit the number of failed attempts, preventing continued brute-force attacks.

Why this answer

Account lockout policies directly mitigate brute-force attacks by temporarily disabling an account after a defined number of failed login attempts (e.g., 5 failures within 15 minutes). This prevents the attacker from continuing to guess passwords for multiple user accounts from a single external IP, without affecting legitimate users who can be unlocked after a lockout duration or via an administrative reset.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that a WAF (Option A) can stop brute-force attacks, but the trap is that WAFs operate at Layer 7 for web traffic and do not control authentication attempts against native OS or directory service logins.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a web application firewall (WAF) inspects HTTP/HTTPS traffic for application-layer attacks (e.g., SQL injection, XSS), not authentication brute-force attempts against a directory service or operating system login. Option B is wrong because enabling verbose logging for authentication events only improves visibility and forensic analysis; it does not prevent the attack from succeeding. Option C is wrong because increasing password complexity requirements makes passwords harder to guess but does not stop an attacker from making unlimited login attempts; brute-force tools can still try millions of complex passwords over time.

191
MCQhard

A company's security policy requires that all incident response activities be logged and that evidence be preserved for potential legal action. During an incident, a responder mistakenly uses a personal USB drive to copy log files. Which principle of forensic evidence handling has been violated?

A.Integrity
B.Chain of custody
C.Availability
D.Confidentiality
AnswerB

Using unapproved media and not documenting the transfer violates chain of custody.

Why this answer

The chain of custody is a documented record that tracks the seizure, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence. By using a personal USB drive to copy log files, the responder introduces an unverified and uncontrolled storage medium, breaking the documented chain and making it impossible to prove that the evidence was not tampered with or contaminated. This directly violates the requirement to preserve evidence for potential legal action.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between chain of custody and integrity by presenting a scenario where evidence is copied to an unauthorized device, leading candidates to mistakenly choose 'Integrity' because they focus on potential data alteration rather than the lack of documented control over the evidence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because integrity refers to the assurance that data has not been altered or destroyed in an unauthorized manner; while using a personal USB drive could potentially affect integrity, the core violation here is the lack of documented control over the evidence, not the alteration of the data itself. Option C is wrong because availability concerns ensuring that data and systems are accessible when needed; the responder was able to copy the log files, so availability was not compromised. Option D is wrong because confidentiality involves preventing unauthorized disclosure of information; although using a personal USB drive might raise confidentiality concerns, the primary forensic principle violated is the broken chain of custody, not the exposure of the data.

192
MCQmedium

A company recently experienced a DoS attack targeting their web server. They want to implement a solution that can differentiate between legitimate traffic and attack traffic based on behavior patterns. Which technology should they deploy?

A.Web Application Firewall (WAF)
B.Load balancer
C.Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
D.Stateful firewall
AnswerC

An IPS can perform deep packet inspection and behavioral analysis to detect and block DoS patterns inline.

Why this answer

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is the correct choice because it can analyze traffic patterns and behavior in real time, using signature-based and anomaly-based detection to distinguish legitimate traffic from DoS attack traffic. Unlike a WAF, which focuses on application-layer threats like SQL injection, an IPS can inspect network and transport layers to identify volumetric or protocol-based DoS patterns and actively block malicious flows.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a WAF and an IPS, where candidates mistakenly choose WAF because they associate all web server attacks with application-layer defenses, but DoS attacks often operate at lower layers where IPS behavior analysis is required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Web Application Firewall (WAF) is designed to protect against application-layer attacks (e.g., SQLi, XSS) and cannot effectively differentiate behavior patterns at the network or transport layer for DoS attacks. Option B is wrong because a load balancer distributes traffic across servers for availability and performance, but it lacks the deep packet inspection and behavioral analysis needed to identify and block DoS attack patterns. Option D is wrong because a stateful firewall tracks connection states and enforces rules based on IP/port/protocol, but it does not perform behavioral or anomaly-based analysis to distinguish legitimate traffic from DoS traffic.

193
MCQhard

An LDAP distinguished name is formatted as: CN=John Smith,OU=Sales,DC=company,DC=com. What does OU represent?

A.Organization Unit
B.Object Unit
C.Operating Unit
D.Organizational Unit
AnswerD

OU is standard abbreviation for Organizational Unit.

Why this answer

OU stands for Organizational Unit, a container within a directory tree.

194
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a logical access control?

A.A password policy
B.A fence around a building
C.A security guard
D.A biometric reader on a door
AnswerA

Password policy governs logical access to systems.

Why this answer

Logical access controls are software-based mechanisms that regulate access to systems or data.

195
MCQmedium

A security architect is designing access controls for a new application. The requirement is that only managers can approve expense reports above $10,000. Which control model best fits this requirement?

A.Role-based access control (RBAC)
B.Discretionary access control (DAC)
C.Mandatory access control (MAC)
D.Rule-based access control (RuBAC)
AnswerD

RuBAC uses rules (e.g., conditions) to determine access, matching the requirement.

Why this answer

Rule-based access control (RuBAC) uses a set of rules or conditions to determine access decisions, such as the expense report amount exceeding $10,000. In this scenario, the access control decision depends on a dynamic attribute (the expense amount) rather than a static role or identity, making RuBAC the best fit. RuBAC is often implemented using access control lists (ACLs) or policy-based engines that evaluate conditions like 'if amount > 10000 then require manager approval'.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between RBAC and RuBAC by presenting a scenario with a conditional rule (like a dollar threshold), leading candidates to mistakenly choose RBAC because they focus on the 'manager' role rather than the rule that triggers the approval requirement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because RBAC grants permissions based on a user's job role (e.g., 'Manager'), but it does not inherently evaluate dynamic conditions like the expense amount; RBAC would allow any manager to approve any expense, not just those above $10,000. Option B is wrong because DAC allows the resource owner to control access at their discretion, which does not enforce a mandatory policy that only managers can approve high-value expenses. Option C is wrong because MAC enforces access based on system-wide labels (e.g., security clearance levels) and is typically used in classified environments, not for application-level business rules like expense thresholds.

196
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a recommended practice for administrative accounts?

A.Use the same account for daily work and admin tasks
B.Grant admin rights to all users for convenience
C.Use a separate admin account distinct from daily use account
D.Disable all admin accounts to improve security
AnswerC

Separation reduces exposure.

Why this answer

Admins should have a separate account for privileged tasks to reduce risk.

197
MCQmedium

An organization's backup schedule: Full backup every Sunday, incremental backups Monday-Saturday. If a failure occurs on Thursday, how many backup sets are needed to restore the data?

A.5 (Sunday full and all incrementals through Thursday)
B.4 (Sunday full and Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday incrementals)
C.1 (Sunday full only)
D.2 (Sunday full and Wednesday incremental)
AnswerB

Full backup plus each incremental since then.

Why this answer

For incremental backups, you need the last full backup and all incrementals since then. So Sunday full + Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday incrementals (4 sets).

198
MCQeasy

A security operations center (SOC) analyst receives an alert for a potential malware infection on a workstation. Which of the following is the first action the analyst should take?

A.Reimage the workstation
B.Run a full antivirus scan
C.Isolate the workstation from the network to prevent spread
D.Notify law enforcement
AnswerC

Immediate containment limits damage and buys time for analysis.

Why this answer

When a potential malware infection is detected, the immediate priority is containment to prevent lateral movement and further compromise. Isolating the workstation from the network (e.g., disabling the network interface or disconnecting the cable) stops the malware from communicating with command-and-control servers or spreading to other hosts. This aligns with the NIST incident response framework's containment phase, which precedes eradication and recovery actions.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the principle that containment (isolation) must come before eradication (scanning or reimaging), and candidates mistakenly choose a remediation step like running a scan or reimaging as the first action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reimaging the workstation destroys forensic evidence and is a recovery step that should only occur after containment and investigation. Option B is wrong because running a full antivirus scan while the system is still connected to the network may alert the malware, trigger destructive behavior, or allow continued data exfiltration during the scan. Option D is wrong because notifying law enforcement is a post-containment, post-investigation step that is not the first action; it is typically reserved for incidents involving sensitive data or legal requirements, not initial triage.

199
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An IDS generates this alert for traffic from an internal server (10.1.1.50) to an external IP on port 443. The security team investigates and finds that the server is a web application that normally uses TLS 1.2. What does this alert most likely indicate?

A.An attacker is performing an SSL stripping attack, downgrading the connection to SSLv3
B.The server is experiencing a buffer overflow attack
C.The server's certificate has expired and the client is falling back to SSLv3
D.The server has been misconfigured to use SSLv3 instead of TLS
AnswerA

The alert signature suggests SSL stripping, and the use of SSLv3 is a red flag.

Why this answer

The alert indicates a downgrade from TLS 1.2 to SSLv3, which is the hallmark of an SSL stripping attack. In this attack, an adversary intercepts the client's TLS handshake request and forces the connection to use the weaker SSLv3 protocol, often by manipulating the ClientHello message to remove TLS options. This allows the attacker to exploit known vulnerabilities in SSLv3, such as POODLE, to decrypt or hijack the session.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a server-side misconfiguration (which would cause consistent use of SSLv3) and an active downgrade attack (which shows a change from TLS to SSLv3), tricking candidates into choosing the misconfiguration answer when the evidence points to an attack.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a buffer overflow attack typically involves sending malformed data to exploit memory corruption, not a protocol version downgrade, and would not generate an alert specifically about SSLv3 usage. Option C is wrong because certificate expiration causes browser warnings or handshake failures, not a fallback to SSLv3; modern clients do not automatically downgrade to SSLv3 due to expired certificates. Option D is wrong because if the server were misconfigured to use SSLv3, it would consistently use that protocol, not suddenly switch from TLS 1.2 to SSLv3, and the alert would not indicate a downgrade event.

200
MCQmedium

According to NIST SP 800-63, which password policy is recommended to enhance security?

A.Allow passwords as short as 4 characters
B.Enforce maximum complexity with special characters and numbers
C.Require frequent password changes every 30 days
D.Favor length over complexity and check against breached password lists
AnswerD

Length and breach checking are recommended by NIST.

Why this answer

NIST SP 800-63 recommends favoring long passwords over complex ones and avoiding frequent forced changes.

201
Multi-Selecthard

A security operations center (SOC) analyst is investigating a potential data exfiltration. Which two indicators are most likely signs of data exfiltration?

Select 2 answers
A.Large number of failed login attempts
B.Frequent DNS queries to known malicious domains
C.Unexpected large file transfers via FTP
D.Multiple antivirus alerts
E.Unusual outbound traffic to a foreign IP
AnswersC, E

Large file transfers out of the network are a classic exfiltration sign.

Why this answer

Unexpected large file transfers via FTP are a classic indicator of data exfiltration because FTP is a clear-text protocol often used to move bulk data out of a network. A sudden spike in outbound FTP traffic, especially to an unfamiliar external IP, suggests an attacker is compressing and uploading stolen files. This behavior directly matches the exfiltration phase of the Cyber Kill Chain.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between indicators of compromise (IOCs) for different attack phases—candidates confuse C2 beaconing (DNS queries) with data exfiltration (large file transfers), or mistake authentication failures for exfiltration activity.

202
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) system. Which data source is most critical for detecting an ongoing brute-force attack?

A.DNS logs.
B.Authentication logs.
C.Firewall logs.
D.Application logs.
AnswerB

Directly contain login attempt records.

Why this answer

Authentication logs record successful and failed login attempts, which are directly indicative of brute-force attacks. Other logs may provide supporting information but are not as directly tied to the attack.

203
MCQmedium

An organization has detected a ransomware infection. What is the FIRST step in the incident response process?

A.Isolate affected systems
B.Pay the ransom
C.Run antivirus scans
D.Report to law enforcement
AnswerA

Isolation prevents the ransomware from spreading to other systems.

Why this answer

Containment is the immediate priority to prevent further spread of the ransomware.

204
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is planning to implement a security awareness program. Which TWO topics should be included to address common social engineering attacks?

Select 2 answers
A.Recognizing phishing emails
B.Awareness of tailgating and piggybacking
C.Understanding encryption algorithms
D.Configuring firewall rules
E.Proper password management using a password manager
AnswersA, B

Phishing is a primary social engineering vector.

Why this answer

Phishing awareness and tailgating awareness are both critical social engineering topics. USB drop attacks are also social engineering, but the question asks for TWO; phishing and tailgating are the most common.

205
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are examples of implementing defense in depth? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Enabling single sign-on for all applications
B.Using a firewall to filter traffic
C.Allowing all traffic by default
D.Implementing access control lists
E.Encrypting data at rest
AnswersB, D, E

Correct. Firewall is a layer.

Why this answer

A firewall is a fundamental component of defense in depth, providing network-level traffic filtering based on rules. It acts as a first line of defense by blocking unauthorized access and malicious traffic, thereby reducing the attack surface. This layered security approach ensures that even if other controls fail, the firewall can still prevent or mitigate threats.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the concept that defense in depth requires multiple independent layers of security, so candidates mistakenly select options that improve convenience (like SSO) or violate security principles (like allowing all traffic) instead of recognizing that each correct option adds a distinct security control at a different layer.

206
MCQeasy

A company requires that financial transactions be approved by two different managers before execution. This is an example of which access control principle?

A.Need-to-know
B.Defense in depth
C.Least privilege
D.Separation of duties
AnswerD

Correct. Separation of duties prevents fraud by requiring multiple approvals.

Why this answer

Separation of duties ensures no single individual can complete a high-risk action alone.

207
MCQhard

A security engineer is reviewing logs and notices that an internal server is receiving excessive SYN packets from an external IP, but never completing the three-way handshake. What type of attack is likely occurring?

A.Smurf attack
B.Ping of death
C.ARP poisoning
D.SYN flood
AnswerD

SYN flood sends many SYN packets, leaving half-open connections.

Why this answer

A SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending a high volume of SYN packets to a target server without completing the handshake (i.e., not sending the final ACK). This exhausts the server's connection table resources, preventing legitimate connections. The log evidence—excessive SYN packets from an external IP with no handshake completion—is the classic signature of a SYN flood.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between attacks that use ICMP (Smurf, Ping of death) versus TCP (SYN flood), so candidates may confuse the protocol layer or misremember that a Smurf attack involves SYN packets instead of ICMP echo requests.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Smurf attack uses ICMP echo requests (pings) sent to a network's broadcast address with a spoofed source IP, causing all hosts to reply to the victim, overwhelming it with ICMP traffic—not TCP SYN packets. Option B is wrong because a Ping of death involves sending a malformed ICMP packet larger than the maximum allowed size (65535 bytes) to cause a buffer overflow or crash, not excessive SYN packets. Option C is wrong because ARP poisoning is a local network attack that manipulates ARP tables to intercept traffic between hosts on the same subnet; it does not involve external IPs sending TCP SYN packets.

208
MCQmedium

Which OSI layer is responsible for logical addressing, routing, and forwarding of packets, and where does an IP address operate?

A.Layer 2 – Data Link
B.Layer 1 – Physical
C.Layer 3 – Network
D.Layer 4 – Transport
AnswerC

Correct. IP addresses and routing are at Layer 3.

Why this answer

Layer 3 (Network) handles IP addresses, routing, and packet forwarding.

209
MCQmedium

During a disaster recovery test, the IT team discovers that restoring all data from full backups takes 48 hours, exceeding the RTO. Which backup strategy would reduce restore time while maintaining a similar backup window?

A.Increasing backup frequency to hourly
B.Implementing the 3-2-1 backup rule
C.Switching from full to incremental backups only
D.Using differential backups instead of incremental
AnswerD

Differential backups capture all changes since the last full, enabling faster restore with only two tapes.

Why this answer

A differential backup backs up all changes since the last full backup, so restore requires only the full backup and the latest differential, reducing restore time compared to incremental.

210
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured the above on a switch port. After connecting a single workstation, the port goes into err-disabled state within minutes. What is the most likely cause?

A.The workstation is sending traffic with multiple source MAC addresses.
B.The port-security maximum is set to 2, so it should allow up to 2 MACs; the issue is elsewhere.
C.Sticky MAC learning is disabled.
D.The violation mode should be 'restrict' instead of 'shutdown'.
AnswerA

Exceeding the maximum MAC count triggers violation shutdown.

Why this answer

The port-security configuration with a maximum MAC address count of 2 and violation mode 'shutdown' causes the port to err-disable when a single workstation sends traffic with multiple source MAC addresses. This is a classic symptom of a device (e.g., a virtual machine host or a switch behind the port) generating frames from different MACs, exceeding the allowed limit and triggering the violation.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that the maximum MAC count is the only factor, when in reality a single device can generate multiple MAC addresses (e.g., via virtualization or bridging), causing a violation even with a seemingly generous limit like 2.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the port-security maximum is set to 2, which should allow up to 2 MAC addresses, but the issue is that a single workstation is generating more than 2 MACs, so the maximum is not the problem—the violation occurs due to exceeding the limit. Option C is wrong because sticky MAC learning is not required for port-security to function; it only dynamically learns and remembers MAC addresses, but its absence does not cause err-disable—the violation mode and maximum count are the active controls. Option D is wrong because changing the violation mode to 'restrict' would not prevent the err-disable state; 'restrict' only drops offending traffic and increments a counter, while 'shutdown' err-disables the port, but the root cause is the multiple MAC addresses, not the violation mode.

211
MCQeasy

Which recovery site strategy provides the shortest recovery time objective (RTO), typically measured in hours, by maintaining a fully mirrored environment that can be activated immediately?

A.Warm site
B.Reciprocal agreement
C.Cold site
D.Hot site
AnswerD

Hot site mirrors production and can be activated quickly, achieving RTO of hours.

Why this answer

A hot site is fully configured with hardware, software, and real-time data replication, enabling recovery within hours.

212
MCQeasy

Which protocol is considered insecure because it transmits data, including passwords, in cleartext, and its use should be avoided in favor of more secure alternatives?

A.SSH
B.SFTP
C.HTTPS
D.Telnet
AnswerD

Correct. Telnet is cleartext and insecure.

Why this answer

Telnet (port 23) transmits data in cleartext. SSH is its secure replacement.

213
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are types of security controls used in defense in depth? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Detective controls
B.Corrective controls
C.Compensating controls
D.Administrative controls
E.Preventive controls
AnswersA, E

Detective controls identify attacks, e.g., IDS.

Why this answer

Detective controls are a core type of security control in a defense-in-depth strategy, designed to identify and alert on ongoing or past security incidents. Examples include intrusion detection systems (IDS) like Snort or Suricata, which analyze network traffic for malicious patterns, and security information and event management (SIEM) systems that correlate logs to detect anomalies. These controls provide visibility into the security posture, enabling timely response to threats that bypass preventive measures.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between control categories by including 'Administrative controls' as a distractor, leading candidates to confuse governance-level controls (policies, awareness training) with the operational control types (preventive, detective, corrective) that form the core of defense in depth.

214
MCQmedium

A security operations center (SOC) analyst receives an alert for a high volume of outbound traffic from an internal server to a known malicious IP address. Which step should the analyst take next?

A.Shut down the server.
B.Disregard the alert as a false positive.
C.Block all outbound traffic from the server.
D.Isolate the server from the network.
AnswerD

Immediately contains the potential compromise.

Why this answer

Isolating the server stops the suspicious traffic and prevents further data exfiltration or lateral movement while the incident is investigated. Other actions are either too broad or premature.

215
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are core components of the ISC2 Code of Ethics? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Advance and protect the profession.
B.Disclose all confidential information to law enforcement.
C.Protect society, the common good, necessary public trust and confidence, and the infrastructure.
D.Ensure maximum profitability for the organization.
E.Always follow orders from management.
AnswersA, C

This is the fourth canon.

Why this answer

The ISC2 Code of Ethics explicitly requires members to 'advance and protect the profession' as one of its four mandatory canons. This means acting honorably, maintaining competence, and not engaging in conduct that brings discredit upon the profession. It is a core ethical duty for all certified professionals.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between ethical duties and legal obligations, where candidates mistakenly believe that always following management orders or maximizing profit are ethical requirements, when in fact the Code prioritizes societal protection and professional integrity.

216
MCQmedium

An organization is implementing a new logging policy. Which type of data should be excluded from logs to comply with privacy regulations?

A.System performance metrics
B.User authentication attempts
C.Personal identifiable information (PII)
D.Network traffic patterns
AnswerC

Logging PII violates privacy regulations and should be avoided.

Why this answer

Personal Identifiable Information (PII) should be excluded from logs to comply with privacy regulations like GDPR. Options A, B, and D are typically safe to log and important for security monitoring.

217
MCQhard

A software developer is designing a web application that will store user credentials. What is the most secure method for storing passwords?

A.Hash passwords using a strong algorithm like bcrypt with a unique salt
B.Use a tokenization service to replace passwords with tokens
C.Encrypt passwords using AES-256 and store the key separately
D.Store passwords in a secure database with access controls
AnswerA

Hashing with salt makes passwords irreversibly stored and resistant to rainbow tables.

Why this answer

Hashing with salt protects passwords even if database is compromised. Encryption is reversible, so less secure for passwords.

218
MCQmedium

An organization must comply with PCI DSS log retention requirements. What is the minimum retention period for logs, and how long must they be immediately available for analysis?

A.24 months retention, 12 months immediately available
B.6 months retention, 1 month immediately available
C.12 months retention, 3 months immediately available
D.12 months retention, 6 months immediately available
AnswerC

Correct. This matches PCI DSS requirements.

Why this answer

PCI DSS requires logs to be retained for at least 12 months, with the most recent 3 months immediately available for review.

219
MCQhard

A large organization has implemented a Security Operations Center (SOC) with a tiered incident response model. Tier 1 analysts triage alerts and escalate confirmed incidents to Tier 2 for deeper analysis. Recently, the SOC has been overwhelmed by a high volume of low-severity alerts from endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools, causing delays in handling true positive incidents. The SOC manager wants to reduce alert fatigue without missing critical threats. Which of the following strategies would be MOST effective?

A.Require Tier 2 analysts to review all alerts before Tier 1.
B.Increase the number of Tier 1 analysts to handle the volume.
C.Implement automated playbooks for low-severity alerts to perform initial investigation and closure if benign.
D.Disable all low-severity alert rules in the EDR.
AnswerC

Reduces manual triage and allows analysts to focus on critical threats.

Why this answer

The most effective strategy because implementing automated playbooks for low-severity alerts allows the SOC to handle high-volume, low-risk events without human intervention. Automation can triage, investigate, and close benign alerts, reducing alert fatigue and freeing Tier 1 analysts to focus on true positives. Option A reverses the tiered model and would overwhelm Tier 2 without addressing root cause.

Option B only adds more analysts to deal with symptoms, not the root cause of volume. Option D risks missing critical threats by disabling rules entirely, which could lead to security gaps. Automated playbooks strike the right balance between efficiency and security.

220
MCQmedium

A network administrator needs to ensure that sensitive financial data remains confidential while in transit over the internet. Which technology should they implement?

A.Digital signatures
B.SHA-256
C.TLS 1.3
D.AES-256
AnswerC

TLS encrypts data in transit, providing confidentiality.

Why this answer

TLS encrypts data in transit. AES is encrypting at rest. SHA-256 is hashing.

VPN can also encrypt but TLS is more specific for web traffic.

221
MCQhard

An organization implements a policy requiring employees to use a separate administrator account for privileged tasks and a different account for daily activities. Which principle does this support?

A.Separation of duties
B.Least privilege
C.Defense in depth
D.Need-to-know
AnswerB

Using separate admin accounts limits privileges to only what's needed for admin tasks.

Why this answer

Least privilege for administrators reduces the risk from compromised daily accounts.

222
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is designing a defense-in-depth strategy for physical security. Which of the following are examples of layered physical controls? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Fencing and bollards around the property
B.Biometric reader on server room door
C.Encryption of data at rest
D.Intrusion detection system on the network
E.Access badge system at building entrance
AnswersA, B, E

External perimeter control.

Why this answer

Defense in depth uses multiple layers: perimeter, building, room, and equipment controls.

223
MCQmedium

Which firewall type inspects the entire packet, including application data, and can enforce rules based on user identity?

A.Application proxy firewall
B.Packet filtering firewall
C.Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
D.Stateful inspection firewall
AnswerC

Correct. NGFW includes application ID, user ID, and IPS.

Why this answer

Next-generation firewalls (NGFW) combine deep inspection with application ID and user ID.

224
MCQeasy

Which recovery site strategy provides the fastest Recovery Time Objective (RTO), typically within hours, by maintaining a fully operational mirrored environment?

A.Cold site
B.Warm site
C.Hot site
D.Cloud-based recovery
AnswerC

Hot sites are fully mirrored and can be operational within hours.

Why this answer

A hot site is a fully operational facility that mirrors the production environment, allowing recovery within hours.

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MCQeasy

A user reports that they received a suspicious email with an attachment claiming to be an invoice. What should the user do?

A.Report the email to the security team without opening the attachment
B.Reply to the email and ask for confirmation
C.Delete the email immediately
D.Open the attachment to check what it contains
AnswerA

This allows security to investigate safely.

Why this answer

The user should immediately report the suspicious email to the security team without opening the attachment. Opening the attachment could trigger a malicious payload, such as a macro-enabled document or executable, that exploits vulnerabilities in the email client or operating system. The security team can analyze the email headers, attachment hash, and sender domain using tools like sandboxing or threat intelligence feeds to determine if it is a phishing attempt or malware delivery.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that deleting a suspicious email is sufficient, but the correct incident response procedure requires preserving evidence and reporting to the security team for analysis and containment.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because replying to the email confirms the user's email address as active to the attacker, potentially leading to targeted follow-up attacks or social engineering. Option C is wrong because deleting the email immediately removes forensic evidence (e.g., email headers, attachment metadata) that the security team needs to investigate and block the threat across the organization. Option D is wrong because opening the attachment risks executing malware, such as ransomware or a trojan, that could compromise the user's endpoint and spread laterally within the network.

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