CCNA Itil4 Management Practices Questions

75 of 420 questions · Page 3/6 · Itil4 Management Practices topic · Answers revealed

151
MCQhard

What is the difference between utility and warranty in ITIL 4?

A.Utility is about availability; warranty is about functionality
B.Utility is about cost; warranty is about value
C.Utility is about outputs; warranty is about outcomes
D.Utility is about functionality; warranty is about assurance
AnswerD

This is correct.

Why this answer

Utility is 'fit for purpose' (does the service meet the required function?), while warranty is 'fit for use' (is the service available, secure, and reliable?).

152
MCQeasy

Which practice involves the use of a service catalogue for predefined offerings?

A.Service Request Management
B.Change Enablement
C.Problem Management
D.Incident Management
AnswerA

Correct; service requests are pre-defined and often in the service catalogue.

Why this answer

Service Request Management uses the service catalogue to offer standardized, pre-approved requests.

153
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a key metric for measuring the performance of the Service Desk?

A.Number of changes implemented
B.First Call Resolution (FCR)
C.Mean Time to Restore Service (MTTR)
D.Percentage of projects on time
AnswerB

FCR measures how often issues are resolved on the first call, a key Service Desk metric.

Why this answer

First Call Resolution (FCR) is a key metric for the Service Desk because it directly measures the percentage of incidents resolved during the first contact with the user, without the need for escalation or a callback. A high FCR indicates an efficient and knowledgeable Service Desk, reducing user downtime and operational costs. This metric is central to ITIL's focus on delivering value and minimizing disruption to business activities.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse FCR with MTTR, assuming both measure speed of resolution, but MTTR applies to the entire incident lifecycle and technical restoration, while FCR specifically measures the Service Desk's ability to resolve at first touch without escalation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the number of changes implemented is a metric for Change Enablement, not the Service Desk, which focuses on incident and request management. Option C is wrong because Mean Time to Restore Service (MTTR) is a metric for Incident Management and technical resolution teams, measuring the time to fix a service after a failure, not the Service Desk's first-contact performance. Option D is wrong because the percentage of projects on time is a metric for Project Management or Portfolio Management, not the operational, reactive nature of the Service Desk.

154
MCQeasy

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the Service Desk practice?

A.To manage the lifecycle of all incidents
B.To monitor and manage IT services proactively
C.To analyze root causes of incidents
D.To provide a single point of contact for users
AnswerD

Correct definition of Service Desk.

Why this answer

The Service Desk provides a single point of contact for users to report issues, ask questions, and request services.

155
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements correctly describe the difference between Incident Management and Problem Management?

Select 2 answers
A.Problem Management includes the use of workarounds from known errors.
B.Problem Management is part of the Service Desk.
C.Incident Management is reactive; Problem Management is always proactive.
D.Incident Management aims to restore service quickly; Problem Management aims to find the root cause.
E.Incident Management is only for major incidents.
AnswersA, D

Problem Management manages known errors and workarounds.

Why this answer

Incident Management focuses on restoring service; Problem Management focuses on finding root causes. Problem Management may use workarounds from known errors.

156
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A change order to patch a security vulnerability on WebServer01 has been approved. The IT manager is the change authority. During implementation, it is discovered that the patch requires a reboot, which will cause an outage for the OrderApp application. What is the MOST appropriate action?

A.Inform the IT manager and ask for a decision on whether to proceed.
B.Escalate to the change advisory board (CAB) for a new approval.
C.Proceed with the change as planned, since the change is already approved.
D.Cancel the change and request a new one with updated information.
AnswerA

The IT manager is the change authority and can reassess based on new information.

Why this answer

The change order was approved based on the original scope, which did not include a reboot. The discovery that a reboot is required introduces a new risk (application outage) that was not assessed during the initial approval. The IT manager, as the change authority, must be informed and make a decision on whether to proceed with the change under the new circumstances, in line with the ITIL 4 'change enablement' practice of managing risk and ensuring authorized decisions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a change approval is final and irrevocable, but ITIL 4 requires that any new risk discovered during implementation must be communicated to the change authority for a fresh decision, not blindly executed or automatically escalated to a CAB.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the change advisory board (CAB) is typically used for higher-risk or standard changes, not for an operational decision on an already-approved change where the change authority (IT manager) is already identified and available. Option C is wrong because proceeding without informing the change authority of the newly discovered outage risk violates the principle of risk-based decision-making and could lead to unauthorized service disruption. Option D is wrong because canceling the change outright is premature; the change authority should first be consulted to decide if the change can proceed with the new risk or if it should be re-planned.

157
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are key activities of Service Configuration Management?

Select 3 answers
A.Identifying and documenting configuration items (CIs)
B.Authorizing and scheduling changes to CIs
C.Maintaining the configuration management database (CMDB)
D.Verifying and auditing configuration records against actual state
E.Defining service level targets with customers
AnswersA, C, D

Identifying and documenting CIs is a core activity of Service Configuration Management.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because identifying and documenting configuration items (CIs) is a foundational activity of Service Configuration Management. It ensures that all components of the IT infrastructure, including hardware, software, and documentation, are uniquely identified and recorded in the configuration management database (CMDB) to support control and traceability.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the activities of Service Configuration Management with those of Change Management or Service Level Management, as ITIL 4F often tests the precise boundaries between practices by listing overlapping but distinct responsibilities.

158
MCQeasy

Which practice involves the Single Point of Contact (SPOC) for users?

A.Problem Management
B.Service Desk
C.Incident Management
D.Service Level Management
AnswerB

The Service Desk is the SPOC.

Why this answer

The Service Desk practice is explicitly defined in ITIL 4 as the single point of contact (SPOC) between the service provider and all users. Its primary purpose is to capture, manage, and resolve service requests and incidents, ensuring users have a consistent entry point for all interactions with IT services.

Exam trap

PeopleCert often tests the distinction between a practice (Incident Management) and the function that implements the SPOC (Service Desk), causing candidates to confuse the process with the operational point of contact.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Problem Management focuses on identifying the root cause of incidents and preventing recurrence, not on providing a single point of contact for users. Option C is wrong because Incident Management is the process of restoring normal service operation after an incident, but it does not itself act as the SPOC; the Service Desk is the function that handles the initial contact and triage. Option D is wrong because Service Level Management is responsible for negotiating, agreeing, and monitoring service level agreements (SLAs), not for providing a direct user-facing contact point.

159
MCQhard

An IT manager wants to improve first-level resolution rates by empowering the service desk to resolve more incidents without escalation. Which ITIL 4 concept is being applied?

A.Continual Improvement
B.Shift-left
C.Service Desk
D.Omnichannel
AnswerB

Shift-left moves resolution to earlier support levels.

Why this answer

The scenario describes moving incident resolution tasks from higher-level support tiers to the service desk, which is the essence of 'shift-left' in ITIL 4. By empowering the service desk with better tools, knowledge, and authority, incidents are resolved earlier in the support chain, improving first-level resolution rates and reducing escalation costs. This directly applies the shift-left principle, not just a general improvement or channel strategy.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'shift-left' with 'Continual Improvement' because both involve making processes better, but shift-left is specifically about moving work earlier in the support lifecycle, not just any improvement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Continual Improvement is a broader, ongoing cycle of evaluating and enhancing all IT services and practices, not a specific technique to empower the service desk for first-level resolution. Option C is wrong because Service Desk is a functional team or tool, not a concept or practice; the question asks which ITIL 4 concept is being applied, not which team is involved. Option D is wrong because Omnichannel refers to integrating multiple communication channels (e.g., chat, email, phone) for a seamless customer experience, not to shifting resolution responsibilities to lower tiers.

160
MCQeasy

What is the difference between utility and warranty in ITIL 4?

A.Utility is about cost; warranty is about quality
B.Utility is for customers; warranty is for users
C.Utility is about functionality; warranty is about performance and availability
D.Utility is provided by the service provider; warranty is provided by the customer
AnswerC

Utility ensures the service meets functional requirements; warranty ensures it is available and reliable.

Why this answer

Utility is 'fit for purpose' (does it do what it should?), while warranty is 'fit for use' (is it available, secure, etc.?).

161
MCQmedium

A service desk analyst resolves a user's issue by following a script. Which metric is most appropriate to measure the analyst's performance?

A.Customer Satisfaction (CSAT)
B.Mean Time to Resolve (MTTR)
C.Number of incidents logged
D.First Call Resolution (FCR)
AnswerD

FCR measures incidents resolved on the first call, reflecting efficiency.

Why this answer

First Call Resolution (FCR) is the most appropriate metric because it directly measures whether the analyst resolved the issue during the initial contact without escalation or follow-up. Following a script to resolve a user's issue on the first call demonstrates effective adherence to standardized procedures and minimizes customer effort, which is the core purpose of FCR in ITIL 4.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse FCR with MTTR, thinking that resolving quickly is the same as resolving on the first call, but MTTR can be low even if the issue requires multiple contacts, whereas FCR specifically measures one-and-done resolution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Customer Satisfaction (CSAT) measures overall user happiness with the service experience, not the specific performance of resolving an issue by following a script; a user could be satisfied even if the issue was not resolved on the first call. Option B is wrong because Mean Time to Resolve (MTTR) measures the average time from incident logging to resolution, which can be influenced by factors like queue time and complexity, not the efficiency of following a script on the first contact. Option C is wrong because the number of incidents logged is a volume metric that reflects workload, not the quality or effectiveness of the analyst's resolution performance when using a script.

162
MCQmedium

Which change type is pre-authorized and follows a defined procedure?

A.Emergency change
B.Service change
C.Normal change
D.Standard change
AnswerD

Standard changes are pre-authorized and low-risk.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-authorized and follow a defined, low-risk procedure, such as applying a routine security patch or provisioning a new user account. They do not require additional approval because the risk is well-understood and the implementation steps are documented in a standard operating procedure (SOP). This aligns with ITIL 4's definition of a standard change as a change that is fully documented, low risk, and can be implemented without a formal change advisory board (CAB) meeting.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'pre-authorized' with 'no change record needed'—standard changes still require a change record for tracking, but they skip the approval step because the procedure is already approved.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an emergency change is not pre-authorized; it requires urgent approval (often via an emergency CAB) and follows a separate, accelerated procedure to address high-impact incidents. Option B is wrong because 'service change' is a generic term in ITIL 4 for any change affecting a service, not a specific change type with pre-authorization and a defined procedure. Option C is wrong because a normal change requires formal assessment and approval by the change authority (e.g., CAB) before implementation; it is not pre-authorized.

163
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are purposes of the Supplier Management practice?

Select 2 answers
A.Ensure that suppliers and their services are managed appropriately
B.Manage the performance of suppliers to meet business outcomes
C.Define and agree on service level targets with suppliers
D.Ensure that suppliers are audited regularly
E.Ensure that suppliers support the service strategy and service design
AnswersA, E

This is a core purpose of Supplier Management.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the Supplier Management practice's primary purpose is to ensure that suppliers and the services they provide are managed appropriately to meet business needs. This includes overseeing supplier performance, contracts, and relationships to align with organizational objectives. The practice focuses on the overall governance and control of supplier engagements, not just specific activities like auditing or target setting.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the specific activities of Supplier Management (like performance management or auditing) with its broader purpose, which is to ensure suppliers and their services are managed appropriately and support the service strategy and service design.

164
MCQmedium

Which practice ensures that the performance of a service is measured and analyzed to meet current and future demand?

A.IT Asset Management
B.Availability Management
C.Capacity and Performance Management
D.Service Configuration Management
AnswerC

This practice ensures services meet demand and performance targets.

Why this answer

Capacity and Performance Management ensures services meet demand. Option B is correct. Option A is about availability; Option C is about configuration; Option D is about assets.

165
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key components of the Service Desk practice?

Select 2 answers
A.Root cause analysis
B.Configuration baseline
C.Shift-left
D.Single point of contact (SPOC)
E.Omnichannel communication
AnswersD, E

Correct: The service desk is the SPOC for users.

Why this answer

The Service Desk practice is defined in ITIL 4 as the single point of contact (SPOC) between the service provider and users for all operational interactions. This ensures that users have a clear, consistent entry point for reporting incidents, submitting service requests, and seeking guidance. Omnichannel communication is also a key component because modern service desks must support multiple channels (phone, email, chat, portal) while maintaining a unified interaction history and consistent service quality.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the Service Desk practice with other practices like Problem Management or Service Configuration Management, leading them to select root cause analysis or configuration baseline as key components, when in fact the service desk is about operational contact and communication, not analysis or configuration control.

166
MCQmedium

What is the PRIMARY difference between a problem and an incident?

A.Incidents are unplanned interruptions; problems are the cause of incidents
B.Incidents are always resolved within 24 hours; problems may take longer
C.Problems are logged by users; incidents are logged by the service desk
D.Incidents require a change request; problems do not
AnswerA

This is the core distinction.

Why this answer

Incidents are disruptions; problems are the underlying causes of one or more incidents.

167
MCQeasy

An organization wants to improve its ability to detect and respond to security incidents. Which practice should be enhanced to achieve this objective?

A.Problem Management
B.Availability Management
C.Incident Management
D.Information Security Management
AnswerD

Information Security Management is responsible for protecting information and responding to security incidents.

Why this answer

Enhancing Information Security Management (ISM) directly improves an organization's ability to detect and respond to security incidents because ISM defines the policies, controls, and monitoring mechanisms (e.g., SIEM rules, intrusion detection signatures, and incident response playbooks) that enable proactive threat detection and structured response. While Incident Management handles the lifecycle of an incident once detected, ISM is the practice that establishes the security posture and detection capabilities in the first place.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Incident Management (the process for handling incidents) with Information Security Management (the practice that establishes detection and prevention controls), leading them to select Incident Management because it seems directly related to 'responding' to incidents, but the question specifically asks about improving the ability to 'detect and respond', which requires the security controls defined by ISM.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Problem Management focuses on identifying and eliminating the root causes of incidents to prevent recurrence, not on detecting or responding to security incidents in real time. Option B is wrong because Availability Management ensures that IT services meet agreed availability targets (e.g., uptime percentages) and does not directly address security detection or response mechanisms. Option C is wrong because Incident Management is the process for managing the lifecycle of all incidents, including security incidents, but it does not itself enhance detection capabilities; detection is a prerequisite that ISM provides through security controls and monitoring.

168
MCQmedium

Which type of change requires assessment and authorization by a change authority, but does not follow a pre-approved procedure?

A.Emergency change
B.Normal change
C.Service request
D.Standard change
AnswerB

Correct. Normal changes need authorization but are not pre-approved.

Why this answer

Normal changes require assessment and authorization but are not pre-approved like standard changes.

169
MCQhard

An IT team discovers that a recurring incident is caused by a known software bug. According to ITIL 4, what should be created to document this situation?

A.A known error record
B.A problem record
C.A change request
D.An incident record
AnswerA

Correct: known error documents the bug and workaround.

Why this answer

A known error is documented when the root cause is identified and a workaround exists; it is part of Problem Management's error control phase.

170
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are purposes or outputs of the Continual Improvement practice?

Select 3 answers
A.Maintaining an improvement register
B.Ensuring services are aligned with evolving business needs
C.Following the ITIL continual improvement model
D.Resolving incidents within agreed times
E.Assessing and authorizing changes
AnswersA, B, C

Correct: The improvement register is a key output.

Why this answer

Continual improvement uses the improvement register, follows the 7-step model, and aims to align services with business needs.

171
MCQmedium

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. What should they do FIRST according to ITIL 4?

A.Submit a change request to modify the CRM system
B.Create a service request for the IT team to investigate
C.Log an incident and attempt to restore service using a known workaround
D.Initiate a problem investigation to find the root cause
AnswerC

Incident management prioritizes restoring service quickly.

Why this answer

According to ITIL 4, when users cannot access a service like a CRM system, the first action is to log an incident and attempt to restore service as quickly as possible, typically using a known workaround. This aligns with the incident management practice, which prioritizes minimizing business impact over immediate root cause analysis. Option C correctly follows this by logging the incident and applying a workaround to restore access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse incident management with problem management, selecting option D because they think finding the root cause is the priority, but ITIL 4 emphasizes restoring service first before investigating causes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because submitting a change request is premature and not the first step; changes are only considered after an incident or problem has been analyzed, and modifying the CRM system without understanding the issue could introduce further risk. Option B is wrong because a service request is for standard, pre-approved user requests (e.g., password reset), not for investigating an unplanned service disruption like a CRM outage; that requires an incident to be logged. Option D is wrong because initiating a problem investigation to find the root cause is a separate practice (problem management) that occurs after the incident has been logged and service restored, not as the first action.

172
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are components of the ITIL 4 Continual Improvement Model?

Select 2 answers
A.Define improvement objectives
B.Where are we now?
C.How do we keep momentum?
D.Plan the improvement
E.How do we get there?
AnswersB, E

Correct: second step of the model.

Why this answer

The ITIL continual improvement model includes 7 steps: What is the vision?, Where are we now?, Where do we want to be?, How do we get there?, Take action, Did we get there?, How do we keep the momentum going? Options A and D are steps in the model. Option B is a step but not from the model (it's from plan-do-check-act). Option C is not a step.

Option E is a step but not worded exactly; the correct step is 'How do we keep the momentum going?'.

173
MCQhard

Which practice in ITIL 4 includes the activities of problem identification, problem control, and error control?

A.Incident Management
B.Change Enablement
C.Service Level Management
D.Problem Management
AnswerD

Problem Management includes problem identification, problem control, and error control.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because Problem Management is the ITIL 4 practice specifically designed to manage the lifecycle of all problems. Its core activities are problem identification (detecting and logging problems), problem control (analyzing and documenting workarounds and root causes), and error control (managing known errors through the lifecycle until a permanent resolution is implemented).

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Incident Management's focus on restoring service quickly with Problem Management's focus on finding and fixing root causes, especially since both practices handle service disruptions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Incident Management focuses on restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident, not on identifying root causes or controlling known errors. Option B is wrong because Change Enablement manages the lifecycle of changes to IT services, ensuring standardized methods and procedures for efficient handling of changes, not problem analysis. Option C is wrong because Service Level Management negotiates, agrees, and monitors service level agreements (SLAs) and does not involve problem identification or error control activities.

174
MCQeasy

What is the ITIL 4 term for a measurement used to track the performance of a service desk?

A.Critical Success Factor (CSF)
B.Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C.Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
D.Key Performance Indicator (KPI)
AnswerD

KPIs are used to measure performance.

Why this answer

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to evaluate the success of an activity. First Call Resolution (FCR) and Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT) are examples of KPIs, not metrics themselves.

175
MCQhard

An organization is implementing a new monitoring tool. Which type of event should trigger an immediate response from the IT team?

A.Scheduled event
B.Exception event
C.Warning event
D.Informational event
AnswerB

Exception events indicate a significant deviation, such as a service outage, requiring immediate response.

Why this answer

Exception events indicate a failure or breach of threshold and require immediate action.

176
MCQeasy

What is the main difference between a standard change and a normal change?

A.A standard change cannot be scheduled, while a normal change can be scheduled
B.A standard change is only used for emergency fixes, while a normal change is for planned improvements
C.A standard change is pre-approved and follows a defined procedure, while a normal change requires approval from a change authority
D.A standard change has no defined procedure, while a normal change has a defined procedure
AnswerC

Standard changes are pre-authorized; normal changes require authorization.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-approved and low risk, while normal changes require authorization through a change advisory board (CAB). Option A captures this distinction. Option B is incorrect because both can have defined procedures; Option C is incorrect because both may be scheduled; Option D is incorrect because both may affect services.

177
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are key activities of Monitoring and Event Management?

Select 3 answers
A.Negotiate SLAs
B.Detect events
C.Perform root cause analysis
D.Respond to events
E.Classify events as informational, warning, or exception
AnswersB, D, E

Detection is a key activity.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because detecting events is a core activity of Monitoring and Event Management, which involves identifying occurrences that are significant for the management of the IT infrastructure and services. This includes monitoring configuration items (CIs) and service components to generate events based on predefined thresholds or conditions.

Exam trap

PeopleCert often tests the distinction between Monitoring and Event Management (detection and response) and Problem Management (root cause analysis), leading candidates to incorrectly select root cause analysis as a monitoring activity.

178
MCQeasy

Which ITIL practice is responsible for negotiating and agreeing on service level targets?

A.Supplier Management
B.Capacity and Performance Management
C.Availability Management
D.Service Level Management
AnswerD

Service level management negotiates and monitors SLAs.

Why this answer

Service Level Management is responsible for negotiating, agreeing, and monitoring SLAs. Option C is correct. Option A is wrong because supplier management deals with suppliers.

Option B is wrong because capacity management deals with capacity. Option D is wrong because availability management deals with availability.

179
MCQhard

What is the key difference between Deployment Management and Release Management in ITIL 4?

A.Deployment Management is part of Release Management
B.Release Management ensures the service is available for use; Deployment Management moves components into the live environment
C.Release Management is only for major releases; Deployment Management is for all releases
D.Deployment Management focuses on moving to production; Release Management focuses on building the release
AnswerB

This correctly distinguishes the two practices.

Why this answer

Release Management is responsible for making new or changed services available for use. Deployment Management is responsible for moving components into the live environment. Option B captures the essence.

Option A is incorrect because both can move components. Option C is incorrect because releases are not always deployments. Option D is incorrect because both can be automated.

180
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are types of events in Monitoring and Event Management?

Select 2 answers
A.Critical
B.Informational
C.Standard
D.Emergency
E.Warning
AnswersB, E

Why this answer

In ITIL 4, Monitoring and Event Management defines three event types: Informational, Warning, and Exception. Informational events (option B) are routine notifications that indicate normal operations, such as a successful backup completion or a device powering on. They require no action but are logged for audit or trend analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse ITIL event types with incident priority levels (Critical, Emergency) or change categories (Standard), leading them to select options that are valid in other ITIL practices but not in Monitoring and Event Management.

181
MCQmedium

A major outage has occurred, and the IT team needs to implement a fix immediately without following the normal change authorization process. According to ITIL 4, what type of change should be raised?

A.Normal change
B.Emergency change
C.Standard change
D.Service request
AnswerB

Emergency changes are implemented urgently to resolve major incidents, with a streamlined authorization process.

Why this answer

Emergency changes are for urgent situations that require immediate implementation to restore service. They have a separate, faster authorization process.

182
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Problem Management practice?

Select 2 answers
A.Workarounds
B.Improvement actions
C.Change requests
D.Known errors
E.Incident resolutions
AnswersA, D

Workarounds are documented as part of problem management.

Why this answer

Problem management produces known errors and workarounds (Phase 3: error control) and problem records. Option B (known errors) and Option C (workarounds) are correct. Option A is an incident output.

Option D is a change output. Option E is part of continual improvement.

183
MCQeasy

Which practice is responsible for managing the lifecycle of hardware and software assets?

A.Service Configuration Management
B.Supplier Management
C.IT Asset Management
D.Capacity and Performance Management
AnswerC

IT Asset Management manages the lifecycle of assets from procurement to disposal.

Why this answer

IT Asset Management manages the lifecycle of IT assets. Option C is correct. Service Configuration Management manages configuration items and their relationships.

Capacity Management focuses on performance. Supplier Management manages vendors.

184
MCQeasy

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the Incident Management practice?

A.To fulfil service requests from users
B.To manage the lifecycle of all changes
C.To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
D.To find the root cause of incidents
AnswerC

This is the core purpose of Incident Management.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of Incident Management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimise the adverse impact on business operations.

185
MCQeasy

What is the PRIMARY role of a Service Desk in ITIL 4?

A.To manage the CMDB
B.To approve changes
C.To be the single point of contact between users and IT
D.To analyse incident trends
AnswerC

This is the primary role of the service desk.

Why this answer

The service desk serves as the single point of contact (SPOC) for users to report issues and request services.

186
MCQeasy

Which type of change is pre-approved and follows a low-risk, well-defined procedure?

A.Service request
B.Normal change
C.Standard change
D.Emergency change
AnswerC

Correct; standard changes are pre-approved and low-risk.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-approved with a defined procedure.

187
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of the Continual Improvement practice?

A.To ensure services meet agreed levels of availability
B.To align IT services with changing business needs through ongoing improvements
C.To provide a single point of contact for users
D.To manage the lifecycle of all IT assets
AnswerB

Why this answer

The Continual Improvement practice ensures that IT services remain aligned with evolving business needs by systematically identifying and implementing improvements. This is the core purpose defined in ITIL 4, focusing on ongoing enhancement of services, processes, and capabilities rather than maintaining a static state.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Continual Improvement with other practices like Availability Management or Change Enablement, because all involve making changes, but Continual Improvement is specifically about ongoing, business-driven enhancements rather than reactive fixes or asset tracking.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ensuring services meet agreed levels of availability is the purpose of the Availability Management practice, not Continual Improvement. Option C is wrong because providing a single point of contact for users is the purpose of the Service Desk function, which is part of the Service Operation lifecycle. Option D is wrong because managing the lifecycle of all IT assets is the purpose of the IT Asset Management practice, which focuses on tracking and controlling assets from acquisition to disposal.

188
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of phases in the Problem Management practice?

A.Problem Control, Error Control, Problem Identification
B.Problem Identification, Error Control, Problem Control
C.Problem Identification, Problem Control, Error Control
D.Error Control, Problem Control, Problem Identification
AnswerC

This is the correct order of phases.

Why this answer

Problem Management has three phases: Problem Identification, Problem Control (root cause analysis), and Error Control (known errors and workarounds). Option B is correct.

189
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are types of change defined in ITIL 4?

Select 2 answers
A.Service request
B.Normal change
C.Scheduled change
D.Standard change
E.Urgent change
AnswersB, D

Normal change is a type.

Why this answer

In ITIL 4, change types are categorized as standard, normal, and emergency. A normal change (B) is a change that is not standard or emergency and must follow the full change management process, including assessment, authorization, and scheduling. This is a core definition in the ITIL 4 framework.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'scheduled change' (a common operational term) with a formal ITIL 4 change type, or they misremember 'urgent change' instead of the precise ITIL term 'emergency change'.

190
MCQhard

Which of the following best distinguishes an output from an outcome in ITIL 4?

A.An output is a deliverable, while an outcome is the result for the stakeholder
B.An output is the value created, while an outcome is the metric used
C.An output is the result of an activity, while an outcome is the cost of the activity
D.An output is what the service does, while an outcome is how it is delivered
AnswerA

This is the standard ITIL 4 definition.

Why this answer

An output is a tangible deliverable, while an outcome is the result for the stakeholder. Option A is correct. Option B reverses the definitions; Option C is about utility vs warranty; Option D is incorrect.

191
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a type of change that is pre-approved and follows a defined procedure?

A.Standard change
B.Service request
C.Normal change
D.Emergency change
AnswerA

Standard changes are pre-approved and routine.

Why this answer

A standard change is pre-approved and follows a defined procedure. Normal changes require authorization from a change authority. Emergency changes are for urgent fixes and have a separate process.

Service requests are not changes.

192
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are considered events in the Monitoring and Event Management practice?

Select 3 answers
A.A user requesting a password reset
B.A user reporting an application crash
C.A server CPU utilization exceeding a threshold
D.A disk drive failure alert
E.A backup job completing successfully
AnswersC, D, E

This is an event (warning).

Why this answer

In the Monitoring and Event Management practice, an event is any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or configuration item. Option C is correct because a server CPU utilization exceeding a threshold is a predefined condition that triggers an event, often an 'alert' or 'warning' event, which is automatically detected by monitoring tools (e.g., SNMP traps, Prometheus alerts) and requires attention or automated response.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing user-initiated communications (requests, incident reports) with system-generated events, leading candidates to incorrectly select A or B because they think any 'notification' qualifies as an event.

193
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are roles involved in Change Enablement?

Select 2 answers
A.Change Authority
B.Service Desk Manager
C.Problem Manager
D.Supplier Manager
E.Change Manager
AnswersA, E

Change authorities approve changes.

Why this answer

Change Enablement involves a Change Authority (who approves changes) and a Change Manager (who oversees the process). The Service Desk Manager is not necessarily involved.

194
MCQmedium

Which practice ensures that the availability of a service meets the agreed requirements?

A.Service Level Management
B.Availability Management
C.Capacity Management
D.Continual Improvement
AnswerB

Correct. Availability Management ensures agreed availability.

Why this answer

Availability Management is responsible for ensuring services are available as agreed in SLAs.

195
MCQeasy

Which type of change is pre-approved and has a defined procedure?

A.Standard change
B.Service request
C.Normal change
D.Emergency change
AnswerA

Standard changes are pre-approved and have a defined procedure.

Why this answer

Standard changes are low-risk, pre-approved, and follow a defined procedure.

196
MCQmedium

A service desk measures the percentage of calls resolved on first contact. Which metric is this?

A.Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)
B.Mean Time to Resolve (MTTR)
C.Service Level Achievement
D.First Contact Resolution (FCR)
AnswerD

Why this answer

First Contact Resolution (FCR) is a key performance indicator for service desks, measuring how often issues are resolved during the initial contact without escalation.

197
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are key activities of the Continual Improvement practice?

Select 3 answers
A.Defining improvement initiatives based on stakeholder feedback
B.Negotiating and agreeing service level targets
C.Maintaining an improvement register
D.Applying the ITIL continual improvement model
E.Monitoring and responding to events
AnswersA, C, D

This is a key activity of Continual Improvement.

Why this answer

Continual Improvement includes defining improvement initiatives, using the improvement register, and applying the ITIL continual improvement model. Options A, B, and D are correct. Option C is part of Service Level Management; Option E is part of Monitoring and Event Management.

198
MCQmedium

A service desk team is overwhelmed by repeated incidents caused by a known software bug that the vendor has not yet patched. The IT manager wants to reduce the number of incidents without waiting for the vendor. Which ITIL practice would directly help in reducing the impact of this known issue?

A.Renegotiate service level targets with the customer in Service Level Management
B.Create a known error record in Problem Management and provide a workaround
C.Implement a faster incident resolution process in Incident Management
D.Submit a change request to Change Enablement to replace the software
AnswerB

Problem Management identifies root causes and documents workarounds to reduce the impact of known errors.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because Problem Management aims to identify the root cause of incidents and provide workarounds or permanent solutions. In this scenario, documenting a known workaround for the bug and communicating it to the service desk would reduce incident handling time and customer impact. Option A is wrong because Incident Management focuses on restoring normal service quickly, not on preventing recurring incidents.

Option C is wrong because Change Enablement is used to implement changes, not to address known errors proactively. Option D is wrong because Service Level Management deals with agreements and targets, not technical workarounds.

199
MCQhard

Which practice would be responsible for ensuring that a service's performance meets agreed targets during peak demand?

A.Service Level Management
B.Monitoring and Event Management
C.Capacity and Performance Management
D.Availability Management
AnswerC

This practice ensures that services meet demand and performance targets.

Why this answer

Capacity and Performance Management is the correct practice because it specifically focuses on ensuring that services achieve agreed and expected performance levels, including during peak demand periods. This practice involves monitoring current usage, forecasting future demand, and planning capacity to meet service level targets, making it directly responsible for performance under load.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Monitoring and Event Management (which detects performance issues) with Capacity and Performance Management (which proactively plans and adjusts resources to prevent those issues).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Service Level Management is responsible for defining, negotiating, and reporting on service level agreements (SLAs), but it does not directly manage the technical capacity or performance tuning required to meet those targets during peak demand. Option B is wrong because Monitoring and Event Management focuses on observing and detecting events, not on proactively planning or adjusting capacity to ensure performance targets are met. Option D is wrong because Availability Management ensures that services are available when needed, but it does not specifically address performance metrics like response time or throughput during peak load.

200
MCQmedium

A service desk agent is handling a request for a new software installation that is listed in the service catalogue. According to ITIL 4, what type of record should be raised?

A.Service request
B.Change request
C.Problem record
D.Incident record
AnswerA

A service request is predefined and pre-approved, often from the service catalogue.

Why this answer

Since the request is predefined and listed in the service catalogue, it is a service request. Option B is correct. Option A is for unplanned disruptions.

Option C is for changes to infrastructure. Option D is for root cause analysis.

201
MCQmedium

A financial services company wants to improve its service desk's first-call resolution rate. Which ITIL 4 concept is most directly related to this goal?

A.Mean time to resolve (MTTR)
B.Shift-left
C.First-call resolution
D.Customer satisfaction score (CSAT)
AnswerC

FCR is the direct metric for service desk effectiveness.

Why this answer

First-call resolution (FCR) is the ITIL 4 metric that directly measures the percentage of incidents resolved during the initial contact with the service desk, without escalation or callbacks. Improving FCR reduces operational costs and enhances user satisfaction by eliminating the need for follow-up interactions, which aligns precisely with the company's goal of improving its service desk's first-call resolution rate.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'first-call resolution' (a specific KPI) with 'shift-left' (a strategy to improve efficiency), but the question explicitly asks for the concept most directly related to the goal of improving the first-call resolution rate, which is the metric itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Mean Time to Resolve (MTTR) measures the average time from incident logging to resolution, not the rate of resolution on the first call; a low MTTR could still involve multiple interactions. Option B is wrong because Shift-left refers to moving tasks to lower-cost or earlier stages (e.g., self-service or Level 1), which can indirectly improve FCR but is not the direct measure or concept for first-call resolution itself. Option D is wrong because Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT) is a subjective measure of user happiness, not a direct indicator of whether an incident was resolved on the first call; high CSAT can occur even with multiple calls if the service is otherwise excellent.

202
MCQmedium

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. What should they do FIRST according to ITIL 4?

A.Apply a workaround to restore service
B.Escalate the issue to the Problem Management team
C.Investigate the root cause of the issue
D.Log the incident in the IT service management tool
AnswerD

The first step is to log the incident to record the details and begin the process.

Why this answer

The first step is to log the incident, which captures details and initiates the incident management process.

203
MCQmedium

A major incident has occurred. After restoring service, the team wants to update the Known Error Database (KEDB) with the workaround. Which practice is primarily responsible for this?

A.Service Desk
B.Change Enablement
C.Incident Management
D.Problem Management
AnswerD

Problem Management controls known errors and updates the KEDB.

Why this answer

Problem Management is responsible for managing the lifecycle of all problems, including updating the Known Error Database (KEDB) with workarounds. After a major incident is resolved, the workaround is documented in the KEDB by Problem Management to prevent future incidents and enable faster resolution. This aligns with ITIL 4's definition of Problem Management as the practice that identifies, analyzes, and documents known errors and workarounds.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the immediate service restoration (Incident Management) with the subsequent documentation of workarounds (Problem Management), leading them to select Incident Management instead of Problem Management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Service Desk is the single point of contact for users and handles incident logging and initial support, but it does not own the KEDB or the process of documenting workarounds—that is a Problem Management responsibility. Option B is wrong because Change Enablement focuses on controlling the lifecycle of changes to IT services, not on updating the KEDB with workarounds; its primary concern is risk assessment and approval of changes. Option C is wrong because Incident Management is responsible for restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible, but the KEDB update is a post-incident activity that falls under Problem Management to analyze root causes and prevent recurrence.

204
MCQmedium

A problem manager has identified multiple incidents with no known cause. Which phase of Problem Management is being performed?

A.Problem identification
B.Problem control
C.Error control
D.Post-implementation review
AnswerA

This phase involves detecting problems from incidents and other sources.

Why this answer

Problem identification involves detecting problems from incidents and other sources. In this scenario, the problem manager is identifying a problem from incidents, which is the first phase. Option A is correct.

Option B involves root cause analysis. Option C involves managing known errors. Option D is not a separate phase.

205
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements correctly describe the difference between Deployment Management and Release Management in ITIL 4?

Select 3 answers
A.Release Management decides when to deploy a release
B.Release Management involves physically moving components to production
C.Release Management can decide to postpone a deployment
D.Release Management is responsible for the actual deployment of components
E.Deployment Management is a subset of Release Management
AnswersA, C, E

Correct: release management authorizes deployment timing.

Why this answer

In ITIL 4, deployment management focuses on moving components to production, while release management oversees the overall release process. Option A is correct: deployment is part of release. Option C is correct: release management decides on deployment timing.

Option E is correct: release management has the authority to deploy or postpone. Option B is wrong: deployment uses live or test environments; releases are logical. Option D is wrong: deployment management is responsible for deployment, not release management.

206
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are components of the ITIL Service Value System?

Select 2 answers
A.Service catalogue
B.Guiding principles
C.Service desk
D.Configuration management database
E.Service value chain
AnswersB, E

Correct.

Why this answer

The SVS includes guiding principles, governance, service value chain, practices, and continual improvement.

207
MCQeasy

What is the PRIMARY purpose of Monitoring and Event Management in ITIL 4?

A.To manage service requests from users
B.To detect and respond to events that occur in the IT infrastructure
C.To manage the lifecycle of all problems
D.To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
AnswerB

This is the core purpose of Monitoring and Event Management.

Why this answer

Monitoring and Event Management detects events, classifies them (informational, warning, exception), and responds appropriately.

208
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are valid types of events in the Monitoring and Event Management practice?

Select 2 answers
A.Error
B.Warning
C.Critical
D.Informational
E.Alert
AnswersB, D

Correct. Warning events indicate a condition that may require attention.

Why this answer

Informational, warning, and exception are the three event types recognized in ITIL 4.

209
MCQmedium

Which ITIL practice is responsible for managing the lifecycle of all IT assets, including financial aspects?

A.Service Configuration Management
B.Service Level Management
C.IT Asset Management
D.Supplier Management
AnswerC

Why this answer

IT Asset Management (ITAM) is the correct practice because it is specifically defined in ITIL 4 to manage the lifecycle of all IT assets, including their financial aspects such as procurement, depreciation, and disposal. This practice ensures that assets are accounted for, controlled, and optimized from acquisition to retirement, directly covering financial management of hardware, software, and licenses.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Service Configuration Management with IT Asset Management because both track IT items, but only ITAM handles financial aspects like cost, depreciation, and lifecycle budgeting.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Service Configuration Management focuses on maintaining accurate configuration records (CIs) and their relationships, not on financial management or lifecycle costing of assets. Option B is wrong because Service Level Management deals with defining, agreeing, and monitoring service level agreements (SLAs) and targets, not with asset lifecycle or financial tracking. Option D is wrong because Supplier Management manages relationships and contracts with external suppliers, not the internal lifecycle or financial aspects of IT assets.

210
MCQhard

A known error has been documented and a workaround exists. According to ITIL 4, which practice is responsible for managing the known error?

A.Change Enablement
B.Service Desk
C.Problem Management
D.Incident Management
AnswerC

Problem Management includes error control.

Why this answer

Error control, part of Problem Management, manages known errors through their lifecycle.

211
MCQeasy

What is the ITIL 4 guiding principle that emphasizes starting from what already exists and avoiding unnecessary complexity?

A.Progress iteratively with feedback
B.Keep it simple and practical
C.Start where you are
D.Focus on value
AnswerC

This principle advises leveraging existing resources and processes.

Why this answer

The 'Start where you are' guiding principle in ITIL 4 directs organizations to leverage existing services, processes, and data rather than building from scratch. It avoids unnecessary complexity by assessing current capabilities and making incremental improvements, which aligns with minimizing waste and rework.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'Start where you are' with 'Keep it simple and practical' because both involve reducing complexity, but the former specifically emphasizes using existing resources as a foundation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Progress iteratively with feedback' focuses on breaking work into manageable steps and using feedback loops, not on leveraging existing assets. Option B is wrong because 'Keep it simple and practical' emphasizes minimizing complexity in design and execution, but does not specifically address starting from the current state. Option D is wrong because 'Focus on value' prioritizes delivering outcomes that matter to stakeholders, but does not directly relate to avoiding unnecessary complexity by using what already exists.

212
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are types of changes in ITIL 4 Change Enablement?

Select 2 answers
A.Emergency change
B.Standard change
C.Incident
D.Problem
E.Service request
AnswersA, B

Correct.

Why this answer

Change Enablement defines three change types: standard, normal, and emergency.

213
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are benefits of using a shift-left strategy in the service desk?

Select 2 answers
A.Increased first contact resolution rates
B.Increased reliance on senior technicians
C.Reduced need for incident management
D.Fewer escalations to higher-level support
E.Elimination of service requests
AnswersA, D

Shift-left aims to resolve issues at the first point of contact.

Why this answer

Shift-left in the service desk involves empowering front-line staff with better tools, knowledge, and automation to resolve issues at the first point of contact. This directly increases first contact resolution (FCR) rates because technicians can handle more incidents without escalating. Higher FCR reduces the number of incidents that need to be passed to higher-level support, which is the second correct benefit.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse 'shift-left' with simply adding more junior staff, when in fact it is about enabling those staff with better tools and processes to handle a wider range of issues, thereby reducing escalations and improving first-contact resolution.

214
MCQmedium

A user requests a new laptop as part of the onboarding process. According to ITIL 4, how should this be classified?

A.As a service request, because it is a standard, pre-approved request
B.As a problem, because it may cause future issues
C.As a change request, because it involves hardware
D.As an incident, because it requires IT action
AnswerA

Correct: This is a typical service request.

Why this answer

Service requests are predefined, pre-approved, and follow a standard process, unlike incidents which are unplanned.

215
MCQhard

A company implements a new monitoring system that sends alerts when server CPU usage exceeds 90%. Which ITIL 4 practice is primarily involved?

A.Monitoring and Event Management
B.Service Desk
C.Incident Management
D.Capacity and Performance Management
AnswerA

Correct: This practice detects and classifies events like alerts.

Why this answer

The monitoring system that sends alerts when CPU usage exceeds 90% directly involves detecting and responding to operational events. This is the core function of the Monitoring and Event Management practice, which defines how events (such as threshold breaches) are captured, analyzed, and acted upon. The alert itself is an 'event' in ITIL 4 terms, making this practice primarily responsible.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the Monitoring and Event Management practice (which handles the alert generation and initial response) with Capacity and Performance Management (which uses the same data for long-term planning), but the question specifically asks which practice is 'primarily involved' in the act of sending alerts when a threshold is breached.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Service Desk) is wrong because the Service Desk is the single point of contact for users reporting issues or requests, not the practice that monitors infrastructure metrics like CPU usage. Option C (Incident Management) is wrong because Incident Management handles unplanned interruptions or reductions in service quality after they occur, whereas the monitoring system is proactively detecting a potential issue before it becomes an incident. Option D (Capacity and Performance Management) is wrong because while it uses performance data to plan for future capacity needs, the immediate act of monitoring CPU thresholds and generating alerts is an operational event-handling activity, not a capacity planning activity.

216
MCQmedium

A service desk analyst resolves a user's password reset request. According to ITIL 4, what type of record should be closed?

A.Problem record
B.Incident record
C.Change request
D.Service request
AnswerD

Password reset is a standard service request.

Why this answer

Password resets are pre-approved, routine requests, so they are service requests.

217
MCQhard

A company is undergoing a major organizational change that will affect several IT services. The change manager wants to ensure that all changes are assessed for risk and that the change schedule is maintained. Which practice provides the formal process for managing changes in a controlled manner?

A.Deployment Management
B.Release Management
C.Transition Planning and Support
D.Change Enablement
AnswerD

Change Enablement provides the formal process for assessing, authorizing, and scheduling changes.

Why this answer

Change Enablement is the ITIL 4 practice that provides the formal, controlled process for assessing, approving, and scheduling changes to IT services. It ensures that all changes are evaluated for risk, and that the change schedule is maintained, which directly addresses the change manager's requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the 'process for managing changes' with Release Management or Deployment Management, but ITIL 4 explicitly assigns the formal risk assessment and change scheduling to Change Enablement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Deployment Management focuses on moving new or changed components into production environments, not on the formal risk assessment and scheduling of changes. Option B is wrong because Release Management handles the planning, building, testing, and deployment of releases, but the formal change authorization and risk assessment process is owned by Change Enablement. Option C is wrong because Transition Planning and Support coordinates the overall transition of new or changed services, but it does not provide the specific, controlled process for assessing and approving individual changes.

218
MCQhard

In ITIL 4, which practice involves managing the lifecycle of configuration items (CIs) and maintaining a configuration management database (CMDB)?

A.Deployment Management
B.IT Asset Management
C.Service Configuration Management
D.Change Enablement
AnswerC

This practice manages CIs and the CMDB.

Why this answer

Service Configuration Management is responsible for managing CIs and the CMDB, including configuration baselines.

219
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of the Service Level Management practice?

A.To handle predefined, pre-approved requests from users
B.To ensure that services meet current and future demand
C.To negotiate, agree, and monitor service level agreements (SLAs)
D.To ensure that services are available as agreed
AnswerC

This is the primary purpose of Service Level Management.

Why this answer

The Service Level Management practice is specifically defined in ITIL 4 to negotiate, agree, and monitor service level agreements (SLAs). It ensures that service targets are documented, measured, and reviewed, aligning service delivery with business expectations. This practice directly manages the lifecycle of SLAs, including their creation, ongoing monitoring, and periodic review.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the purpose of Service Level Management with Service Availability Management, as both involve 'agreed' levels, but Service Level Management focuses on the entire SLA lifecycle (negotiation, agreement, monitoring) while Availability Management specifically ensures uptime and resilience.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because handling predefined, pre-approved requests from users is the purpose of the Service Request Management practice, not Service Level Management. Option B is wrong because ensuring services meet current and future demand is the purpose of the Capacity and Performance Management practice, which focuses on resource planning and demand forecasting. Option D is wrong because ensuring services are available as agreed is the purpose of the Service Availability Management practice, which monitors uptime and resilience, not the negotiation and monitoring of SLAs.

220
MCQmedium

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. What should they do FIRST according to ITIL 4?

A.Escalate the issue to the problem management team
B.Log and categorize the incident
C.Inform the service level manager
D.Implement a known workaround
AnswerB

Logging and categorizing is the first step in incident management.

Why this answer

The first step is to log and categorize the incident to initiate the incident management process and begin restoration of service.

221
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are purposes or activities of the Problem Management practice?

Select 3 answers
A.Identify the root cause of incidents
B.Document known errors and workarounds
C.Proactively prevent incidents from occurring
D.Assess and authorize changes to resolve known errors
E.Restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
AnswersA, B, C

Problem Control phase determines root cause.

Why this answer

Problem Management includes problem identification, root cause analysis, and known error management. Options A, B, and C are correct. Option D is Incident Management; Option E is Change Enablement.

222
MCQmedium

A user requests a new laptop for an employee who has just joined the company. According to ITIL 4, how should this request be classified?

A.An emergency change
B.A problem
C.A service request
D.An incident
AnswerC

Service requests are for predefined, pre-approved items like new hardware.

Why this answer

A new laptop request is a predefined, pre-approved service request if it follows standard procedures. Option D is correct. It is not an incident (unplanned interruption), a problem (root cause), or an emergency change.

223
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are key activities of the Change Enablement practice?

Select 2 answers
A.Restoring service after an outage
B.Assessing and authorizing changes
C.Identifying workarounds for incidents
D.Negotiating service level agreements
E.Reviewing and closing changes after implementation
AnswersB, E

Key activity of Change Enablement.

Why this answer

Change Enablement includes assessing, authorizing, and scheduling changes (A) and ensuring changes are reviewed after implementation (E). Options B and D relate to Incident Management. Option C relates to Service Level Management.

224
MCQhard

An IT team identifies that repeated application crashes are caused by a memory leak. According to ITIL 4, at which stage of Problem Management is the memory leak documented as a Known Error?

A.Problem control
B.Problem identification
C.Error control
D.Incident management
AnswerC

Error control manages known errors and workarounds.

Why this answer

A Known Error is created during error control after root cause analysis is completed and a workaround is identified.

225
MCQhard

An organization has an SLA that specifies a response time of 4 hours for priority 2 incidents. The IT team also has an OLA with the network team to resolve network-related incidents within 2 hours. According to ITIL 4, what is the relationship between the SLA and the OLA?

A.The OLA supports the SLA by ensuring internal teams meet their commitments.
B.The OLA is a contract with an external supplier, while the SLA is with internal customers.
C.The OLA and SLA are independent and have no relationship.
D.The SLA is more important than the OLA, so the OLA can be ignored if needed.
AnswerA

OLAs are internal agreements that support the SLA.

Why this answer

An OLA supports the SLA by defining internal targets that help meet the SLA.

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