Courseiva

ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 376450

1175 questions total · 16pages · All types, answers revealed

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376
MCQeasy

A network engineer is planning to use Cisco DNA Center to automate the deployment of a new branch office. The engineer has already discovered the devices and added them to Inventory. The engineer wants to use a template to configure the devices consistently. Which tool in DNA Center should the engineer use to create and apply the template?

A.Use the 'Template Editor' to create a CLI template and apply it during provisioning.
B.Use the 'Policy Editor' to create a policy-based configuration.
C.Use the 'Command Runner' to execute commands on multiple devices.
D.Use the 'Network Profiles' to define the configuration.
AnswerA

Correct because Template Editor is designed for creating and applying configuration templates in DNA Center.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center includes a feature called 'Template Editor' (or 'Network Templates') that allows engineers to create CLI templates for device configuration. These templates can be parameterized and applied to devices during provisioning, ensuring consistent configuration across the branch.

377
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about DMVPN Phase 2 are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Spokes can establish direct tunnels to each other without traversing the hub.
B.All traffic must pass through the hub router at all times.
C.NHRP is used to resolve the public IP addresses of spokes.
D.Phase 2 uses only point-to-point GRE tunnels on the hub.
E.Phase 2 does not support dynamic routing protocols between spokes.
AnswersA, C

Correct because Phase 2 enables spoke-to-spoke dynamic tunnels.

Why this answer

DMVPN Phase 2 allows spoke-to-spoke tunnels after initial hub registration, uses mGRE on spokes, and supports dynamic routing between spokes. NHRP is used for resolution.

378
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about IP SLA threshold monitoring and reaction configuration are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The 'threshold' command sets the rising threshold that triggers a reaction when exceeded.
B.The 'reaction' configuration can specify an action such as 'connection-loss' to trigger when the probe fails to receive a response.
C.The IP SLA reaction can be used to update a tracking object, which can then influence policy-based routing or static route removal.
D.The 'reaction' command supports a 'timeout' type that triggers when the probe response time exceeds a configured value.
E.The 'reaction' command can only monitor round-trip time and cannot be used for jitter or packet loss.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because the 'threshold' command defines the upper boundary; when the measured value exceeds it, the reaction is triggered.

Why this answer

IP SLA allows configuring rising and falling thresholds to trigger events. The reaction can be tied to a tracking object, which can then influence routing decisions. The 'connection-loss' type triggers when all probes fail.

The 'timeout' reaction is not a valid type; the correct keyword is 'timeout' within the threshold configuration. The 'react' command can also monitor jitter values.

379
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to configure VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) on a Cisco switch in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

VTP requires setting mode and domain before trunking works; verification confirms operation.

380
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show ip ospf neighbor Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface 10.0.0.2 1 FULL/DR 00:00:32 192.168.1.2 GigabitEthernet0/0 10.0.0.3 1 2WAY/DROTHER 00:00:35 192.168.1.3 GigabitEthernet0/0 Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.R1 is the Backup Designated Router (BDR) on this segment.
B.R1 has a full OSPF adjacency with the neighbor 10.0.0.3.
C.R1 is a DROTHER on this segment.
D.The OSPF network type is point-to-point.
AnswerC

Since the DR is 10.0.0.2 and the BDR is not listed, and R1 has a full adjacency only with the DR, R1 must be a DROTHER.

Why this answer

The output shows R1 has a neighbor with state 2WAY/DROTHER (10.0.0.3), which indicates that R1 is also a DROTHER on this broadcast multiaccess segment. The FULL/DR neighbor (10.0.0.2) is the Designated Router, and since R1 is not the BDR (no FULL/BDR state), it must be a DROTHER.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that 2WAY state means a full adjacency, but in OSPF, 2WAY is a normal neighbor state on broadcast networks between DROTHERs, not a full adjacency (which requires FULL state).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because R1 is not the BDR; the BDR would appear with state FULL/BDR, but the only FULL neighbor is the DR (10.0.0.2). Option B is wrong because the neighbor 10.0.0.3 is in the 2WAY state, not FULL, meaning they have an established neighbor relationship but not a full adjacency (they exchange Hellos but not LSAs directly). Option D is wrong because the presence of DR/BDR states (FULL/DR, 2WAY/DROTHER) indicates a broadcast multiaccess network type, not point-to-point.

381
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Metro Ethernet E-Line service provisioning into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

E-Line provisioning starts with defining the service attributes and customer endpoints. The provider then configures the UNI on each customer edge device. Next, the EVC is created across the provider network to connect the two UNIs.

Finally, the service is tested and activated for the customer.

382
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each streaming telemetry mode on the left to its matching trigger on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Data is sent at a fixed interval

Data is sent only when a value changes

The device decides when to send data

On-change with additional suppression rules

Combination of periodic and on-change triggers

Why these pairings

Periodic sends at intervals, on-change sends on value change, target-defined leaves timing to the device, on-change-with-policy adds conditions, and periodic-and-on-change combines both.

383
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each VRF component on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uniquely identifies a VRF to allow overlapping IPv4 prefixes

Determines which routes are imported into or exported from a VRF

Stores all routes learned within a specific VRF

Holds routes for the default or global routing table

Used by hardware to make forwarding decisions based on the RIB

Why these pairings

Route Distinguisher (RD) makes IPv4 prefixes unique across VRFs; Route Target (RT) controls import/export of routes; the VRF RIB stores routes learned within that VRF; the global RIB holds routes for the global routing table; the FIB is used for forwarding decisions.

384
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about BGP route reflectors are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Route reflectors reduce the number of required iBGP sessions in an AS.
B.A route reflector client must be fully meshed with all other clients.
C.The route reflector does not modify the AS_PATH or NEXT_HOP attributes when reflecting routes.
D.The ORIGINATOR_ID attribute is used to prevent routing loops in a route reflector environment.
E.Non-client peers of a route reflector must be fully meshed with each other.
AnswersA, C, D

Correct because route reflectors allow a hub-and-spoke topology, reducing sessions.

Why this answer

Route reflectors reduce the number of required iBGP sessions by allowing clients to peer only with the route reflector. The route reflector does not modify the AS_PATH or NEXT_HOP attributes when reflecting routes, preserving path information. The ORIGINATOR_ID attribute is used to prevent routing loops by identifying the originator of a route.

Option E is incorrect because non-client peers of a route reflector do not need to be fully meshed; they may be clients of other route reflectors, and the full mesh requirement applies only to iBGP speakers that are not clients of any route reflector.

385
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each ERSPAN version on the left to its correct header format description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

4-byte GRE header with 4-byte session ID

4-byte GRE header with 8-byte ERSPAN header

4-byte GRE header with 12-byte ERSPAN header

Indicates ERSPAN encapsulated packet

Optionally included in ERSPAN Type II/III

Why these pairings

ERSPAN Type I uses a 4-byte GRE header with 4-byte session ID; ERSPAN Type II uses a 4-byte GRE header with an 8-byte ERSPAN header; ERSPAN Type III uses a 4-byte GRE header with a 12-byte ERSPAN header.

386
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of CoPP policy evaluation order into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

CoPP evaluates packets against class maps in sequential order. The first match determines the action. The default class is processed last if no match occurs.

387
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of GET VPN key server registration and rekey into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In GET VPN, the group member first registers with the key server using ISAKMP. The key server authenticates the member and pushes the initial policy and key. After registration, the key server periodically sends rekey messages to update the group encryption key.

The group member acknowledges the rekey, and then both sides install the new key for ongoing encryption.

388
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Multicast RP discovery using Auto-RP into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Auto-RP uses a mapping agent to discover RPs. Candidate RPs announce their services to a well-known group (224.0.1.39). The mapping agent collects these announcements and sends RP-to-group mappings to another group (224.0.1.40).

Routers then learn the RP for each group.

389
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of LLQ configuration for voice traffic into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

LLQ for voice requires first classifying voice traffic, then creating a policy map with a priority queue, applying it to the interface, and verifying the configuration. The priority queue ensures low latency for voice packets.

390
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of telemetry path validation using YANG DevKit into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Validation begins with loading the YANG model, then using the tool to check path syntax, verifying existence, and confirming with device capabilities.

391
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each EAP method on the left to its matching authentication type on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Certificate-based mutual authentication

Tunneled authentication with MSCHAPv2

Protected Access Credential (PAC) based

Simple password hash (no server certificate)

Generic Token Card (one-time password)

Why these pairings

EAP-TLS uses certificates, PEAP uses tunneled MSCHAPv2, EAP-FAST uses PAC, EAP-MD5 uses simple password hash.

392
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of EIGRP named mode configuration steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

EIGRP named mode uses an address-family configuration. First, create the named EIGRP instance, then enter address-family IPv4, configure the network, optionally adjust timers, and finally verify the configuration.

393
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each queuing mechanism on the left to its matching feature on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Single queue, no differentiation

Per-flow flow-based fair queuing

User-defined traffic classes with guaranteed bandwidth

Strict priority queue with rate limiting

Always serves highest-priority queue first

Why these pairings

FIFO uses a single queue with no prioritization. WFQ provides per-flow fairness. CBWFQ allows user-defined classes.

LLQ provides strict priority with policing. PQ always services the highest-priority queue first.

394
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW1: SW1# show interfaces trunk Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan Gi0/1 on 802.1q trunking 1 Gi0/2 on 802.1q trunking 1 Port Vlans allowed on trunk Gi0/1 1-1005 Gi0/2 1-1005 Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain Gi0/1 1,10,20 Gi0/2 1,10,20 Port Vlans in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned Gi0/1 1,10,20 Gi0/2 1,10,20 Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.VLANs 2-9 are allowed but not active on the trunk.
B.The trunk is using ISL encapsulation.
C.VLAN 1 is pruned from the trunk.
D.Only VLANs 10 and 20 are forwarding traffic.
AnswerA

The 'allowed' list includes 1-1005, but only VLANs 1,10,20 are active; thus VLANs 2-9 are allowed but not active (not created in VLAN database).

Why this answer

The output shows that VLANs 1-1005 are allowed on the trunk, but only VLANs 1, 10, and 20 are listed as active in the management domain. This means VLANs 2-9 are configured on the trunk but are not active (i.e., not created or not present on the switch), so they do not forward traffic. Option A correctly identifies this condition.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the difference between 'allowed on trunk' and 'active in management domain' to trick candidates into thinking all allowed VLANs are forwarding, when in fact only active VLANs forward traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the encapsulation is explicitly shown as '802.1q', not ISL, which is a Cisco proprietary protocol that is now largely deprecated. Option C is wrong because VLAN 1 is listed in the 'Vlans in spanning tree forwarding state and not pruned' section, indicating it is forwarding and not pruned; pruning would remove it from that list. Option D is wrong because VLAN 1 is also in the forwarding state and not pruned, so traffic for VLAN 1 is also being forwarded, not just VLANs 10 and 20.

395
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SNMP component on the left to its matching role on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Network management station that polls agents

Software module running on managed device

Virtual database defining managed objects

Numeric identifier for a specific managed object

Password-like string used for authentication in v1/v2c

Why these pairings

The manager collects data, the agent runs on the device, MIB defines the data structure, and OID identifies specific variables.

396
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of connecting to a network device via Netmiko into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with importing the Netmiko library, then creating a device dictionary with connection parameters, establishing the SSH connection using ConnectHandler, sending a command (e.g., 'show ip interface brief'), and finally closing the connection with disconnect(). This sequence follows standard Netmiko workflow for device access.

397
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about BGP route reflectors are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Route reflectors allow iBGP speakers to advertise routes learned from other iBGP speakers without requiring a full mesh.
B.A route reflector client must be fully meshed with all other clients in the same cluster.
C.The route reflector can be a client of another route reflector.
D.The cluster ID is used to prevent routing loops in a route reflector environment.
E.The route reflector modifies the AS_PATH attribute to prevent loops.
AnswersA, C, D

Correct: This is the primary purpose of route reflectors; they relax the full mesh requirement.

Why this answer

Route reflectors are used to reduce the number of iBGP peers in an AS. They allow iBGP speakers to advertise routes learned from other iBGP speakers without requiring a full mesh. A route reflector client does not need to be fully meshed with other clients; it only peers with the route reflector.

The route reflector can be a client itself. The cluster ID is used to identify a route reflector cluster and to prevent loops. The route reflector does not modify the AS_PATH or NEXT_HOP attributes by default.

398
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of the gRPC dial-out telemetry subscription flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order is: first, configure the telemetry receiver (destination) on the network device. Next, define a sensor group to specify which YANG data paths to collect. Then, create a subscription associating the sensor group with the receiver.

After that, enable the subscription to start streaming data. Finally, the device streams telemetry data to the receiver.

399
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each RSPAN VLAN requirement on the left to its correct restriction on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Must be dedicated solely to RSPAN traffic; no other traffic allowed.

The RSPAN VLAN cannot be the native VLAN of any trunk port.

The RSPAN VLAN must be allowed on all trunk links between source and destination switches.

The RSPAN VLAN must not have an SVI or any Layer 3 interface configured.

RSPAN VLANs are not propagated by VTP; they must be manually created on each switch.

Why these pairings

The RSPAN VLAN must be dedicated to RSPAN only, cannot be the native VLAN, must be allowed on all trunk links between source and destination switches, and must not have any Layer 3 interface configured.

400
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about OSPF LSA types are correct? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Type 1 LSAs (Router LSAs) are generated by every OSPF router and describe the router's interfaces and neighbors within an area.
B.Type 2 LSAs (Network LSAs) are generated by the DR on broadcast and NBMA networks to list all routers attached to the segment.
C.Type 3 LSAs (Summary LSAs) are generated by ASBRs to advertise external routes into the OSPF domain.
D.Type 4 LSAs (ASBR Summary LSAs) are generated by ABRs to advertise the location of an ASBR to routers in other areas.
E.Type 5 LSAs (AS External LSAs) are flooded only within the area where they originate.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because Router LSAs are the fundamental LSA type, created by each router to advertise its directly connected links and state.

Why this answer

OSPF uses various LSA types to describe different routing information. Type 1 (Router LSA) is generated by every router. Type 2 (Network LSA) is generated by the DR.

Type 3 (Summary LSA) is generated by ABRs. Type 4 (ASBR Summary LSA) is also generated by ABRs. Type 5 (AS External LSA) originates from ASBRs and is flooded throughout the entire OSPF domain.

401
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each protocol on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses UDP transport; Combines authentication and authorization in one packet; Typically used for network access (e.g., 802.1X)

Encrypts entire packet payload; Separates authentication, authorization, and accounting into separate packets

Why these pairings

RADIUS uses UDP and encrypts only the password; TACACS+ uses TCP and encrypts the entire packet. RADIUS combines authentication and authorization; TACACS+ separates them. RADIUS is commonly used for network access; TACACS+ for device administration.

402
MCQmedium

Which BGP attribute is preferred when it has the lowest value?

A.WEIGHT
B.LOCAL_PREF
C.MED
D.ORIGIN
AnswerC

MED is the attribute where a lower value is preferred.

Why this answer

BGP uses multiple attributes to determine the best path. The WEIGHT attribute is Cisco-specific and is preferred when it has the highest value, not lowest. The LOCAL_PREF attribute is preferred with the highest value.

The MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator) attribute is preferred with the lowest value. The ORIGIN attribute prefers IGP over EGP and incomplete.

403
MCQmedium

A network engineer is troubleshooting a problem where Cisco DNA Center is not receiving syslog messages from a critical core switch. The switch is configured to send syslog to the DNA Center's IP address. The engineer checks the DNA Center syslog collector and finds that it is enabled. What should the engineer check next?

A.Verify that the syslog port (UDP 514) is not blocked by a firewall or ACL.
B.Check if the syslog messages are in the correct format.
C.Ensure that the switch is in the Inventory and managed by DNA Center.
D.Restart the syslog collector service on DNA Center.
AnswerA

Correct because syslog uses UDP 514, and if the port is blocked, messages will not reach DNA Center.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center's syslog collector listens on specific ports (default UDP 514). If the switch is configured to send syslog but DNA Center is not receiving it, a common issue is that the syslog port is blocked by a firewall or ACL between the switch and DNA Center. The engineer should verify network connectivity and port accessibility.

404
Matchingeasy

Drag and drop each protocol number on the left to its matching protocol on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

ICMP

TCP

UDP

OSPF

IGMP

Why these pairings

Protocol 1 is ICMP, 6 is TCP, 17 is UDP, 89 is OSPF, 2 is IGMP.

405
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each OMP attribute on the left to its matching behavior on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Identifies the site from which the route was originated

Indicates the vSmart that injected the route into OMP

Numeric value used to influence route selection (higher is preferred)

32-bit value used for route filtering and policy matching

Transport location (system-ip, color, encapsulation) for reachability

Why these pairings

OMP attributes control route preference, TLOC mapping, and path selection. Site ID identifies the origin site; Originator identifies the vSmart that originated the route; Preference influences route selection; Tag is used for policy matching; TLOC carries the transport location endpoint.

406
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NBAR2 application recognition and classification steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

NBAR2 configuration begins by enabling the protocol discovery, then creating a class map to match the application, a policy map to mark traffic, applying it to the interface, and verifying the classification. NBAR2 uses deep packet inspection to identify applications.

407
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IPFIX template negotiation and export into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The exporter first sends a template set to the collector, the collector acknowledges, then the exporter sends data records using that template, and templates may be withdrawn or resent periodically.

408
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Hierarchical QoS (H-QoS) parent/child policy steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

H-QoS uses a child policy for per-class actions and a parent policy to shape aggregate traffic. The order ensures child policy is defined first, then parent references it, and finally applied to the interface.

409
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about classification and marking in QoS are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Classification can be based on IP precedence, DSCP, or CoS values.
B.Marking is performed using the 'set' command in a policy-map class configuration.
C.Layer 2 CoS marking uses the first 6 bits of the 802.1Q tag.
D.DSCP uses the first 3 bits of the ToS byte and is not compatible with IP precedence.
E.The 'match ip dscp' command can be used in a class map to match packets based on DSCP values.
AnswersA, E

Correct. Classification can use IP precedence, DSCP, or CoS values.

Why this answer

Classification can be based on various Layer 2 and Layer 3 fields such as IP precedence, DSCP, and CoS values. The 'match ip dscp' command is used in class maps to match packets based on DSCP values. Marking is performed using the 'set' command in a policy-map class configuration, but the statement in B is considered too absolute because marking can also be done using other methods like 'police' for marking.

Therefore, options A and E are correct.

410
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of TACACS+ command authorization flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

TACACS+ separates authentication, authorization, and accounting. For command authorization, the user authenticates first, then the device sends the command to the TACACS+ server, which checks its authorization policy and responds with permit or deny. The device then executes or blocks the command accordingly.

411
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each RESTCONF method on the left to its matching NETCONF equivalent on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Retrieve data (equivalent to get or get-config)

Create a new data resource (equivalent to edit-config with create)

Replace an existing resource (equivalent to edit-config with replace)

Partially update a resource (equivalent to edit-config with merge)

Remove a resource (equivalent to edit-config with delete)

Why these pairings

RESTCONF GET retrieves data (like NETCONF get/get-config), POST creates a resource (like edit-config with operation create), PUT replaces a resource (like edit-config with operation replace), PATCH partially updates (like edit-config with operation merge), and DELETE removes a resource (like edit-config with operation delete).

412
MCQmedium

An engineer is using a Python script to retrieve interface statistics from a Cisco IOS-XE device via the REST API. The script sends a GET request to 'https://device/restconf/data/ietf-interfaces:interfaces/interface=GigabitEthernet1/statistics' and receives a 404 Not Found response. The interface exists and is operational. What is the most likely issue?

A.The interface name must be URL-encoded because it contains a slash.
B.The URI is incorrect; statistics are under 'interfaces-state' not 'interfaces'.
C.The device requires authentication; the script must include a valid token.
D.The REST API is not enabled on the device; the engineer must enable it first.
AnswerB

Correct because operational state data like statistics is in the 'interfaces-state' container, while 'interfaces' contains configuration data.

Why this answer

The 404 error indicates the resource was not found. In RESTCONF, the URI must use the correct encoding for interface names, especially if they contain special characters like a slash. The interface name 'GigabitEthernet1' should be URL-encoded as 'GigabitEthernet1' (no encoding needed here), but the issue is that the URI path must match the YANG module structure exactly.

The statistics data is often under a separate container like 'interfaces-state' in the ietf-interfaces model, not directly under 'interface'. The correct URI for operational statistics is typically 'ietf-interfaces:interfaces-state/interface=GigabitEthernet1/statistics'.

413
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each CoS value on the left to its matching traffic type on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Voice payload

Video conferencing

Call signaling

Critical data

Best-effort data

Why these pairings

CoS values are used in 802.1Q frames: CoS 5 for voice, CoS 4 for video, CoS 3 for call signaling, CoS 2 for critical data, CoS 0 for best-effort data.

414
Multi-Selecthard

Which two statements about the interaction between ACLs and CoPP are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.ACLs are used in CoPP class-maps to match specific control-plane traffic types.
B.CoPP can rate-limit ICMP packets destined to the router by using an ACL to match ICMP in the class-map.
C.ACLs applied to interfaces take precedence over CoPP policies for control-plane traffic.
D.CoPP can only use extended ACLs, not standard ACLs, for classification.
E.CoPP policies are applied globally and affect all traffic entering the router, including transit traffic.
AnswersA, B

Correct because CoPP uses class-maps that reference ACLs to identify traffic such as SSH, SNMP, or routing protocol packets.

Why this answer

ACLs are used within CoPP to classify control-plane traffic. CoPP can protect against DoS attacks, and ACLs provide the classification. The incorrect options misstate the order of processing or the scope of CoPP.

415
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each DSCP value on the left to its matching Per-Hop Behavior (PHB) on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Expedited Forwarding

Assured Forwarding class 4, low drop probability

Class Selector 3

Assured Forwarding class 2, medium drop probability

Best-effort

Why these pairings

DSCP values map to specific PHBs: EF is for expedited forwarding, AF41 is Assured Forwarding class 4 low drop, CS3 is class selector 3, AF21 is Assured Forwarding class 2 medium drop, and BE (0) is best-effort.

416
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each sFlow component on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Samples packets and exports flow data; Configurable sampling rate

Receives and processes sFlow datagrams; Stores and analyzes flow data

Encapsulation of sampled packet headers and counters

Why these pairings

The sFlow agent samples packets and sends datagrams. The collector receives and analyzes datagrams. The datagram is the packet sent from agent to collector.

417
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each NetFlow version on the left to its matching feature description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Fixed 7-tuple flow keys, IPv4 only; No support for MPLS or IPv6

Template-based, supports IPv6 and MPLS; Dynamic templates reduce export bandwidth

IETF standard, extensible fields, NetFlow v10

Why these pairings

NetFlow v5 uses fixed 7-tuple keys and is IPv4-only. NetFlow v9 is template-based and supports IPv6 and MPLS. IPFIX (NetFlow v10) is the IETF standard based on v9 with extensible fields.

418
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each sFlow component on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Samples packets and exports datagrams; Configured on switch/router interfaces

Receives and processes sFlow datagrams; Typically a server running analysis software

Contains sampled packet headers and counters

Why these pairings

sFlow agent: embedded in the network device, samples packets and sends datagrams. sFlow collector: receives and analyzes datagrams. sFlow datagram: the packet sent from agent to collector containing sampled data.

419
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of VRF selection using policy-based routing into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with creating an extended ACL to match the traffic (A), then defining a route-map using the match ip and set vrf commands (B), applying the route-map to the incoming interface (C), after which the router evaluates the policy for each packet (D), and finally matching packets are forwarded into the specified VRF (E). Configuration steps must precede operational steps.

420
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a valid transport protocol for model-driven telemetry receivers on Cisco IOS-XE?

A.HTTP
B.gRPC
C.FTP
D.SNMP
AnswerB

gRPC is a commonly used transport for model-driven telemetry.

Why this answer

gRPC is a supported transport protocol for telemetry receivers, along with gNMI and others.

421
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about NFV MANO (Management and Orchestration) are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The VNF Manager (VNFM) is responsible for the lifecycle management of VNF instances, including instantiation and scaling.
B.The NFV Orchestrator (NFVO) coordinates the allocation of resources across multiple VNFs and the NFVI.
C.The Virtualized Infrastructure Manager (VIM) manages the lifecycle of VNFs and their connectivity.
D.The VIM is responsible for service chaining and policy enforcement within the NFV environment.
E.The VNFM is responsible for managing the physical hardware resources in the NFVI.
AnswersA, B

Correct because the VNFM performs operations like instantiation, scaling, updating, and termination of VNFs.

Why this answer

NFV MANO consists of three main components: NFV Orchestrator (NFVO), VNF Manager (VNFM), and Virtualized Infrastructure Manager (VIM). The NFVO coordinates network services across multiple VNFs, the VNFM manages individual VNF instances, and the VIM controls the NFVI resources. Option A is correct because the VNFM handles VNF lifecycle (instantiation, scaling, termination).

Option B is correct because the NFVO coordinates resources across VNFs and the infrastructure. Option C is incorrect because the VIM manages the NFVI, not VNFs. Option D is incorrect because the VIM does not handle service chaining; that is the role of the NFVO.

Option E is incorrect because the VNFM does not manage physical hardware.

422
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) check process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

uRPF first receives a packet on an interface, then looks up the source IP in the routing table, verifies that the incoming interface matches the best reverse path, and if it matches, forwards the packet; otherwise, it drops the packet.

423
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of OSPF redistribution from EIGRP with metric conversion into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, identify the EIGRP routes to redistribute into OSPF. Then, configure the OSPF redistribution command under the OSPF process, specifying the EIGRP AS number. Since OSPF requires a metric for redistributed routes, set the OSPF metric type (E1 or E2) and seed metric.

Optionally, use a route map to filter or modify specific routes. Finally, verify that the redistributed routes appear in the OSPF database and routing table.

424
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each RADIUS attribute name on the left to its matching attribute number on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

1

4

6

8

22

Why these pairings

RADIUS attribute numbers are standardized: User-Name=1, NAS-IP-Address=4, Service-Type=6, Framed-IP-Address=8, and Framed-Route=22.

425
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SSL VPN (AnyConnect) session establishment into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

AnyConnect session establishment begins with the client establishing a TLS tunnel to the ASA headend. The ASA presents its digital certificate for authentication. The client then authenticates the user, and the ASA assigns an IP address from a pool.

Finally, the client installs the virtual adapter and the session is established.

426
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of deploying a CoPP policy on a Cisco IOS-XE router into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Deploying CoPP requires first defining ACLs to classify traffic, then creating class maps, then a policy map, then applying it to the control plane, and finally verifying the policy.

427
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW2: SW2# show monitor session 2 Session 2 --------- Type : Remote Source Session Source Ports : TX Only : Gi1/0/5 RX Only : Gi1/0/6 Destination Ports : Gi1/0/20 Encapsulation : Replicate Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.This is an RSPAN source session, sending mirrored traffic to a remote VLAN.
B.This is a local SPAN session with bidirectional capture.
C.The destination port Gi1/0/20 is used to receive mirrored traffic from another switch.
D.Both source ports capture all traffic in both directions.
AnswerA

The output shows a Remote Source Session with source ports assigned separately for TX Only (Gi1/0/5) and RX Only (Gi1/0/6), which is a characteristic of RSPAN source configuration. The destination port Gi1/0/20 uses Encapsulation: Replicate, indicating traffic is forwarded onto a remote VLAN rather than a local analyser, satisfying the RSPAN definition of sending mirrored traffic to a remote VLAN for collection elsewhere.

Why this answer

The output shows 'Type: Remote Source Session', which indicates this is an RSPAN source session. The source ports Gi1/0/5 and Gi1/0/6 are configured to send mirrored traffic (TX only and RX only, respectively) to a destination port Gi1/0/20 with encapsulation set to 'Replicate', meaning the traffic is replicated onto an RSPAN VLAN for transport to a remote switch. This matches the definition of an RSPAN source session, where mirrored traffic is sent to a remote VLAN rather than a local destination.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between source and destination sessions in RSPAN, where candidates mistakenly think a destination port on a source switch receives traffic, when in fact it sends mirrored traffic onto the RSPAN VLAN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because this is not a local SPAN session; the 'Type: Remote Source Session' explicitly indicates it is RSPAN, and the destination port is used to forward traffic onto an RSPAN VLAN, not for local monitoring. Option C is wrong because Gi1/0/20 is a destination port in this source session, used to send mirrored traffic out to the RSPAN VLAN, not to receive traffic from another switch; receiving mirrored traffic would be the role of a destination session on a remote switch. Option D is wrong because the source ports are configured with separate directions: Gi1/0/5 captures only TX traffic and Gi1/0/6 captures only RX traffic, so they do not capture all traffic in both directions; bidirectional capture would require both ports to be configured with 'both' or a single port with 'both'.

428
MCQeasy

A network engineer is using Cisco DNA Center to monitor network health. The Assurance dashboard shows that a particular access switch has a high CPU utilization issue. The engineer wants to investigate the root cause using DNA Center's built-in tools. Which feature should the engineer use to analyze the switch's CPU utilization over time?

A.Use the 'Trends' feature in Assurance to view CPU utilization over time.
B.Use the 'Command Runner' to execute 'show process cpu' on the switch.
C.Use the 'Path Trace' tool to analyze traffic paths.
D.Use the 'Software Image Management' to check for software bugs.
AnswerA

Correct because Trends provides historical data for performance metrics, including CPU utilization.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center's Assurance module provides historical and real-time data for network devices. The 'Trends' feature allows engineers to view metrics like CPU utilization over a selected time period, helping to identify patterns and root causes.

429
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about PIM sparse mode are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.PIM sparse mode uses an explicit join model to receive multicast traffic.
B.PIM sparse mode routers always use the shortest path tree (SPT) immediately after the first packet is received.
C.PIM sparse mode builds a shared tree rooted at the rendezvous point (RP).
D.PIM sparse mode uses a flood-and-prune mechanism to distribute multicast traffic.
E.PIM sparse mode requires the use of a bootstrap router (BSR) to operate.
AnswersA, C

Correct because in PIM sparse mode, receivers must explicitly join via PIM Join messages toward the RP.

Why this answer

PIM sparse mode uses an explicit join model where routers send PIM Join messages toward the RP to join a multicast group. It builds a shared tree (RP-tree) initially, and optionally switches to a source tree (SPT) when traffic exceeds a threshold. PIM dense mode uses flood-and-prune, not sparse mode.

PIM-BSR is one method for RP distribution, but not a requirement for sparse mode operation.

430
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each AAA function on the left to its correct description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Verifies the identity of a user or device; Typically uses credentials such as username/password or certificates

Determines what resources or commands a user can access; Can be based on privilege levels or attribute-value pairs

Records user activity for auditing or billing purposes

Why these pairings

Authentication verifies identity, authorization determines allowed actions, and accounting tracks usage for auditing or billing.

431
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of TrustSec SGT assignment and propagation via SXP into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

SXP propagates SGTs from a classification device to enforcement devices; first the SGT is assigned (e.g., via IP-to-SGT mapping), then SXP sends the binding to an SXP speaker, which forwards it to a listener, who adds it to the local SGT mapping table, enabling enforcement.

432
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each gRPC method on the left to its matching subscription type on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Subscribe to telemetry data streams

Query server capabilities

Retrieve a single snapshot of data

Modify configuration data

Subscribe for a single update then close

Why these pairings

Subscribe is for streaming telemetry, Capabilities for discovery, Get for one-time retrieval, Set for configuration changes, and SubscribeOnce for one-shot subscription.

433
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SD-Access fabric role on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Connects the SD-Access fabric to external Layer 2 or Layer 3 networks

Attaches wired endpoints to the fabric and enforces access policies

Hosts the LISP map-server and map-resolver functions

Manages wireless endpoints and integrates with the fabric edge

Provides wireless connectivity and tunnels client traffic to the fabric edge

Why these pairings

The fabric border node connects the fabric to external networks, the fabric edge node connects endpoints to the fabric, and the fabric control node manages LISP mapping and VXLAN tunnels.

434
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW5: SW5# show monitor session 5 Session 5 --------- Type : Remote Source Session Source Ports : Both : Gi1/0/1-3 Destination Ports : Gi1/0/24 Encapsulation : Replicate Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.Traffic from ports Gi1/0/1-3 is mirrored and sent to a remote VLAN via Gi1/0/24.
B.This is a local SPAN session that sends traffic to Gi1/0/24.
C.The destination port Gi1/0/24 is used to receive mirrored traffic from another switch.
D.Only egress traffic from Gi1/0/1-3 is captured.
AnswerA

The type 'Remote Source Session' and Replicate encapsulation indicate RSPAN source.

Why this answer

The output shows a Remote Source SPAN (RSPAN) session. The 'Type: Remote Source Session' indicates that traffic from source ports Gi1/0/1-3 is mirrored and sent to a remote VLAN (the RSPAN VLAN) via the destination port Gi1/0/24, which acts as a reflector port. The 'Encapsulation: Replicate' means the destination port replicates the original frames without adding an extra VLAN tag, forwarding them onto the RSPAN VLAN for transport to a remote switch.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between local SPAN and RSPAN by using the 'Type' field in the 'show monitor session' output, and the trap here is that candidates mistake a remote source session for a local SPAN because they focus on the destination port being local, ignoring the 'Remote Source' type indicator.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the session type is 'Remote Source Session', not a local SPAN, which would be indicated by 'Local SPAN' or simply 'Source Session' without the 'Remote' keyword. Option C is wrong because the destination port Gi1/0/24 is used to send mirrored traffic out to the RSPAN VLAN, not to receive mirrored traffic from another switch; a destination port in RSPAN is an egress port. Option D is wrong because the 'Both' keyword under source ports indicates that both ingress and egress traffic from Gi1/0/1-3 are captured, not only egress traffic.

435
MCQmedium

Consider the following telemetry configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE device: telemetry ietf subscription 600 encoding encode-kvgpb filter xpath /interfaces/interface/state stream yang-push update-policy on-change receiver ip address 10.1.1.1 50000 protocol grpc What is a potential issue with this configuration?

A.The on-change policy will not work without a periodic fallback.
B.The filter XPath is too broad and may cause excessive CPU usage on frequent changes.
C.The receiver IP address must be on the same subnet as the device.
D.The encoding should be encode-xml for on-change subscriptions.
AnswerB

A broad filter like /interfaces/interface/state can cause high CPU if many interfaces change state often.

Why this answer

On-change subscriptions can generate high CPU load if the monitored data changes frequently, which may impact device performance.

436
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about virtual networking and hypervisor switches are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A standard virtual switch (vSwitch) operates at Layer 2 and can forward frames between virtual machines on the same host.
B.A distributed virtual switch (DVS) provides consistent network configuration across multiple ESXi hosts in a cluster.
C.Virtual switches support VLAN tagging using IEEE 802.1Q trunking between the hypervisor and physical switches.
D.Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) must always be enabled on virtual switches to prevent loops in the virtual network.
E.A virtual switch can only be configured with a single port group for all virtual machines.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because a vSwitch is a Layer 2 switch that connects VMs within a host.

Why this answer

Virtual switches (vSwitch) forward frames between VMs and physical NICs. They support VLANs and port groups. A distributed switch spans multiple hosts.

Virtual switches do not require STP because loops are prevented by design.

437
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about the MQC (Modular QoS CLI) classification process are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A class map can contain multiple match statements that are evaluated using a logical OR when the match-any keyword is configured.
B.In a policy map, class maps are evaluated in the order they are configured, and the first matching class map is applied to the packet.
C.The class-default class is used only when no other class map is defined in the policy map.
D.Match statements in a class map can reference ACLs, NBAR protocols, or CoS values, but not DSCP values.
E.A class map configured with match-all requires that all match statements be true for the packet to belong to that class.
AnswersA, E

Correct. When match-any is used, multiple match statements are evaluated with a logical OR; any single match qualifies the packet.

Why this answer

The MQC classification process relies on class maps to define match criteria. A class map with match-any uses logical OR between match statements (A is correct). A class map with match-all requires all match statements to be true (E is correct).

Option B is a true statement about MQC, but it describes the policy map evaluation process (which applies actions after classification) rather than the classification process itself. Option C is false because class-default is always present and can be used even when other class maps exist. Option D is false because match statements can reference DSCP values.

438
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MPLS Traffic Engineering (TE) tunnel setup (RSVP) into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

MPLS TE tunnel setup using RSVP begins with IGP extension (OSPF/IS-IS) to flood TE link attributes, then CSPF computes the path, RSVP Path message is sent, RSVP Resv message reserves resources, and finally the tunnel is signaled and installed in the forwarding table.

439
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Embedded Packet Capture (EPC) on IOS-XE steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

EPC requires defining a capture buffer, defining a capture point, associating them, starting the capture, and then stopping/exporting.

440
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about MPLS label operations are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The ingress LSR imposes a label onto the packet.
B.The egress LSR removes the label before forwarding the IP packet.
C.The egress LSR pushes a new label onto the packet.
D.Each LSR in the LSP performs label imposition.
E.Transit LSRs perform label imposition.
AnswersA, B

Correct because the ingress LSR pushes the initial label onto the packet.

Why this answer

In MPLS, the ingress LSR imposes (pushes) a label onto the packet. At each intermediate LSR, the label is swapped (the incoming label is replaced with an outgoing label). The egress LSR removes (pops) the label before forwarding the IP packet.

Penultimate Hop Popping (PHP) is a feature where the penultimate router pops the label, so the egress router receives only an IP packet. Option C is incorrect because the egress LSR always pops the label, not pushes. Option D is incorrect because label imposition occurs only at the ingress, not at every LSR.

Option E is incorrect because label swapping is the action at transit LSRs, not label imposition.

441
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MSTP region and instance configuration steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

MSTP configuration begins with entering MST configuration mode, assigning a region name and revision number, mapping VLANs to instances, and then activating the configuration. Finally, the MST instance priority is set to influence root bridge selection.

442
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DNA Center SWIM (Software Image Management) upgrade flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

SWIM upgrade begins with importing the image, then distributing it to the device, performing a pre-check, activating the image, and finally committing the upgrade.

443
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Jinja2 template rendering for device config generation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The process begins by loading the Jinja2 environment and template file, then defining a dictionary with configuration variables. Next, the template is rendered with those variables, the resulting configuration string is printed or saved, and finally it can be pushed to the device.

444
MCQeasy

An Ansible playbook uses the cisco.ios.ios_telemetry module to configure a telemetry subscription: ```yaml --- - name: Configure telemetry subscription hosts: ios_xe gather_facts: no tasks: - name: Create telemetry subscription cisco.ios.ios_telemetry: state: present subscription_id: 300 receiver: ip: 10.1.1.100 port: 50051 protocol: grpc-tcp source_ip: 10.1.1.1 encoding: kvgpb filter: xpath: /interfaces/interface/state/counters update_policy: period: 10000 ``` What is the purpose of the 'state: present' parameter?

A.It ensures the subscription is present in the running configuration.
B.It checks if the subscription is currently active.
C.It removes the subscription if it exists.
D.It displays the current subscription configuration.
AnswerA

state: present creates or updates the subscription to match the desired state.

Why this answer

The 'state: present' parameter ensures that the telemetry subscription is created if it does not exist, or updated if it does. It is a common Ansible module parameter that idempotently manages configuration.

445
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of deploying a virtual machine from a template in VMware vSphere into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Deploying from a template begins with selecting the template and specifying a name and location. Next, the compute resource (host or cluster) is chosen, followed by storage. Customization specifications (like hostname and IP) are applied, and finally the VM is powered on.

446
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Cisco QoS queuing and scheduling are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Strict priority queuing ensures that voice traffic is always sent before other traffic.
B.Weighted Round Robin (WRR) is used to service non-priority queues in a round-robin fashion based on configured weights.
C.On Cisco Catalyst switches, the default queue (queue 1) is typically used for best-effort traffic.
D.Tail drop is a scheduling algorithm that determines which queue to service next.
E.Queuing and scheduling are performed on the ingress interface before routing decisions.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because strict priority queue guarantees low latency for delay-sensitive traffic like voice.

Why this answer

Queuing manages packets when output is congested, and scheduling determines the order of transmission. Cisco uses multiple queues (e.g., 4 queues on Catalyst switches) with strict priority or weighted round-robin (WRR). Option A is correct because strict priority queue (PQ) ensures low-latency for voice.

Option B is correct because WRR (or shaped round robin) is used for non-priority queues. Option C is correct because the default queue is usually queue 1 (or the best-effort queue). Option D is incorrect because tail drop is a congestion avoidance mechanism applied to a queue, not a scheduling method.

Option E is incorrect because scheduling occurs on the egress interface, not ingress.

447
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of PHP (Penultimate Hop Popping) operation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

PHP operation begins with the egress LSR assigning a label to a FEC and advertising it. The penultimate hop receives this label and recognizes implicit-null. The penultimate hop then pops the label before forwarding the packet.

The egress receives an unlabeled packet and performs a standard IP lookup.

448
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of OSPF summarization at ABR configuration steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, identify the subnets to summarize into a single prefix. Then, configure the area range command on the ABR under the OSPF process, specifying the area and the summary prefix. Optionally, set the 'not-advertise' keyword to suppress the summary.

Verify the summary route in the OSPF database using 'show ip ospf summary-address'. Finally, check that the summary route appears in the routing table of other routers.

449
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each TACACS+ packet type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Initiates an authentication session and contains the username

Sends a challenge (e.g., password prompt) or authentication result

Carries the user's response to a challenge

Indicates successful authentication and may include authorization attributes

Indicates authentication failure

Why these pairings

START begins authentication and contains username; REPLY sends challenge or result; CONTINUE sends response to challenge; ACCEPT indicates successful authentication; REJECT indicates authentication failure.

450
MCQmedium

Given the following Ansible playbook snippet: --- - name: Configure SNMP hosts: routers gather_facts: no tasks: - name: SNMP community ios_config: lines: - snmp-server community public RO What is the result of this playbook?

A.It configures an SNMP community string 'public' with read-only access.
B.It fails because 'RO' is not a valid keyword; it should be 'read-only'.
C.It configures the community string only for SNMPv3.
D.It removes any existing SNMP community strings.
AnswerA

Correct. The command is applied globally and sets the community string.

Why this answer

The playbook uses ios_config to add a line globally. The command 'snmp-server community public RO' configures an SNMP community string 'public' with read-only access. This is a valid global configuration command.

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