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Process — Managing Technical AspectseasyMultiple ChoiceObjective-mapped

PMP Process — Managing Technical Aspects Practice Question

During a daily standup, a developer mentions that they are blocked due to a missing API from a third-party vendor. The vendor had promised delivery two days ago. What should the project manager do FIRST?

Answer choices

Why each option matters

Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.

Correct answer & explanation

Check the risk register for any identified risk response related to vendor delays.

The PM should first check the risk register to see if this vendor delay was identified as a risk, and review the planned response. This is a proactive step before taking further action.

Answer analysis

Option-by-option breakdown

For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.

  • Check the risk register for any identified risk response related to vendor delays.

    Why this is correct

    As per the Project Risk Management process, the first step when a known risk event occurs is to consult the risk register. This document details identified risks, their potential impacts, and pre-defined response strategies, such as contingency plans or workarounds. Implementing a pre-planned response ensures a structured and efficient approach, minimizing reactive decision-making and adhering to established project governance. This is the most appropriate initial action for a PMP.

  • Contact the vendor to understand the delay and expedite delivery.

    Why it's wrong here

    While contacting the vendor is a necessary subsequent step to gather information and potentially mitigate the delay, it should not be the immediate first action. A PMP's priority is to leverage established project processes and documentation, specifically the risk register, before initiating external communication or ad-hoc problem-solving. Bypassing the risk management plan could lead to redundant efforts or overlooking a more effective, pre-approved strategy.

  • Escalate the issue to senior management immediately.

    Why it's wrong here

    Escalating the issue to senior management immediately is premature and bypasses the project manager's responsibility to manage identified risks. A PMP is expected to first assess the situation against the project's risk management plan and attempt to implement a pre-defined response. Escalation is typically reserved for risks that exceed the project manager's authority or resources, or after planned responses have proven ineffective, not as an initial reaction.

  • Ask the developer to work on other tasks until the API is available.

    Why it's wrong here

    Suggesting the developer work on other tasks is a temporary workaround that addresses resource utilization but fails to address the underlying risk of the vendor delay. This approach does not follow the established risk management process, which prioritizes implementing a planned response to mitigate the risk itself. Relying solely on workarounds can lead to schedule impacts, increased costs, and does not resolve the core issue, potentially causing future recurrences.

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JA

Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security

Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva

This PMP practice question is part of Courseiva's free PMI certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PMP exam.