Courseiva

ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 451525

1175 questions total · 16pages · All types, answers revealed

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451
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco IOS-XE mdt subscription via CLI configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The CLI configuration order follows Cisco IOS-XE syntax: enter telemetry mode, define subscription, set receiver, specify stream, and apply sensor path.

452
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about RADIUS and TACACS+ are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.RADIUS combines authentication and authorization in a single packet.
B.TACACS+ uses TCP port 49 by default.
C.RADIUS encrypts the entire packet payload for all attributes.
D.TACACS+ provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting processes.
E.RADIUS supports per-command authorization for shell sessions.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because RADIUS merges authentication and authorization in the Access-Accept packet.

Why this answer

RADIUS and TACACS+ are both AAA protocols but differ in transport, encryption, and authorization granularity. RADIUS uses UDP and encrypts only the password; TACACS+ uses TCP and encrypts the entire packet. TACACS+ supports per-command authorization, while RADIUS does not.

Both can be used for device administration, but RADIUS is more common for network access.

453
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of JSON vs XML encoding selection for RESTCONF into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The selection process starts with the client choosing an encoding, setting the Accept header, the server reading it, encoding the response accordingly, and the client parsing the response.

454
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DHCP snooping operation on a Cisco switch into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

DHCP snooping begins by enabling the feature globally with 'ip dhcp snooping'. Then, the feature is enabled on specific VLANs. Trusted interfaces (typically uplinks to DHCP servers) are configured with 'ip dhcp snooping trust'.

The switch then intercepts DHCP messages, building the DHCP snooping binding database from valid server responses. Finally, any DHCP server messages received on untrusted interfaces are dropped to prevent rogue server attacks.

455
MCQhard

A network engineer is troubleshooting performance issues on a VMware ESXi host running multiple VMs. The host has two physical CPUs, each with 8 cores (16 logical processors with Hyper-Threading enabled). One VM, configured with 8 vCPUs, experiences high CPU ready time. Other VMs on the host are idle. What is the most likely cause of the high CPU ready time?

A.The VM's vCPUs span multiple NUMA nodes, causing memory access delays.
B.Hyper-Threading is disabled on the ESXi host.
C.The host is overcommitted with too many vCPUs.
D.The VM has more vCPUs than physical cores on a single socket.
AnswerA

Correct because when vCPUs are spread across NUMA nodes, memory access becomes non-local, increasing ready time.

Why this answer

The VM has 8 vCPUs, and each physical CPU socket has 8 cores (16 logical processors with Hyper-Threading). While the VM could theoretically be scheduled entirely within one NUMA node (one socket), hypervisors often distribute vCPUs across sockets for load balancing or to avoid resource contention, especially when the VM's vCPU count equals the number of cores per socket. This causes NUMA spanning, leading to remote memory access and higher CPU ready time due to NUMA latency.

Hyper-Threading can worsen the issue as vCPUs may be placed on logical processors from different sockets.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that CPU ready time is always due to overcommitment. However, the trap here is that a VM with vCPUs equal to the number of physical cores per socket can still experience NUMA spanning because the hypervisor may schedule vCPUs across sockets, especially when Hyper-Threading is enabled, causing remote memory access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Hyper-Threading is enabled on the host (16 logical processors per socket), and disabling it would reduce logical CPUs, not cause high ready time for an 8-vCPU VM on an otherwise idle host. Option C is wrong because the host is not overcommitted; other VMs are idle, and the total vCPUs (only 8 from this VM) are far below the 32 logical processors available. Option D is wrong because the VM has 8 vCPUs, which equals the number of physical cores on a single socket (8 cores), not more; the issue is that vCPUs are scheduled across sockets, not that they exceed core count.

456
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SD-WAN traffic engineering app-aware routing steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

App-aware routing begins with classifying traffic by application, then measuring path performance (loss, latency, jitter), comparing against SLA requirements, selecting the best path, and finally steering traffic over that path.

457
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show policy-map control-plane Control Plane Service-policy input: CoPP-POLICY Class-map: BGP-CLASS (match-all) 50 packets, 2500 bytes 5 minute offered rate 500 bps Match: access-group name BGP-ACL police: cir 64000 bps, bc 8000 bytes, be 8000 bytes conformed 50 packets, 2500 bytes; actions: transmit exceeded 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop violated 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop Class-map: SNMP-CLASS (match-all) 200 packets, 10000 bytes 5 minute offered rate 2000 bps Match: access-group name SNMP-ACL police: cir 16000 bps, bc 2000 bytes, be 2000 bytes conformed 150 packets, 7500 bytes; actions: transmit exceeded 40 packets, 2000 bytes; actions: drop violated 10 packets, 500 bytes; actions: drop Class-map: class-default (match-any) 100 packets, 5000 bytes 5 minute offered rate 1000 bps Match: any police: cir 32000 bps, bc 4000 bytes, be 4000 bytes conformed 100 packets, 5000 bytes; actions: transmit exceeded 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop violated 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.SNMP traffic to the control plane is experiencing drops due to exceeding its policer rate, while BGP traffic is within its rate.
B.BGP traffic is being dropped because it exceeds the CIR.
C.All traffic to the control plane is being dropped.
D.The control-plane policy is applied in the output direction.
AnswerA

The SNMP class shows 150 conformed and 50 dropped (exceeded+violated), while BGP shows all 50 conformed.

Why this answer

The output shows that for the SNMP-CLASS, 40 packets exceeded and 10 packets violated the policer, resulting in drops, while the BGP-CLASS had 0 exceeded and 0 violated packets, meaning all BGP traffic conformed to its CIR of 64000 bps. This confirms that SNMP traffic is being dropped due to exceeding its policer rate, while BGP traffic is within its rate.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may misinterpret the 'exceeded' and 'violated' counters as indicating that all traffic in a class is being dropped, when in fact only packets that exceed the policer thresholds are dropped, while conforming traffic is still transmitted.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the BGP-CLASS shows 0 exceeded and 0 violated packets, indicating no drops; it is not exceeding its CIR. Option C is wrong because the output shows that conformed packets for all classes are being transmitted, so not all traffic is dropped. Option D is wrong because the command 'show policy-map control-plane' and the output explicitly state 'Service-policy input: CoPP-POLICY', meaning the policy is applied in the input direction, not output.

458
MCQeasy

A service provider is migrating a customer from a global routing table to a VRF on a Cisco ASR 1000. The customer has a BGP session with the provider for internet access. After moving the customer's interface to VRF CUSTOMER_D, the BGP session goes down. The engineer verifies that the VRF is configured with the correct route-target and that the BGP neighbor is configured under address-family ipv4 vrf CUSTOMER_D. What else is missing?

A.The IP address on the interface was removed when the VRF was applied, and it was not reconfigured.
B.The BGP neighbor is not configured with the password command.
C.The route-target import/export values are incorrect for the customer.
D.The engineer forgot to configure the VRF under the BGP router-id.
AnswerA

Correct because the ip vrf forwarding command clears the IP address on the interface, requiring it to be re-entered.

Why this answer

When a VRF is applied to an interface on a Cisco ASR 1000, the interface's IP address is removed because the VRF changes the routing context. The engineer must reconfigure the IP address under the VRF interface. Without the IP address, the BGP session cannot establish a TCP connection, causing it to go down.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the fact that applying a VRF to an interface removes the IP address, leading candidates to overlook the need to reconfigure it, and instead focus on BGP or VRF configuration errors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because BGP password configuration is optional and not required for session establishment; the session fails due to missing IP address, not authentication. Option C is wrong because the engineer verified correct route-target import/export values, so this is not the issue. Option D is wrong because BGP router-id is a global or VRF-level parameter that does not need to be explicitly configured under the VRF; it defaults to the highest loopback or interface IP, and the session failure is unrelated to router-id.

459
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about the Differentiated Services (DiffServ) QoS model are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.DiffServ uses the 6-bit DSCP field in the IP header to mark packets, allowing up to 64 different classes of service.
B.In DiffServ, core routers perform complex classification and marking based on deep packet inspection.
C.The Assured Forwarding (AF) PHB group provides four classes, each with three drop precedence levels.
D.DiffServ requires end-to-end signaling using RSVP to reserve bandwidth along the path.
E.The Expedited Forwarding (EF) PHB is designed for low-loss, low-latency traffic such as voice.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct. DSCP is 6 bits, providing 64 possible codepoints.

Why this answer

DiffServ is a class-based model that uses the DSCP field in the IP header to classify traffic. It provides per-hop behavior (PHB) and is scalable because core routers only need to inspect the DSCP field. The model does not guarantee end-to-end bandwidth reservation like IntServ does; instead, it relies on traffic conditioning at the edge.

460
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about YANG data models and their role in model-driven telemetry are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.YANG is a data modeling language used to define the structure of configuration and operational state data.
B.OpenConfig YANG models are vendor-specific and only supported on Cisco devices.
C.Native YANG models are developed by the device vendor and may expose platform-specific features.
D.IETF YANG models are the only models that can be used for model-driven telemetry subscriptions.
E.YANG is a transport protocol used to stream telemetry data from network devices to collectors.
AnswersA, C

Correct because YANG (RFC 7950) is indeed a data modeling language for defining data structures, which are then used by telemetry to stream operational state.

Why this answer

YANG models define the structure and constraints of data that can be streamed via telemetry. Native models are vendor-specific, while OpenConfig models are vendor-neutral. IETF models are standards-based but not necessarily vendor-neutral.

YANG is a data modeling language, not a transport protocol. Telemetry subscriptions reference YANG paths to specify which data to stream.

461
MCQmedium

An engineer uses the following Ansible playbook to configure an interface on a Cisco IOS-XE device using the cisco.ios.ios_interfaces module: ```yaml --- - name: Configure interface hosts: cisco-routers gather_facts: no tasks: - name: Set interface description cisco.ios.ios_interfaces: config: - name: GigabitEthernet0/1 description: "Uplink to Core" enabled: true state: replaced ``` What is the result of running this playbook?

A.The interface will have the description set and all other parameters remain unchanged.
B.The playbook will fail because 'enabled' is not a valid parameter for ios_interfaces.
C.The interface will be configured with only the description and enabled state, removing any other existing configuration.
D.The playbook will fail because 'state: replaced' requires a 'before' and 'after' state.
AnswerC

The 'replaced' state replaces the whole interface configuration with the provided values.

Why this answer

The 'state: replaced' will replace the entire interface configuration with only the provided parameters. This means that any existing configuration on GigabitEthernet0/1 (like IP address, speed, duplex) will be removed and only the description and enabled state will be applied. This is a common pitfall.

462
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NBAR2 application recognition and classification steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, enable NBAR2 on the interface using ip nbar protocol-discovery. Then create a class-map to match the application using match protocol. Next, create a policy-map to mark or apply QoS actions.

Apply the policy-map to the interface. Finally, verify NBAR2 statistics using show ip nbar protocol-discovery.

463
MCQeasy

What is the maximum hop count for EIGRP?

A.100
B.15
C.255
D.16
AnswerA

EIGRP’s default maximum hop count is 100, which satisfies the question’s constraint by defining the protocol’s loop-prevention boundary. Unlike RIP’s 15-hop limit, EIGRP uses a feasible successor mechanism and Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) to maintain loop-free paths, but still enforces a hard hop-count ceiling of 100 to prevent indefinite routing loops in large topologies.

Why this answer

EIGRP uses a maximum hop count of 100 by default to prevent routing loops. This is a hard limit; if a route's hop count exceeds 100, EIGRP considers it unreachable. This value is configurable via the 'metric maximum-hops' command under the EIGRP process.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the EIGRP hop count limit of 100 to trap candidates who confuse it with RIP's 15-hop limit or OSPF's 255-hop limit, especially when the question omits the protocol name in the stem.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (15) is wrong because 15 is the maximum hop count for RIP, not EIGRP; this is a common confusion between distance-vector protocols. Option C (255) is wrong because 255 is the maximum hop count for OSPF (via the 'max-metric' LSA) or the TTL field in IP packets, but EIGRP defaults to 100. Option D (16) is wrong because 16 is the 'infinity' metric in RIP (indicating an unreachable route), not a hop count limit for EIGRP.

464
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of ISE profiling-based dynamic ACL assignment into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

ISE profiles endpoints by collecting attributes, then matches the profile to a policy, downloads a dACL to the switch, and the switch applies it to the port.

465
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each multicast tree type on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

A source-specific multicast tree rooted at the source

A shared multicast tree rooted at the RP

A shared tree where traffic flows both toward and away from the RP

A shared tree for group G, used in PIM SM before switching to SPT

A source-specific tree for source S and group G

Why these pairings

SPT is a source-specific tree rooted at the source; RPT is a shared tree rooted at the RP; Bidir tree is a shared tree used in Bidir PIM; (*,G) tree is a shared tree for all sources; (S,G) tree is a source-specific tree.

466
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about native VLANs on an 802.1Q trunk are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Frames belonging to the native VLAN are transmitted untagged on the trunk link.
B.The native VLAN must be the same on both ends of the trunk link.
C.The native VLAN can be any VLAN from 1 to 4094.
D.The native VLAN is always VLAN 1 and cannot be changed.
E.A native VLAN mismatch will cause all traffic on the trunk to be dropped.
AnswersA, B

802.1Q does not tag frames for the native VLAN, so they are sent as standard Ethernet frames.

Why this answer

The native VLAN is a key concept in 802.1Q trunking. Frames on the native VLAN are sent untagged to maintain compatibility with legacy devices that do not understand VLAN tags. Both ends of the trunk must agree on the native VLAN; a mismatch can cause connectivity issues or VLAN hopping.

The default native VLAN is VLAN 1.

467
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about MPLS label operations are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The ingress LSR performs a label push operation.
B.Transit LSRs perform a label swap operation.
C.The egress LSR performs a label push operation.
D.PHP (Penultimate Hop Popping) causes the egress LSR to pop the label.
E.The egress LSR always performs an IP lookup after label removal.
AnswersA, B

Correct because the ingress LSR adds the initial MPLS label to the packet.

Why this answer

In MPLS, the ingress LSR pushes a label onto the packet, and transit LSRs swap the incoming label with an outgoing label based on the LFIB. PHP removes the label before the egress LSR, so the egress LSR does not perform a label lookup. The egress LSR forwards based on the IP header after label removal.

468
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco DHCP snooping binding table population into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

DHCP snooping first validates DHCP server messages on trusted ports, then creates a binding entry from the DHCPACK, stores the entry with MAC/IP/port/VLAN, updates the table on lease renewal, and finally removes the entry on lease expiry or DHCPRELEASE.

469
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IKEv2 IPsec tunnel establishment into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

IKEv2 uses a two-phase process: Phase 1 (IKE_SA_INIT) establishes a secure channel, then Phase 2 (IKE_AUTH and CREATE_CHILD_SA) authenticates peers and creates IPsec SAs. The order is: 1. IKE_SA_INIT exchange, 2.

IKE_AUTH exchange, 3. CREATE_CHILD_SA exchange, 4. IPsec SA installation, 5.

Data encryption/decryption.

470
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about configuring AAA on Cisco IOS devices are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The aaa new-model command enables AAA services on the device.
B.The aaa new-model command disables local authentication and forces the use of an external server.
C.The radius-server host command is used to specify the IP address and shared secret for a RADIUS server.
D.The tacacs-server host command is used to specify the IP address and shared secret for a RADIUS server.
E.The aaa authentication login command defines a method list for login authentication.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct because aaa new-model is required to activate AAA on Cisco IOS.

Why this answer

The correct answers cover common AAA configuration steps. Option A is correct because the aaa new-model command enables AAA on a Cisco IOS device. Option C is correct because the radius-server host command specifies the RADIUS server IP and shared secret.

Option E is correct because the aaa authentication login command defines a method list for login authentication. Option B is wrong because the aaa new-model command does not disable local authentication; it enables AAA. Option D is wrong because the tacacs-server host command is used for TACACS+, not RADIUS.

471
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) packet validation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

DAI first intercepts ARP packets on untrusted ports, then checks the sender MAC and IP against the DHCP snooping binding, validates ARP cache consistency, drops packets that mismatch, and finally forwards valid packets to the destination.

472
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Firewall (ZBFW) into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

ZBFW configuration begins by defining zones to group interfaces. Next, create a class-map to classify traffic of interest. Then, create a policy-map to specify actions (inspect, drop, pass) for each class.

After that, assign the policy-map to a zone-pair between source and destination zones. Finally, assign interfaces to their respective zones to activate the firewall.

473
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each traffic shaping or policing characteristic on the left to its correct description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Buffers excess traffic to smooth output rate; Introduces additional delay; Uses a token bucket to meter traffic

Drops or marks packets exceeding the rate; Typically applied inbound on an interface

Why these pairings

Traffic shaping buffers excess traffic to smooth output rate. Policing drops or marks excess traffic. Shaping introduces delay; policing does not.

Shaping uses a token bucket; policing uses a token bucket. Shaping is applied outbound; policing is typically inbound.

474
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IGMP v3 SSM membership report process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In IGMPv3 SSM, the host first sends a membership report with (S,G) inclusion, the querier processes it, updates its state, and then triggers PIM (S,G) join toward the source.

475
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each EtherChannel protocol on the left to its matching vendor on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

IEEE standard, supported by multiple vendors

Cisco proprietary

Standard for LACP

Vendor that developed PAgP

Describes LACP

Why these pairings

LACP is IEEE 802.3ad standard, used by all vendors; PAgP is Cisco proprietary.

476
Multi-Selecteasy

Which three statements about Syslog severity levels are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Severity level 0 (Emergency) indicates that the system is unusable.
B.Severity level 5 (Notice) is a normal but significant condition.
C.Severity level 6 (Informational) is used for informational messages that require immediate action.
D.Severity level 7 (Debugging) is the lowest severity level.
E.Severity level 4 (Warning) is more severe than level 3 (Error).
AnswersA, B, D

Correct: Emergency is the highest severity and means the system is unusable.

Why this answer

Syslog severity levels range from 0 (Emergency) to 7 (Debugging). Level 0 is the highest severity (most critical), and level 7 is the lowest. Level 5 (Notice) is normal but significant condition.

Level 6 (Informational) is for informational messages. Level 4 (Warning) indicates a warning condition. Level 3 (Error) is for error conditions.

Level 2 (Critical) is for critical conditions. Level 1 (Alert) requires immediate action. Level 0 (Emergency) means system is unusable.

477
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DMVPN Phase 2 NHRP resolution process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In DMVPN Phase 2, the spoke sends an NHRP Resolution Request to the hub to learn the public address of the destination spoke. The hub forwards this request to the destination spoke, which replies with an NHRP Resolution Reply containing its public address. The hub forwards the reply back to the requesting spoke, and then the two spokes establish a direct tunnel.

478
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of parsing 'show interfaces' output using TextFSM into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order of steps for parsing 'show interfaces' output using TextFSM is: first, capture CLI output from the device (A); second, load the TextFSM template file (B); third, initialize the TextFSM parser with the template (C); fourth, parse the output using the ParseText method (D); finally, access the structured data as a list of dictionaries (E). This sequence follows the logical workflow of a script: obtain raw data, set up the template, apply the parser, and retrieve structured results.

479
MCQhard

An Ansible playbook is written to configure a VLAN on a Cisco IOS-XE device via Cisco DNA Center's intent API: - name: Configure VLAN via DNA Center hosts: localhost gather_facts: no tasks: - name: Create VLAN 100 cisco.dnac.vlan: host: "{{ dnac_host }}" username: "{{ dnac_username }}" password: "{{ dnac_password }}" validate_certs: no state: present vlan_name: "Engineering" vlan_id: 100 site_id: "{{ site_id }}" register: result - debug: var=result What is a potential issue with this playbook?

A.The module name is incorrect; it should be cisco.dnac.network_vlan.
B.The playbook does not include a task to obtain an authentication token, which is required by DNA Center API.
C.The 'site_id' parameter is mandatory for creating a VLAN in DNA Center; if missing, the task will fail.
D.The 'state: present' is invalid; it should be 'state: create'.
AnswerC

Correct. DNA Center requires a site ID to associate the VLAN with a specific site. Without it, the API call will return an error.

Why this answer

The cisco.dnac.vlan module requires the 'site_id' parameter to associate the VLAN with a specific site. If the site_id is not provided or is incorrect, the task will fail or create the VLAN in the wrong location. Additionally, the playbook assumes the DNA Center credentials are correctly set.

480
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each AAA function on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Verifies the identity of a user or device; Typically performed first in the AAA process

Determines what resources or services a user is allowed to access; Can use attributes like privilege level or ACLs

Collects and logs usage data for auditing or billing

Why these pairings

Authentication verifies identity; Authorization determines permitted actions; Accounting tracks usage for auditing or billing.

481
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SNMP bulk walk operation process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The bulk walk starts with GetBulkRequest, retrieves multiple rows, then iterates until the end of the MIB subtree.

482
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each IPv6 ACL feature on the left to its matching IPv4 equivalent on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

access-list (IPv4 numbered/named ACL)

permit/deny ip any any (IPv4)

sequence numbers (IPv4 ACL line numbering)

log (IPv4 ACL logging)

match protocol tcp (IPv4 extended ACL)

Why these pairings

IPv6 ACLs use ipv6 access-list instead of access-list; They match on IPv6 source/dest addresses; They support the same permit/deny actions; They can use named entries; They can log matches similarly.

483
Multi-Selecthard

Which two statements about DMVPN phase 2 are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.In DMVPN phase 2, spoke routers can establish direct tunnels to each other without traffic passing through the hub.
B.DMVPN phase 2 requires mGRE on the hub only; spokes use point-to-point GRE tunnels.
C.NHRP redirect messages are used in phase 2 to inform spokes of better paths to remote destinations.
D.DMVPN phase 2 supports only IPsec protection and cannot operate without encryption.
E.In DMVPN phase 2, spoke routers must be configured with static crypto maps for IPsec.
AnswersA, C

Correct because phase 2 enables spoke-to-spoke dynamic tunnels after the hub provides the peer's NBMA address via NHRP.

Why this answer

DMVPN phase 2 allows spoke-to-spoke tunnels after initial hub registration, using NHRP to resolve destination addresses and enabling direct traffic flows.

484
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each YANG statement on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Groups related nodes in the data tree

Holds a single scalar value of a specific type

Defines a sequence of entries, each with a key

Holds an ordered set of scalar values of the same type

Defines a new type derived from an existing YANG type

Why these pairings

Correct pairings: container groups related nodes; leaf holds a single scalar value; list defines a sequence of entries; leaf-list holds an ordered set of scalar values; typedef defines a new derived type.

485
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SD-WAN zero-touch provisioning (ZTP) flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The ZTP flow begins with the device obtaining an IP address via DHCP, then contacting the cloud portal to authenticate and receive the vManage list, followed by establishing a DTLS connection to vManage, downloading the full configuration, and finally joining the control plane.

486
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IP SLA DNS lookup operation setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, the DNS operation is defined with the target hostname. Then the DNS server is specified if needed. The operation is configured to perform a lookup.

Next, the operation is scheduled. Finally, the DNS resolution result is verified.

487
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about SD-WAN policy architecture are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Centralized control policies are configured on the vSmart controller and affect route advertisement and path selection.
B.Localized data policies, such as QoS and ACL, are configured on vEdge or cEdge routers and affect traffic forwarding.
C.Application-aware routing policies are a type of localized control policy that steers traffic based on application performance.
D.Centralized data policies are applied on the edge devices to enforce per-tunnel QoS and ACL rules.
E.vManage is the primary device where all SD-WAN policies are enforced and processed in real time.
AnswersA, B

Correct because control policies on vSmart manipulate OMP routes and TLOCs to influence routing decisions.

Why this answer

Centralized control policies are applied on vSmart to influence routing (e.g., path selection), while localized data policies are applied on edge devices for QoS, ACL, and forwarding. App-route policies are a type of centralized data policy. vManage is for configuration, not policy enforcement. Centralized data policies are applied on vSmart, not edge devices.

488
MCQeasy

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco router to act as a DHCP server for a branch office. The engineer creates a DHCP pool for the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet and configures the default-router, dns-server, and domain-name options. However, clients are able to obtain IP addresses but cannot ping the default gateway. The engineer verifies that the router's interface IP is 192.168.1.1. What is the most likely cause?

A.The router's interface is not configured with an IP address in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet.
B.The DHCP pool is missing the lease command.
C.The router's interface is administratively down.
D.The ip dhcp excluded-address command is blocking the default gateway IP.
AnswerC

Correct. If the router's interface is administratively down, it cannot forward traffic, so clients cannot ping the default gateway even though DHCP works.

Why this answer

Given that the engineer verified the router interface IP is 192.168.1.1, which is within the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet, option A is factually incorrect. The most likely cause is that the interface is administratively down (option C). Although clients obtained IP addresses via DHCP, if the interface is administratively down, it will not forward traffic, making the default gateway unreachable.

Option B (missing lease) would not prevent pinging the gateway. Option D (excluded-address blocking the gateway IP) would not cause unreachability because the IP is still valid on the interface.

489
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Rapid PVST+ convergence process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Rapid PVST+ first elects the root bridge and determines port roles. It then uses synchronization handshakes between bridges to quickly transition ports to forwarding without relying on timers. Edge ports (connected to hosts) immediately transition to forwarding.

Finally, the topology change notification propagates to update MAC address tables.

490
Drag & Drophard

Drag and drop the steps of OSPF redistribution from EIGRP with metric conversion into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Redistribution requires enabling redistribution, setting a seed metric (or using default-metric), optionally matching routes, and then verifying. The order ensures routes are properly injected.

491
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about RRM (Radio Resource Management) in a Cisco wireless LAN are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.RRM automatically selects the best channel for each AP based on interference measurements.
B.RRM requires a dedicated hardware controller to perform RF calculations.
C.RRM can adjust the transmit power of APs to optimize coverage and reduce co-channel interference.
D.RRM uses a leader AP to collect and distribute RF measurements to other APs in the same RF group.
E.RRM automatically enables client load balancing across APs in the same coverage area.
AnswersA, C, D

Correct because RRM's Dynamic Channel Assignment (DCA) algorithm uses real-time RF data to assign channels with minimal interference.

Why this answer

RRM dynamically adjusts channel and power settings based on RF measurements, uses a leader AP to coordinate, and can be configured to run at a scheduled interval. It does not require a dedicated hardware controller (it runs on the WLC) and does not automatically enable client load balancing (that is a separate feature).

492
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Ansible inventory grouping and variable inheritance into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In Ansible, inventory grouping starts with defining groups and hosts, then applying group variables with precedence: all group vars are overridden by parent group vars, which are overridden by host vars, and finally by ansible_host connection details.

493
MCQmedium

A Python script using Netmiko to configure telemetry on a Cisco IOS-XE device: ```python from netmiko import ConnectHandler device = { 'device_type': 'cisco_ios', 'host': '192.168.1.1', 'username': 'admin', 'password': 'cisco', } connection = ConnectHandler(**device) config_commands = [ 'telemetry ietf subscription 200', 'receiver ip address 10.1.1.100 port 50051 protocol grpc-tcp', 'source-address 10.1.1.1', 'encoding encode-kvgpb', 'filter xpath /interfaces/interface/state/counters', 'update-policy periodic 10000' ] output = connection.send_config_set(config_commands) print(output) connection.disconnect() ``` What is the expected outcome of this script?

A.The script will configure the telemetry subscription and print the configuration output.
B.The script will fail because 'telemetry ietf subscription' is not a valid command.
C.The script will fail because 'send_config_set' requires a list of strings.
D.The script will fail because the device_type should be 'cisco_xe'.
AnswerA

The script uses correct Netmiko syntax and valid IOS-XE commands.

Why this answer

The script connects to the device, enters configuration mode, applies the telemetry subscription commands, and prints the output. The commands are syntactically correct for IOS-XE, so the configuration should be applied successfully.

494
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Cisco DNA Center automation workflows are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco DNA Center supports Plug and Play (PnP) for zero-touch deployment of new switches and routers.
B.Cisco DNA Center can push configuration templates to devices using CLI commands or REST API calls.
C.Cisco DNA Center requires an external APIC-EM controller to manage device discovery and inventory.
D.Cisco DNA Center automation is limited to GUI-based workflows and does not support any programmatic interfaces.
E.Cisco DNA Center uses Cisco ISE as the primary source for device discovery and network topology mapping.
AnswersA, B

Correct because PnP is a built-in feature of DNA Center that automates the initial provisioning of network devices without manual intervention.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center uses intent-based networking to automate network changes. The correct answers highlight key automation capabilities: PnP for zero-touch provisioning and the ability to push configuration templates via CLI or REST API. The wrong answers misstate the role of APIC-EM (a predecessor), the GUI-only limitation, and the integration with ISE for policy rather than device discovery.

495
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO methods can be used to prevent unauthorized access to the privileged EXEC mode on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable AAA authentication.
B.Configure the enable secret password.
C.Use the service password-encryption command.
D.Configure the enable password.
E.Configure login local on the console line.
AnswersB, D

Provides encrypted access.

Why this answer

The privileged EXEC mode (enable mode) is protected by either the `enable password` or `enable secret` command. The `enable secret` command uses a stronger MD5-based hash (or SHA-256 in newer IOS versions) to store the password, making it the recommended method. Both commands restrict access to privileged EXEC mode by requiring a password before executing `enable`.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between commands that protect privileged EXEC mode (enable password/secret) versus commands that protect user EXEC mode (login local) or merely obscure passwords (service password-encryption), leading candidates to select options that do not actually control access to the enable prompt.

496
MCQeasy

A network engineer is using the Cisco Meraki REST API to update the SSID settings for a wireless network. The engineer sends a PUT request to 'https://api.meraki.com/api/v1/networks/{networkId}/wireless/ssids/{ssidNumber}' with a JSON payload containing the new settings. The API returns a 429 Too Many Requests error. What should the engineer do to resolve this issue?

A.Implement exponential backoff and retry the request after a delay.
B.Change the HTTP method to POST because PUT is not supported for this endpoint.
C.Add an 'X-Cisco-Meraki-API-Key' header with a higher rate limit key.
D.Use a different API endpoint, such as 'https://api.meraki.com/api/v1/organizations/{orgId}/ssids'.
AnswerA

Correct because rate limiting requires the client to slow down and retry after a delay.

Why this answer

A 429 error indicates rate limiting; the API has received too many requests from the client within a given time frame. The engineer should implement exponential backoff and retry logic, or reduce the request rate.

497
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about AAA accounting are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.RADIUS accounting uses UDP as the transport protocol.
B.TACACS+ accounting uses UDP as the transport protocol.
C.The wait-start accounting method delays service until the accounting start packet is acknowledged by the server.
D.AAA accounting is only supported for EXEC sessions, not for network access.
E.TACACS+ encrypts only the password portion of the accounting packet.
AnswersA, C

Correct because RADIUS uses UDP for both authentication and accounting.

Why this answer

AAA accounting tracks user activities and resource usage. RADIUS accounting uses UDP ports 1646/1813, while TACACS+ uses TCP port 49. Accounting can be start-stop, stop-only, or wait-start.

The wait-start method delays service until the accounting start is acknowledged, which can impact user experience. TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet, including accounting data.

498
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SSL VPN (AnyConnect) session establishment into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The AnyConnect client first establishes a TLS/DTLS tunnel to the ASA headend. The ASA then authenticates the user via AAA. After authentication, the ASA pushes client configuration and assigns an IP address from a pool.

The client installs the virtual adapter with the assigned IP. Finally, the client can send encrypted traffic through the tunnel.

499
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each OSPF packet type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Discovers and maintains OSPF neighbor adjacencies

Contains a summary of the link-state database for initial synchronization

Requests specific link-state advertisements from a neighbor

Carries one or more full LSAs during flooding or in response to an LSR

Acknowledges receipt of an LSU to ensure reliable flooding

Why these pairings

Hello packets discover and maintain neighbor relationships. DBD (Database Description) packets contain a summary of the LSDB for synchronization. LSR (Link-State Request) packets request specific LSAs.

LSU (Link-State Update) packets carry full LSAs in response to LSRs or during flooding. LSAck (Link-State Acknowledgment) packets confirm receipt of LSUs.

500
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each CoPP class on the left to its matching traffic type on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Carries OSPF, EIGRP, BGP control plane packets

Carries SSH, SNMP, NTP, and Syslog traffic

Carries packets requiring CPU intervention (e.g., TTL expiry)

Catch-all for traffic not matching other classes

Reserved for high-priority control plane traffic

Why these pairings

CoPP classes map to specific traffic categories: routing protocol traffic, management traffic, exception traffic, and default catch-all.

501
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each STP protection feature on the left to its matching purpose on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Immediately transitions a port to forwarding state

Err-disables a port if a BPDU is received

Prevents a port from becoming the root port

Prevents a port from transitioning to forwarding when BPDUs stop

Why these pairings

PortFast moves a port to forwarding immediately; BPDU Guard err-disables a port upon BPDU reception; Root Guard prevents a port from becoming root; Loop Guard prevents alternate/backup ports from transitioning to forwarding.

502
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about MPLS Layer 3 VPNs are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Customer edge (CE) routers exchange routing information with provider edge (PE) routers using static routing, RIP, OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP.
B.VRF (Virtual Routing and Forwarding) instances are used on PE routers to maintain separate routing tables for each VPN customer.
C.MP-BGP (Multiprotocol BGP) is used between PE routers to exchange VPNv4 routes, which include an RD and RT.
D.The MPLS core routers (P routers) maintain full VPN routing tables to forward traffic based on customer IP prefixes.
E.Route targets (RT) are used to uniquely identify each customer VPN across the provider network.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because PE-CE routing can use any of these protocols, as supported by the provider's configuration.

Why this answer

MPLS L3VPNs use VRFs for isolation, MP-BGP for route exchange, and MPLS labels for forwarding, with the provider core unaware of customer routes.

503
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SD-WAN plane on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

OMP route exchange and BGP/OSPF peering

IPsec tunnel encapsulation and packet forwarding

CLI, REST API, and web-based administration

vBond-based device authentication and onboarding

Telemetry collection and application visibility

Why these pairings

The control plane handles OMP and routing protocols; the data plane forwards traffic using IPsec tunnels; the management plane provides CLI/GUI and APIs; the orchestration plane handles zero-touch provisioning and authentication.

504
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of vSphere VM snapshot creation and revert steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order is: first power on the VM (A) to ensure it is running, then take a snapshot (B) to capture the current state, then perform changes on the running VM (E), then power off the VM (C) before reverting, and finally revert to the snapshot (D) to restore the VM to the captured state. This sequence ensures that the snapshot is taken before changes, and the revert happens after changes are made and the VM is powered off.

505
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring model-driven telemetry on a Cisco IOS-XE router to stream BGP route updates to a collector using gRPC dial-out. The engineer wants to ensure that the telemetry data is encrypted in transit. Which additional configuration is required to secure the gRPC telemetry stream?

A.Configure IPsec between the router and the collector
B.Enable TLS on the gRPC connection by configuring a trustpoint and using the 'transport grpc tls' command
C.Use SSH tunneling for the gRPC connection
D.Configure DTLS on the telemetry receiver
AnswerB

TLS provides encryption for gRPC telemetry, and IOS-XE supports it with proper trustpoint configuration.

Why this answer

To configure TLS on the gRPC connection. gRPC supports TLS for encryption, and on IOS-XE, this requires configuring a trustpoint and enabling TLS under the telemetry receiver. The other options are incorrect because IPsec is not directly integrated with gRPC telemetry; SSH is used for NETCONF, not gRPC; and DTLS is used for UDP-based telemetry, not gRPC.

506
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about VRF-lite are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.VRF-lite allows multiple routing instances on a single router using static or dynamic routing protocols.
B.VRF-lite does not require MPLS to operate.
C.VRF-lite provides path isolation by maintaining separate forwarding tables.
D.VRF-lite supports MPLS VPN inter-AS option B.
E.VRF-lite requires BGP as the routing protocol between VRFs.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because VRF-lite supports RIP, EIGRP, OSPF, and static routes per VRF.

Why this answer

Correct: VRF-lite uses static or dynamic routing; it does not require MPLS; it provides path isolation. Incorrect: VRF-lite does not support MPLS VPN inter-AS; it does not require BGP; it does not use label switching.

507
MCQhard

A network engineer is deploying 802.1X with Cisco ISE for a wired network. The engineer wants to use CoA (Change of Authorization) to dynamically change the VLAN of a user after authentication. The engineer configures the switch with 'aaa server radius dynamic-author' and the ISE with CoA settings. When the engineer tests CoA from ISE, the switch logs show 'CoA request received' but the VLAN does not change. What is the most likely cause?

A.The ISE is not configured with the correct shared secret for CoA.
B.The switch is missing the 'authentication command bounce-port' or 'authentication command disable-port' configuration.
C.The switch is not configured with 'dot1x pae authenticator' on the interface.
D.The switchport is configured as 'switchport mode trunk', which does not support VLAN changes via CoA.
AnswerB

Correct because these commands enable the switch to apply CoA actions like VLAN change.

Why this answer

CoA requires the switch to accept and process the request. The switch must have the 'authentication command bounce-port' or 'authentication command disable-port' configured to apply changes. Option B is correct because without this, the switch may acknowledge but not act.

Option A is incorrect because the switch received the request. Option C is incorrect because the RADIUS server is reachable. Option D is incorrect because the switchport mode does not prevent CoA.

508
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about the classification and marking tools in Cisco IOS are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The trust boundary can be configured using the 'mls qos trust' command on a switch port to trust the CoS or DSCP value received from an attached device.
B.NBAR (Network-Based Application Recognition) can classify traffic based on application signatures, including HTTP URLs and SSL certificate fields.
C.Layer 2 CoS marking uses a 3-bit field in the 802.1Q tag, providing 8 possible values, while DSCP uses 6 bits for 64 values.
D.The 'set dscp' command in a policy map can be used to mark packets with a DSCP value, but only on egress interfaces.
E.MPLS EXP bits are a 3-bit field used for QoS in MPLS networks and are always directly mapped from the IP DSCP value without any configuration.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct. The trust boundary is set with 'mls qos trust' to honor incoming markings.

Why this answer

Classification identifies traffic based on various fields, while marking sets the QoS value. Trust boundaries determine where marking is honored. NBAR can perform deep packet inspection for classification.

CoS is a Layer 2 marking in 802.1Q frames, while DSCP is Layer 3. MPLS uses EXP bits.

509
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) mobility groups are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Controllers in the same mobility group must be in the same IP subnet.
B.A mobility group can contain up to 24 controllers.
C.Mobility groups enable seamless client roaming between controllers without re-authentication.
D.Mobility tunnels between controllers must be symmetric and use the same source and destination IP addresses.
E.All controllers in a mobility group must be the same hardware model.
AnswersB, C, D

Correct because Cisco WLCs support a maximum of 24 controllers in a single mobility group.

Why this answer

Mobility groups allow seamless client roaming across controllers, support up to 24 controllers per group, require symmetric mobility tunnels, and use a backup controller list for redundancy. They do not require all controllers to be in the same subnet or same hardware model.

510
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each EtherChannel load-balance method on the left to its matching hashing input on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Source MAC address

Destination MAC address

Source and destination IP addresses

Source and destination Layer 4 ports

Source and destination MAC addresses

Why these pairings

Methods use different combinations of source/destination MAC, IP, or port to compute hash for link selection.

511
MCQmedium

Given the following configuration: router eigrp TEST network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 network 192.168.1.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip summary-address eigrp TEST 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 5 What is the effect of the ip summary-address command?

A.It creates a summary route 10.0.0.0/8 with a metric of 5, advertised out GigabitEthernet0/0.
B.It creates a summary route 10.0.0.0/8 with a metric of 5, but only for the EIGRP process named TEST.
C.It creates a summary route 10.0.0.0/8 with a hop count of 5.
D.The command is invalid because the summary address must match the network statement exactly.
AnswerA

The summary address is 10.0.0.0/8, and the value 5 is the administrative distance for the summary route.

Why this answer

The `ip summary-address eigrp TEST 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 5` command creates a summary route of 10.0.0.0/8 with an administrative distance of 5, which is advertised out of GigabitEthernet0/0. The EIGRP process name TEST matches the router eigrp configuration, and the summary is generated regardless of the network statements, as long as the router has a more specific route within the summarized range.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the number after the summary address is a metric or hop count, when in fact it is the administrative distance for the summary route.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the summary route is advertised out of the specific interface (GigabitEthernet0/0), not for the entire EIGRP process; the process name only identifies which EIGRP instance the summary belongs to. Option C is wrong because the number 5 in the command sets the administrative distance for the summary route, not a hop count or metric; EIGRP uses metric (composite) values, not hop counts. Option D is wrong because the summary address does not need to match a network statement exactly; the `ip summary-address` command can summarize any range that includes subnets learned via EIGRP, even if the network statement is broader or different.

512
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring a native VLAN mismatch detection into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, configure mismatched native VLANs: configure neighbor trunk with native VLAN 20 (B) and then configure native VLAN 10 on the local trunk interface (A). Then, CDP detects the mismatch and reports an error (C). The switch then error-disables the trunk port (D).

Finally, fix the mismatch by setting both sides to the same native VLAN (E).

513
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Flexible NetFlow flow record and exporter setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Flexible NetFlow setup begins with defining the flow record to specify what to match and collect, then defining the flow exporter to set destination and transport, followed by creating the flow monitor that binds record and exporter, then applying the monitor to an interface, and finally verifying with show commands.

514
MCQmedium

Given the following configuration snippet on a Cisco IOS-XE switch: interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 spanning-tree portfast monitor session 1 source interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1 both monitor session 1 destination interface GigabitEthernet1/0/2 What is the effect of this configuration?

A.All traffic entering and leaving GigabitEthernet1/0/1 is copied to GigabitEthernet1/0/2.
B.Only traffic entering GigabitEthernet1/0/1 is copied to GigabitEthernet1/0/2.
C.Traffic on GigabitEthernet1/0/2 is replicated to GigabitEthernet1/0/1.
D.The configuration is invalid because the destination port must be in trunk mode.
AnswerA

The 'both' keyword copies both ingress and egress traffic from the source interface to the destination.

Why this answer

The configuration uses a local SPAN session to copy traffic from a source interface (GigabitEthernet1/0/1) to a destination interface (GigabitEthernet1/0/2). The keyword 'both' specifies that both ingress and egress traffic on the source port are mirrored, so all traffic entering and leaving GigabitEthernet1/0/1 is sent to the destination port for monitoring.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'both' with 'rx' or 'tx' and assume only one direction is mirrored, or they mistakenly think the destination port must be in trunk mode to carry VLAN tags, but in local SPAN the destination port can be an access port and the mirrored frames are sent untagged by default.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because it claims only ingress traffic is copied, but the 'both' keyword explicitly includes egress traffic as well. Option C is wrong because it reverses the direction of the SPAN session, stating traffic from the destination is replicated to the source, which is not how SPAN works; the source is always the monitored port. Option D is wrong because the destination port in a local SPAN session does not need to be in trunk mode; it can be an access port, and the configuration is valid as long as the destination port is not used for normal data forwarding.

515
Drag & Drophard

Drag and drop the steps of OSPF route redistribution into a different autonomous system into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Redistribution requires first configuring the routing process that will receive the routes, then defining the source protocol and metric, optionally setting route tags for loop prevention, applying a route map for filtering, and finally verifying the redistributed routes appear in the OSPF database.

516
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements about Cisco DNA Center's Assurance capabilities are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.It uses streaming telemetry to collect data for real-time analytics.
B.It supports only wired networks and not wireless.
C.It is a fully cloud-based solution with no on-premises components.
D.It only displays network device health scores and does not provide path tracing.
E.It can proactively detect potential issues based on historical trends.
AnswersA, E

Correct.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center uses model-driven telemetry (e.g., gRPC, NETCONF/YANG, or UDP-based push) to stream real-time data from network devices, enabling sub-second analytics and faster troubleshooting compared to traditional polling methods like SNMP.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume DNA Center is purely cloud-based or only supports wired networks, but Cisco deliberately tests the hybrid deployment model and the unified wired/wireless assurance scope.

517
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each security protocol on the left to its matching provided security service on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Confidentiality and data integrity

Data integrity and authentication without encryption

Data integrity only

Confidentiality and data integrity with authentication

Sequence number verification

Why these pairings

ESP provides confidentiality, data integrity, and optional anti-replay; AH provides data integrity and authentication but no encryption; ESP with null encryption provides integrity only; combined ESP+AH provides both confidentiality and integrity; anti-replay is a service provided by both ESP and AH.

518
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about hypervisor security and isolation are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A VM escape attack occurs when an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine to access the hypervisor or other VMs.
B.Virtual machines are inherently isolated from each other and do not require any additional security measures.
C.The hypervisor must enforce memory and device isolation to prevent one VM from accessing another VM's data.
D.Regularly patching the hypervisor and reducing its attack surface are important security practices.
E.Virtual machines have direct access to physical hardware resources such as CPU and memory.
AnswersA, C, D

Correct because VM escape is a known security risk that compromises isolation.

Why this answer

Hypervisor security is critical to prevent VM escape and ensure isolation. Option A is correct because VM escape is a serious vulnerability where code in a VM breaks out to the hypervisor. Option C is correct because the hypervisor should enforce strict isolation between VMs to prevent data leakage.

Option D is correct because keeping the hypervisor patched and minimizing its attack surface are key security practices. Option B is incorrect because VMs are not inherently isolated from each other; isolation depends on hypervisor design. Option E is incorrect because VMs do not have direct access to physical hardware; the hypervisor mediates access.

519
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of YANG module import and augmentation resolution into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order follows YANG module processing: first the module is imported, then its base schema is parsed, next augmentations are resolved, then conflicts are detected, and finally the complete schema tree is built.

520
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Control Plane Policing (CoPP) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.CoPP uses Modular QoS CLI (MQC) to define traffic classes and policies.
B.CoPP is used to police traffic in the data plane to protect against DoS attacks.
C.CoPP can rate-limit or drop certain types of control plane traffic to prevent CPU overload.
D.CoPP classifies traffic into categories such as critical, normal, and management.
E.CoPP is applied directly to physical interfaces using the 'service-policy' command.
AnswersA, C, D

Correct because CoPP is configured using MQC with class maps, policy maps, and the 'service-policy' command applied to the control plane.

Why this answer

CoPP protects the control plane by applying QoS policies to traffic destined to the route processor. Option A is correct because CoPP uses MQC (Modular QoS CLI) to define class maps and policy maps. Option C is correct because CoPP can rate-limit or drop traffic to prevent CPU overload.

Option D is correct because CoPP classifies traffic into categories such as critical, normal, and management. Option B is incorrect because CoPP does not apply to the data plane; it applies to the control plane. Option E is incorrect because CoPP is applied to the control plane, not to interfaces directly; interface-level policing is done by other mechanisms.

521
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Streaming telemetry sensor path subscription flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First a sensor path is defined, then a subscription is created with destination, the device pushes data periodically, the collector receives and processes, and the subscription can be updated or deleted.

522
MCQmedium

Examine the following telemetry configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE device: telemetry ietf subscription 200 encoding encode-kvgpb filter xpath /interfaces/interface[name='GigabitEthernet0/0/0']/state stream yang-push update-policy on-change receiver ip address 192.168.1.100 50001 protocol grpc Which statement is true about this configuration?

A.Data is pushed only when a change occurs in the state of GigabitEthernet0/0/0.
B.Data is pushed every 200 seconds to the collector.
C.The subscription uses JSON encoding.
D.The filter selects all interfaces, not just GigabitEthernet0/0/0.
AnswerA

The update-policy on-change triggers updates only on state changes for that interface.

Why this answer

This subscription uses on-change update policy, so data is pushed only when a change occurs in the specified subtree.

523
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about path isolation using VRF are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.VRFs allow overlapping IP addresses between different virtual networks on the same router.
B.VRF-lite can provide path isolation without the use of MPLS.
C.VRF-based path isolation ensures encryption of all data between VRFs.
D.A VRF can be used to separate customer traffic in a service provider network.
E.VRF-lite requires a full mesh of trunk links between all routers in the network.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because each VRF has its own routing table, so overlapping addresses are isolated.

Why this answer

Path isolation with VRF ensures that traffic from different tenants or departments does not interfere. The correct answers highlight that VRFs provide separate forwarding tables, that overlapping IP addresses are possible, and that VRF-lite can be used without MPLS. The incorrect options claim that VRFs guarantee end-to-end encryption (they do not) or that VRF-lite requires a full mesh of trunks (it does not).

524
MCQmedium

A network engineer is using Netmiko to connect to a Cisco IOS-XE device that is managed by Cisco DNA Center. The script is: from netmiko import ConnectHandler device = { 'device_type': 'cisco_ios', 'host': '10.10.10.1', 'username': 'admin', 'password': 'cisco123', 'secret': 'enable123' } connection = ConnectHandler(**device) connection.enable() output = connection.send_command('show ip interface brief') print(output) connection.disconnect() What is a potential security concern with this script in the context of DNA Center?

A.The script does not handle authentication failures gracefully.
B.The enable secret is hardcoded in plain text, which is a security risk.
C.The device_type should be 'cisco_xe' for IOS-XE.
D.The script should use SSH keys instead of passwords.
AnswerB

Correct. Hardcoding credentials is insecure. They should be stored in a secure manner.

Why this answer

The script stores the enable secret in plain text. In a production environment, credentials should be stored securely, such as using environment variables or a vault. DNA Center itself stores credentials encrypted, but this script exposes them.

525
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about YANG data models are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.YANG is used to define data models for NETCONF and RESTCONF.
B.YANG models are written in XML syntax.
C.YANG supports hierarchical data structures using containers and lists.
D.YANG modules are compiled into MIB files for SNMP.
E.YANG includes built-in data types such as string, int32, and enumeration.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct because YANG is the standard data modeling language for NETCONF and RESTCONF.

Why this answer

The correct answers are A, C, and E. A is correct because YANG is used to model configuration and operational data in NETCONF and RESTCONF. C is correct because YANG uses a tree-like hierarchical structure with containers and lists.

E is correct because YANG supports data types such as string, int32, and enumeration. B is incorrect because YANG models are not written in XML; they use a custom syntax similar to SMIv2. D is incorrect because YANG modules are not compiled into MIB files; MIBs are for SNMP.

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