Courseiva

ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 226300

1175 questions total · 16pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
MCQhard

An engineer is troubleshooting QoS on a Cisco ASR 1002 router. The router is configured with a policy map that includes a class for voice with a priority command. During congestion, the engineer notices that voice traffic is being dropped even though the priority queue is not congested. The router logs show 'QoS: priority queue overflow'. What is the most likely cause?

A.The priority queue has a default policer that drops traffic exceeding a certain rate
B.The interface bandwidth is set too low, causing the priority queue to be under-provisioned
C.The class map is not matching the voice traffic correctly
D.The router is using WRED on the priority queue
AnswerA

Correct because on ASR routers, the priority command includes an implicit policer to prevent starvation of other queues; exceeding this policer causes drops.

Why this answer

The 'priority queue overflow' log message indicates that the priority queue itself is dropping packets due to exceeding its configured or default policer rate. On Cisco ASR 1000 series routers, a priority class without an explicit 'police' command still has a default policer that limits the priority queue to a percentage of the interface bandwidth (often 33% by default). When voice traffic exceeds this implicit rate, packets are dropped even if the queue depth is not full, because the policer enforces a strict rate limit.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a priority queue never drops traffic unless the queue is full, but the trap here is that the 'priority' command on ASR routers includes a default policer that drops traffic exceeding a rate limit, even when the queue has available buffer space.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because setting the interface bandwidth too low would affect the overall shaping and scheduling, but the priority queue overflow is specifically caused by a policer, not by under-provisioning of the queue itself. Option C is wrong because if the class map were not matching voice traffic, the traffic would not be placed into the priority queue at all, and the 'priority queue overflow' log would not occur. Option D is wrong because WRED (Weighted Random Early Detection) is not applied to priority queues on Cisco ASR routers; priority queues use tail drop or a policer, and WRED is typically used on non-priority queues to manage congestion.

227
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about DHCP snooping are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.DHCP snooping is configured on Layer 2 switches to filter DHCP messages on untrusted ports.
B.The DHCP snooping binding table includes the client MAC address, IP address, lease time, VLAN, and port number.
C.Ports connected to DHCP servers should be configured as trusted ports.
D.The DHCP snooping binding database is stored in NVRAM by default.
E.DHCP snooping validates DHCPv6 messages by default when enabled globally.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because DHCP snooping is a Layer 2 security feature implemented on switches.

Why this answer

DHCP snooping is a security feature that filters untrusted DHCP messages and builds a binding database. It is configured on switches, not routers. The DHCP snooping binding table contains the client MAC address, IP address, lease time, VLAN, and port.

Trusted ports are typically uplinks to DHCP servers, while untrusted ports face clients. Option D is incorrect because the DHCP snooping database is stored in the switch's flash memory, not NVRAM. Option E is incorrect because DHCP snooping does not validate DHCPv6 messages by default; it is for DHCPv4 only unless DHCPv6 snooping is separately configured.

228
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each CoS value on the left to its matching traffic type on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Best effort data

Voice signaling

Video conferencing

Voice bearer

Internetwork control

Why these pairings

CoS 0 is typically best effort, CoS 3 is voice signaling, CoS 4 is video conferencing, CoS 5 is voice bearer, CoS 6 is internetwork control (e.g., routing protocols).

229
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each service chaining element on the left to its matching position in a typical chain on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

First element in the service chain

Inspects and filters traffic after ingress

Distributes traffic among servers after firewall

Compresses and optimizes traffic before egress

Last element before the destination network

Why these pairings

In a typical service chain, traffic flows from the ingress router through firewall, load balancer, WAN optimizer, and finally to the egress router.

230
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each DSCP PHB on the left to its matching queue treatment on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Strict priority queue, low latency

Assured forwarding with drop precedence

Class selector, maps to IP precedence

Best-effort, no bandwidth guarantee

Default PHB, identical to BE

Why these pairings

EF is for low-latency traffic (strict priority). AF uses four classes with drop probabilities. CS is backward-compatible with IP precedence.

BE is best-effort with no guarantees. DF is the default PHB (same as BE).

231
Matchingmedium

Match each network automation tool to its purpose.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Agentless automation using YAML playbooks

Agent-based configuration management using Puppet DSL

Agent-based using Ruby recipes

Agent-based with remote execution

Standard for network configuration and state data

Why these pairings

Correct matches: Ansible is agentless and uses SSH/YAML; Puppet uses client-server with DSL; Chef uses server and Ruby DSL; SaltStack uses master-minion and can be agentless. Common confusions involve mixing agentless and agent-based models.

232
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each QoS model on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses RSVP to reserve resources per flow; Not scalable for large networks

Classifies traffic with DSCP markings; Policing and marking at network edge

No QoS guarantees

Why these pairings

IntServ uses RSVP for per-flow signaling, DiffServ uses DSCP markings for per-hop behavior, Best Effort provides no guarantees, IntServ is not scalable for large networks, DiffServ offers classification and policing at the edge.

233
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about RADIUS server configuration and operation are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The default UDP port for RADIUS authentication is 1812.
B.The shared secret configured on the Cisco device must match the shared secret on the RADIUS server.
C.The 'radius-server host' command can include an optional 'key' parameter to specify the shared secret.
D.RADIUS uses TCP to ensure reliable delivery of authentication packets.
E.If no port is specified, RADIUS uses port 1645 for authentication by default.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because IANA assigned port 1812 for RADIUS authentication.

Why this answer

RADIUS servers are configured with IP address, shared secret, and UDP ports. The default authentication port is 1812 and accounting port is 1813. The shared secret must match on both client and server.

The 'radius-server host' command can specify the key. RADIUS uses MD5 for password encryption, but the shared secret is sent in cleartext within the packet.

234
Multi-Selecteasy

Which three statements about HTTP response status codes in REST APIs are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.200 OK is used to indicate a successful GET request.
B.201 Created is returned when a resource is successfully created via POST.
C.404 Not Found indicates a server-side error.
D.400 Bad Request is a client error indicating malformed request syntax.
E.500 Internal Server Error is a client error.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because 200 OK is the standard success response for GET.

Why this answer

The correct answers are A, B, and D. A is correct because 200 OK is the standard success response for GET. B is correct because 201 Created is used for successful resource creation via POST.

D is correct because 400 Bad Request indicates a client error such as malformed syntax. C is incorrect because 404 Not Found indicates the resource does not exist, not a server error. E is incorrect because 500 Internal Server Error is a server-side error, not a client error.

235
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each EtherChannel load-balance method on the left to its matching hashing input on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Source and destination IP addresses

Source and destination MAC addresses

Source and destination Layer 4 ports

Source IP address only

Destination IP address only

Why these pairings

src-dst-ip uses source and destination IP, src-dst-mac uses MAC addresses, src-dst-port uses TCP/UDP ports.

236
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MPLS LDP label distribution and FIB population into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, IP routing must be operational so that the IGP converges. Then LDP is enabled on interfaces and forms neighbor relationships. LDP then assigns local labels to FECs and advertises them to neighbors.

The remote label is received and installed in the LIB. Finally, the LFIB is populated with the best label bindings for forwarding.

237
MCQeasy

An engineer is configuring a virtual machine on a Microsoft Hyper-V host. The VM runs a legacy application that requires a static MAC address. The engineer sets the MAC address in the VM settings. After the VM starts, the application cannot communicate on the network. The engineer verifies that the MAC address is not duplicated on the network. What is the most likely cause?

A.The static MAC address is not within the allowed range for Hyper-V virtual machines.
B.The VM is configured to use a dynamic MAC address, overriding the static setting.
C.The VM's network adapter is set to use the legacy network adapter type.
D.The VM is a generation 2 VM, which does not support static MAC addresses.
AnswerA

Correct because Hyper-V enforces a specific MAC address range for static assignments to avoid conflicts.

Why this answer

Hyper-V enforces a specific range for static MAC addresses assigned to virtual machines. The default allowed range is 00-15-5D-XX-XX-XX, derived from the Microsoft Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI). If the engineer configured a MAC address outside this range (e.g., starting with a different OUI), Hyper-V will not allow the VM to use it, effectively breaking network communication even though the address is not duplicated on the network.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that any static MAC address can be assigned to a Hyper-V VM, when in reality the address must fall within the Microsoft OUI range (00-15-5D-XX-XX-XX) to be accepted by the hypervisor.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if the engineer explicitly sets a static MAC address in the VM settings, Hyper-V does not override it with a dynamic address; the static setting takes precedence. Option C is wrong because the legacy network adapter type (used for PXE boot or older OS compatibility) does support static MAC addresses and would not prevent communication solely due to its type. Option D is wrong because Generation 2 VMs fully support static MAC addresses; the misconception that they do not is incorrect, as static MAC assignment is a standard feature across both Generation 1 and Generation 2 VMs.

238
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about NAT64 and NPTv6 are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.NAT64 translates IPv6 packets to IPv4 packets and vice versa, allowing IPv6-only clients to access IPv4 servers.
B.NPTv6 (Network Prefix Translation) translates the IPv6 prefix of a packet while preserving the host portion of the address.
C.NAT64 requires a DNS64 server to synthesize AAAA records from A records for IPv6 clients.
D.NPTv6 provides port address translation similar to PAT in IPv4 NAT.
E.Both NAT64 and NPTv6 require stateful inspection of all traffic flows.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because NAT64 performs protocol translation between IPv6 and IPv4, enabling communication between IPv6-only and IPv4-only hosts.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of IPv6 transition mechanisms, specifically NAT64 and NPTv6, including their differences and use cases.

239
MCQmedium

A network administrator is troubleshooting a BGP routing issue where routes from an eBGP neighbor are not being installed in the routing table. The 'show ip bgp' output shows the routes are received but not valid. What is the most likely cause?

A.The AS-path contains the local AS number.
B.The next-hop IP address is not reachable.
C.BGP synchronization is enabled.
D.The maximum-prefix limit has been exceeded.
AnswerB

Correct. For a BGP route to be considered valid and installed in the routing table, the next-hop IP address must be reachable via an IGP or static route. If the next hop is not reachable, the route will appear in the 'show ip bgp' output but be marked as not valid.

Why this answer

For a BGP route to be considered valid and installed in the routing table, the next-hop IP address must be reachable via an IGP or a static route. If the next hop is not reachable, the route will appear in the 'show ip bgp' output but will be marked as not valid (often with a 'r' for received but not valid). This is the most common cause when routes are received from an eBGP neighbor but not installed.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between routes being received in the BGP table versus being installed in the routing table, and the trap here is that candidates confuse synchronization (a deprecated feature) with the next-hop reachability requirement, which is the immediate cause of the 'not valid' status.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the AS-path contains the local AS number, BGP would reject the route due to loop prevention (the route would be marked as invalid or not received at all), but the question states routes are received. Option C is wrong because BGP synchronization is disabled by default in modern IOS versions and, even if enabled, it would affect the route's validity only if the prefix is not present in the IGP, but the next-hop reachability check is more fundamental. Option D is wrong because exceeding the maximum-prefix limit would cause the BGP session to be torn down or the neighbor to be shut down, not simply mark routes as not valid while keeping them in the BGP table.

240
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about trunking and VLAN pruning are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.VTP pruning dynamically removes VLANs from a trunk if the VLAN is not present on the remote switch.
B.Manual pruning can be achieved using the 'switchport trunk allowed vlan' command.
C.VTP pruning requires VTP to be enabled on the switches in the management domain.
D.VTP pruning is only supported in VTP version 3.
E.The 'switchport trunk native vlan' command is used to prune VLANs from a trunk.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because VTP pruning advertises VLAN membership and prunes unnecessary VLANs from trunk links.

Why this answer

Correct: A is true because VTP pruning reduces unnecessary broadcast traffic on trunk links by dynamically removing VLANs that are not needed on a switch. B is true because pruning can be manually configured on a trunk using the 'switchport trunk allowed vlan' command to restrict which VLANs traverse the link. C is true because VTP pruning requires VTP to be configured and operating in the domain; it is not available without VTP.

D is incorrect because VTP pruning works with VTP versions 1 and 2, not just version 3. E is incorrect because the 'switchport trunk native vlan' command sets the native VLAN, not pruning; pruning is controlled by allowed VLAN lists or VTP pruning.

241
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DMVPN Phase 1 spoke-to-hub tunnel setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In DMVPN Phase 1, the spoke first establishes an mGRE tunnel to the hub using a multipoint interface. The hub then registers the spoke's NHRP mapping. After registration, the spoke can dynamically learn routes from the hub via the tunnel.

Finally, the spoke sends traffic through the hub, which routes it to the destination.

242
Drag & Drophard

Drag and drop the steps of cisco.ios.ios_config module idempotent apply flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The ios_config module first connects to the device, retrieves the running config, compares it with the desired config, applies only the necessary changes, and then saves the config if specified, ensuring idempotency.

243
MCQeasy

A network engineer is troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue between two routers connected via a serial link. The adjacency is stuck in the INIT state. The engineer has verified that the IP addresses are in the same subnet and that the link is up. What is the most likely cause?

A.The OSPF router IDs are the same.
B.The OSPF hello interval is mismatched between the two routers.
C.The OSPF process ID is different.
D.The OSPF network type is point-to-point on one router and point-to-multipoint on the other.
AnswerB

Correct because if the hello intervals are different, the routers will not agree on the hello timer, causing the adjacency to remain in INIT.

Why this answer

The INIT state in OSPF indicates that a router has received a Hello packet from its neighbor but the neighbor has not yet seen its own Router ID in the received Hello. A mismatched Hello interval causes the routers to send Hellos at different rates, so one router may not receive a Hello within the expected Dead interval, preventing the neighbor from seeing its Router ID in the received Hello and thus stalling the adjacency in INIT.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between INIT and other OSPF states, and the trap here is that candidates confuse a network type mismatch (which causes EXSTART issues) with a Hello interval mismatch (which causes INIT), or incorrectly assume that the OSPF process ID must match.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because identical OSPF router IDs would cause a conflict that typically results in the adjacency being stuck in EXSTART/EXCHANGE or a neighbor state of DOWN, not INIT. Option C is wrong because the OSPF process ID is locally significant and does not need to match between routers for adjacency formation. Option D is wrong because a network type mismatch (e.g., point-to-point vs. point-to-multipoint) usually causes the adjacency to get stuck in the EXSTART state due to DR/BDR election issues, not in INIT.

244
MCQmedium

Router R5 has the following OSPF configuration: router ospf 1 router-id 5.5.5.5 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 area 0 authentication message-digest ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.1.1.5 255.255.255.0 ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco123 What is missing from this OSPF authentication configuration?

A.The configuration is complete and correct.
B.The interface needs the 'ip ospf authentication message-digest' command.
C.The 'area 0 authentication' command should be 'area 0 authentication md5'.
D.The 'network' command should include the area authentication keyword.
AnswerB

This command activates MD5 authentication on the interface, required for the area authentication to take effect.

Why this answer

OSPF authentication configuration requires two components: an area-level authentication type (configured via `area 0 authentication message-digest`) and an interface-level authentication mode (configured via `ip ospf authentication message-digest`). The interface command tells the OSPF process to actually use the key defined with `ip ospf message-digest-key`. Without it, the interface defaults to no authentication, even though the area is configured for authentication.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume configuring the area authentication and the key is sufficient, overlooking the mandatory interface-level `ip ospf authentication message-digest` command that activates authentication on the specific interface.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the configuration is incomplete; the interface lacks the `ip ospf authentication message-digest` command, so OSPF packets on GigabitEthernet0/0 will not be authenticated. Option C is wrong because `area 0 authentication md5` is not a valid Cisco IOS command; the correct syntax is `area 0 authentication message-digest`. Option D is wrong because the `network` command does not support an area authentication keyword; area authentication is configured separately under the OSPF process or on the interface.

245
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about EIGRP route summarization are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Manual summarization can be configured on a per-interface basis using the ip summary-address eigrp command.
B.Automatic summarization is enabled by default in EIGRP for IPv4.
C.A manually configured summary route in EIGRP has an administrative distance of 5.
D.Manual summarization causes the router to advertise all specific routes in addition to the summary.
E.EIGRP for IPv6 does not support manual summarization.
AnswersA, C

Correct because the command 'ip summary-address eigrp <as> <prefix> <mask>' is used to configure manual summarization on an interface.

Why this answer

EIGRP supports manual summarization on any interface, which creates a summary route with an administrative distance of 5 by default. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries is disabled by default in modern IOS versions. Manual summarization can be configured per interface and suppresses more specific routes from being advertised out that interface.

The summary route is installed in the routing table as a local route.

246
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of traffic shaping vs policing configuration steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, identify the traffic to be shaped or policed using a class-map. Then configure the policy-map with either shape or police command. Apply the service-policy in the appropriate direction.

For shaping, the router buffers excess traffic; for policing, it drops or re-marks. Finally, verify using show policy-map interface.

247
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE benefits does network automation provide over manual configuration?

Select 3 answers
A.Increased security by eliminating the need for SSH access
B.Lower initial investment compared to manual processes
C.Reduced risk of configuration errors
D.Consistent configuration across all devices
E.Faster deployment of configuration changes
AnswersC, D, E

Automation eliminates manual mistakes.

Why this answer

Network automation eliminates human error during repetitive configuration tasks. By using tools like Ansible, Python scripts, or NETCONF/YANG models, configurations are applied consistently without typos or missed commands, which are common in manual CLI entry. This directly reduces the risk of syntax errors, missing parameters, or inconsistent settings that can lead to network outages.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that automation eliminates all manual access methods like SSH, but in reality, automation relies on SSH or similar transports for device communication, and the trap is assuming automation reduces security risks by removing SSH entirely.

248
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) negotiation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

DTP negotiation begins with the interface defaulting to dynamic desirable or auto mode. If a switchport is set to trunk, DTP sends frames to negotiate. The neighbor responds if in a compatible mode.

Once agreed, the link becomes trunking. Finally, both ends forward traffic for multiple VLANs.

249
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left to its matching attribute type on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Well-known mandatory

Well-known discretionary

Optional transitive

Optional non-transitive

Well-known mandatory

Why these pairings

AS_PATH is well-known mandatory; LOCAL_PREF is well-known discretionary; COMMUNITY is optional transitive; MULTI_EXIT_DISC is optional non-transitive; ORIGIN is well-known mandatory.

250
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring an IP SLA ICMP echo operation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, enter global config mode. Then create the IP SLA operation with type icmp-echo, set the target address and optional parameters like frequency, schedule the operation, and finally verify reachability using show commands.

251
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Flexible NetFlow flow record and exporter setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order begins with defining the flow record, then the flow exporter, then the flow monitor, then applying it to an interface, and finally verifying with show commands.

252
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show policy-map control-plane Control Plane Service-policy input: CoPP-POLICY Class-map: MGMT-CLASS (match-all) 100 packets, 5000 bytes 5 minute offered rate 1000 bps Match: access-group name MGMT-ACL police: cir 32000 bps, bc 4000 bytes, be 4000 bytes conformed 80 packets, 4000 bytes; actions: transmit exceeded 15 packets, 750 bytes; actions: drop violated 5 packets, 250 bytes; actions: drop Class-map: class-default (match-any) 200 packets, 10000 bytes 5 minute offered rate 2000 bps Match: any police: cir 64000 bps, bc 8000 bytes, be 8000 bytes conformed 200 packets, 10000 bytes; actions: transmit exceeded 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop violated 0 packets, 0 bytes; actions: drop Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.Management traffic to the control plane is being policed, and some packets are being dropped because they exceed the configured rate.
B.All management traffic is being transmitted without drops.
C.The policer is configured in the output direction.
D.The class-default is dropping packets.
AnswerA

The policer shows 80 conformed and 20 exceeded/violated packets, meaning 20 packets were dropped due to exceeding the CIR.

Why this answer

The output shows that the CoPP-POLICY policy map is applied to the control plane in the input direction. For the MGMT-CLASS class, the policer has a CIR of 32000 bps, and the counters show 15 packets exceeded and 5 packets violated, both with a drop action. This confirms that some management traffic is being dropped because it exceeds the configured rate, making option A correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'input' and 'output' direction for CoPP, and the trap here is that candidates assume the policy is applied in the output direction or overlook the drop counters in the MGMT-CLASS, leading them to incorrectly select option B or C.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the output clearly shows 15 exceeded and 5 violated packets being dropped for the MGMT-CLASS, so not all management traffic is transmitted without drops. Option C is wrong because the command 'show policy-map control-plane' without specifying 'output' defaults to the input direction, and the output explicitly states 'Service-policy input: CoPP-POLICY', confirming it is applied in the input direction. Option D is wrong because the class-default counters show 0 exceeded and 0 violated packets, meaning no packets are being dropped in that class.

253
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each BGP message type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Establishes a BGP session and negotiates capabilities

Advertises new routes or withdraws previously advertised routes

Reports an error condition and closes the BGP session

Periodically sent to keep the BGP session alive

Requests that a peer readvertise its routes

Why these pairings

OPEN establishes a BGP session; UPDATE advertises or withdraws routes; NOTIFICATION indicates an error; KEEPALIVE maintains the session; ROUTE-REFRESH requests readvertisement of routes.

254
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco SD-WAN control plane establishment sequence into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The control plane setup begins with vBond orchestrating initial authentication and directing devices to vManage and vSmart. Then each device establishes a DTLS/TLS connection to vManage for management. Next, devices establish DTLS/TLS connections to vSmart for control.

After that, OMP peering is set up between edges and vSmart. Finally, BFD sessions are established between edge devices for data plane liveliness detection.

255
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each VM storage type on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Allocates storage only as data is written

Allocates all required storage at creation

Provides direct LUN access to a VM

VMware virtual disk file format

Microsoft virtual hard disk format

Why these pairings

Thin provisioning allocates space on demand. Thick provisioning allocates all space at creation. RDM (Raw Device Mapping) provides direct access to a LUN.

VMDK is the virtual disk file format. VHDX is Microsoft’s virtual hard disk format.

256
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each DNA Center Intent API on the left to its matching use on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Retrieves network device details, serial numbers, and software versions

Provides physical and logical network topology maps

Lists network problems, severity, and suggested remediation

Tracks configuration changes, syslog messages, and SNMP traps

Manages site hierarchy and location-based network settings

Why these pairings

Intent APIs: inventory retrieves device details; topology provides network maps; issues reports network problems; events tracks changes and alerts.

257
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each IP SLA schedule parameter on the left to its function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Defines when the operation begins

Interval between probes

Total duration of the operation

Time after which inactive operation is removed

Repeats the schedule daily

Why these pairings

start-time defines when the operation begins; frequency sets the interval between probes; life sets the total duration; ageout removes the operation after inactivity; recurring repeats the schedule daily.

258
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of VNF scaling up and scaling out steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Scaling up (vertical) or scaling out (horizontal) begins with the VNFM monitoring performance metrics and detecting a threshold breach. The VNFM then notifies the NFVO of the scaling requirement. The NFVO authorizes the scaling action.

The VNFM then coordinates with the VIM to allocate additional resources (scale up) or instantiate new VNF instances (scale out). Finally, the VNFM updates the VNF configuration to use the new resources or instances.

259
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MPLS label operation on the left to its matching action on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Adds a new label to the top of the label stack

Removes the top label from the label stack

Replaces the top label with a new label value

Removes the label before the final hop

Adds one or more labels to an unlabeled packet

Why these pairings

Push adds a new label to the stack, pop removes the top label, and swap replaces the top label with a new one.

260
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DMVPN Phase 1 spoke-to-hub tunnel setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In DMVPN Phase 1, the spoke first establishes an mGRE tunnel to the hub using NHRP registration, then the hub learns the spoke's NBMA address, and finally the spoke can route traffic through the hub. The correct order is: configure mGRE tunnel interface on spoke, configure NHRP with hub as NHS, spoke registers its NBMA address via NHRP, hub adds spoke to its NHRP database, and spoke sends traffic through hub.

261
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SD-WAN zero-touch provisioning (ZTP) flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

ZTP starts with the device contacting the DHCP server for an IP address, then resolving the vManage hostname via DNS, establishing a DTLS connection to vManage, downloading the full configuration, and finally applying the configuration to become operational.

262
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of EIGRP authentication using MD5 key-chain into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for configuring EIGRP MD5 authentication with a key chain is: first, create a key chain using the 'key chain' command. Next, configure a key number and key-string under the key chain. Then, enter interface configuration mode for the interface on which EIGRP is enabled.

After that, issue the command 'ip authentication mode eigrp md5' to set the authentication mode. Finally, issue the command 'ip authentication key-chain eigrp <name>' to apply the key chain to the interface.

263
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IBNS 2.0 concurrent authentication policy map into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

IBNS 2.0 uses a policy map that first triggers 802.1X, then if that fails, concurrently tries MAB and web authentication, evaluates the first successful method, and finally applies the corresponding authorization result.

264
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each OSPF network type on the left to its matching DR election behavior on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Elects a DR/BDR; uses multicast Hellos (224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6)

Elects a DR/BDR; requires manual neighbor configuration

No DR/BDR election; uses multicast Hellos (224.0.0.5)

No DR/BDR election; treats each neighbor as a point-to-point link

No DR/BDR election; requires manual neighbor configuration

Why these pairings

Broadcast network type (e.g., Ethernet) elects a DR/BDR. Non-broadcast (NBMA) also elects DR/BDR but requires manual neighbor configuration. Point-to-point does not elect a DR/BDR.

Point-to-multipoint does not elect a DR/BDR. Point-to-multipoint non-broadcast does not elect a DR/BDR and requires manual neighbor configuration.

265
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each STP port role on the left to its matching definition on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Best path to the root bridge

Best path for a given segment

Alternate path to the root bridge

Redundant path to the same segment

Why these pairings

Root port is the best path to the root bridge; Designated port is the best path for a segment; Alternate port provides an alternative path to the root; Backup port provides a redundant path to the same segment.

266
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SNMP version on the left to its matching security feature on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses community strings for authentication only

Uses community strings with improved error handling

Provides encryption, authentication, and message integrity

Authenticates but does not encrypt payload

Authenticates and encrypts payload

Why these pairings

SNMPv1 and v2c use community strings for authentication, while SNMPv3 provides encryption, authentication, and message integrity.

267
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are true about RESTCONF and NETCONF in a Cisco IOS XE environment? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.RESTCONF uses HTTP methods (GET, POST, PUT, DELETE) and supports JSON and XML encoding.
B.RESTCONF supports the candidate datastore for editing configurations.
C.NETCONF uses HTTP as its transport protocol.
D.RESTCONF and NETCONF both support JSON and XML encoding.
E.NETCONF uses XML-encoded RPCs over a secure SSH session.
AnswersA, E

RESTCONF indeed uses HTTP methods and supports JSON and XML.

Why this answer

RESTCONF is designed to use standard HTTP methods (GET, POST, PUT, DELETE, PATCH) for CRUD operations on YANG-defined data, and it supports both JSON and XML encoding formats. This aligns with its goal of providing a simpler, web-friendly interface compared to NETCONF.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that both protocols support JSON and XML equally, or that NETCONF uses HTTP, leading candidates to select option D or C incorrectly.

268
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about RADIUS and TACACS+ are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet body, whereas RADIUS only encrypts the password.
B.RADIUS uses TCP for reliable transport, while TACACS+ uses UDP.
C.RADIUS combines authentication and authorization in one packet, whereas TACACS+ separates them.
D.TACACS+ encrypts only the password in the packet, similar to RADIUS.
E.RADIUS uses UDP as its transport protocol, while TACACS+ uses TCP.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct because TACACS+ encrypts the entire payload, while RADIUS only encrypts the password attribute.

Why this answer

The correct answers contrast the two protocols. Option A is correct because TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet body, while RADIUS only encrypts the password. Option C is correct because RADIUS combines authentication and authorization, while TACACS+ separates them.

Option E is correct because RADIUS uses UDP (typically port 1812/1813), while TACACS+ uses TCP (port 49). Option B is wrong because RADIUS uses UDP, not TCP. Option D is wrong because TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet body, not just the password.

269
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps for configuring STP root guard and loop guard and the resulting port behavior into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for activating STP root guard and loop guard begins with entering interface configuration mode (A), then configuring root guard with 'spanning-tree guard root' (B), followed by loop guard with 'spanning-tree guard loop' (C). After configuration, verification of port role and protection status (D) ensures the guards are active. Step E (port moves to root-inconsistent state if superior BPDU received) is not an activation step but a reactive event that occurs when root guard triggers; it is placed last as the expected outcome.

270
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about DHCP relay are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The ip helper-address command is used on a router interface to forward DHCP broadcasts to a DHCP server on a different subnet.
B.DHCP relay changes the source IP address of the DHCP packet to the IP address of the relay agent's outgoing interface.
C.The ip helper-address command forwards only DHCP traffic by default.
D.DHCP relay inserts the gateway IP address (giaddr) field in the DHCP packet to indicate the subnet of the client.
E.DHCP relay is required only when the DHCP server is on the same VLAN as the client.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because ip helper-address converts DHCP broadcast to unicast and forwards it to the specified server.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of DHCP relay operation, including the use of ip helper-address, UDP port forwarding, and configuration requirements.

271
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The requirement is to allow only the first MAC address that appears on the port to be learned and to automatically disable the port if a violation occurs. The engineer configures 'switchport port-security mac-address sticky' but does not specify a maximum number of secure MAC addresses. After connecting a single host, the port works. However, when the host is replaced with a different device, the port is error-disabled. What is the most likely reason?

A.The default maximum number of secure MAC addresses is 1, so the second MAC address triggers a violation.
B.The sticky keyword requires the engineer to first manually configure a maximum number of MAC addresses.
C.The violation mode is set to 'restrict' by default, which causes the port to error-disable after one violation.
D.The port security aging type is set to 'absolute' by default, causing the sticky address to expire immediately.
AnswerA

Correct because the default maximum is 1, and sticky learning does not change that.

Why this answer

The default maximum number of secure MAC addresses on a switchport is 1. When the engineer configured 'switchport port-security mac-address sticky' without specifying a maximum, the port learned the first host's MAC address as a sticky entry. When a different device was connected, its MAC address exceeded the default limit of 1, triggering a security violation.

Since the default violation mode is 'shutdown', the port was error-disabled.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the default values for port security features, specifically that the default maximum number of secure MAC addresses is 1 and the default violation mode is 'shutdown', leading candidates to overlook the need to configure 'switchport port-security maximum' when using sticky learning for multiple hosts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the 'sticky' keyword does not require manual configuration of a maximum number of MAC addresses; the default maximum is 1, and sticky addresses are counted against that limit. Option C is wrong because the default violation mode is 'shutdown', not 'restrict'; 'restrict' would cause the port to drop offending traffic and increment a counter but not error-disable the port. Option D is wrong because port security aging type is not set to 'absolute' by default (it is disabled by default), and even if aging were configured, it would not cause the sticky address to expire immediately upon connecting a new device.

272
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.LACP packets are exchanged using multicast destination MAC address 01-80-c2-00-00-02.
B.LACP can place up to 8 links in the active state and an additional 8 links in hot-standby mode.
C.When using LACP, both sides must be configured with the same system priority to form a channel.
D.LACP automatically detects speed and duplex mismatches and prevents the channel from forming.
E.LACP operates only in Layer 3 mode and cannot be used for Layer 2 EtherChannels.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because LACP uses the Slow Protocols multicast address 0180.c200.0002.

Why this answer

LACP is an IEEE standard (802.3ad) that allows dynamic formation of EtherChannels. It uses LACPDUs to negotiate parameters, supports up to 16 links (8 active, 8 standby), and can detect mismatched parameters like speed or duplex. The 'active' mode initiates negotiation, while 'passive' waits.

273
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Cisco DNA Center workflow on the left to its matching component on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Creates network profiles, site hierarchy, and IP address pools

Defines SGTs, scalable groups, and access contracts

Deploys configurations and fabric settings to network devices

Monitors network health, client experience, and application performance

Automates device onboarding, software image management, and compliance checks

Why these pairings

Design creates network profiles and site hierarchy, Policy defines SGTs and access contracts, Provision deploys configurations to devices, Assurance monitors network health, and Automation runs workflows like PnP and SWIM.

274
Matchingeasy

Drag and drop each leased line technology on the left to its matching speed on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

1.544 Mbps

2.048 Mbps

44.736 Mbps

155.52 Mbps

44.736 Mbps

Why these pairings

T1 runs at 1.544 Mbps, E1 at 2.048 Mbps, DS3 at 44.736 Mbps, and OC-3 at 155.52 Mbps. T3 is 44.736 Mbps (same as DS3).

275
MCQeasy

What is the maximum number of SPAN sessions that can be configured on a Cisco Catalyst 9300 switch?

A.34
B.16
C.64
D.8
AnswerA

The Catalyst 9300 supports a maximum of 34 SPAN sessions.

Why this answer

The Cisco Catalyst 9300 switch supports a maximum of 34 SPAN sessions. This includes local SPAN, RSPAN, and ERSPAN sessions combined, with the switch allocating internal resources to support up to 34 simultaneous monitoring sessions.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the Catalyst 9300's 34-session limit because candidates confuse it with the 16-session limit of older Catalyst 3750/3850 platforms or the 8-session limit of the Catalyst 2960 series.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (16) is wrong because 16 is the maximum number of SPAN sessions on older Catalyst 2960/3560 platforms, not the Catalyst 9300. Option C (64) is wrong because 64 exceeds the hardware resource limits of the Catalyst 9300's switching ASIC for SPAN sessions. Option D (8) is wrong because 8 is the typical limit for a single SPAN source or destination, not the total number of sessions the switch can support.

276
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of AAA method list fallback from RADIUS to local into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

When a RADIUS server is unreachable, the device first tries the primary RADIUS server, then any backup RADIUS servers. If all RADIUS servers fail, the device falls back to the local database for authentication. This ensures redundancy.

277
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each STP port role on the left to its matching definition on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Best path from a non-root bridge to the root bridge

Best path for a LAN segment, forwards traffic

Alternate path to the root bridge (discarding in RSTP)

Backup path to a shared segment (discarding in RSTP)

Administratively shut down or not running STP

Why these pairings

Root port is the best path to the root bridge; Designated port is the best path for a segment; Alternate port provides an alternative path to the root bridge; Backup port provides a backup path to a shared segment.

278
MCQeasy

What is the default OSPF hello interval on an Ethernet link?

A.5 seconds
B.10 seconds
C.30 seconds
D.40 seconds
AnswerB

The default OSPF hello interval on Ethernet (broadcast) links is 10 seconds.

Why this answer

The default OSPF hello interval on an Ethernet (broadcast multi-access) link is 10 seconds, as defined in RFC 2328. This interval determines how often a router sends Hello packets to discover and maintain neighbor relationships. On non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) networks, the default is 30 seconds.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the default OSPF hello interval for Ethernet specifically, and the trap here is confusing it with the 30-second default used on NBMA networks or the 5-second default on point-to-point links.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 5 seconds is the default hello interval for OSPF on point-to-point links in some implementations, but not on Ethernet. Option C is wrong because 30 seconds is the default hello interval for OSPF on NBMA networks (e.g., Frame Relay), not on Ethernet. Option D is wrong because 40 seconds is not a standard OSPF hello interval; it is the default dead interval on NBMA networks (4 times the hello interval of 30 seconds).

279
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each OMP attribute on the left to its matching behavior on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Indicates whether the route was learned from OMP, connected, static, or BGP/OSPF

Uniquely identifies the WAN edge site within the overlay

Defines the transport tunnel type (e.g., mpls, public-internet, biz-internet)

Used for path selection; higher preference is preferred over lower

Administrative label that can be used for policy matching and route filtering

Why these pairings

OMP uses attributes like origin, site-id, color, and preference to influence route selection and TLOC reachability.

280
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of EIGRP stub configuration for hub-and-spoke into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order ensures that the spoke router first enters EIGRP configuration, then configures the stub feature, optionally restricts stub types, and finally applies the configuration. The hub router does not need stub configuration.

281
MCQhard

A network engineer is configuring CoPP on a Cisco ASR 1000 router to protect the control plane from excessive traffic. The engineer wants to allow BGP traffic from a specific peer (10.0.0.1) while rate-limiting all other BGP traffic. The engineer creates an ACL that permits TCP port 179 from host 10.0.0.1 and denies all other BGP traffic. The CoPP class-map matches this ACL. However, after applying the policy, BGP sessions from other peers are still being established. What is the most likely reason?

A.The ACL denies all other BGP traffic, so CoPP does not match it, and it falls through to the default class, which permits it.
B.The ACL is applied in the wrong order; the deny statement should be before the permit statement.
C.BGP uses UDP port 179, not TCP, so the ACL does not match BGP traffic.
D.CoPP does not affect BGP sessions because they are established before the policy is applied.
AnswerA

Correct because CoPP only applies to traffic matched by the class-map; if the ACL denies traffic, it is not matched, and the default class (often permit) allows it.

Why this answer

The ACL is designed to match BGP traffic from host 10.0.0.1 (permit) and deny all other BGP traffic. However, CoPP class-maps match traffic based on permit statements in the ACL; a deny statement in the ACL causes the traffic to not be matched by that class. As a result, BGP traffic from other peers is not classified into the rate-limiting class and falls through to the default class, which typically permits all traffic.

This explains why BGP sessions from other peers are still being established.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a deny statement in an ACL used with CoPP will drop traffic, when in reality it only prevents the traffic from being matched by that class, allowing it to fall through to the default class which typically permits everything.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the order of permit and deny statements in an ACL is critical, but here the permit for host 10.0.0.1 is correctly placed before the deny all; the issue is not about order but about how CoPP treats deny entries. Option C is wrong because BGP uses TCP port 179, not UDP; this is a fundamental protocol fact. Option D is wrong because CoPP affects all traffic arriving at the control plane after the policy is applied, regardless of when sessions were established; existing sessions are still subject to rate-limiting.

282
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of gRPC dial-in telemetry session from collector into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The collector initiates the connection, authenticates, subscribes to specific YANG paths, receives streaming updates, and then processes the data.

283
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about RSPAN are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.RSPAN uses a dedicated VLAN that is trunked between switches to carry mirrored traffic.
B.The RSPAN VLAN can also be used for regular user data traffic if needed.
C.The RSPAN VLAN must be allowed on all trunk links between the source and destination switches.
D.The RSPAN destination port can be a regular access port in the RSPAN VLAN.
E.RSPAN requires that all switches in the path support the RSPAN feature.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct because the RSPAN VLAN is a special VLAN used exclusively for transporting mirrored packets across switches.

Why this answer

RSPAN uses a dedicated VLAN to transport mirrored traffic across switches. The RSPAN VLAN must be created on all switches in the path and should not be used for user traffic. Trunk ports carry the RSPAN VLAN, and the destination switch receives the traffic on an RSPAN destination port.

The RSPAN VLAN must not be pruned from trunks.

284
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of EtherChannel troubleshooting and verification into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Troubleshooting begins with checking physical layer, then verifying protocol negotiation, inspecting bundle state, checking load balancing, and finally reviewing logs.

285
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each RADIUS attribute on the left to its correct attribute number on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Attribute 1

Attribute 4

Attribute 6

Attribute 8

Attribute 5

Why these pairings

RADIUS attribute numbers are standardized: User-Name is 1, NAS-IP-Address is 4, Service-Type is 6, Framed-IP-Address is 8, and NAS-Port is 5.

286
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of BGP policy application (route-map, prefix-list, AS-path ACL) into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, you create the prefix-list or AS-path ACL to match routes. Then you define the route-map with match and set clauses. Next, you apply the route-map to a neighbor under the BGP address-family.

After that, you clear the BGP session to apply the policy. Finally, you verify the policy effect with show ip bgp.

287
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about 802.1X authentication process are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The supplicant sends an EAPOL-Start frame to begin the authentication process.
B.The authenticator (switch) performs the actual authentication of the supplicant credentials.
C.The authentication server (RADIUS) sends an EAP-Success message after successful validation of credentials.
D.EAPOL frames are used only between the authentication server and the authenticator.
E.The authenticator places the port in the unauthorized state before authentication completes.
AnswersA, C

Correct because the supplicant (client) typically initiates 802.1X by sending an EAPOL-Start frame to the authenticator.

Why this answer

In 802.1X, the supplicant (client) initiates the session by sending an EAPOL-Start, or the authenticator (switch) can send an EAP-Request/Identity to prompt the client. The RADIUS server is the authentication server that validates credentials and sends an EAP-Success or EAP-Failure. The authenticator does not perform the actual authentication; it only relays EAP frames.

288
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each DHCP option on the left to its matching purpose on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Provides vendor-specific information such as TFTP server address

Identifies the vendor class of the DHCP client

Carries relay agent information for DHCP snooping

Specifies the TFTP server name

Specifies the TFTP server IP address for Cisco phones

Why these pairings

Option 43 provides vendor-specific info; Option 60 identifies vendor class; Option 82 is relay agent information.

289
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Ansible Tower (AWX) job template execution steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Ansible Tower job template execution starts with launching the job template; then, Tower provisions an isolated execution environment; next, it checks out the project from the source control; after that, it runs the playbook against the specified inventory; finally, it collects and displays job results and logs.

290
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about virtual machine (VM) resource allocation and overcommitment are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Memory overcommitment allows the sum of all virtual machine memory allocations to exceed the physical RAM of the host.
B.CPU overcommitment is achieved by scheduling virtual CPUs onto physical cores, often with a ratio greater than 1:1.
C.Overcommitment always guarantees better performance for all virtual machines.
D.Storage overcommitment is supported by thin provisioning, where virtual disks consume only the space actually used.
E.A hypervisor cannot overcommit CPU resources because each vCPU must be pinned to a dedicated physical core.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because hypervisors can use techniques like ballooning to overcommit memory.

Why this answer

Memory overcommitment allows more total vRAM than physical RAM. CPU overcommitment is common and can be managed. Overcommitment can cause performance issues if resources are oversubscribed.

Storage is not typically overcommitted in the same manner as CPU/memory.

291
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of the PPDIOO network lifecycle into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The PPDIOO network lifecycle consists of six phases: Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and Optimize. The correct sequence from first to last is: Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.

292
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SNMP component on the left to its matching role on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Network management station that polls agents

Software running on the managed device

Database of managed objects

Unique identifier for a managed object

Authentication string for v1/v2c

Why these pairings

Manager is the NMS; agent runs on the device; MIB is the database; OID identifies a specific variable.

293
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each BGP path selection criterion on the left to its correct order of preference (1 = highest priority) on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

1

2

3

4

5

Why these pairings

Weight (highest) is checked first, then LOCAL_PREF (highest), then locally originated routes, then AS_PATH length (shortest), then ORIGIN (IGP > EGP > incomplete).

294
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about Cisco QoS policing and shaping are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Policing can re-mark traffic that exceeds the configured rate to a lower priority.
B.Shaping buffers excess traffic and transmits it later to avoid drops.
C.Both policing and shaping use a token bucket algorithm to measure traffic rates.
D.Policing buffers traffic that exceeds the rate to reduce packet loss.
E.Shaping is typically applied on the ingress interface to control incoming traffic.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because policing can set a new DSCP or CoS value for out-of-profile traffic.

Why this answer

Policing drops or re-marks traffic exceeding a rate, while shaping buffers excess traffic. Policing is typically applied inbound, shaping outbound. Option A is correct because policing can mark down traffic (e.g., set DSCP to 0) when the rate is exceeded.

Option B is correct because shaping buffers traffic to smooth bursts, reducing drops. Option C is correct because both use a token bucket model to measure conformance. Option D is incorrect because policing does not buffer; it drops or re-marks.

Option E is incorrect because shaping is applied on egress, not ingress.

295
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each data encoding format on the left to its matching use case on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Lightweight data interchange for REST APIs

Structured data format used in NETCONF messages

Human-readable format for configuration files

Binary serialization for high-performance systems

Why these pairings

JSON is lightweight and widely used in REST APIs, XML is verbose and used in NETCONF, YAML is human-readable for configuration files, and Protobuf is efficient for high-performance systems.

296
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each VNF category on the left to its matching example on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Cisco CSR 1000v

Cisco Firepower NGFWv

F5 BIG-IP Virtual Edition

Cisco vWAAS

Cisco Firepower NGIPSv

Why these pairings

VNFs replace physical appliances; common examples include virtual routers, firewalls, and load balancers.

297
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SR-IOV configuration for VM network bypass into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The configuration begins with enabling SR-IOV in the BIOS, then creating virtual functions, assigning them to the VM, and finally installing drivers inside the VM.

298
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of CBWFQ and LLQ queue servicing order into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

LLQ is serviced before any CBWFQ queues to ensure low-latency traffic. Within CBWFQ, queues are serviced in a weighted round-robin fashion based on bandwidth allocation. The default queue is serviced last.

299
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each traffic direction on the left to its correct SPAN keyword on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

rx keyword

tx keyword

both keyword

rx keyword

tx keyword

Why these pairings

Ingress traffic is monitored with the 'monitor session source interface x/x rx' keyword; egress with 'tx'; both directions with 'both'.

300
MCQhard

Based on the exhibit, which traffic will be permitted outbound on GigabitEthernet0/0?

A.HTTP and HTTPS traffic from 192.168.1.0/24
B.ICMP traffic from any source
C.FTP traffic from 192.168.1.0/24
D.SSH traffic from 192.168.1.0/24
AnswerA

The ACL permits www and https.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows an access control list (ACL) applied outbound on GigabitEthernet0/0. The ACL permits TCP traffic from source 192.168.1.0/24 to any destination with a destination port of 80 (HTTP) or 443 (HTTPS). Therefore, only HTTP and HTTPS traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network is permitted outbound.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the implicit deny any at the end of an ACL, leading candidates to assume that traffic not explicitly denied is permitted, when in fact only explicitly permitted traffic is allowed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because ICMP traffic is not TCP and does not match the permit statement for TCP ports 80 and 443; ICMP would be implicitly denied by the ACL's implicit deny any at the end. Option C is wrong because FTP traffic uses TCP ports 20 and 21, which are not permitted by the ACL's permit statement for ports 80 and 443. Option D is wrong because SSH traffic uses TCP port 22, which is not permitted by the ACL's permit statement for ports 80 and 443.

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