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ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 175

1527 questions total · 21pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each NFV management layer on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Lifecycle management of VNF instances (instantiate, scale, terminate)

Orchestration of network services across multiple VNFs and NFVI

Management of compute, storage, and network resources in NFVI

Service assurance, billing, and customer management layers interfacing with NFV

FCAPS management for individual VNFs

Why these pairings

VNFM manages individual VNFs; NFVO orchestrates network services; VIM controls NFVI resources.

2
MCQmedium

Review this IP SLA configuration on Router R1: ip sla 6 icmp-echo 10.6.6.6 frequency 10 ip sla schedule 6 life forever start-time now ip sla reaction-configuration 6 react timeout threshold-type immediate action-type triggerOnly Which statement is true about the 'threshold-type immediate' parameter?

A.It triggers an event immediately when a timeout occurs.
B.It triggers an event after a delay of 10 seconds.
C.It triggers an event only if the timeout persists for 5 consecutive probes.
D.It triggers an event only if the timeout occurs within the first 10 seconds.
AnswerA

'immediate' triggers on the first occurrence of the condition.

Why this answer

The 'threshold-type immediate' parameter in an IP SLA reaction configuration causes the router to trigger the specified action (in this case, 'triggerOnly') as soon as a single probe timeout occurs, without waiting for any additional probes or a delay. This is correct because the configuration explicitly sets the threshold type to immediate, meaning the reaction is instantaneous upon detecting the timeout event.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'immediate' and 'consecutive' threshold types, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse 'immediate' with a delayed or cumulative condition, assuming it requires multiple failures or a specific time window.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'threshold-type immediate' does not introduce any delay; a delay would require a different threshold type, such as 'threshold-type x' with a specific time value. Option C is wrong because triggering only after 5 consecutive timeouts would require the 'threshold-type consecutive' parameter, not 'immediate'. Option D is wrong because the 'immediate' threshold is not limited to the first 10 seconds; it reacts to any timeout regardless of when it occurs within the probe's frequency interval.

3
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Cisco DNA Center integration with external systems are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Cisco DNA Center provides a RESTful API that allows external applications to retrieve network inventory and topology data.
B.Cisco DNA Center can forward syslog messages to external SIEM systems for centralized logging and analysis.
C.Cisco DNA Center can synchronize IP address pools with external IPAM solutions such as Infoblox or SolarWinds.
D.Cisco DNA Center establishes BGP peering sessions with external routers to exchange routing information.
E.Cisco DNA Center only supports SNMP traps as the northbound interface for event notifications.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because the DNA Center REST API is a primary northbound interface for integration with third-party tools and custom scripts.

Why this answer

DNA Center integrates with various systems for extended functionality. The correct answers cover REST API integration, syslog forwarding, and IPAM synchronization. The wrong answers incorrectly claim direct BGP peering for routing and that SNMP traps are the only northbound interface.

4
MCQeasy

A network team is designing the underlay for an SD-Access fabric. The design must use a routing protocol that supports fast convergence and is commonly recommended for the fabric underlay. Which routing protocol should be used?

A.IS-IS
B.RIP
C.EIGRP
D.BGP
AnswerA

IS-IS is the preferred underlay routing protocol for SD-Access fabric.

Why this answer

IS-IS is the correct choice because it is a link-state routing protocol that provides fast convergence, is highly scalable, and is the most commonly recommended routing protocol for the underlay of an SD-Access fabric. Cisco SD-Access designs frequently use IS-IS to support the fabric's control plane and data plane requirements, leveraging its ability to handle large, flat network topologies with minimal overhead.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that EIGRP is the best choice for fast convergence in Cisco-centric designs, but for SD-Access underlay, the recommended protocol is IS-IS due to its open standard nature and alignment with Cisco's validated fabric architecture.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (RIP) is wrong because RIP is a distance-vector protocol with slow convergence, a maximum hop count of 15, and is not suitable for modern, scalable SD-Access underlays. Option C (EIGRP) is wrong because while EIGRP offers fast convergence, it is a Cisco proprietary protocol that is not recommended for SD-Access underlays; Cisco's validated designs for SD-Access specify IS-IS or OSPF for multi-vendor interoperability and fabric consistency. Option D (BGP) is wrong because BGP is a path-vector protocol designed for inter-domain routing and policy control, not for fast convergence in a single-domain underlay; it is used in SD-Access for the overlay (e.g., LISP/VXLAN) but not as the underlay routing protocol.

5
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about telemetry data collection intervals and on-change notifications are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Periodic telemetry sends data at a configured interval regardless of whether the value has changed.
B.On-change telemetry sends data only when the monitored value changes, reducing network overhead.
C.A single telemetry subscription can include both periodic and on-change sensors.
D.On-change telemetry guarantees that every change, no matter how brief, will be reported.
E.Periodic telemetry is always preferred over on-change for all use cases.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because periodic subscriptions push data on a timer, ensuring consistent updates.

Why this answer

Periodic telemetry sends data at fixed intervals, while on-change sends data only when a value changes. On-change reduces bandwidth but may miss transient events if suppression is used. Periodic ensures regular updates but increases load.

Both can be combined in a single subscription. On-change is not always supported for all YANG paths.

6
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NAPALM get_facts() retrieval from IOS-XE device into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with importing the NAPALM library, then establishing a connection to the device, calling get_facts() to retrieve device facts, processing the returned dictionary, and finally closing the connection to free resources.

7
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SVI configuration for inter-VLAN routing into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First create the SVI interface, assign an IP address, enable it, and then configure routing or ACLs as needed.

8
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of hierarchical LAN design implementation phases into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Hierarchical LAN design starts with the access layer for endpoint connectivity, then the distribution layer for policy and aggregation, followed by the core layer for high-speed transport. After physical design, VLANs and trunking are configured, and finally routing protocols are deployed for inter-VLAN communication.

9
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are correct about Cisco SD-Access architecture? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.VXLAN encapsulation is used for data plane traffic within the fabric.
B.Control plane nodes host the LISP mapping database.
C.Wireless access points must be directly connected to the fabric edge switches.
D.Fabric edge nodes are responsible for connecting the fabric to external networks.
E.The fabric uses VLANs to isolate tenant traffic.
AnswersA, B

VXLAN is the encapsulation used to carry Layer 2 frames over Layer 3 fabric.

Why this answer

VXLAN is the encapsulation protocol used in the Cisco SD-Access fabric to carry data plane traffic between fabric edge nodes. VXLAN provides a Layer 2 overlay over a Layer 3 underlay, enabling scalable segmentation and mobility without VLAN limitations.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that VLANs are used for fabric segmentation, but the correct answer is VXLAN VNIs; similarly, candidates may confuse the roles of fabric edge and border nodes, thinking edges handle external connectivity.

10
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DHCP snooping and dynamic ARP inspection flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

DHCP snooping builds a binding table used by DAI. The switch validates DHCP messages, creates bindings, then intercepts ARP packets and compares them against the binding table to prevent spoofing.

11
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each CAPWAP message type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Manages AP configuration and keepalive

Carries user traffic between AP and controller

AP finds available controllers

AP associates with a controller

Controller pushes settings to AP

Why these pairings

Control messages manage the AP (e.g., configuration, keepalive); Data messages carry user traffic; Discovery messages find controllers; Join messages establish the AP-controller association; Configuration messages push settings to the AP.

12
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring a local SPAN session on a Cisco IOS switch into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order begins with removing any existing SPAN session, then specifying the source interfaces or VLANs to monitor, then defining the destination interface for the analyzer, then optionally enabling encapsulation replication for trunk ports, and finally verifying the session is active.

13
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about IPsec VPNs are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.IPsec transport mode encrypts the entire original IP packet, including the IP header.
B.IKEv2 is more resilient to network changes than IKEv1 because it supports Dead Peer Detection (DPD) as a built-in feature.
C.AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm commonly used in IPsec to provide data confidentiality.
D.IKE uses TCP port 500 for key exchange and negotiation of security associations.
E.ESP in tunnel mode can provide both encryption and authentication for the entire IP packet.
AnswersB, C, E

Correct because IKEv2 includes DPD as a standard mechanism to detect peer liveness, whereas IKEv1 requires separate configuration.

Why this answer

IPsec VPNs can operate in transport mode (protecting payload only) or tunnel mode (protecting entire IP packet). IKEv2 is more robust than IKEv1, supporting EAP authentication and built-in DPD. AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm used for data confidentiality.

SHA is used for integrity, not encryption. IKE uses UDP port 500, not TCP. ESP can provide both encryption and authentication, but authentication is optional in some implementations.

14
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Python data structure on the left to its matching network config use on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Storing key-value pairs for device configuration parameters

Ordered collection of configuration commands or interface names

Immutable sequence for storing device credentials

Unordered collection of unique VLAN IDs

Immutable set of allowed SNMP communities

Why these pairings

dict stores key-value config pairs like interface settings, list stores ordered config lines, tuple stores immutable device credentials, set stores unique VLAN IDs, and frozenset stores immutable sets of allowed protocols.

15
Drag & Drophard

Drag and drop the steps of BGP best path selection process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

BGP best path selection follows a strict order: first, prefer the path with the highest weight (Cisco proprietary). If equal, prefer highest local preference. Next, prefer locally originated routes (network/aggregate).

Then, prefer the shortest AS_PATH. Finally, prefer the lowest MED (if same AS).

16
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Rapid PVST+ topology change notification process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In Rapid PVST+, the correct order of the topology change notification process is: first, the switch sends a proposal message on its designated port (B). The neighbor receives the proposal and synchronizes port roles (C). Then the neighbor sends an agreement message back (D).

After agreement, the port transitions to forwarding (A). Finally, the switch propagates the topology change via the TC-while timer (E). This sequence ensures loop-free convergence.

17
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are benefits of using network virtualization with VXLAN? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enables Layer 2 extension across Layer 3 boundaries.
B.Eliminates the need for STP by using a centralized controller.
C.Uses only multicast for control plane learning.
D.Supports up to 16 million logical networks.
E.Provides native encryption for data in transit.
AnswersA, D

VXLAN tunnels Layer 2 over Layer 3.

Why this answer

VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames in UDP packets over IP, allowing Layer 2 segments to be stretched across Layer 3 networks. This enables virtual machine mobility and multi-tenant environments without being constrained by physical network boundaries.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that VXLAN eliminates STP or provides native encryption, but VXLAN is an overlay technology that still relies on the underlay network's STP and does not include encryption by default.

18
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Rapid PVST+ are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Rapid PVST+ converges faster than classic STP because it uses synchronized handshakes between switches.
B.Rapid PVST+ uses a separate BPDU version for each VLAN to maintain per-VLAN spanning-tree instances.
C.In Rapid PVST+, an alternate port provides a backup path to the root bridge and is in a discarding state when the root port is operational.
D.Rapid PVST+ requires the use of UplinkFast and BackboneFast features to achieve sub-second convergence.
E.Rapid PVST+ supports only one spanning-tree instance per VLAN, but it can load-balance traffic across multiple VLANs.
AnswersA, E

Correct. Rapid PVST+ uses synchronized handshakes to achieve faster convergence.

Why this answer

Rapid PVST+ is the Cisco implementation of RSTP per VLAN. It converges faster than classic STP due to synchronized handshakes (A). It supports one spanning-tree instance per VLAN, allowing load balancing across multiple VLANs by configuring different root bridges for different VLANs (E).

Option C is incorrect because, while alternate ports provide a backup path to the root bridge, the statement about being in a discarding state when the root port is operational is overly simplistic; in RSTP, alternate ports are in discarding state by default, but this is a characteristic of all RSTP port roles, not a unique feature of alternate ports.

19
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are valid methods for automating network device configuration using Cisco IOS XE? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.NETCONF/YANG
B.SNMP Set requests
C.Telnet with Expect scripts
D.CLI via SSH with Python (e.g., Netmiko)
E.RESTCONF
AnswersA, D, E

NETCONF is a standard protocol for configuration.

Why this answer

NETCONF/YANG is a valid method for automating network device configuration on Cisco IOS XE. NETCONF (RFC 6241) uses an XML-based RPC protocol to establish a secure SSH session (port 830) for configuration operations, while YANG (RFC 7950) provides a structured data model to define the configuration and state data. This combination allows for programmatic, transactional, and standardized configuration management, making it a core automation technology supported by Cisco.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between monitoring protocols (SNMP) and configuration automation protocols (NETCONF/RESTCONF), and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly think SNMP Set requests are a valid configuration automation method, overlooking that SNMP is designed for read-heavy monitoring and lacks the transactional, model-driven capabilities of YANG-based protocols.

20
MCQeasy

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R9: R9# show mpls ldp bindings 10.9.9.0 255.255.255.0 lib entry: 10.9.9.0/24, rev 10 local binding: label: 22 remote binding: lsr: 10.9.9.1:0, label: 23 remote binding: lsr: 10.9.9.2:0, label: 24 remote binding: lsr: 10.9.9.3:0, label: 25 Based on this output, how many remote LDP peers have advertised a label for the prefix 10.9.9.0/24?

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
AnswerC

Three remote LSRs are listed: 10.9.9.1:0, 10.9.9.2:0, and 10.9.9.3:0.

Why this answer

The output shows three remote bindings, each from a different LSR (10.9.9.1:0, 10.9.9.2:0, and 10.9.9.3:0), advertising a label for the prefix 10.9.9.0/24. The local binding (label 22) is not a remote peer, so only the three remote entries count. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often mistakenly count the local binding as a remote peer, leading them to select 4 instead of 3, because they overlook the distinction between 'local binding' and 'remote binding' in the command output.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because there are three remote bindings, not one; a single remote binding would show only one 'remote binding' line. Option B is wrong because two remote bindings would appear if only two LSRs were listed, but the output clearly shows three distinct LSRs. Option D is wrong because the local binding is not a remote peer, so counting it as a fourth remote peer is incorrect; only the three remote LSRs are valid.

21
MCQmedium

Given this telemetry configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE device: telemetry ietf subscription 400 encoding encode-kvgpb filter xpath /interfaces/interface/state stream yang-push update-policy periodic 1000 receiver ip address 10.1.1.1 50000 protocol grpc source-interface Loopback0 What is the effect of the source-interface Loopback0 command?

A.It forces the telemetry receiver to listen on Loopback0.
B.It uses the IP address of Loopback0 as the source for telemetry packets to the receiver.
C.It restricts the telemetry data to only Loopback0 interface counters.
D.It changes the update policy to on-change for Loopback0.
AnswerB

This is the standard behavior of source-interface in telemetry configuration.

Why this answer

The source-interface command ensures that all telemetry packets sent to the receiver use the IP address of Loopback0 as the source.

22
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of BGP graceful restart negotiation steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Graceful restart begins with the restarting router sending an OPEN message with the graceful restart capability, followed by the peer acknowledging, then the restarting router marking routes as stale, and finally the peer sending End-of-RIB markers.

23
Multi-Selecthard

Which two statements about DHCP snooping are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.DHCP snooping treats all ports as untrusted by default, except those explicitly configured as trusted.
B.The ip dhcp snooping trust command is applied on ports connected to DHCP clients.
C.DHCP snooping builds a binding database that maps client MAC addresses, IP addresses, VLAN, and port information.
D.DHCP snooping can be configured globally without enabling it on specific VLANs.
E.DHCP snooping drops all DHCP packets that contain option 82 information from untrusted ports.
AnswersA, C

Correct because DHCP snooping defaults all ports to untrusted to prevent rogue DHCP server attacks; only trusted ports (usually uplink to legitimate DHCP server) are configured.

Why this answer

This question tests detailed knowledge of DHCP snooping operation and configuration, including trusted/untrusted ports and option 82.

24
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R7: R7# show ip nat translations verbose Pro Inside global Inside local Outside local Outside global --- 192.0.2.10 10.0.0.10 --- --- create: 03/01/2025 09:00:00, use: 03/01/2025 09:05:00 timeout: never, flags: static --- 192.0.2.11 10.0.0.11 --- --- create: 03/01/2025 09:00:00, use: 03/01/2025 09:06:00 timeout: never, flags: static Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.These translations will expire after a configurable timeout.
B.The translations are dynamic and will be removed after idle timeout.
C.The router is performing PAT for these addresses.
D.The translations are static and will remain until manually removed.
AnswerD

Static NAT entries with timeout 'never' persist indefinitely.

Why this answer

The output shows two NAT entries with the flag 'static' and a timeout of 'never'. Static NAT translations are manually configured and persist indefinitely in the translation table until explicitly removed by an administrator. This is why option D is correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between static and dynamic NAT by hiding the 'flags' field or using the 'timeout' value; candidates may incorrectly assume all NAT entries have a timeout or that the presence of 'use' timestamps implies dynamic behavior.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the timeout is set to 'never', meaning these translations will not expire after any configurable timeout. Option B is wrong because the flags field shows 'static', not 'dynamic', and dynamic translations would have an idle timeout and be removed automatically. Option C is wrong because there is no port information in the output (no 'Pro' protocol column with TCP/UDP and port numbers), which is required for PAT (Port Address Translation); this is a static one-to-one NAT.

25
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each WPA security version on the left to its matching authentication method on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

TKIP with PSK or 802.1X

CCMP (AES) with PSK or 802.1X

GCMP-256 with SAE or 802.1X

PSK

802.1X with GCMP-256

Why these pairings

WPA uses TKIP with PSK or 802.1X; WPA2 uses CCMP (AES) with PSK or 802.1X; WPA3 uses GCMP-256 with SAE or 802.1X; WPA2-Personal uses PSK; WPA3-Enterprise uses 802.1X with GCMP-256.

26
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NAT overload (PAT) packet translation process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

PAT translates private source IPs to a public IP with unique port numbers. The host sends a packet, the router creates a translation entry, replaces the source IP and port, forwards the packet, and reverses the process on the return.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about REST API HTTP methods are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.GET requests are idempotent and safe.
B.POST requests are idempotent and safe.
C.PUT requests are idempotent.
D.DELETE requests are safe.
E.PATCH requests are always idempotent.
AnswersA, C

Correct because GET is designed to retrieve data without modifying state, making it both idempotent and safe.

Why this answer

In REST APIs, the GET method is used to retrieve a representation of a resource without side effects (idempotent and safe). The PUT method is used to update or create a resource at a specific URI and is idempotent, meaning multiple identical requests have the same effect as a single request. POST is not idempotent; it is typically used to create a new resource at a server-defined URI.

DELETE is idempotent but not safe. PATCH is used for partial updates and is not necessarily idempotent.

28
MCQeasy

An engineer is troubleshooting a site-to-site VPN that uses IPsec with IKEv1. The tunnel is established, but traffic is intermittently dropped. The engineer checks the 'show crypto ipsec sa' output and sees that the number of packets that failed anti-replay check is increasing. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The IPsec SA is using a weak encryption algorithm.
B.The IPsec SA is using ESP in tunnel mode with authentication only.
C.The traffic is taking multiple paths, causing packets to arrive out of order.
D.The IPsec SA lifetime is too short, causing frequent rekeying.
AnswerC

Correct. Anti-replay checks rely on sequence numbers. If packets arrive out of order, the receiver may drop them if they fall outside the anti-replay window.

Why this answer

The anti-replay check in IPsec uses sequence numbers to protect against replay attacks. When packets arrive out of order, the anti-replay window (default size 64 or 1024 packets) may reject packets that fall outside the window, causing the counter to increment. This is typical when traffic takes multiple paths, as packets can be reordered before reaching the peer.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the anti-replay mechanism by linking it to packet reordering from asymmetric routing or multi-path forwarding, leading candidates to mistakenly blame rekeying or encryption settings instead of the actual cause of out-of-order delivery.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a weak encryption algorithm does not cause anti-replay failures; it affects confidentiality, not packet ordering. Option B is wrong because ESP in tunnel mode with authentication only (no encryption) still uses sequence numbers for anti-replay; the mode or encryption choice does not cause out-of-order delivery. Option D is wrong because a short IPsec SA lifetime causes frequent rekeying, which may drop traffic during rekey but does not increment the anti-replay failure counter; rekeying creates new SAs with fresh sequence numbers, not out-of-order packets.

29
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each congestion avoidance mechanism on the left to its matching method on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Drops all arriving packets when the queue is full

Drops packets probabilistically based on average queue depth before the queue is full

Drops packets probabilistically with different thresholds per IP precedence or DSCP value

Marks packets instead of dropping them when RED is enabled and endpoints support ECN

Drops packets based on a per-class drop threshold but still drops all when threshold exceeded

Why these pairings

Tail-drop drops all packets when queue is full; RED starts dropping packets probabilistically before queue full; WRED uses IP precedence or DSCP to vary drop probability per class.

30
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IKEv2 fragmentation and DPD keepalive process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

IKEv2 fragmentation occurs when the IKE packet exceeds the MTU. The sender fragments the packet, marks it with a fragment number, and sends all fragments. The receiver reassembles them.

DPD keepalives are sent periodically to verify the peer is still reachable; if no response is received, the peer is declared dead.

31
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Ansible component on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Defines the list of managed hosts and groups

YAML file containing ordered tasks to execute

Structured directory for reusable variables, tasks, and handlers

Executable code that performs a specific configuration or operational task

Special task triggered only when notified by another task

Why these pairings

Each component has a distinct role: Inventory defines managed nodes, Playbook is the execution blueprint, Role organizes content, Module is the execution unit, and Handler reacts to changes.

32
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each DSCP PHB on the left to its matching queue treatment on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Expedited forwarding, strict priority queuing, low delay and jitter

Assured forwarding, four classes with three drop probabilities per class

Class selector, backward compatible with IP precedence, simple priority queuing

Best-effort, default queue, no guarantees

Default forwarding, same as best-effort (DSCP 0)

Why these pairings

EF PHB (DSCP 46) is for low-loss, low-latency traffic; AF PHBs (AF1x-AF4x) provide assured forwarding with four classes and three drop precedences; CS PHBs (CS1-CS7) are backward-compatible with IP precedence; BE (DSCP 0) is best-effort; DF (DSCP 0) is the default PHB.

33
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NUMA-aware VM placement process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

NUMA-aware VM placement begins by inspecting the host's NUMA topology to understand node boundaries and memory topology (A). Next, the VM's vCPU count is compared to the node size to determine if it fits entirely within a single NUMA node (B). If it fits, the VM is assigned to a specific NUMA node (C).

Then, memory is allocated from that assigned NUMA node to ensure locality (D). Finally, the VM is powered on with NUMA pinning to enforce the placement (E). This order ensures resource awareness and proper allocation before pinning.

34
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of PPPoE session establishment into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

PPPoE session establishment begins with the Discovery stage: the client sends a PADI to find a server, the server responds with a PADO, the client selects a server and sends a PADR, the server assigns a session ID via PADS. Finally, the PPP link is negotiated using LCP and authentication.

35
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each HTTP method on the left to its matching REST operation on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Retrieve a resource

Create a new resource

Replace an existing resource entirely

Remove a resource

Apply partial modifications to a resource

Why these pairings

GET retrieves; POST creates; PUT replaces; DELETE removes; PATCH partially updates.

36
MCQeasy

A network engineer is using the Cisco DNA Center REST API to retrieve the health score of a specific device. The API response is as follows: { "response": [ { "deviceId": "1234567890", "hostname": "Core-Switch-1", "score": 8, "overallHealth": "good", "timestamp": 1623456789 } ], "version": "1.0" } The engineer wants to extract the 'overallHealth' value. Which Python code correctly extracts it?

A.health = response['response'][0]['overallHealth']
B.health = response['overallHealth']
C.health = response['response']['overallHealth']
D.health = response[0]['overallHealth']
AnswerA

Correct. This accesses the first element of the list inside 'response' and then retrieves 'overallHealth'.

Why this answer

The response is a dictionary with a key 'response' that contains a list. The list has one dictionary. To access 'overallHealth', you need to index the list and then the key.

37
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Q-in-Q (802.1ad) double-tagging configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Q-in-Q configuration requires first enabling the feature globally, then configuring the trunk port as a dot1q tunnel port, setting the native VLAN, and finally applying the service instance to encapsulate traffic. Verification ensures proper double-tagging.

38
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each trunk encapsulation type on the left to its matching standard or characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Open standard (IEEE); inserts 4-byte tag; supports native VLAN

Cisco proprietary; encapsulates entire frame; no native VLAN concept

VLAN 1 by default; frames sent untagged on trunk

Adds 26-byte header and 4-byte trailer

Contains 12-bit VLAN ID (0–4095)

Why these pairings

802.1Q is an open standard that inserts a 4-byte tag, supports native VLAN, and is the default on modern switches. ISL is Cisco proprietary, encapsulates the entire frame, and does not support native VLAN.

39
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left to its preferred value (highest or lowest) on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Highest

Highest

Lowest

Lowest

Lowest

Why these pairings

Higher WEIGHT and LOCAL_PREF are preferred; lower MED, AS_PATH length, and IGP metric to next-hop are preferred.

40
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of RESTCONF GET with depth and field query parameters into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The process starts with constructing the URI, then appending depth and field parameters, sending the GET request, the server filtering the response, and finally the client parsing the returned data.

41
MCQmedium

Which BGP attribute is used as the first tie-breaker when multiple paths are available and the weight is equal?

A.Local preference
B.AS path length
C.MED
D.Origin code
AnswerA

Correct. After weight, BGP compares local preference (higher is better).

Why this answer

When multiple BGP paths exist for the same prefix and the Weight attribute (Cisco proprietary, local to the router) is equal, the next tie-breaker in the BGP best path selection algorithm is the Local Preference (Local Pref). A higher Local Preference value is preferred, and this attribute is used to influence outbound traffic from an AS. Since the question states weight is equal, Local Preference becomes the first differentiator.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the exact order of BGP path selection attributes, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly think AS path length or MED is the first tie-breaker after weight, when in fact Local Preference is always compared second.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because AS path length is the third tie-breaker in the BGP best path selection process, used only after comparing Weight and Local Preference. Option C is wrong because MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator) is a later tie-breaker (typically fifth) and is used to influence inbound traffic into an AS, not the first comparison after weight. Option D is wrong because Origin code is compared after AS path length and MED in the BGP decision process, making it a much later tie-breaker.

42
MCQeasy

What is the default EIGRP hello interval on a point-to-point serial link?

A.5 seconds
B.10 seconds
C.30 seconds
D.60 seconds
AnswerA

Correct. The default hello interval for point-to-point serial links is 5 seconds.

Why this answer

The default EIGRP hello interval on a point-to-point serial link is 5 seconds. EIGRP uses different hello intervals depending on the media type: for high-speed broadcast links (e.g., Ethernet) and point-to-point links, the default is 5 seconds; for multipoint non-broadcast links (e.g., Frame Relay), the default is 60 seconds.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between EIGRP and OSPF hello intervals, so the trap here is that candidates confuse the 10-second OSPF default with EIGRP's 5-second default on point-to-point links.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (10 seconds) is wrong because 10 seconds is the default hello interval for OSPF on broadcast and point-to-point links, not for EIGRP. Option C (30 seconds) is wrong because 30 seconds is not a standard EIGRP hello interval; it is the default hold time multiplier factor (3x hello) on some links, but not the hello timer itself. Option D (60 seconds) is wrong because 60 seconds is the default EIGRP hello interval only on low-speed multipoint non-broadcast links (e.g., Frame Relay multipoint), not on point-to-point serial links.

43
MCQmedium

An architect is designing an SD-WAN deployment for a multinational enterprise. The design must ensure that control plane traffic remains separate from data plane traffic and that the solution can scale to thousands of sites. Which architectural component is responsible for maintaining the control plane and distributing routing information?

A.vBond orchestrator
B.vManage NMS
C.vSmart controller
D.vEdge router
AnswerC

vSmart is the control plane element that distributes routes and policies.

Why this answer

The vSmart controller is the centralized control plane component in Cisco SD-WAN that distributes routing information (OMP routes) and policies to all vEdge/cEdge routers. It maintains the control plane by separating route advertisement and policy enforcement from the data plane, which is handled by the vEdge routers. This separation allows the solution to scale to thousands of sites because vSmart controllers can be clustered and do not process actual data traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the vBond orchestrator handles control plane functions because of its role in initial authentication and orchestration, but vBond does not distribute routing information—that is exclusively the vSmart controller's role.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the vBond orchestrator is responsible for initial authentication, NAT traversal, and orchestrating connections between vSmart, vManage, and vEdge devices, not for maintaining the control plane or distributing routing information. Option B is wrong because vManage NMS is the network management system that provides centralized configuration, monitoring, and analytics, but it does not participate in the control plane or distribute routing updates. Option D is wrong because the vEdge router is a data plane device that forwards traffic based on routes learned from the vSmart controller; it does not originate or distribute routing information to other sites.

44
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R9: R9# show policy-map interface GigabitEthernet0/0.900 GigabitEthernet0/0.900 Service-policy input: QOS_POLICY_VRF_G Class-map: CLASS_VOICE (match-all) 0 packets, 0 bytes 5 minute offered rate 0 bps, drop rate 0 bps Match: ip dscp ef (46) police: cir 1000000 bps, bc 31250 bytes, be 31250 bytes conformed 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: transmit exceeded 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop violated 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop Class-map: CLASS_DATA (match-all) 0 packets, 0 bytes 5 minute offered rate 0 bps, drop rate 0 bps Match: ip dscp af31 (26) police: cir 2000000 bps, bc 62500 bytes, be 62500 bytes conformed 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: transmit exceeded 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop violated 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop Class-map: class-default (match-any) 0 packets, 0 bytes 5 minute offered rate 0 bps, drop rate 0 bps Match: any Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.No QoS policy is applied to this interface
B.The policy only polices voice traffic
C.A QoS policy is applied inbound on GigabitEthernet0/0.900, policing voice and data traffic
D.The policy is applied outbound
AnswerC

The policy is applied input, with classes for voice (DSCP EF) and data (DSCP AF31), each with police actions.

Why this answer

The output shows the 'Service-policy input: QOS_POLICY_VRF_G' line, confirming that a QoS policy is applied inbound on GigabitEthernet0/0.900. The policy contains two user-defined class maps: CLASS_VOICE (matching DSCP EF) with a police rate of 1 Mbps and CLASS_DATA (matching DSCP AF31) with a police rate of 2 Mbps, both with conform/transmit and exceed/violate drop actions. This demonstrates that both voice and data traffic are being policed, making option C correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the ability to read the 'Service-policy input' or 'output' direction in the command output, as candidates may overlook the direction keyword and incorrectly assume the policy is applied outbound or not applied at all.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the 'Service-policy input: QOS_POLICY_VRF_G' line explicitly shows a QoS policy is applied inbound on the subinterface. Option B is wrong because the policy includes both CLASS_VOICE and CLASS_DATA class maps, each with policing actions, so it polices both voice and data traffic, not just voice. Option D is wrong because the command output specifies 'Service-policy input', indicating the policy is applied inbound, not outbound.

45
MCQmedium

An engineer is configuring a FlexVPN hub-and-spoke network. The hub router has a loopback0 with IP 10.0.0.1/32. The spokes are configured to use IKEv2 with certificates. The engineer notices that the spokes can establish the IKEv2 tunnel and can ping the hub's tunnel IP, but cannot reach the loopback0 address. The hub has a static route for the spoke subnets. What is the most likely issue?

A.The IKEv2 proposal does not match between hub and spoke.
B.The certificate authority is not trusted by the hub.
C.The tunnel interface is not in an up/up state.
D.The loopback0 is not advertised in the routing protocol.
AnswerD

Correct because without a route, the spokes cannot reach the loopback.

Why this answer

The spokes can establish the IKEv2 tunnel and ping the hub's tunnel IP, confirming that the tunnel interface is up and the IKEv2 session is functional. However, the loopback0 address (10.0.0.1/32) is not reachable from the spokes because it is not advertised into the routing protocol (e.g., OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP) used over the FlexVPN tunnel. Without a route to the loopback0 prefix, the spokes' traffic to 10.0.0.1 is dropped by the hub's routing table, even though the tunnel is operational.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between tunnel reachability (IKEv2 and tunnel interface up) and routing reachability (prefixes advertised over the tunnel), leading candidates to incorrectly focus on IKEv2 or certificate issues when the tunnel is already established.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the IKEv2 proposal mismatch would prevent the IKEv2 tunnel from establishing at all, yet the spokes can establish the tunnel and ping the hub's tunnel IP. Option B is wrong because if the certificate authority were not trusted by the hub, the IKEv2 authentication would fail during the certificate exchange, preventing tunnel establishment. Option C is wrong because the tunnel interface must be in an up/up state for the spokes to successfully ping the hub's tunnel IP, which is confirmed in the scenario.

46
MCQmedium

Given the following SPAN configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE switch: monitor session 4 source interface GigabitEthernet1/0/6 tx monitor session 4 destination interface GigabitEthernet1/0/7 What does this configuration do?

A.Only traffic transmitted from GigabitEthernet1/0/6 is copied to GigabitEthernet1/0/7.
B.Both ingress and egress traffic on GigabitEthernet1/0/6 is copied to GigabitEthernet1/0/7.
C.Traffic on GigabitEthernet1/0/7 is mirrored to GigabitEthernet1/0/6.
D.The configuration is invalid because the destination interface must be in the same VLAN as the source.
AnswerA

The 'tx' keyword specifies egress traffic only.

Why this answer

The configuration uses the 'tx' keyword to specify that only traffic transmitted (egress) from GigabitEthernet1/0/6 should be copied to the destination interface GigabitEthernet1/0/7. Without the 'tx' keyword, the default behavior would be to monitor both ingress and egress traffic, but the explicit 'tx' limits the SPAN session to egress traffic only.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the subtle difference between the default SPAN behavior (both ingress and egress) and the explicit 'tx' or 'rx' keywords, leading candidates to assume both directions are always monitored.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because it assumes both ingress and egress traffic are copied, but the 'tx' keyword explicitly restricts monitoring to transmitted traffic only. Option C is wrong because it reverses the source and destination roles; the configuration copies traffic from GigabitEthernet1/0/6 to GigabitEthernet1/0/7, not the other way around. Option D is wrong because there is no requirement for the source and destination interfaces to be in the same VLAN; SPAN can copy traffic across VLANs, and the destination interface is typically placed in a separate monitoring VLAN or left in its default VLAN.

47
MCQmedium

Consider the following configuration snippet: ``` interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 ip address 203.0.113.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside ! ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/2 overload access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 ``` What is the effect of this configuration?

A.It translates all traffic from 192.168.1.0/24 to the IP address 203.0.113.1, using port address translation.
B.It performs static NAT for each host in 192.168.1.0/24 to a unique IP in the 203.0.113.0/24 network.
C.It translates only traffic from 192.168.1.1 to the outside interface IP.
D.The configuration is invalid because 'ip nat inside' and 'ip nat outside' are on the wrong interfaces.
AnswerA

Correct. The 'overload' keyword enables PAT, and the interface IP is used as the translated address.

Why this answer

This configuration implements dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation (PAT), also known as NAT overload. The access list matches the 192.168.1.0/24 source network, and the 'ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/2 overload' command translates all matching inside local addresses to the single outside interface IP (203.0.113.1) using unique port numbers to differentiate sessions. This allows multiple internal hosts to share the public IP simultaneously.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between dynamic NAT (with or without overload) and static NAT, and the trap here is that candidates may think 'overload' implies static mapping or that the access list only applies to the first host, when in fact it applies to the entire subnet and enables PAT.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because static NAT would require individual 'ip nat inside source static' commands for each host, and the configuration uses a dynamic access list with overload, not a one-to-one mapping to unique IPs. Option C is wrong because the access list permits the entire 192.168.1.0/24 subnet, not just host 192.168.1.1, so all hosts in that subnet are translated. Option D is wrong because the interfaces are correctly configured: GigabitEthernet0/1 is the inside network (private) and GigabitEthernet0/2 is the outside network (public), which is the standard placement for NAT.

48
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about the benefits and challenges of NFV are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.NFV reduces capital expenditure by allowing network functions to run on standard, off-the-shelf hardware.
B.NFV enables faster time-to-market for new services by decoupling software from hardware.
C.One challenge of NFV is the potential performance overhead introduced by the virtualization layer.
D.NFV reduces the overall security attack surface by consolidating multiple functions into a single physical device.
E.NFV eliminates the need for physical cabling in the data center.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because NFV replaces proprietary appliances with software on commodity servers, lowering hardware costs.

Why this answer

NFV offers reduced hardware costs, faster service deployment, and operational agility. However, it introduces challenges such as performance overhead from virtualization and increased complexity in management. Option A is correct because NFV reduces CAPEX by using commodity hardware.

Option B is correct because NFV enables rapid deployment of new services. Option C is correct because virtualization can introduce latency and throughput overhead. Option D is incorrect because NFV typically increases, not decreases, the attack surface.

Option E is incorrect because NFV does not eliminate the need for physical cabling; it only virtualizes network functions.

49
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each OSPF packet type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Discovers neighbors and maintains adjacency state

Contains a list of LSA headers for database synchronization

Requests specific LSAs from a neighbor

Sends one or more complete LSAs to a neighbor

Confirms receipt of LSU packets

Why these pairings

Hello packets discover and maintain neighbor relationships; DBD packets contain a summary of the LSDB; LSR packets request specific LSAs; LSU packets send full LSAs in response to LSRs; LSAck packets acknowledge receipt of LSUs.

50
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of stateless DHCPv6 address assignment steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Stateless DHCPv6 uses SLAAC for the address and DHCPv6 for additional parameters. The host first sends an RS to discover routers. The router replies with an RA containing the prefix and flags indicating stateless DHCPv6.

The host generates its own IPv6 address using SLAAC. It then sends an Information-Request to the DHCPv6 server. The server replies with options like DNS and domain name.

51
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of BGP route aggregation and suppress-map process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, you define the prefix-list to match specific routes. Then you create the route-map with the suppress clause. Next, you configure the aggregate-address command referencing the route-map.

After that, you verify the aggregated route in the BGP table. Finally, you check that more specific routes are suppressed.

52
MCQhard

An engineer is writing a Python script to use the Cisco DNA Center API to assign a device to a site. The code snippet is: import requests url = "https://dna-center.local/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device/assign" headers = { "X-Auth-Token": "token", "Content-Type": "application/json" } payload = { "deviceId": "device-uuid", "siteId": "site-uuid" } response = requests.post(url, headers=headers, json=payload, verify=False) print(response.status_code) What is a potential issue with this code?

A.The HTTP method should be PUT instead of POST for assigning a device to a site.
B.The payload should include 'deviceId' and 'siteId' as a list.
C.The URL is missing the version number.
D.The code should use requests.put instead of requests.post.
AnswerD

Correct. The code uses requests.post, but the API requires PUT, so the code should use requests.put instead.

Why this answer

The Cisco DNA Center API endpoint for assigning a device to a site requires the PUT HTTP method. In the code, the requests.post method is used incorrectly; the correct method is requests.put. Option D directly identifies this code-level fix, while option A is also conceptually correct but less specific to the code.

Since this is a single-answer question, D is the best choice as it directly addresses the code snippet.

53
MCQeasy

An engineer is using the Cisco DNA Center GUI to create a new site hierarchy. They add a building under an existing area. After saving, they run a Python script to verify the site via API: import requests url = "https://dna-center.local/dna/intent/api/v1/site" headers = {"X-Auth-Token": "token"} response = requests.get(url, headers=headers, verify=False) sites = response.json()['response'] for site in sites: if site['name'] == 'Building-A': print(site['id']) What is the output if the building was created successfully?

A.A UUID string such as '123e4567-e89b-12d3-a456-426614174000'
B.The script will print 'Building-A'
C.The script will print the entire site dictionary
D.The script will raise an error because the API returns paginated results
AnswerA

Correct. The API returns a UUID for each site, and the script prints it.

Why this answer

The script prints the site ID of the building if it exists. The output will be a string representing the UUID of the building.

54
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IP SLA scheduling with frequency and lifetime into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, create the IP SLA operation. Then configure the frequency (how often probes are sent). Next, set the lifetime (how long the operation runs).

After that, schedule the operation with a start time. Finally, verify the scheduling parameters are active.

55
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of troubleshooting NetFlow export issues into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Start by verifying NetFlow is enabled on the interface. Then check the exporter configuration and collector reachability. Next, inspect the flow cache for active records.

Finally, review export statistics for errors.

56
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each IP SLA schedule parameter on the left to its function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Defines when the operation begins

Sets the interval between probes

Sets the total duration of the operation

Removes the operation after inactivity

Sets the value that triggers a reaction

Why these pairings

Start-time defines when the operation begins; frequency sets the interval between probes; life sets the total duration of the operation.

57
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of the 802.1X/EAP authentication process for a wireless client into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order is: 1. Client sends EAPoL-Start to the AP (A). 2. AP sends EAP-Request Identity (B). 3.

Client sends EAP-Response Identity (C). 4. RADIUS sends EAP-Request credentials (D). 5. Client sends EAP-Response credentials (E).

This sequence is standard for 802.1X/EAP wireless authentication.

58
MCQmedium

A network engineer configures VRF-lite on a router with the following snippet: vrf definition GREEN rd 200:1 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/3 vrf forwarding GREEN ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 10 vrf GREEN network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 What is missing from this configuration to enable proper OSPF routing within VRF GREEN?

A.The configuration is complete and OSPF will operate correctly within VRF GREEN.
B.The 'network' command should specify the interface instead of the subnet.
C.The 'vrf definition GREEN' must include a 'route-target' command.
D.The OSPF process must be configured under the global VRF context, not using 'vrf GREEN'.
AnswerA

Correct. OSPF will run in VRF GREEN with the given commands; router-id can be auto-selected.

Why this answer

The configuration is complete for VRF-lite OSPF routing. In VRF-lite, the 'vrf definition GREEN' with an RD, the interface assignment via 'vrf forwarding GREEN', and the OSPF process with 'vrf GREEN' and the network statement are all that is required. OSPF will operate correctly within VRF GREEN using the specified network in area 0.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that VRF-lite requires 'route-target' commands, which are actually only necessary for MPLS VPNs, not for simple VRF-lite configurations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the 'network' command in OSPF can specify a subnet with a wildcard mask, which is the standard method; it does not need to specify the interface directly. Option C is wrong because 'route-target' commands are required for MPLS VPN (VRF-lite does not use MPLS), not for VRF-lite where only the RD is needed for route distinguishment. Option D is wrong because the OSPF process can be configured under the global VRF context using the 'vrf GREEN' keyword after the process ID, which is the correct syntax for associating an OSPF process with a VRF.

59
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MQC command on the left to its matching configuration level on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Defines a traffic class using match criteria

Associates a traffic class with QoS actions (e.g., bandwidth, priority, police)

Applies a policy-map to an interface (input or output) or globally

Used inside a class-map to specify classification criteria

Used inside a policy-map class to allocate minimum bandwidth

Why these pairings

class-map defines traffic classes; policy-map associates actions with classes; service-policy applies the policy to an interface or globally.

60
MCQmedium

A network engineer configures IP SLA 1 to monitor HTTP server availability at 10.1.1.1 using HTTP GET. The operation is used as a track object for a backup static route. The engineer notices that the IP SLA operation shows 'State: Active' and 'Latest RTT: 200 ms', but the track object shows 'Track 1: up' even though the HTTP server returns a 404 error. What is the cause?

A.The IP SLA HTTP operation must be configured with a 'url' that includes the full path, otherwise it defaults to the root and returns 404.
B.The IP SLA HTTP operation does not interpret HTTP status codes by default; it only checks if a TCP connection is established.
C.The track object must be configured with a 'down' threshold to trigger when the HTTP response time exceeds a value.
D.The HTTP server is responding, so the IP SLA operation correctly shows success; the engineer must use a different type of probe, like TCP connect, to detect the 404.
AnswerB

Correct. IP SLA HTTP probe by default only verifies that the TCP handshake succeeds and a response is received. It does not parse the HTTP status code unless a 'status-code' match is configured.

Why this answer

The IP SLA HTTP operation, by default, only verifies that a TCP three-way handshake completes with the destination host on port 80 (or the configured port). It does not parse or evaluate the HTTP response status code (e.g., 404). Therefore, even though the server returns a 404 error, the TCP connection succeeds, the operation shows 'Active', and the track object remains 'up'.

To detect a 404, you must use the 'http-get' operation with a specific URL and enable status code checking via the 'expect' option.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that IP SLA HTTP operations automatically validate HTTP response codes, when in fact they only verify TCP connectivity unless explicitly configured with 'expect' statements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the IP SLA HTTP operation does not require a full URL path to function; it defaults to '/' and the 404 response is irrelevant since the operation only checks TCP connectivity, not the HTTP response content. Option C is wrong because the track object's threshold parameters (e.g., 'down' threshold) affect state transitions based on RTT or other metrics, but they do not cause the track to go down when a 404 is returned; the operation itself never interprets the HTTP status code. Option D is wrong because the HTTP server is indeed responding, but the engineer's goal is to detect a 404 error; using a TCP connect probe would also only check TCP connectivity, not the HTTP status code, so it would not solve the problem.

61
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about Control Plane Policing (CoPP) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.CoPP applies QoS policy-map logic to traffic that is destined to the control plane of the router.
B.CoPP is configured under the 'control-plane' global configuration mode.
C.CoPP can be applied to both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic in a single policy-map.
D.CoPP is applied to traffic transiting the router, not to traffic originated by the router.
E.The default action for CoPP is to permit all control-plane traffic.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because CoPP uses QoS policy-maps to police traffic destined to the control plane.

Why this answer

Control Plane Policing (CoPP) protects the router's control plane by applying QoS policies to traffic destined to the router itself. It is configured under the 'control-plane' global configuration mode using class-maps and policy-maps. Option C is correct: CoPP can apply to both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic in a single policy-map by using multiple class-maps (one for each protocol).

Option D describes data-plane ACLs, not CoPP. Option E is wrong because the default action of CoPP is to drop unmatched traffic, not permit.

Exam trap

CoPP is applied to traffic destined to the control plane, not to transit traffic. The configuration is under the 'control-plane' configuration mode.

62
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about using Python for interacting with Cisco IOS-XE devices via NETCONF and RESTCONF are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The ncclient Python library can be used to establish a NETCONF session with a Cisco IOS-XE device and retrieve YANG-modeled data.
B.RESTCONF uses HTTP methods such as GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE to access YANG-defined data on a network device.
C.YANG models define the structure and constraints of data that can be accessed via NETCONF or RESTCONF.
D.RESTCONF only supports data encoding in YAML format.
E.NETCONF is always faster than RESTCONF for retrieving large amounts of data because it uses a binary encoding.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because ncclient is a widely used Python library that implements NETCONF client functionality, allowing retrieval and manipulation of YANG-defined data on devices that support NETCONF.

Why this answer

The correct answers are A, B, and C. Option A is true because the ncclient library is specifically designed for NETCONF sessions and can retrieve YANG-modeled data from Cisco IOS-XE devices. Option B is true: RESTCONF uses standard HTTP methods (GET, POST, PUT, DELETE) to access YANG-defined data.

Option C is true: YANG models define the structure, constraints, and semantics of data accessible via NETCONF or RESTCONF. Option D is false because RESTCONF supports JSON and XML encoding, not YAML. Option E is false: NETCONF uses XML encoding (not binary) and is not always faster than RESTCONF; performance depends on network conditions, payload size, and device implementation.

63
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of OSPF virtual link configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

A virtual link connects a non-backbone area to Area 0 through a transit area. First, identify the ABR with the transit area, then configure the virtual link on both ABRs using the router ID of the neighbor, ensure the transit area has full OSPF adjacency, and finally verify the virtual link is operational.

64
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DMVPN Phase 3 spoke-to-spoke shortcut creation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In DMVPN Phase 3, when a spoke needs to send traffic to another spoke, it first sends data through the hub, the hub forwards the packet with a redirect, the spoke then sends an NHRP resolution request to the hub, the hub replies with the destination spoke's NBMA address, and finally the source spoke builds a direct mGRE tunnel to the destination spoke. The correct order is: spoke sends data through hub, hub sends redirect with NHRP trigger, spoke sends NHRP resolution request to hub, hub replies with destination spoke NBMA address, source spoke builds direct mGRE tunnel to destination spoke.

65
MCQmedium

Examine the following configuration on a Cisco 9800 WLC: ap profile default-ap-profile description "Default AP Profile" country US management-user admin Which statement is true about this configuration?

A.This profile configures the SSID for the AP.
B.The country code is set to the United States, affecting allowed channels and transmit power.
C.This profile enables 802.11r fast roaming.
D.The management user 'admin' is used for client authentication.
AnswerB

The country code determines regulatory compliance for radio operation.

Why this answer

The 'country US' command in the AP profile sets the regulatory domain to the United States, which determines the allowed channels, maximum transmit power levels, and DFS requirements for the AP. This is a fundamental wireless configuration that ensures compliance with local regulations.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between AP profiles (which handle hardware and regulatory settings) and WLAN profiles (which handle SSID and security parameters), leading candidates to mistakenly associate SSID or roaming configuration with the AP profile.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an AP profile does not configure SSIDs; SSIDs are configured in WLAN profiles and mapped to APs via policy tags or AP join profiles. Option C is wrong because 802.11r fast roaming is enabled on the WLAN (SSID) level under the 'security ft' or 'fast-roaming' settings, not in the AP profile. Option D is wrong because the 'management-user admin' command defines the username for AP management access (e.g., SSH or console), not for client authentication, which is handled by 802.1X, PSK, or other methods on the WLAN.

66
MCQeasy

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R4: R4# show ip sla monitor statistics 3 Round Trip Time (RTT) for Index 3 Latest RTT: 25 ms Latest Operation Start Time: 14:30:00.000 UTC Mon Mar 1 2021 Latest Operation Return Code: OK Number of successes: 100 Number of failures: 0 Over thresholds: 0 Based on this output, what can be concluded about the IP SLA operation?

A.The operation has experienced failures.
B.The operation is currently failing.
C.The operation is working correctly with no failures.
D.The round-trip time exceeds the threshold.
AnswerC

100 successes and 0 failures confirm proper operation.

Why this answer

The output shows 'Number of successes: 100' and 'Number of failures: 0', with a 'Latest Operation Return Code: OK', indicating that the IP SLA operation has been consistently successful without any failures. The latest RTT of 25 ms and the absence of threshold violations confirm the operation is working correctly.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Number of failures' (historical count) and 'Latest Operation Return Code' (current status), leading candidates to misinterpret a zero failure count as meaning the operation is currently failing when it is actually succeeding.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the output explicitly shows 'Number of failures: 0', meaning no failures have occurred, not that the operation has experienced failures. Option B is wrong because the 'Latest Operation Return Code: OK' indicates the operation is currently succeeding, not failing. Option D is wrong because the output shows 'Over thresholds: 0', meaning the round-trip time has never exceeded the configured threshold, contradicting the claim that it exceeds the threshold.

67
MCQeasy

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW5: SW5# show spanning-tree vlan 50 VLAN0050 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 24626 Address aabb.cc00.0800 Cost 4 Port 1 (GigabitEthernet0/1) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32768 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 50) Address aabb.cc00.0900 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- ------------------------------ Gi0/1 Root FWD 4 128.1 P2p Gi0/2 Desg FWD 4 128.2 P2p Gi0/3 Desg FWD 4 128.3 P2p Gi0/4 Altn BLK 4 128.4 P2p Based on this output, how many ports are in the Forwarding state?

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
AnswerC

Correct. Gi0/1, Gi0/2, and Gi0/3 are all in FWD state.

Why this answer

The output shows four interfaces: Gi0/1 (Root FWD), Gi0/2 (Desg FWD), Gi0/3 (Desg FWD), and Gi0/4 (Altn BLK). Three ports (Gi0/1, Gi0/2, Gi0/3) are in the Forwarding state, while Gi0/4 is in the Blocking state. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the ability to distinguish between port roles and port states; candidates may confuse the number of ports in a role (e.g., Root, Designated) with the number in the Forwarding state, or mistakenly count the Alternate port as forwarding because it has a role, ignoring its BLK state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because only 1 port in Forwarding would ignore the two Designated ports (Gi0/2 and Gi0/3) that are clearly marked FWD. Option B is wrong because 2 ports in Forwarding would miss either the Root port or one of the Designated ports, but all three are actively forwarding. Option D is wrong because 4 ports in Forwarding would include the Alternate port Gi0/4, which is in the Blocking (BLK) state, not Forwarding.

68
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of VRF-aware NAT configuration steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order first defines the VRF, then configures the NAT inside and outside interfaces under the VRF, defines the NAT pool or ACL for translation, applies the NAT rule referencing the VRF, and finally verifies the translation with show ip nat translations vrf.

69
MCQmedium

Examine the following configuration snippet on a Cisco IOS switch: interface GigabitEthernet0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 50 spanning-tree portfast Which statement is true about this interface?

A.The interface will immediately forward traffic without any spanning-tree delay.
B.The interface will participate in trunking and forward multiple VLANs.
C.The interface will still go through listening and learning states before forwarding.
D.The interface will only forward traffic for VLAN 1.
AnswerA

Correct. PortFast enables immediate forwarding, reducing the initial delay.

Why this answer

The `spanning-tree portfast` command on an access port configured with `switchport mode access` and `switchport access vlan 50` causes the interface to bypass the normal spanning-tree listening and learning states. This allows the port to transition directly to the forwarding state, enabling immediate traffic forwarding without the usual 30-second delay (15 seconds for listening, 15 seconds for learning) associated with Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or the 50-second delay with classic STP (802.1D).

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that `spanning-tree portfast` only applies to trunk ports or that it still requires the listening/learning states, when in fact it is designed specifically to bypass those states on access ports (or trunk ports with the `spanning-tree portfast trunk` variant).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the interface is configured as an access port (`switchport mode access`), which does not participate in trunking and only forwards traffic for a single VLAN (VLAN 50), not multiple VLANs. Option C is wrong because `spanning-tree portfast` specifically causes the interface to skip the listening and learning states and immediately enter the forwarding state, contradicting the claim that it will still go through those states. Option D is wrong because the `switchport access vlan 50` command assigns the interface to VLAN 50, not VLAN 1; the default VLAN for access ports is VLAN 1 only if no explicit access VLAN is configured.

70
MCQeasy

Which SNMP version introduced the use of a username and authentication/password framework, without encryption?

A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv2u
AnswerC

SNMPv3 introduced usernames and authentication, with options for noAuthNoPriv, authNoPriv, and authPriv.

Why this answer

SNMPv3 introduced a security model that provides both authentication and privacy (encryption), but the question specifically asks for the version that introduced a username and authentication/password framework without encryption. SNMPv3's User-based Security Model (USM) allows for authentication-only mode (authNoPriv), which uses a username and password (or key) for authentication but does not encrypt the payload. This distinguishes it from earlier versions that relied on community strings (SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c) or offered no standardized security framework.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that SNMPv3 always requires encryption, when in fact it supports an authentication-only mode (authNoPriv) that matches the question's description exactly, causing candidates to overlook SNMPv3 if they think encryption is mandatory.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SNMPv1 uses only plaintext community strings for access control, with no username or authentication framework. Option B is wrong because SNMPv2c also uses community strings and adds no security enhancements over SNMPv1; it focuses on improved protocol operations (e.g., GetBulk) but lacks any authentication or encryption. Option D is wrong because SNMPv2u was an experimental party-based security model that introduced usernames and authentication, but it was never standardized as a full RFC and did not achieve widespread adoption; SNMPv3 is the definitive standard that introduced the username/password framework with optional encryption.

71
MCQmedium

Given the following Ansible playbook snippet: --- - name: Backup running config hosts: routers gather_facts: no tasks: - name: Save config ios_config: backup: yes backup_options: dir_path: /backup/ What is the purpose of the 'backup_options' parameter?

A.It specifies the directory where the backup file will be saved.
B.It specifies the filename for the backup.
C.It enables compression of the backup file.
D.It is ignored because backup: yes is already set.
AnswerA

Correct. 'dir_path' sets the directory for the backup file.

Why this answer

The 'backup_options' parameter in the ios_config module allows you to customize the backup behavior. Specifically, the 'dir_path' sub-option defines the directory path where the backup file will be saved. Without this parameter, the backup file is saved in the default location (the 'backup' subdirectory of the playbook's root directory).

Option A correctly identifies this purpose.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the 'backup' and 'backup_options' parameters, trapping candidates who think 'backup_options' is optional or ignored when 'backup: yes' is set, or who assume it controls the filename directly rather than the directory path.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the 'backup_options' parameter does not directly specify the filename; the filename is automatically generated by Ansible based on the hostname and timestamp. Option C is wrong because the ios_config module does not support compression of backup files; there is no 'compress' or similar sub-option in 'backup_options'. Option D is wrong because 'backup_options' is not ignored when 'backup: yes' is set; it provides additional configuration for the backup location and is fully functional.

72
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each VRF-Lite or MPLS VPN characteristic on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses trunk ports and subinterfaces to separate traffic without MPLS; Typically limited to a single device or directly connected switches; Does not require an IGP or LDP in the core

Employs MPLS labels and MP-BGP to isolate paths across multiple routers; Allows overlapping customer IP addresses across different sites

Why these pairings

VRF-Lite uses only local VRFs without MPLS or MP-BGP, requiring trunk links; MPLS VPN uses MPLS labels and MP-BGP for scalable path isolation; VRF-Lite is simpler but limited to a single router or switch; MPLS VPN scales across an entire provider network; VRF-Lite does not support overlapping address spaces between sites without NAT.

73
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show ip interface GigabitEthernet0/0 | include access list Inbound access list is 101 Outbound access list is not set R1# show access-lists 101 Extended IP access list 101 10 permit tcp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 80 (100 matches) 20 deny tcp any any eq 80 (50 matches) 30 permit ip any any (200 matches) Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.HTTP traffic from sources outside 192.168.1.0/24 is denied.
B.All HTTP traffic is permitted.
C.The ACL is applied outbound on the interface.
D.The ACL permits all traffic from 192.168.1.0/24.
AnswerA

Entry 20 denies all HTTP traffic not matching entry 10, so any HTTP from other subnets is denied.

Why this answer

The ACL 101 is applied inbound on GigabitEthernet0/0. The first line permits TCP traffic from source 192.168.1.0/24 to any destination on port 80 (HTTP). The second line denies TCP traffic from any source to any destination on port 80, which catches HTTP traffic from sources outside 192.168.1.0/24.

Since ACLs process in order, traffic from outside the permitted subnet is denied, making option A correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the order of ACL entries and the fact that an ACL applied inbound filters traffic before it enters the router, so candidates may mistakenly think the ACL is applied outbound or that the permit ip any any at the end permits all HTTP traffic, ignoring the earlier deny statement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the ACL explicitly denies HTTP traffic from sources outside 192.168.1.0/24 (line 20), so not all HTTP traffic is permitted. Option C is wrong because the 'show ip interface' output shows 'Inbound access list is 101' and 'Outbound access list is not set', meaning the ACL is applied inbound, not outbound. Option D is wrong because the ACL does not permit all traffic from 192.168.1.0/24; it only permits TCP traffic to port 80 from that subnet, and other traffic from that subnet would be subject to the final permit ip any any line, but the statement is too broad and ignores the specific port restriction.

74
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of WRED configuration for TCP congestion avoidance into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for WRED configuration is: first define a class map matching TCP traffic (B), then create a policy map with the random-detect command (C), apply the service policy to an interface (D), and verify with show policy-map interface (E). Option A is a distractor; WRED is not enabled globally but per class under a policy map using the 'random-detect' command.

75
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of AAA method list fallback from RADIUS to local into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

When a method list specifies RADIUS then local, the device first attempts RADIUS authentication. If the RADIUS server is unreachable (timeout), the device falls back to the next method in the list, which is local authentication using the local user database.

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