CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 220-1201 Questions 601–675 | Page 9/12

601

MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop can see several neighboring Wi-Fi networks but cannot see their own office's SSID, which is a 5 GHz-only network. Other users in the same office can connect without issue. What is the most likely cause?

A.The router's SSID broadcast is disabled.

B.The laptop's wireless adapter is set to airplane mode.

C.The laptop only supports 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi.

D.The office router is using WPA3 encryption.

AnswerC

A 2.4 GHz-only adapter cannot see or associate with a 5 GHz-only SSID, yet it still detects neighbouring 2.4 GHz networks, exactly matching the reported symptom. Other users' laptops support 5 GHz, so the office network itself is functioning correctly.

Why this answer

The user's laptop can see neighboring 2.4 GHz networks but not the office's 5 GHz-only SSID, while other users connect fine. This indicates the laptop's wireless adapter lacks 5 GHz support, making option C correct because 5 GHz-only networks are invisible to 2.4 GHz-only adapters.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ exams often test the misconception that encryption or SSID broadcast settings are the cause when the real issue is frequency band incompatibility, leading candidates to overlook the adapter's hardware limitations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the router's SSID broadcast were disabled, no users (including others in the office) would see the network, but the question states other users connect without issue. Option B is wrong because airplane mode disables all wireless radios, preventing the laptop from seeing any Wi-Fi networks at all, yet the user can see several neighboring networks. Option D is wrong because WPA3 encryption does not affect SSID visibility; it only impacts authentication and encryption, and the laptop would still see the network's beacon frames regardless of encryption type.

Full explanation →

602

MCQhard

A technician is replacing a faulty motherboard in a workstation. After installing the new board, the system powers on but there is no display output from the integrated graphics port. The CPU does not have integrated graphics. What should the technician do?

A.Clear the CMOS to reset BIOS settings

B.Install a dedicated GPU into a PCIe slot

C.Update the motherboard BIOS

D.Check the monitor cable connection

AnswerB

When a Central Processing Unit (CPU) lacks an integrated graphics processing unit (iGPU), the video output ports on the motherboard (such as HDMI, DisplayPort, or VGA) will remain inactive because there is no internal graphics processor to generate a display signal. To obtain video output and display an image on a monitor, a dedicated Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) must be installed into an available Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (PCIe) slot on the motherboard. This dedicated card will then handle all graphics rendering and provide the necessary display outputs.

Why this answer

The CPU has no integrated graphics, so the motherboard's video output ports are inactive — they are wired to the CPU's iGPU, which does not exist on this processor. Installing a dedicated GPU into a PCIe slot provides the display adapter the system needs to output video. This is the direct fix for 'no display with no iGPU.'

Exam trap

The trap is assuming a motherboard video port always works — candidates troubleshoot BIOS or cables, but the real issue is that the CPU SKU has no iGPU, so only a discrete GPU can provide display output.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because clearing CMOS resets BIOS settings but cannot create a graphics adapter that does not exist; the absence of an iGPU is a hardware limitation, not a configuration issue. Option C is wrong because updating the BIOS does not add integrated graphics support to a CPU that lacks it. Option D is wrong because checking the monitor cable assumes the port is functional, but the port is physically non-functional without an iGPU, so cable reseating cannot resolve the issue.

Full explanation →

603

MCQmedium

A user complains that their laptop frequently disconnects from the Wi-Fi when they move to the conference room, which is 50 feet from the access point through two walls. The network uses 5 GHz. What is the MOST likely cause of the disconnects?

A.The access point is overloaded with too many clients.

B.The laptop's power management settings are turning off the Wi-Fi adapter.

C.5 GHz signals have poor penetration through walls.

D.The conference room has a metal door that blocks the signal.

AnswerC

5 GHz radio waves attenuate more sharply than 2.4 GHz when passing through dense materials, so two walls at 50 feet weaken the signal below the threshold needed to maintain association, causing the roaming disconnects the user reports.

Why this answer

The 5 GHz band offers higher data rates and less interference than 2.4 GHz, but it has significantly poorer wall penetration due to its shorter wavelength. At 50 feet through two walls, the signal attenuation is severe enough to cause frequent disconnects, especially if the walls contain dense materials like concrete or metal studs.

Exam trap

A common mistake is to assume that 5 GHz is always superior because it is faster, without recognizing its trade-off in range and penetration through physical obstacles.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an overloaded access point would cause slow speeds or connection failures for all clients, not just when moving to a specific location; the problem is location-dependent, not load-dependent. Option B is wrong because power management settings that turn off the Wi-Fi adapter would cause disconnects regardless of location, not specifically when moving to the conference room. Option D is wrong because while a metal door can block signals, the question does not mention a metal door; the most direct and common cause given the distance and two walls is the inherent poor penetration of 5 GHz through walls.

Full explanation →

604

MCQeasy

A user wants to connect a new laptop to a wired network that uses 802.1X authentication. What must be configured on the laptop to ensure successful network access?

A.A static IP address in the same subnet as the network

B.The correct SSID and wireless security key

C.Valid 802.1X credentials (username and password or certificate)

D.A crossover cable to connect to the switch

AnswerC

802.1X is a port-based network access control protocol that requires the client device (supplicant) to authenticate itself to the network switch (authenticator) before gaining full network access. This authentication typically involves providing valid credentials, such as a username and password or a digital certificate, which are then verified by a backend authentication server, often a RADIUS server. Until these credentials are successfully validated, the switch port will remain in an unauthorized state, blocking all network traffic from the laptop.

Why this answer

For 802.1X authentication, the laptop must be configured with valid credentials (username/password or certificate) to authenticate to the network. 802.1X is a port-based network access control that requires the supplicant (laptop) to provide credentials to the authenticator (switch) before gaining access. Without these credentials, the laptop cannot pass authentication and will be denied network access.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the confusion between wireless and wired authentication; candidates may pick SSID/key for a wired network, but 802.1X on wired requires credentials, not wireless settings.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a static IP address is irrelevant to 802.1X authentication; IP configuration occurs after authentication and does not satisfy the authentication requirement. Option B is wrong because SSID and wireless security key are for wireless networks (Wi-Fi), but the question specifies a wired network using 802.1X; wireless credentials are not used for wired 802.1X. Option D is wrong because a crossover cable is used for direct connections between devices, not for connecting to a switch; modern switches support auto-MDI/X, and the cable type does not affect 802.1X authentication.

Full explanation →

605

MCQeasy

A small office is setting up a new VoIP phone system. The IT staff must run new cabling to each desk. Which cable type is most appropriate for connecting VoIP phones to the network?

A.Coaxial cable

B.Cat5e UTP

C.Fiber optic cable

D.Serial cable

AnswerB

Cat5e UTP carries 1000BASE-T to 100 metres, ample bandwidth for VoIP handsets, and its low cost suits cabling many desks. Fibre or Cat6a would exceed the requirement without benefit, and shielded cable is unnecessary where EMI is not a concern.

Why this answer

Cat5e UTP cable supports 1000BASE-T Ethernet at up to 100 meters, which is sufficient for VoIP phones that typically require 100 Mbps or 1 Gbps connectivity and can also receive Power over Ethernet (PoE) from a switch. This makes it the standard choice for new office cabling for VoIP deployments.

Exam trap

One common misconception is that fiber optic cable is required for VoIP due to 'better quality,' but Cat5e/Cat6 UTP is the standard for horizontal cabling to endpoints, as fiber is typically reserved for backbone or long-distance runs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because coaxial cable is used for broadband internet (e.g., DOCSIS) or cable TV, not for direct Ethernet connections to VoIP phones, and it lacks the twisted-pair structure needed for differential signaling in Ethernet. Option C is wrong because fiber optic cable is overkill for a small office VoIP deployment; it is more expensive, harder to terminate, and not required for the short distances and bandwidth needs of VoIP phones, though it could be used for backbone links. Option D is wrong because serial cable (e.g., RS-232) is used for legacy console connections or modem links, not for Ethernet networking, and cannot carry VoIP traffic or PoE.

Full explanation →

606

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their laptop can connect to the internet via Wi-Fi but cannot access any network shares on the local file server. Other devices on the same network can access the shares. What is the most likely cause?

A.The file server is powered off.

B.The laptop has a misconfigured subnet mask.

C.The Wi-Fi router is overloaded.

D.The laptop's firewall is blocking all traffic.

AnswerB

A misconfigured subnet mask is a highly plausible cause for this specific symptom. If the laptop's subnet mask is set incorrectly, it might misinterpret which IP addresses are on its local network segment and which require routing through the default gateway. For instance, if the mask makes the file server's IP appear outside the local subnet, the laptop would attempt to send traffic for the file server to its default gateway, which would then drop the packet as it's not intended for routing to an external network. However, if the default gateway's IP is still correctly perceived as local, internet access would remain functional.

Why this answer

The laptop can reach the internet (routed traffic) but cannot reach local file shares (same-subnet traffic), while other devices on the same network can. This pattern points to a subnet mask error: with a wrong mask, the laptop believes the file server is on a remote network and sends its traffic to the default gateway instead of ARPing for it directly on the LAN, so SMB/CIFS connections to the share fail even though internet access still works.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming any connectivity failure means a dead server or a firewall block; the exam wants you to notice that internet works but local shares do not, which isolates the fault to local-subnet routing logic (the mask), not to the server or a blanket firewall rule.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the file server were powered off, no other device on the network could access the shares either, yet the question states other devices can. Option C is wrong because an overloaded Wi-Fi router would degrade or drop all traffic, including the internet browsing that is explicitly working, and would affect other wireless clients too. Option D is wrong because a firewall blocking all traffic would also block the internet access the laptop currently has; a blanket block is inconsistent with partial connectivity.

Full explanation →

607

MCQhard

A multifunction printer is connected to a network via Ethernet and also has a USB port for direct printing. A user plugs a USB flash drive into the printer to print a PDF, but the printer does not recognize the drive. The drive works on other computers. What is the most likely cause?

A.The PDF file is password-protected.

B.The USB flash drive is formatted as NTFS, which the printer does not support.

C.The printer's USB port is only for service use.

D.The printer's IP address is conflicting with another device.

AnswerB

Multifunction printers (MFPs) typically have limited operating systems and firmware, which often only include drivers for common, simpler file systems like FAT32 or exFAT for direct USB printing. If a USB flash drive is formatted with NTFS, the printer's firmware may not contain the necessary drivers to read or mount this more complex file system. This lack of driver support prevents the printer from recognizing the drive entirely, making it a common compatibility issue for direct printing.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the USB flash drive is formatted with NTFS, which many printers do not support for direct printing. Printers typically support FAT32 or exFAT file systems. Since the drive works on other computers, the issue is likely the file system compatibility with the printer's USB port.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming the printer supports all file systems, when in fact NTFS is often unsupported, leading to recognition failure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a password-protected PDF would still be recognized by the printer; it would prompt for a password or fail to print, but the drive would be recognized. Option C is wrong because if the USB port were only for service, it would not be intended for user printing, but the question implies the user is attempting to print, so the port is likely functional for that purpose. Option D is wrong because an IP address conflict would affect network printing, not USB direct printing.

Full explanation →

608

MCQhard

A company is adopting a cloud-first strategy and wants to minimize vendor lock-in. They plan to use multiple cloud providers for different workloads. Which cloud deployment model does this describe?

A.Public cloud

B.Hybrid cloud

C.Multi-cloud

D.Community cloud

AnswerC

Multi-cloud specifically refers to the use of cloud services from multiple distinct public cloud providers simultaneously. This strategy is explicitly designed to mitigate vendor lock-in by distributing workloads, applications, and data across different vendors like AWS, Azure, or Google Cloud. By avoiding over-reliance on a single provider, organizations gain greater flexibility, improved resilience against outages from one vendor, and enhanced negotiation power, directly aligning with a goal to reduce dependency.

Why this answer

Multi-cloud specifically refers to using two or more public cloud providers (e.g., AWS, Azure, GCP) for different workloads, which directly minimizes vendor lock-in by avoiding dependence on a single provider's proprietary services. The scenario explicitly states the company will use multiple cloud providers, which is the definition of multi-cloud. Hybrid cloud involves a mix of private and public clouds, not necessarily multiple public providers.

Public cloud alone means using a single provider's shared infrastructure, which increases lock-in risk. Community cloud is shared by several organizations with common concerns, not multiple public providers.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing multi-cloud with hybrid cloud; candidates often think 'multiple clouds' means hybrid, but hybrid specifically requires a private cloud component, while multi-cloud involves multiple public providers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because public cloud refers to a single provider's shared infrastructure, which does not inherently minimize vendor lock-in and contradicts the requirement to use multiple providers. Option B is wrong because hybrid cloud combines private and public clouds (e.g., on-premises with AWS), but the scenario does not mention a private cloud component; it focuses on multiple public providers. Option D is wrong because community cloud is shared infrastructure among organizations with similar interests (e.g., government agencies), not a strategy for using multiple public cloud vendors to avoid lock-in.

Full explanation →

609

MCQhard

A user reports that their 4K monitor connected via DisplayPort 1.2 only shows a 30Hz refresh rate at native resolution, causing mouse movement to feel laggy. The monitor supports 60Hz at 4K. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's firmware is outdated

B.The graphics card does not support 4K at 60Hz

C.The DisplayPort cable is only rated for DisplayPort 1.1

D.The monitor's refresh rate is set to 30Hz in the display settings

AnswerC

A DisplayPort 1.1 cable has a maximum effective data rate of 8.64 Gbit/s. However, displaying 4K resolution (3840x2160) at a 60Hz refresh rate with standard 8-bit color depth requires approximately 12.54 Gbit/s of bandwidth. Since the DP 1.1 cable cannot transmit data at this higher rate, the display system automatically negotiates down to a lower refresh rate, such as 30Hz, to fit within the cable's limited bandwidth capacity.

Why this answer

DisplayPort 1.2 has sufficient bandwidth (17.28 Gbps) to support 4K at 60Hz with 8-bit color. However, a cable only rated for DisplayPort 1.1 is limited to 8.64 Gbps, which cannot handle the full data rate required for 4K at 60Hz, forcing the signal to drop to 30Hz. This is the most likely cause because the cable is a physical bottleneck, even though the GPU and monitor both support the higher refresh rate.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that the refresh rate issue is caused by a monitor setting or GPU limitation, when in fact the cable's bandwidth rating is the critical bottleneck that candidates overlook.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because outdated firmware would typically cause issues like flickering, black screens, or failure to detect the monitor, not a consistent 30Hz cap at 4K resolution. Option B is wrong because if the graphics card did not support 4K at 60Hz, the user would likely be unable to select 4K resolution at all, or the system would default to a lower resolution, not just a lower refresh rate. Option D is wrong because while the refresh rate setting could be manually set to 30Hz, the question states the user reports the issue as occurring at native resolution, and the most likely cause given the DisplayPort 1.2 connection is a cable bandwidth limitation, not a simple settings misconfiguration.

Full explanation →

610

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop computer, used for video editing, frequently runs out of memory and slows down. They want to upgrade the RAM but are not sure which type is compatible. The motherboard manual lists support for DDR4-3200 and DDR4-2666. The system currently has two 8 GB DDR4-2666 modules installed. What is the best upgrade to maximize performance and capacity?

A.Add two 8 GB DDR4-3200 modules to the existing RAM.

B.Replace the two 8 GB modules with two 16 GB DDR4-2666 modules.

C.Replace the two 8 GB modules with two 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules.

D.Add two 16 GB DDR4-2666 modules to the existing RAM.

AnswerC

This option provides a comprehensive upgrade by simultaneously increasing both RAM capacity and speed. Replacing the two 8 GB modules with two 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules doubles the total memory while significantly boosting the memory clock speed to 3200 MHz, assuming motherboard compatibility. This dual improvement directly addresses the customer's request for better performance by enabling faster data access and supporting more demanding workloads efficiently.

Why this answer

To maximize performance and capacity, you should replace the existing slower DDR4-2666 modules with higher-capacity DDR4-3200 modules. The motherboard supports DDR4-3200, so the system can run at the faster speed, and replacing rather than mixing ensures all modules operate at the same speed and timings. Two 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules provide 32 GB total, doubling capacity and increasing memory bandwidth for video editing.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the misconception that adding more RAM is always better than replacing, and that mixing speeds is fine; candidates must recognize that matched, higher-speed modules replacing slower ones yield the best performance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because adding two 8 GB DDR4-3200 modules to the existing DDR4-2666 modules would force all memory to run at the slower 2666 MT/s speed (or potentially cause compatibility issues), and total capacity would only be 32 GB but with mixed modules that may not operate optimally. Option B is wrong because while it increases capacity to 32 GB, it uses DDR4-2666 modules, missing the opportunity to run at the motherboard-supported 3200 MT/s speed, thus not maximizing performance. Option D is wrong because adding two 16 GB DDR4-2666 modules to the existing 8 GB modules would result in 48 GB total but mixed speeds and capacities, likely running at 2666 MT/s and potentially causing dual-channel mismatches, and it does not maximize performance.

Full explanation →

611

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a DSL connection that syncs at only 1.5 Mbps when the plan is 10 Mbps. The line is 12,000 feet from the central office. What is the most likely cause?

A.The modem is defective.

B.The distance from the central office is too great.

C.The router's firmware needs updating.

D.The ISP is throttling the connection.

AnswerB

DSL technology relies on transmitting data over copper telephone lines, where signal strength naturally attenuates with increasing distance from the Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) at the central office. Greater distances lead to a lower signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), forcing the DSL modem to negotiate a lower, more stable sync rate to maintain connection integrity. This physical limitation directly reduces the maximum achievable bandwidth.

Why this answer

DSL speeds degrade significantly with distance due to signal attenuation and noise. At 12,000 feet from the central office, ADSL2+ typically cannot sustain 10 Mbps; 1.5 Mbps is consistent with the maximum achievable rate at that distance. The sync rate is determined by line conditions, not the plan speed, making distance the primary limiting factor.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that DSL speeds are always limited by the service plan rather than physical-layer constraints, leading candidates to overlook distance as the primary factor when sync rates are far below the plan speed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a defective modem would typically cause no sync, intermittent drops, or CRC errors, not a stable but low sync rate that matches distance-based attenuation. Option C is wrong because router firmware updates address security or feature issues, not physical-layer line rate limitations imposed by loop length and signal-to-noise ratio. Option D is wrong because ISP throttling is applied at the protocol layer (e.g., shaping traffic) and does not affect the DSL sync rate, which is negotiated between the modem and DSLAM based on line quality.

Full explanation →

612

MCQeasy

A technician is deploying an MFP that supports both USB and network connectivity. The office wants all users on the network to be able to print and scan from the device. Which connection method should the technician use?

A.USB connection to a single workstation

B.Ethernet connection to the network switch

C.Bluetooth connection to each user's device

D.Parallel port connection to a print server

AnswerB

Connecting an MFP via Ethernet to a network switch integrates it directly into the local area network (LAN) as a standalone network device. This allows the MFP to obtain its own IP address, making it discoverable and accessible to all authorized users and devices connected to the same network. This method provides simultaneous access for printing, scanning, and other functions, ensuring efficient resource sharing and centralized management for an entire office.

Why this answer

The Ethernet connection to the network switch allows the MFP to be a shared network resource, enabling all users on the LAN to send print jobs and receive scans directly over TCP/IP. This is the standard method for deploying a multifunction peripheral in a multi-user office environment, as it supports simultaneous access and doesn't rely on a single host. USB, Bluetooth, and parallel connections are all point-to-point and cannot provide the required shared access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that USB is familiar and often works for a single user, so candidates may overlook the requirement for all network users to print and scan; the exam expects you to recognize that only a direct network connection (Ethernet) provides true multi-user access without relying on a host PC.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB connection tethers the MFP to one workstation, so only that user can print or scan; sharing would require configuring printer sharing on that host, which is not the intended direct network access. Option C is wrong because Bluetooth is a short-range personal area network (PAN) technology with limited device count and no native support for shared scanning workflows across an entire office. Option D is wrong because parallel ports are legacy, point-to-point interfaces with very limited cable length and no built-in network capability; a print server could share it, but that adds unnecessary complexity and does not provide the direct network connectivity the scenario requires.

Full explanation →

613

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a hybrid cloud environment where an on-premises application needs to access a cloud-based database. The connection is intermittent and slow. The technician checks the local network and finds no issues. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.The cloud database is configured with the wrong DNS records

B.The on-premises firewall is blocking the database port

C.The internet connection between the sites has high latency or packet loss

D.The cloud provider is performing maintenance on the database server

AnswerC

High latency directly increases the time required for data packets to travel between the on-premises network and the cloud database, leading to noticeable slowdowns in application response. Packet loss further exacerbates this by forcing retransmissions, consuming additional bandwidth and time, which manifests as intermittent connection failures, timeouts, and overall degraded performance. These network issues are classic causes of intermittent connectivity problems in hybrid cloud environments.

Why this answer

In a hybrid cloud, latency and bandwidth issues often stem from the internet connection between the on-premises site and the cloud. Even if the local network is fine, the WAN link may be congested or have high latency. DNS or firewall issues would typically cause complete failures, not intermittent slowness.

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614

MCQeasy

A customer complains that their web browser cannot load any HTTPS websites, but HTTP sites work fine. The firewall is configured to allow common ports. Which port is most likely being blocked?

A.80

B.443

C.22

D.53

AnswerB

Port 443 is the standard port for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), which encrypts web traffic using SSL/TLS for secure communication. If a customer's web browser cannot load certain websites, especially those requiring secure connections (indicated by "https://"), but can still access unencrypted HTTP sites, then a block or misconfiguration on port 443 is the most probable cause. This scenario specifically points to an issue with secure communication, leaving unencrypted traffic unaffected.

Why this answer

HTTPS uses TCP port 443 for encrypted communication via TLS/SSL. If HTTP (port 80) works but HTTPS fails, the firewall is likely blocking outbound or inbound traffic on port 443, even though it allows common ports. This prevents the browser from establishing the secure connection required for HTTPS websites.

Exam trap

In CompTIA A+ 220-1201, a common trap is that many candidates assume 'common ports' includes HTTPS (port 443) by default, but the CompTIA objectives expect candidates to know that port 443 must be explicitly allowed for HTTPS. The symptom of HTTP working but HTTPS failing is a classic indicator of a blocked port 443.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 80 is used for HTTP, which works fine per the customer's report, so it is not blocked. Option C is wrong because port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell) remote administration, not for web browsing, and its blocking would not affect HTTPS. Option D is wrong because port 53 is used for DNS (Domain Name System) queries; if it were blocked, neither HTTP nor HTTPS sites would resolve, but HTTP works, so DNS is functioning.

Full explanation →

615

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their Bluetooth keyboard intermittently disconnects from their tablet while typing. The tablet and keyboard are less than a meter apart, and no other Bluetooth devices are nearby. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the disconnection?

A.The tablet's Bluetooth adapter is defective.

B.The keyboard's battery is low.

C.The user's body is blocking the Bluetooth signal when typing.

D.There is interference from a nearby Wi-Fi network.

AnswerC

Bluetooth signals operate in the 2.4 GHz ISM band, a frequency range where radio waves are significantly absorbed by water and other organic materials, which are abundant in the human body. When a user's hands, arms, or torso are positioned directly between the Bluetooth keyboard's transmitter and the tablet's receiver during typing, the human body acts as an effective RF attenuator, weakening the signal below the receiver's threshold and causing intermittent disconnections.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the user's body is blocking the Bluetooth signal. Bluetooth operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band, which is heavily absorbed by water in the human body. When typing, the user's hands and torso can create a significant attenuation path between the keyboard and tablet, especially if the tablet is placed behind the user or at an angle that places the body in the direct line of sight.

This intermittent physical obstruction explains the disconnection pattern without any other devices nearby.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that Bluetooth disconnections are always caused by interference or hardware failure, when in fact the human body's absorption of 2.4 GHz signals is a common and overlooked cause of intermittent connectivity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a defective Bluetooth adapter would cause persistent or complete failure to connect, not intermittent disconnections only while typing. Option B is wrong because a low battery typically causes gradual performance degradation or failure to power on, not intermittent disconnects that correlate with typing posture. Option D is wrong because interference from a nearby Wi-Fi network would affect all Bluetooth devices in the area and would not be isolated to a specific typing motion; Wi-Fi and Bluetooth both use the 2.4 GHz band but adaptive frequency hopping (AFH) in Bluetooth mitigates most co-channel interference.

Full explanation →

616

MCQmedium

A company's web server is accessible from the internal network but not from the internet. The server has a static IP of 192.168.1.10. The firewall is configured to allow HTTP and HTTPS traffic. What is the most likely missing configuration?

A.The server's default gateway is set to the firewall's LAN IP

B.The firewall's NAT is disabled

C.Port forwarding rules are not configured on the firewall

D.The server has a public IP address assigned

AnswerC

Port forwarding, also known as Destination NAT (DNAT) or inbound firewall rules, is absolutely critical for allowing external internet traffic to reach a specific internal server on a private network. When an external client attempts to connect to the public IP address of the firewall on a specific port (e.g., 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS), the firewall must have a rule explicitly configured to translate that public IP and port to the private IP and port of the internal web server. Without these rules, the firewall, acting as a security barrier, will simply drop unsolicited incoming connection attempts, preventing external users from accessing the web server.

Why this answer

The server has a private IP (192.168.1.10), so for internet clients to reach it, the firewall must translate the public destination IP to the private server IP using port forwarding (a form of Destination NAT). Without port forwarding rules, the firewall will receive HTTP/HTTPS traffic on its public interface but not know which internal server to send it to, even though the firewall's ACL allows the traffic. Option C correctly identifies this missing configuration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume that simply allowing HTTP/HTTPS in the firewall's ACL is sufficient, forgetting that inbound traffic to a private IP requires a destination NAT (port forwarding) rule to map the public IP/port to the internal server.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the server's default gateway must be set to the firewall's LAN IP for the server to send replies back to the internet; if that were missing, internal clients might still reach the server, but internet replies would fail—however, the question states the server is accessible from the internal network, so the gateway is likely correct. Option B is wrong because NAT being disabled would prevent any translation of private addresses, but the core issue is the lack of a specific mapping (port forwarding) for inbound traffic; even with NAT enabled, without port forwarding, unsolicited inbound traffic to a private IP is not routed. Option D is wrong because the server has a private IP (192.168.1.10), and assigning a public IP directly to the server would be an alternative solution, but the question asks for the most likely missing configuration given the current setup—the server already has a static private IP, and the firewall is expected to perform NAT/port forwarding.

Full explanation →

617

MCQhard

A virtual machine running a database server experiences frequent disk I/O bottlenecks. The host has multiple physical disks. Which configuration change would most effectively improve performance?

A.Increase the virtual disk size

B.Use a virtual disk on a network-attached storage (NAS)

C.Configure a pass-through disk for the VM

D.Enable disk compression on the virtual disk

AnswerC

Configuring a pass-through disk, also known as Raw Device Mapping (RDM) in some hypervisors, allows the virtual machine to directly access a physical disk or LUN on the host. This bypasses the hypervisor's virtualized I/O stack, significantly reducing latency and CPU overhead associated with I/O operations. Consequently, the VM achieves near-native disk performance, which is crucial for I/O-intensive applications like database servers experiencing frequent bottlenecks.

Why this answer

Pass-through disks give a VM direct access to a physical disk, bypassing the hypervisor's file system layer, reducing overhead and improving I/O performance for database workloads.

Full explanation →

618

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where users can access the internet but cannot connect to a specific internal application server by its hostname. Pinging the server's IP address works. The DNS server is configured correctly for external names. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DHCP server is out of IP addresses

B.The DNS server does not have an A record for the application server

C.NAT is misconfigured for the internal network

D.The proxy server is blocking the hostname

AnswerB

An A (Address) record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address. If the DNS server lacks an A record for the application server's hostname, client devices will be unable to resolve the server's name to its corresponding IP address. While the application server might be fully operational and reachable directly by its IP address, applications and users typically rely on hostnames for access, leading to a "server not found" error when attempting to connect via name. This scenario perfectly aligns with users being able to access the internet (implying general DNS functionality) but failing to reach a specific internal application by name.

Why this answer

Since users can access the internet and ping the server by IP, the network connectivity and external DNS resolution are working. The failure to resolve the internal server's hostname indicates that the DNS server lacks an A record for that specific hostname, preventing name-to-IP resolution for internal resources.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between connectivity issues (IP reachable) and name resolution issues (hostname unreachable) to trap candidates into misdiagnosing DNS problems as routing or NAT failures.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the DHCP server were out of IP addresses, clients would fail to obtain an IP configuration and would not be able to access the internet or ping any IP. Option C is wrong because NAT is used for translating private IPs to public IPs for external access; internal-to-internal communication does not involve NAT, so misconfigured NAT would not affect hostname resolution to an internal server. Option D is wrong because a proxy server typically handles HTTP/HTTPS traffic and could block hostnames, but the question states users can access the internet, and pinging the server's IP works, indicating the issue is specifically with DNS resolution, not proxy filtering.

Full explanation →

619

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a network for a university campus that spans several buildings across a 2-kilometer area. The network must support both wired and wireless connections for thousands of users. Which network type best describes this setup?

A.Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.Personal Area Network (PAN)

D.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

AnswerB

A Campus Area Network (CAN) is specifically engineered to interconnect multiple Local Area Networks (LANs) within a limited geographical area, such as a university, corporate, or industrial campus. It typically spans a few kilometers, connecting various buildings and providing high-speed wired and wireless connectivity for a large number of users. This makes a CAN the ideal choice for setting up a network across a 2-kilometer campus, accommodating thousands of users.

Why this answer

A Campus Area Network (CAN) is specifically designed to interconnect multiple buildings within a limited geographic area, such as a university campus or corporate park, typically spanning up to a few kilometers. This setup requires high-speed backbone links (often fiber optic) to support thousands of users with both wired and wireless access, which aligns perfectly with the CAN definition.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse CAN with MAN because both involve multiple buildings, but the key distinction is the geographic scale: CAN is limited to a campus (typically <5 km), while MAN covers a city-wide area. Certification exams often test this by providing distance or scope clues like '2-kilometer area' to force the correct classification.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Wide Area Network (WAN) covers large geographic areas (e.g., cities, countries) using leased lines or public infrastructure, which is excessive and unnecessary for a 2-kilometer campus. Option C is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) is limited to a very short range (typically up to 10 meters) for connecting personal devices like Bluetooth headphones or smartphones, not a multi-building campus. Option D is wrong because a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) spans a city or large metropolitan area (typically 5-50 km), which is larger than the 2-km campus described and often involves service provider connections rather than private campus cabling.

Full explanation →

620

MCQmedium

A small office uses a single router with four switch ports. Users on port 4 cannot access the internet, but they can communicate with each other. Port 4's LED is solid green. What is the most likely cause?

A.Port 4 is administratively disabled.

B.The cable on port 4 is faulty.

C.Port 4 is assigned to a different VLAN without internet access.

D.The router's DHCP pool is exhausted.

AnswerC

This is the correct answer. If Port 4 is assigned to a different Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) that lacks a configured default gateway or routing path to the internet, devices connected to it will be isolated from external networks. While local communication within that specific VLAN would still be possible, any attempt to reach resources outside its broadcast domain, such as the internet, would fail due to the absence of a proper routing mechanism.

Why this answer

If users on port 4 can communicate with each other but cannot access the internet, and the LED is solid green, the port is likely assigned to a different VLAN that lacks a route to the internet. Solid green indicates physical link is up, so the cable and port are functional.

Exam trap

The trap is overlooking VLAN misconfiguration when local connectivity works but internet fails; candidates may blame DHCP or cabling, but the exam tests that VLAN assignment can isolate a port from the internet.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an administratively disabled port would have no link light (or amber), and users could not communicate at all. Option B is wrong because a faulty cable would cause no link or intermittent connectivity, not successful local communication. Option D is wrong because DHCP pool exhaustion would affect all ports, not just port 4, and users would have APIPA addresses, but they might still communicate locally.

Full explanation →

621

MCQeasy

A small business wants to move its on-premises file server to the cloud to reduce hardware maintenance costs. They need full control over the operating system and applications running on the server. Which cloud service model should they choose?

A.Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

D.Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

AnswerC

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) offers fundamental computing resources over the internet, such as virtualized servers, storage, and networking components. This model provides the highest level of control to the user, allowing them to provision virtual machines, choose and install their own operating systems, configure storage, and deploy any applications they require. It effectively replaces on-premises hardware with virtualized equivalents, giving the business full administrative control over the OS and software stack.

Why this answer

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized compute, storage, and networking resources where the customer manages the operating system, middleware, and applications. Since the business needs full control over the OS and applications, IaaS is the correct model.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the confusion between IaaS and PaaS; candidates see 'cloud server' and pick PaaS, but the need for OS control is the deciding factor for IaaS.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SaaS delivers fully managed applications where the customer has no control over the underlying OS or application configuration. Option B is wrong because PaaS provides a managed platform (runtime, OS, middleware) where the customer only manages the application code, not the OS. Option D is wrong because DaaS delivers virtual desktops as a managed service, again removing OS-level control from the customer.

Full explanation →

622

MCQhard

A network administrator needs to determine the exact model and firmware version of a switch located in a remote wiring closet without physically visiting the site. The switch is configured with an IP address on the management VLAN. Which tool can be used to query the switch's SNMP agent for this information?

A.Packet analyzer (e.g., Wireshark)

B.SNMP management tool

C.Port scanner (e.g., Nmap)

D.Wi-Fi analyzer

AnswerB

An SNMP management tool queries the switch's SNMP agent remotely over the management VLAN, reading MIB objects such as sysDescr and sysObjectID that report the exact model and firmware version. This satisfies the constraint of identifying hardware without physically visiting the remote wiring closet.

Why this answer

An SNMP management tool can query the switch's SNMP agent using GET requests to retrieve the exact model and firmware version from the system MIB (RFC 1213), specifically the sysDescr (1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1) and sysObjectID (1.3.6.1.2.1.1.2) OIDs. This allows remote, agent-based access without physical site visits, as the switch is reachable via its management VLAN IP address.

Exam trap

The exam often tests the distinction between passive monitoring tools (packet analyzers) and active management tools (SNMP managers), leading candidates to mistakenly choose Wireshark because they think it can 'query' a device, when in fact it only captures existing traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a packet analyzer like Wireshark passively captures network traffic but cannot actively query an SNMP agent; it would only see SNMP responses if another tool initiated the query. Option C is wrong because a port scanner like Nmap can detect open ports (e.g., UDP 161 for SNMP) but cannot retrieve MIB object values like model or firmware version without an SNMP query engine. Option D is wrong because a Wi-Fi analyzer is designed to monitor wireless signal strength, channels, and interference, not to query wired switch management information via SNMP.

Full explanation →

623

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their new SSD is not detected by the BIOS. The drive is properly connected to the SATA port and power supply. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The SATA cable is faulty.

B.The SSD needs to be initialized in Disk Management.

C.The power supply unit is insufficient.

D.The SSD is incompatible with the motherboard.

AnswerA

A faulty SATA data cable is a very common cause for a storage drive, including an SSD, not being detected by the BIOS. Even if the drive is receiving power, a damaged or improperly seated data cable prevents the necessary communication between the SSD and the motherboard's SATA controller. Without this data pathway, the BIOS cannot enumerate the drive, making it appear as if no drive is connected at all, despite being physically present.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is a faulty SATA cable. Even if the drive is properly connected, a damaged or defective cable can prevent the BIOS from detecting the drive. This is a common hardware issue that should be checked first before assuming more complex problems.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests basic hardware troubleshooting, and candidates may jump to software solutions like Disk Management initialization, forgetting that BIOS detection is a prerequisite.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because initializing in Disk Management occurs after the BIOS detects the drive; if the BIOS doesn't see it, Disk Management won't either. Option C is wrong because an insufficient power supply would likely cause the system to fail to boot or have other symptoms, not just a single drive not detected. Option D is wrong because SSD compatibility with SATA is generally universal; while there can be compatibility issues, a faulty cable is more likely.

Full explanation →

624

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their external monitor connected via HDMI flickers intermittently. They have tried a different HDMI cable and a different monitor, but the issue persists. The laptop display works fine. Which component is most likely causing the problem?

A.The laptop's graphics driver

B.The HDMI cable

C.The external monitor

D.The laptop's HDMI port

AnswerD

Given that the laptop's internal display functions properly, and both the HDMI cable and the external monitor have been swapped out with known-good alternatives without resolving the issue, the laptop's HDMI output port becomes the most probable point of failure. A physical defect, bent pins, or an internal circuit board issue specific to that port could prevent it from transmitting video signals correctly, even if the GPU and its drivers are otherwise functional.

Why this answer

Since the issue persists after swapping both the HDMI cable and the external monitor, the problem is isolated to the laptop's HDMI port. A faulty or damaged HDMI port can cause intermittent signal loss due to poor physical contact, bent pins, or internal solder fractures, leading to flickering. The laptop's internal display works fine, ruling out the graphics driver as the primary cause.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may incorrectly blame the graphics driver because they assume external display issues are always software-related, ignoring the physical integrity of the port. In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting, it's important to isolate the problem by swapping known-good components before concluding.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the laptop's internal display functions correctly, indicating the graphics driver is capable of rendering video without issues; a driver problem would typically affect both displays or cause system-wide artifacts. Option B is wrong because the customer already tried a different HDMI cable, and the flickering persisted, eliminating the cable as the variable. Option C is wrong because the customer tested a different external monitor and the issue remained, proving the monitor is not at fault.

Full explanation →

625

MCQeasy

A user reports that their computer's clock is consistently off by several minutes, causing authentication failures with the domain. The network uses Active Directory. Which service should be checked first?

A.DHCP

B.DNS

C.NTP

D.RADIUS

AnswerC

Kerberos authentication in Active Directory rejects tickets when client and domain controller clocks drift beyond five minutes. Network Time Protocol synchronises the workstation clock to the domain hierarchy, so checking NTP first resolves the skew causing authentication failures.

Why this answer

NTP (Network Time Protocol) is the correct service to check first because the symptom—a clock consistently off by several minutes causing authentication failures with an Active Directory domain—is a classic sign of time synchronization issues. Active Directory uses Kerberos for authentication, which requires the client and domain controller clocks to be within a default skew of 5 minutes (RFC 4120). If the time is off, Kerberos tickets are rejected, leading to authentication failures.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse time synchronization with DHCP or DNS, assuming those services handle all network configuration, but NTP is the root cause for Kerberos authentication failures due to time skew.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) assigns IP addresses, subnet masks, and other network configuration parameters, but it does not manage system time synchronization; while DHCP can provide an NTP server option (option 42), the core issue is the time sync service itself, not the address assignment. Option B is wrong because DNS (Domain Name System) resolves hostnames to IP addresses and is critical for domain discovery and service location, but it does not directly affect the system clock or Kerberos time skew requirements. Option D is wrong because RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is used for network access authentication (e.g., VPN, 802.1X), not for domain authentication within Active Directory, and it does not handle time synchronization.

Full explanation →

626

MCQmedium

During a hardware installation, a technician needs to connect the front panel USB 3.0 ports of a new case to the motherboard. The motherboard has a 20-pin USB 3.0 header. Which cable from the case should be connected to this header?

A.A 9-pin USB 2.0 cable

B.A 4-pin power LED cable

C.A 10-pin audio cable

D.A 20-pin (19-pin) USB 3.0 cable

AnswerD

The 20-pin (often referred to as 19-pin due to a blocked keying pin) USB 3.0 cable is the correct and standard connector for interfacing front panel USB 3.0 ports with the motherboard. This cable provides the necessary SuperSpeed data lines (up to 5 Gbps) and power connections. Its specific physical design and pinout ensure proper electrical communication and mechanical fit with the motherboard's internal USB 3.0 header, enabling full functionality for connected USB 3.0 devices.

Why this answer

The motherboard's 20-pin USB 3.0 header (often described as 19-pin because one pin is keyed/blocked) is designed to connect to the case's front-panel USB 3.0 cable, which terminates in a matching 20-pin (19-pin) connector. This is the standard internal USB 3.0 front-panel header defined by the Intel specification.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests whether candidates can match front-panel connector pin counts and labels to the correct motherboard headers, exploiting confusion between similar-looking 9-pin, 10-pin, and 20-pin connectors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a 9-pin USB 2.0 cable connects to the older 9-pin USB 2.0 header, not the 20-pin USB 3.0 header, and would not physically fit or provide USB 3.0 speeds. Option B is wrong because a 4-pin power LED cable connects to the front-panel LED header for power indication, not USB. Option C is wrong because a 10-pin audio cable connects to the front-panel audio header (often labeled F_AUDIO or AAFP), not USB.

Full explanation →

627

MCQeasy

A technician is installing a new VoIP phone for a user. The user's desk already has a Cat6 wall jack, but the phone requires both network connectivity and a separate power source. The technician has a limited number of power outlets nearby. What is the simplest solution?

A.Run a new power extension cord from the nearest outlet.

B.Use a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector between the wall jack and the phone.

C.Replace the Cat6 cable with a USB-C cable for power.

D.Install a wireless bridge to eliminate the cable.

AnswerB

Using a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector between the wall jack and the phone is the most appropriate solution. A PoE injector actively adds electrical power to the existing Ethernet cable, allowing the VoIP phone to receive both data and power over a single Cat6 cable. This eliminates the need for a separate power adapter at the phone's location, simplifying cabling, reducing clutter, and providing a clean, efficient power delivery method for the device.

Why this answer

Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector allows both data and power to be delivered over the existing Cat6 cable, eliminating the need for a separate power outlet. The injector is placed between the wall jack and the phone, injecting power onto the Ethernet cable. This is the simplest solution because it reuses the existing cabling and requires no new power runs.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests whether candidates overlook PoE as a solution when a power outlet is scarce, instead choosing to run extension cords or wireless bridges that don't address the combined data and power need.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because running a power extension cord may not be feasible with limited outlets and adds cable clutter, and it does not address the phone's power requirement in a clean way. Option C is wrong because USB-C cannot carry Ethernet data to a VoIP phone; the phone requires an Ethernet connection for network connectivity. Option D is wrong because a wireless bridge eliminates the cable but introduces complexity, potential reliability issues, and still requires a power source for the phone, which does not solve the power problem.

Full explanation →

628

MCQhard

A company's IT policy requires that all network traffic from the guest Wi-Fi be isolated from the internal corporate network. The guest network uses a separate SSID and VLAN. Which additional configuration is necessary to ensure complete isolation?

A.Enable DHCP snooping on the guest VLAN

B.Configure a router-on-a-stick with subinterfaces

C.Implement an ACL that denies traffic from the guest VLAN to the corporate VLAN

D.Set the guest network to use a different subnet mask

AnswerC

An Access Control List (ACL) is a set of rules configured on a router or Layer 3 switch that filters network traffic based on criteria such as source IP address, destination IP address, port number, and protocol. By implementing an ACL that explicitly denies all traffic originating from the guest VLAN's IP subnet and destined for the corporate VLAN's IP subnet, complete isolation is achieved. This ensures that guest devices cannot initiate communication with corporate resources, fulfilling the security policy.

Why this answer

VLANs and separate SSIDs provide logical segmentation at Layer 2, but they do not by themselves prevent Layer 3 traffic from being routed between VLANs. If the guest VLAN has an SVI or router interface with a route to the corporate VLAN, traffic can flow between them. An ACL applied to the guest VLAN's router interface (or inter-VLAN routing path) that explicitly denies guest-to-corporate traffic and permits guest-to-internet is what enforces the isolation required by policy.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a separate SSID and VLAN alone provide isolation; candidates forget that VLANs are Layer 2 constructs and that Layer 3 routing between them must be explicitly blocked with an ACL or firewall rule.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP snooping only prevents rogue DHCP servers and DHCP starvation attacks on a VLAN; it does not filter routed traffic between VLANs. Option B is wrong because router-on-a-stick with subinterfaces actually enables inter-VLAN routing, which would make isolation worse, not better. Option D is wrong because changing the subnet mask does not prevent routing between subnets; a router will still forward packets between them if routes exist.

Full explanation →

629

MCQmedium

A technician is replacing a cracked screen on a tablet. After removing the digitizer and LCD assembly, they notice the home button flex cable is torn. The tablet still has a physical home button. What should the technician do to ensure the repair is complete and the home button functions?

A.Solder the torn ends of the flex cable together.

B.Use electrical tape to hold the torn cable together.

C.Replace the home button flex cable with a new one.

D.Ignore the tear and reassemble the tablet.

AnswerC

The most reliable and professional repair involves replacing the damaged home button flex cable with an identical, new component. This ensures that all necessary electrical pathways are fully restored and that the mechanical integrity of the connection is sound, allowing the home button to regain its intended functionality without risk of intermittent issues, further damage, or compromised performance.

Why this answer

A torn flex cable cannot be reliably repaired by soldering or taping due to the fine pitch and multilayer construction of modern tablet flex cables. Replacing the entire home button flex cable assembly is the only method that restores the electrical continuity and mechanical integrity required for the physical home button to function properly.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that a torn flex cable can be repaired with simple tools like solder or tape, when in fact the only proper solution is to replace the entire flex cable assembly.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because soldering the torn ends of a flex cable is impractical; the traces are extremely thin, often embedded in multiple layers, and the heat from soldering can damage adjacent components or cause short circuits. Option B is wrong because electrical tape provides no electrical connection and will not bridge the broken traces, so the home button will remain non-functional. Option D is wrong because ignoring the tear and reassembling the tablet leaves the home button circuit open, meaning the button will not work and the repair is incomplete.

Full explanation →

630

MCQhard

A technician is replacing the battery in a slim laptop where the battery is glued inside the chassis. After removing the bottom cover, the technician sees the battery is firmly attached with adhesive. What is the safest method to remove the battery without damaging the laptop?

A.Use a flathead screwdriver to pry the battery out forcefully.

B.Apply isopropyl alcohol around the battery edges to weaken the adhesive, then gently pry with a plastic spudger.

C.Heat the battery with a heat gun to soften the adhesive.

D.Use a suction cup to pull the battery straight up.

AnswerB

Applying isopropyl alcohol around the battery edges is the correct and safest method to weaken the adhesive without damaging the battery or surrounding components. Isopropyl alcohol effectively dissolves common electronic adhesives and evaporates quickly, leaving no residue. Following this, a plastic spudger provides the necessary leverage to gently pry the battery, preventing accidental punctures or short circuits that metal tools could cause.

Why this answer

Isopropyl alcohol (90% or higher) safely weakens the adhesive bond without damaging the battery or surrounding components. Using a plastic spudger to gently pry after applying alcohol minimizes the risk of puncturing the lithium-ion battery, which could cause a fire or chemical leak. This method is the industry-recommended approach for glued-in batteries in slim laptops.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think heat is safe because it works for other adhesives, but CompTIA tests the specific danger of thermal runaway in lithium-ion batteries, making heat a hazardous choice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using a flathead screwdriver to forcefully pry the battery can puncture the lithium-ion cell, causing a short circuit, fire, or chemical leakage, and may also damage the motherboard or chassis. Option C is wrong because heating a lithium-ion battery with a heat gun can cause thermal runaway, leading to swelling, rupture, or explosion; batteries are heat-sensitive and should never be directly heated. Option D is wrong because a suction cup cannot generate enough force to overcome the adhesive bond without risking damage to the battery casing or internal components, and it provides no control over the separation angle.

Full explanation →

631

MCQmedium

A user reports that a cloud-hosted application is running very slowly during peak hours. The application is hosted on an IaaS platform with a single virtual machine. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.The user's internet connection is saturated

B.The virtual machine is under-provisioned for the current workload

C.The cloud provider is experiencing a regional outage

D.The application's power supply is failing

AnswerB

Under-provisioning means the virtual machine (VM) lacks sufficient allocated resources, such as CPU cores, RAM, or I/O capacity, to handle the demands of the application during periods of high usage. When the workload increases significantly, the VM becomes resource-constrained, leading to processing delays, increased latency, and the observed application slowdowns and unresponsiveness during peak hours.

Why this answer

A single virtual machine on IaaS that runs slowly during peak hours is most likely under-provisioned — insufficient vCPU, memory, or I/O for the peak workload. Cloud VMs have fixed resource allocations, so when demand spikes, the instance becomes a bottleneck, causing high latency.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the shared responsibility model and cloud resource constraints — candidates may incorrectly blame the provider's infrastructure (outage) or the user's ISP when the issue is the customer's under-provisioned VM.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a saturated user internet connection would affect that one user, not necessarily the application for all users during peak hours, and the scenario describes a cloud-hosted app with a single VM. Option C is wrong because a regional outage would cause an outage or errors, not gradual slowness only at peak times. Option D is wrong because cloud VMs do not have a user-serviceable power supply; power is the provider's responsibility and a failure would cause a hard stop, not slowness.

Full explanation →

632

MCQhard

A user reports that a desktop PC randomly shuts down during intensive tasks such as gaming or video rendering. The technician notices the power supply is rated at 500W and the system includes a high-end GPU with a TDP of 250W and a CPU with a TDP of 125W. The PSU has a single 12V rail rated at 30A. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the shutdowns?

A.The PSU's 12V rail is insufficient to meet the combined power demand under load.

B.The PSU's total wattage of 500W is too low for the system's components.

C.The GPU requires a dedicated 12V rail that is not available on this PSU.

D.The CPU and GPU are drawing power from the 5V rail instead of the 12V rail.

AnswerA

The 12V rail supplies power to the CPU and GPU, which are the primary consumers. A 30A rating on the 12V rail provides 360W (12V × 30A). The combined TDP of the GPU and CPU alone is 375W, exceeding the rail's capacity before accounting for other components. This causes voltage drops or overcurrent protection shutdowns during heavy loads. Thus, the 12V rail is insufficient, making this the most likely cause.

Why this answer

The 12V rail provides power to the CPU and GPU. With a 30A rating, it can supply 360W, but the combined TDP of the CPU and GPU is 375W, exceeding that capacity. Under intensive tasks, the PSU's overcurrent protection may trigger, causing shutdowns.

The total wattage is less relevant than the 12V rail's amperage. Upgrading to a PSU with a higher 12V amperage would resolve the issue.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing solely on the PSU's total wattage while ignoring the 12V rail's amperage limit, which is the actual bottleneck.

Full explanation →

633

MCQhard

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two servers. Server A has IP 192.168.10.25/25, and Server B has IP 192.168.10.200/25. Server A can ping its default gateway (192.168.10.1) but cannot ping Server B. What is the most likely cause?

A.Server A has a duplicate IP address.

B.The subnet mask is incorrect on one of the servers.

C.The servers are on different subnets and require a router to communicate.

D.The default gateway is misconfigured.

AnswerC

A /25 subnet mask (255.255.255.128) divides the 192.168.10.0/24 network into two subnets: 192.168.10.0/25 (hosts 1-126) and 192.168.10.128/25 (hosts 129-254). Server A's IP (192.168.10.25) falls within the first subnet, while Server B's IP (192.168.10.200) belongs to the second. Since they reside on different logical networks, a router is necessary to forward traffic between them, as direct layer 2 communication is not possible.

Why this answer

Server A (192.168.10.25/25) has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128, placing it in the 192.168.10.0/25 subnet (range 0–127). Server B (192.168.10.200/25) is in the 192.168.10.128/25 subnet (range 128–255). These are different subnets, so Server A cannot reach Server B directly via Layer 2; a router (or Layer 3 switch) is required to forward traffic between them.

The fact that Server A can ping its default gateway (192.168.10.1) confirms its IP and mask are correctly configured for its own subnet.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a /25 mask is simply a larger subnet that includes all addresses from .0 to .255, when in fact it creates two distinct subnets that require a router to communicate.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a duplicate IP address would cause intermittent connectivity or address conflict errors, not a consistent inability to ping Server B while still being able to ping the default gateway. Option B is wrong because both servers use the same /25 mask (255.255.255.128), so the mask is consistent; the issue is that the mask itself divides the /24 network into two subnets, separating the servers. Option D is wrong because Server A can successfully ping its default gateway (192.168.10.1), proving the gateway is reachable and correctly configured; the problem is that Server A has no route to Server B's subnet.

Full explanation →

634

MCQeasy

During a network upgrade, a new switch is installed. After connecting all devices, one workstation cannot obtain an IP address via DHCP, while all other workstations on the same switch work fine. What is the first step to troubleshoot this issue?

A.Replace the network cable.

B.Check if the network cable is securely connected and the link lights are on.

C.Restart the DHCP service on the router.

D.Assign a static IP address to the workstation.

AnswerB

Verifying the physical connection and observing link lights is the foundational first step in network troubleshooting, aligning with the OSI model's Layer 1. A securely seated cable and active link lights on both the device and the switch port confirm basic physical connectivity and signal transmission. This quick check can immediately identify common issues like a loose cable, a disabled port, or a hardware fault, preventing unnecessary complex diagnostics.

Why this answer

The first step in troubleshooting a single workstation that cannot obtain a DHCP address is to verify physical connectivity — checking that the network cable is securely connected and the link lights are on. This quickly rules out the most common cause (loose or faulty cabling) before moving to more complex diagnostics. Only after confirming physical connectivity should you investigate DHCP services or IP configuration.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the troubleshooting methodology principle of starting with the simplest, most likely cause (physical connectivity) rather than jumping to service restarts or configuration changes, catching candidates who skip Layer 1 checks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the cable is premature; you should first check if the existing cable is securely connected and the link lights are active. Option C is wrong because restarting the DHCP service on the router is a drastic step that affects all clients, and the problem is isolated to one workstation, so the DHCP server is likely fine. Option D is wrong because assigning a static IP is a workaround, not a troubleshooting step, and it masks the underlying issue rather than diagnosing it.

Full explanation →

635

MCQhard

A technician is configuring a new satellite internet connection for a rural home. After aligning the dish, the modem shows 'online' but the user cannot browse the web. What is the most likely cause?

A.The dish is not aligned properly.

B.The router's MTU setting is too high.

C.The modem's firmware is outdated.

D.The user's browser is incompatible.

AnswerB

Satellite internet connections often have a smaller Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) path due to overhead from encapsulation and retransmission protocols. If the router's MTU is set to a standard Ethernet value like 1500 bytes, but the satellite path's effective MTU is lower (e.g., 1400 bytes), packets will be fragmented. Excessive fragmentation can lead to packet loss, retransmissions, and significantly degraded performance or complete failure for certain applications, even if the modem is online.

Why this answer

The modem shows 'online', indicating the satellite link is established, but the user cannot browse the web. This points to a Layer 3 or Layer 4 issue rather than a physical alignment problem. Satellite internet often uses a high MTU (e.g., 1500 bytes), but the link may have a lower effective MTU due to encapsulation overhead (e.g., PPPoE or VPN).

If the router's MTU is set too high, packets larger than the path MTU will be fragmented or dropped, causing web pages to fail to load while the modem remains online.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that an 'online' status guarantees full internet connectivity, when in reality it only confirms Layer 1 and Layer 2 synchronization, leaving higher-layer issues like MTU misconfiguration as the hidden culprit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the modem shows 'online', which indicates the dish is aligned properly and the satellite signal is being received; misalignment would prevent the modem from reaching an online state. Option C is wrong because outdated modem firmware typically causes connectivity drops, slow speeds, or failure to sync, not a scenario where the modem shows online but web browsing fails. Option D is wrong because browser incompatibility is extremely rare and would not prevent all web browsing; it would manifest as rendering issues or specific site errors, not a complete inability to browse.

Full explanation →

636

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a color laser printer that prints documents with a yellow tint on all pages. The yellow toner cartridge is full, and the other colors are at normal levels. Which component is the most likely cause?

A.The fuser assembly is overheating.

B.The yellow toner cartridge's shutter is stuck open.

C.The printer's color calibration is incorrect.

D.The printer driver is set to grayscale.

AnswerB

If the yellow toner cartridge's shutter is stuck in the open position, it allows a continuous and uncontrolled flow of yellow toner onto the imaging drum. This constant deposition means that yellow toner will be picked up and transferred to the paper during every print cycle, regardless of the intended color composition. The result is a pervasive and uniform yellow tint across the entire page, as yellow is inadvertently added to all printed content.

Why this answer

A yellow tint on every page with a full yellow cartridge points to excess yellow toner being deposited, which happens when the yellow cartridge's shutter (the mechanical door that should close when the cartridge is not actively imaging) is stuck open. This lets yellow toner continuously transfer to the drum/paper, tinting all output. A full cartridge rules out depletion, and the symptom is uniform rather than calibration-related.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests whether candidates distinguish mechanical cartridge faults (stuck shutter, damaged drum) from software/calibration issues — a uniform tint with a full cartridge points to hardware, not a driver or calibration setting.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an overheating fuser causes smearing, poor toner adhesion, or paper jams — not a consistent color tint. Option C is wrong because incorrect color calibration typically causes color shifts that are correctable via calibration routines and usually affect multiple colors, not a uniform yellow cast with a full cartridge. Option D is wrong because grayscale mode would produce black-and-white output, not yellow-tinted pages.

Full explanation →

637

MCQmedium

A user reports that their multifunction printer is producing prints with faint, streaky text. The printer uses a toner cartridge and has been in service for two years. The technician has already run a cleaning cycle. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the fuser assembly

B.Check the toner cartridge level

C.Update the printer firmware

D.Inspect the transfer roller

AnswerB

Low toner levels directly lead to faint or streaky prints because there isn't enough toner powder available to uniformly adhere to the imaging drum and subsequently transfer to the paper. As the cartridge empties, the remaining toner may be unevenly distributed, causing areas of the print to appear significantly lighter or to exhibit vertical streaks where the developer roller cannot pick up sufficient toner.

Why this answer

Faint, streaky output on a laser/MFP device that uses toner is most commonly caused by a low or unevenly distributed toner supply. Since a cleaning cycle has already been run and did not resolve the issue, the next logical step is to check the toner cartridge level and distribution before replacing more expensive components like the fuser or transfer roller.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the principle of 'least invasive, most likely cause first' — candidates are tempted to jump to fuser or transfer roller replacement, but the exam expects you to rule out the consumable (toner) before escalating to hardware parts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a failing fuser typically causes smearing, toner not fusing to the page, or repeated ghost images rather than faint streaks, and it is a costly part to replace before ruling out consumables. Option C is wrong because firmware updates address logic, compatibility, and feature bugs, not physical print-quality degradation from a depleted consumable. Option D is wrong because a faulty transfer roller usually produces blank spots, repeating marks, or toner scattering, not the gradual fading associated with low toner.

Full explanation →

638

MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a network where users in one department cannot reach a critical server. You need to check if the server's IP address is reachable and measure the round-trip time. Which command-line tool provides this information?

A.ping

B.tracert

C.nslookup

D.netstat

AnswerA

The `ping` utility sends Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Echo Request packets to a target host and listens for ICMP Echo Reply packets. This process effectively measures the round-trip time (RTT) for packets to reach the destination and return, thereby confirming basic IP-level connectivity and providing an initial assessment of network latency. It is the foundational tool for verifying if a remote device is alive and reachable on the network.

Why this answer

The `ping` command uses ICMP Echo Request and Echo Reply messages to test reachability of a target IP address and measures the round-trip time (RTT) in milliseconds. This directly matches the requirement to check if the server's IP address is reachable and to measure the RTT.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse tracert with ping, thinking tracert also provides reachability and RTT to the final destination, but tracert focuses on hop-by-hop path discovery and only shows RTT per hop, not a single end-to-end RTT measurement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (tracert) is wrong because it traces the route packets take to a destination by incrementing the TTL value, showing each hop's IP address and RTT, but it does not simply test reachability and RTT to the final destination in a single-shot manner like ping. Option C (nslookup) is wrong because it queries DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses or vice versa, and does not test network-layer reachability or measure RTT. Option D (netstat) is wrong because it displays active network connections, routing tables, and interface statistics, but it does not send probe packets to test reachability of a remote IP address.

Full explanation →

639

MCQeasy

A technician needs to boot a laptop from a USB drive to run a diagnostic tool. The USB is plugged in but the system skips it and boots from the internal SSD. Which UEFI setting is most likely preventing the USB boot?

A.Disable Secure Boot

B.Enable Fast Boot

C.Set SATA mode to RAID

D.Disable the TPM

AnswerA

Secure Boot is a UEFI firmware feature designed to enhance system security by preventing the loading of unauthorized operating systems or drivers during the boot process. It validates the digital signature of bootloaders and kernel modules against a database of trusted keys. When attempting to boot from a diagnostic USB drive or other external media that lacks a valid, trusted digital signature, Secure Boot will typically block the operation, necessitating its disablement to proceed.

Why this answer

If Secure Boot is enabled and the USB is not signed or UEFI-bootable, the system may ignore it. Alternatively, the boot order may not include USB. This tests understanding of boot security and order settings.

Full explanation →

640

MCQmedium

A user reports that their PC powers on for a second then immediately shuts off. This repeats in a loop. What is the most likely hardware issue?

A.Defective CPU

B.Incorrectly installed motherboard standoffs causing a short

C.Overheated GPU

D.Corrupted BIOS

AnswerB

Incorrectly installed or misplaced motherboard standoffs can create an electrical short circuit between the motherboard's conductive traces and the metal computer case. This short can interfere with the power delivery system or critical data lines, triggering the power supply's short-circuit protection. This protection causes the system to immediately power off or enter a power-on/power-off loop to prevent permanent damage to components.

Why this answer

A PC that powers on for a second and immediately shuts off in a repeating loop is a classic symptom of a short circuit, most commonly caused by motherboard standoffs installed in the wrong position or missing, allowing the motherboard to contact the metal chassis. The power supply detects the short and shuts down to protect itself, then retries — producing the loop.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the confusion between 'no power at all' (PSU failure) and 'powers on then immediately off' (short circuit) — candidates who pick the PSU miss that the PSU is actually working and protecting itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a defective CPU typically results in no POST, beep codes, or a system that powers on but never completes POST — not an immediate power-off loop, since the CPU is not the component that trips short-circuit protection. Option C is wrong because an overheated GPU causes thermal throttling, artifacts, or shutdown after minutes of load, not an immediate one-second power cycle at cold boot. Option D is wrong because a corrupted BIOS usually allows the system to power on and stay on, displaying a BIOS checksum error or failing to find a boot device — it does not cause an instant power-off loop.

Full explanation →

641

Multi-Selectmedium

A user reports that their laser printer produces pages with vertical streaks and smudges. The technician suspects a problem with the printer's internal components. Which two components are MOST likely to cause this issue? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers

A.Transfer roller

B.Fuser assembly

C.Drum unit

D.Paper feed rollers

E.Toner cartridge

AnswersC, E

The drum unit, if separate from the toner cartridge, can cause vertical streaks if scratched or dirty. Even in cartridges that include the drum, damage to the drum surface leads to repeating marks or streaks. Cleaning or replacing the drum unit often fixes the problem. This is a primary suspect for vertical line artifacts.

Why this answer

Vertical streaks and smudges in laser printing are typically caused by issues with the toner cartridge or the drum unit. A scratched drum or uneven toner distribution creates streaks as the drum rotates. The fuser, transfer roller, and paper feed rollers may cause other print defects but are less directly linked to vertical streaks.

Thus, the toner cartridge and drum unit are the most likely culprits.

Exam trap

The trap here is blaming the fuser for all smudging issues, but vertical streaks specifically point to the drum or toner cartridge.

Full explanation →

642

MCQhard

A technician is installing a new network in a school and must run cables through air handling plenums. What type of cable jacket is required for this installation?

A.PVC jacket

B.Plenum-rated jacket

C.Shielded jacket

D.Riser-rated jacket

AnswerB

A plenum-rated (CMP) jacket is specifically engineered with special fire-retardant materials, such as fluorinated polymers (e.g., FEP or PVDF), to meet stringent fire safety codes for installation in air-handling plenum spaces. These cables exhibit low-smoke production and low flame-spread characteristics when exposed to fire, preventing the rapid distribution of toxic fumes and fire throughout a building's ventilation system. This rating is crucial for occupant safety and compliance with building codes.

Why this answer

Plenum-rated jackets are required for cables installed in air handling plenums because they are made of low-smoke, low-flame materials (such as FEP or PFA) that do not emit toxic fumes or support combustion in the event of a fire. This complies with fire safety codes like the National Electrical Code (NEC) Article 725 and ensures that the air circulation system does not spread smoke or flames throughout the building.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'plenum-rated' with 'riser-rated' or assume that shielding (e.g., STP) provides fire protection, when in fact the jacket rating is solely about fire safety and smoke emission, not signal integrity or physical protection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because PVC (polyvinyl chloride) jackets produce dense, toxic smoke and can drip burning material when heated, making them unsafe for plenum spaces where air circulates. Option C is wrong because a shielded jacket refers to electromagnetic interference (EMI) protection (e.g., foil or braid shielding), not fire resistance; shielding does not address the fire code requirements for plenum installations. Option D is wrong because riser-rated jackets (CMR) are designed for vertical runs between floors and offer some fire resistance, but they do not meet the stricter low-smoke, low-flame standards required for plenum spaces.

Full explanation →

643

MCQmedium

A network administrator is configuring a new firewall to allow remote employees to securely access internal resources. The requirement is to encrypt all traffic between the remote client and the internal network. Which protocol should be used?

A.SSL/TLS

B.IPsec

C.L2TP

D.HTTP

AnswerB

IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a robust suite of protocols operating at the network layer, specifically designed to secure IP communications by encrypting and authenticating each IP packet. It is the industry standard for creating secure VPN tunnels, supporting both site-to-site and remote access connections. A firewall commonly utilizes IPsec to establish secure, encrypted links to internal networks, ensuring data confidentiality and integrity across untrusted networks.

Why this answer

IPsec is the correct choice because it provides end-to-end encryption at the network layer (Layer 3), securing all IP traffic between a remote client and an internal network. It operates in tunnel mode to encapsulate the entire original IP packet, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for remote access VPNs. SSL/TLS operates at the transport layer and is typically used for securing individual application sessions (e.g., HTTPS), not for encrypting all traffic from a remote client to an entire internal network.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that SSL/TLS is sufficient for full network-layer encryption, when in fact it only secures individual application sessions, whereas IPsec is the standard for encrypting all traffic between a remote client and an internal network.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (SSL/TLS) is wrong because it secures only specific application-layer protocols (e.g., HTTPS, LDAPS) and does not provide network-layer encryption for all IP traffic; it is not designed for site-to-site or full-tunnel remote access VPNs. Option C (L2TP) is wrong because it is a tunneling protocol that does not include encryption by itself; it must be combined with IPsec (L2TP/IPsec) to provide confidentiality, and the question explicitly requires encryption. Option D (HTTP) is wrong because it is an unencrypted application-layer protocol used for web traffic and provides no security; it is the opposite of a secure remote access solution.

Full explanation →

644

MCQmedium

During a network upgrade, a technician needs to connect a legacy printer that only has a USB port to the network. The printer is in a location without a nearby computer. Which device should the technician use to enable network printing?

A.USB hub

B.Wireless access point

C.External print server

D.Network switch

AnswerC

An external print server is a specialized hardware device specifically designed to connect a local printer, typically via a USB or parallel port, directly to a network. It features an Ethernet port for network connectivity and embedded firmware that manages print queues and protocols, allowing multiple network clients to send print jobs to the attached printer. This solution effectively transforms a non-network-ready printer into a shared network resource, making it accessible to all authorized users on the LAN without requiring a dedicated host computer.

Why this answer

An external print server is a dedicated device that connects a USB-only printer to a network, allowing it to receive print jobs over Ethernet or Wi-Fi. It acts as a bridge between the network and the printer's USB interface, giving the legacy printer a network presence without needing a nearby computer to share it. This is the standard solution for network-enabling USB printers in locations without a host PC.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the misconception that a wireless access point or USB hub can network-enable a USB printer — only a device with both a USB host port and a network interface (external print server) can bridge the two.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB hub only expands the number of USB ports on a single host — it does not provide network connectivity or allow the printer to be shared across a network. Option B is wrong because a wireless access point provides Wi-Fi connectivity to wireless clients but has no USB printer port and cannot bridge a USB printer to the network. Option D is wrong because a network switch forwards Ethernet frames between wired devices but has no USB interface to connect a USB-only printer.

Full explanation →

645

MCQmedium

A user's smartphone can send and receive text messages but cannot access the internet over cellular data. Wi-Fi internet works fine. Which setting is most likely misconfigured?

A.The Wi-Fi hotspot is enabled.

B.The APN settings are incorrect.

C.Bluetooth is turned on.

D.The device is in roaming mode.

AnswerB

APN (Access Point Name) settings are critical configuration parameters that dictate how a mobile device connects to the internet via its cellular carrier's network. These settings specify the gateway and protocols required for data transmission. If the APN settings are incorrect, misconfigured, or missing, the device will be unable to establish a data connection, preventing internet access, while basic services like SMS and voice calls, which often use separate signaling channels, may continue to function normally.

Why this answer

The APN (Access Point Name) defines the gateway between the mobile network and the internet. If the APN settings are incorrect or missing, the device can still register on the cellular network for voice and SMS (which use the control plane) but cannot establish a data session (user plane) because the packet data network gateway cannot be reached. Wi-Fi internet works fine because it bypasses the cellular data path entirely.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the APN setting as the root cause for 'SMS works, no cellular data' because many candidates mistakenly think SMS and data use the same network path, but SMS uses the signaling channel (SS7/IMS) while data requires a separate PDP context through the APN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because enabling the Wi-Fi hotspot would share the device's cellular data connection, not block it; the symptom is that cellular data does not work at all, which is the opposite of a hotspot issue. Option C is wrong because Bluetooth is a short-range personal area network technology used for peripherals and file transfers, not for internet connectivity; turning Bluetooth on or off has no effect on cellular data access. Option D is wrong because roaming mode affects how the device connects to foreign networks when outside the home coverage area; if the device is not roaming (i.e., on its home network), this setting is irrelevant, and even when roaming, it would not prevent SMS while blocking data—roaming typically affects data, voice, and SMS together or not at all.

Full explanation →

646

MCQmedium

A company is expanding its office to a new building 5 kilometers away and needs to connect the two LANs so employees can share files and access the same servers as if they were in one location. They want a dedicated, high-speed connection without using the public internet. Which network type should be implemented?

A.Local Area Network (LAN)

B.Wide Area Network (WAN)

C.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

D.Personal Area Network (PAN)

AnswerC

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is specifically designed to interconnect multiple Local Area Networks (LANs) within a city or a large metropolitan area, making it ideal for connecting separate office buildings that are geographically dispersed but still within a reasonable urban range. These networks typically provide high-speed, dedicated connectivity over distances up to several tens of kilometers, perfectly suiting the requirement to connect two buildings 5 km apart with robust and efficient links. This architecture offers a balance between the limited scope of a LAN and the vastness of a WAN.

Why this answer

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is designed to interconnect multiple LANs across a city or metropolitan region, typically up to 50 km, using dedicated fiber optic links such as Metro Ethernet or SONET/SDH. This provides the high-speed, private connection required without traversing the public internet, making it ideal for connecting two offices 5 km apart.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between MAN and WAN based on geographic scope; the trap here is that candidates see 'connecting two LANs' and immediately think WAN, ignoring that the 5 km distance fits the MAN definition, which is a specific exam objective for 220-1201.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Local Area Network (LAN) is confined to a single building or campus (typically up to 100 meters with copper cabling) and cannot span 5 km between separate buildings. Option B is wrong because a Wide Area Network (WAN) is designed for long-distance connections across cities, countries, or continents, often using leased lines or MPLS, but it is overkill and not the most appropriate term for a metropolitan-scale link; the question specifies a 5 km distance, which falls under MAN scope. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) covers only a few meters (e.g., Bluetooth or USB) and is entirely unsuitable for connecting two office LANs.

Full explanation →

647

MCQmedium

A thermal printer used for shipping labels is producing faint, hard-to-read labels. The printer has plenty of thermal paper loaded. What is the most likely cause?

A.The paper is upside down

B.The printhead is dirty or worn

C.The printer driver is incorrect

D.The paper is expired

AnswerB

A dirty printhead accumulates dust, adhesive residue, or paper fibers, creating a barrier that obstructs efficient heat transfer from the printhead's heating elements to the thermal paper. Similarly, a worn printhead has abraded or damaged heating elements, reducing their ability to generate or transfer sufficient heat consistently. Both conditions directly impede the chemical reaction on the thermal paper, leading to insufficient darkening and producing faint, inconsistent, or incomplete labels.

Why this answer

Faint, hard-to-read labels from a thermal printer with plenty of paper are most commonly caused by a dirty or worn printhead. The printhead applies heat to the thermal paper to create the image; if it is dirty, heat transfer is uneven, and if worn, it may not reach the required temperature. Cleaning or replacing the printhead typically resolves the issue.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming the paper is the problem because it is a thermal printer, but the most likely cause with plenty of paper is a dirty or worn printhead; candidates may overlook maintenance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the paper were upside down, the labels would likely be blank or very faint, but thermal paper is typically coated on one side; however, the most common cause of faint printing with paper loaded correctly is a dirty printhead. Option C is wrong because an incorrect driver would typically cause garbled or no printing, not faint printing. Option D is wrong because thermal paper does not expire in a way that causes faint printing; it can degrade over time if exposed to heat or light, but that is less likely than a dirty printhead.

Full explanation →

648

MCQeasy

A user complains that their external USB hard drive is making a clicking sound and is no longer recognized by any computer. What is the most likely cause?

A.The USB cable is damaged.

B.The drive has suffered a logical failure.

C.The drive's enclosure is faulty.

D.The drive has experienced a mechanical failure.

AnswerD

Clicking sounds from a hard drive are a classic symptom of a severe mechanical failure within the drive's sealed unit. This often indicates issues like the read/write heads repeatedly attempting to find the service area or data tracks but failing, commonly referred to as a "head crash," or problems with the spindle motor that spins the platters. Such failures prevent proper data access and typically necessitate professional data recovery services or replacement of the drive.

Why this answer

A clicking sound from a hard drive is the classic symptom of a mechanical failure — typically a stuck or failing read/write head, a damaged platter, or a failing spindle motor. Because the drive is also not recognized by any computer, the failure is at the hardware level, not the logical or cabling level. Mechanical failures require professional data recovery if the data is critical.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the distinction between mechanical and logical drive failures — candidates hear 'not recognized' and jump to cable or enclosure causes, ignoring the clicking sound that specifically indicates internal mechanical failure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a damaged USB cable would cause intermittent disconnects or no power, but it would not produce a clicking sound from inside the drive. Option B is wrong because a logical failure (corrupted file system, bad partition table) would still allow the drive to spin up and be detected by the OS, just with unreadable data. Option C is wrong because a faulty enclosure would prevent detection but would not generate the mechanical clicking noise, which originates from the drive's internal components.

Full explanation →

649

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a VoIP phone that cannot register with the call server. The phone has a valid IP address and can ping the call server by IP. Which protocol is most likely not functioning correctly?

A.SIP

B.RTP

C.DHCP

D.DNS

AnswerA

SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is the crucial signaling protocol responsible for initiating, managing, and terminating VoIP calls. Its primary function in this context is to register the VoIP phone with the call server (often a SIP proxy or IP PBX), allowing the phone to announce its availability and receive incoming call information. If SIP traffic, typically on UDP/TCP ports 5060 or 5061, is blocked by a firewall, misconfigured on the phone, or the server address is incorrect, the phone cannot successfully register, preventing it from making or receiving any calls. This directly explains why the phone "cannot" function.

Why this answer

The phone has a valid IP address and can ping the call server by IP, which confirms that Layer 3 connectivity and DHCP are working. However, the phone cannot register with the call server, which requires the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) to exchange registration messages (REGISTER request and 200 OK response). If SIP is misconfigured, blocked by a firewall, or the SIP proxy is unreachable, registration will fail even though basic IP connectivity exists.

Exam trap

A common pitfall on the CompTIA A+ exam is confusing Layer 3 reachability (ping) with application-layer registration (SIP). Candidates may incorrectly suspect DHCP or DNS when the real issue is a misconfigured or blocked SIP protocol.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (RTP) is wrong because RTP is used for transporting actual voice media after a call is established, not for the registration process. Option C (DHCP) is wrong because the phone already has a valid IP address, indicating DHCP successfully provided an IP configuration. Option D (DNS) is wrong because the phone can ping the call server by IP address, so name resolution is not required for this test; DNS would only be needed if the phone were using a hostname to reach the server.

Full explanation →

650

MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new thermal printer for a retail point-of-sale system. After connecting the printer and installing the driver, the printer prints garbled characters and random symbols. What is the most likely cause?

A.The thermal paper is loaded upside down

B.The printer driver is incorrect for the model

C.The printhead is dirty

D.The printer is out of paper

AnswerB

An incorrect printer driver acts as an incompatible translator between the operating system and the printer hardware. It sends control codes and data formatting instructions that the specific thermal printer model cannot properly interpret or execute. This miscommunication causes the printer to render characters, symbols, or even blank spaces in a seemingly random or "garbled" fashion, as it attempts to process commands it doesn't understand.

Why this answer

Garbled or random characters from a thermal printer typically indicate a driver mismatch — the printer is receiving data it cannot interpret correctly, so it prints whatever byte stream it receives as random symbols. Installing the correct, model-specific driver (or using the generic ESC/POS driver if appropriate) resolves the encoding and command-set mismatch. This is distinct from physical issues like paper orientation or dirty printheads, which produce blank, faint, or streaked output rather than random characters.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the distinction between physical printer issues (paper, printhead) and logical/driver issues, and candidates frequently blame hardware when the symptom — random characters — points to a driver or encoding mismatch.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because thermal paper loaded upside down produces no print or very faint/blank output, not garbled characters, since the heat-sensitive side is not in contact with the printhead. Option C is wrong because a dirty printhead causes streaks, missing lines, or faded areas, not random symbols — the data itself is fine. Option D is wrong because being out of paper results in no output at all (and usually an error indicator), not garbled text.

Full explanation →

651

MCQhard

A technician is called to a home where the customer reports that their cable internet works fine, but the TV service has pixelated channels. The technician suspects a signal issue. What is the most appropriate tool to measure the signal strength and quality on the coaxial line?

A.A tone generator and probe

B.A multimeter

C.A cable tester (signal level meter)

D.An optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR)

AnswerC

A cable tester, specifically a signal level meter (SLM) or RF signal analyzer, is the correct tool for assessing the performance of coaxial cables. These devices are engineered to measure critical parameters such as signal strength (typically in dBmV), signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), modulation error ratio (MER), and bit error rate (BER). This allows a technician to accurately diagnose issues like weak signals, excessive noise, or signal degradation affecting television reception or internet connectivity.

Why this answer

A cable tester (signal level meter) is the correct tool because it measures both signal strength (in dBmV) and signal quality (SNR or MER) on a coaxial line, which directly diagnoses pixelation caused by poor signal levels or noise. The technician needs to verify that the RF signal from the cable provider meets the required thresholds (typically -10 to +10 dBmV for downstream) to ensure clear TV reception.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between tools used for RF coaxial signals versus fiber optics, leading candidates to confuse an OTDR (fiber) with a cable tester (coaxial) when the scenario clearly involves a cable TV service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a tone generator and probe is used to trace and identify specific coaxial cables, not to measure signal strength or quality. Option B is wrong because a multimeter measures DC voltage, resistance, or continuity, but cannot measure RF signal levels or modulation quality on a coaxial line. Option D is wrong because an OTDR is designed to test fiber optic cables by measuring light loss and reflections, not coaxial RF signals.

Full explanation →

652

MCQhard

A technician is setting up a small office network with a router, a switch, and a wireless access point. The router has only one LAN port. The technician needs to connect the switch and the WAP to the router, but the switch has no uplink port. Which hardware component should the technician use to connect both devices to the router?

A.Use a crossover cable to connect the router directly to the WAP.

B.Connect the router to the switch, then connect the WAP to the switch.

C.Use a hub between the router and the switch.

D.Configure the switch as a router to connect to the WAP.

AnswerB

Connecting the router to a switch, and then the WAP to the same switch, is the standard and most efficient method for expanding a small office network. The switch acts as a central distribution point, allowing multiple devices, including the WAP and other wired clients, to share the router's single LAN port. This configuration effectively expands the number of available network connections while maintaining proper network segmentation and efficient traffic management.

Why this answer

When the router has only one LAN port and the switch has no dedicated uplink port, the correct approach is to connect the router to any switch port (modern switches auto-detect and use a standard straight-through cable) and then connect the WAP to another switch port. This daisy-chains the devices so both share the router's LAN connection, which is standard small-office topology.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the outdated belief that a dedicated uplink port or crossover cable is required to connect a switch to a router, tempting candidates to pick crossover or hub options when modern auto-MDI/MDIX switches make any port usable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a crossover cable between the router and WAP does not solve the port shortage — the switch still needs to connect to the router, and modern devices auto-MDI/MDIX anyway, making crossover cables unnecessary. Option C is wrong because inserting a hub adds a collision domain, halves effective bandwidth, and does not solve the fundamental port limitation any better than the switch already does. Option D is wrong because a switch cannot be 'configured as a router' in a typical small-office unmanaged switch; it operates at Layer 2 and cannot perform routing or provide the WAN/LAN separation the router provides.

Full explanation →

653

MCQeasy

A user reports that they cannot access any websites by typing domain names, but they can access websites by entering IP addresses directly. The technician suspects a DNS issue. Which command should the technician use first to verify the DNS server settings on the user's Windows 10 computer?

A.ipconfig /all

B.ping

C.netstat -an

D.nslookup

AnswerA

ipconfig /all displays the full TCP/IP configuration for all adapters, including the DNS servers that are configured. This allows the technician to verify whether the correct DNS server addresses are assigned via DHCP or manually. Since the user can access sites by IP but not by name, checking DNS settings is the logical first step, making this command appropriate.

Why this answer

The ipconfig /all command shows the complete IP configuration, including DNS server addresses, which are essential to verify when name resolution fails. Since the user can reach sites by IP, the problem likely lies with DNS settings or the DNS server itself. Checking the configured DNS servers is the first step before testing resolution with tools like nslookup or ping.

Exam trap

The trap here is choosing nslookup because it directly relates to DNS, but the question asks to verify DNS server settings, which ipconfig /all provides.

Full explanation →

654

MCQmedium

A user reports that their computer is running very slowly and they hear a repetitive clicking sound from the case. The technician checks the SMART status of the primary hard drive and sees a 'Reallocated Sectors Count' value that is critically high. What should the technician do next?

A.Run a disk defragmentation to improve performance.

B.Back up all important data immediately.

C.Replace the SATA cable and power connector.

D.Disable the paging file to reduce disk activity.

AnswerB

A high reallocated sectors count, reported by SMART (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology), is a critical indicator of physical degradation and impending hard drive failure. These sectors are areas of the disk that have become unreliable and have been replaced by spare sectors. Therefore, the immediate priority is to back up all important data to prevent permanent loss, as the drive's operational lifespan is severely compromised.

Why this answer

A critically high Reallocated Sectors Count in SMART indicates that the hard drive has a significant number of bad sectors that have been remapped, which is a strong sign of imminent drive failure. The repetitive clicking sound, often called the 'click of death,' further confirms mechanical failure. The immediate priority is to back up all important data to prevent loss, as the drive could fail completely at any moment.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the priority of data backup when hardware failure is suspected. Candidates might be tempted to try software fixes like defrag or disabling paging, but the exam expects you to recognize imminent hardware failure and prioritize data preservation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disk defragmentation puts additional stress on a failing drive and can accelerate its failure, plus it does not address the underlying hardware issue. Option C is wrong because replacing cables does not fix internal drive mechanical problems; the SMART data and clicking sound point to the drive itself. Option D is wrong because disabling the paging file reduces disk activity but does not prevent data loss from a failing drive, and it may cause system instability.

Full explanation →

655

MCQhard

A technician is deploying tablets for use in a warehouse where workers wear gloves. The tablets need to be used for scanning barcodes and entering data. Which accessory is most critical for this environment?

A.A screen protector.

B.A Bluetooth keyboard.

C.A rugged case.

D.A capacitive stylus.

AnswerC

A rugged case is specifically engineered to provide superior physical protection for a tablet, crucial in environments prone to drops, impacts, and exposure to dust or moisture. These cases typically feature multi-layer construction with shock-absorbing materials, reinforced corners, and port covers to seal against ingress. This level of durability ensures the tablet can withstand the rigors of a warehouse, significantly extending its operational lifespan and reducing repair costs by safeguarding internal components and the display.

Why this answer

In a warehouse environment where workers wear gloves, the most critical accessory is a rugged case because it protects the tablet from drops, dust, and moisture common in industrial settings. While gloves prevent capacitive touchscreen use, a rugged case does not solve input issues but ensures device survival; however, the question asks for the most critical accessory for the environment, and without rugged protection, the tablet would fail quickly. The correct answer is C because it directly addresses the physical hazards of the warehouse, which are more fundamental than input method challenges.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that input method accessories (like a stylus or keyboard) are most critical in glove-wearing environments, but the exam emphasizes that device survival via rugged protection is the primary concern before usability can be considered.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a screen protector offers minimal protection against drops and impacts, and does not address the primary environmental hazards of a warehouse. Option B is wrong because a Bluetooth keyboard requires a flat surface and is impractical for mobile barcode scanning while standing or moving, and it does not solve the glove issue for direct touch input. Option D is wrong because a capacitive stylus requires a capacitive touchscreen and does not work with gloves unless the gloves are specifically designed for capacitive touch, which is not stated; moreover, a stylus is less efficient for rapid barcode scanning than a dedicated scanner.

Full explanation →

656

MCQeasy

During a desktop build, you install a new M.2 NVMe SSD into the M.2 slot. When you power on the system, the BIOS does not detect the drive. The SSD is known to be working. What is the most likely motherboard-related cause?

A.The M.2 slot is SATA-only and the drive is NVMe

B.The CMOS battery needs replacement

C.The motherboard BIOS is corrupted

D.The CPU is not seated properly

AnswerA

M.2 slots are versatile but can be protocol-specific, supporting either SATA or NVMe (PCIe-based) communication. If a motherboard's M.2 slot is wired only for SATA, it lacks the necessary PCIe lanes and controller logic to interface with an NVMe drive. Consequently, an NVMe M.2 drive installed in a SATA-only M.2 slot will not be detected by the system BIOS or operating system, as the electrical and logical communication protocols are incompatible despite a potential physical fit.

Why this answer

The most likely motherboard-related cause is that the M.2 slot is SATA-only while the installed drive is NVMe, because SATA M.2 slots use the SATA controller and cannot communicate with NVMe drives that use PCIe lanes. The drive is known-good, so the incompatibility is between the slot's supported protocol and the drive's interface. This is a common desktop build mistake.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the confusion between M.2 form factor and NVMe protocol, so candidates assume any M.2 drive works in any M.2 slot, missing the SATA-vs-NVMe slot wiring distinction.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a dead CMOS battery would cause lost BIOS settings, clock drift, or a prompt to reconfigure BIOS, not a specific failure to detect an M.2 drive. Option C is wrong because a corrupted BIOS would typically cause broader boot failures or POST errors, not a single drive not being detected, and the scenario says the system powers on. Option D is wrong because an improperly seated CPU would prevent the system from POSTing at all or cause memory/PCIe lane failures across multiple devices, not just one M.2 slot.

Full explanation →

657

MCQmedium

A user reports that they cannot access a website hosted on a remote server. The technician finds that the firewall allows HTTP and HTTPS traffic, but the website uses a non-standard port. The user's browser shows 'connection refused'. Which tool can the technician use to verify if the remote port is open?

A.Ping

B.Telnet

C.Nslookup

D.Tracert

AnswerB

Telnet is a versatile command-line utility that can establish a raw Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to a specified host and port number. By attempting to connect to a web server's IP address on its standard HTTP (port 80) or HTTPS (port 443) port, an administrator can directly verify if the server is actively listening for connections on that specific port. A successful connection, even if no data is subsequently exchanged, definitively indicates that the port is open and a service is running, thereby helping to isolate whether the problem lies with network connectivity to the port or a higher-level application issue.

Why this answer

Telnet can open a TCP connection to a specific host and port (e.g., 'telnet host 8080'), so it directly verifies whether the remote port is listening and reachable. A successful connection confirms the port is open; 'connection refused' or a timeout confirms it is closed or filtered. This makes Telnet the correct tool for port-level reachability testing.

Exam trap

The trap is choosing Ping because it 'tests connectivity'; 220-1201 tests whether you distinguish ICMP reachability from TCP port reachability, which requires a tool like Telnet.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Ping only tests ICMP reachability at the IP layer and says nothing about whether a specific TCP port is open. Option C is wrong because Nslookup resolves DNS names to IP addresses; it does not test port connectivity. Option D is wrong because Tracert maps the router path to a destination using ICMP/UDP TTL expiry; it does not verify TCP port state.

Full explanation →

658

MCQhard

A technician is tasked with connecting a legacy parallel port printer to a modern motherboard that lacks a parallel port header. The motherboard has an LPT header (25-pin) but it is not populated with a bracket. What is the best way to add a parallel port?

A.Install a USB-to-parallel adapter

B.Use a PCIe parallel port expansion card

C.Purchase an LPT bracket that connects to the motherboard header

D.Solder wires directly to the motherboard's LPT header pins

AnswerC

Purchasing an LPT bracket that connects to the motherboard header is the most direct, cost-effective, and appropriate solution. This bracket simply provides the physical DB-25 parallel port connector, routing the signals from the motherboard's integrated LPT header to an available expansion slot opening on the computer case. It leverages existing motherboard capabilities without requiring additional drivers or consuming valuable expansion slots.

Why this answer

The LPT header on the motherboard provides the necessary signals for a parallel port. A bracket with a ribbon cable that connects to this header is the correct solution. A USB-to-parallel adapter would work but may have compatibility issues and is not the best use of the existing header.

A PCIe parallel card is an alternative but unnecessary if the header is present.

Full explanation →

659

MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a new multifunction printer for a department. The device supports duplex printing, but the driver installation wizard does not show the duplex option. Users need to print on both sides of the paper. What should the technician do first?

A.Update the printer firmware to the latest version.

B.Check if the duplex unit is installed and properly connected.

C.Reinstall the printer driver using the manufacturer's full driver package.

D.Configure the duplex setting in the printer's web interface.

AnswerB

Many multifunction printers offer duplexing as an optional add-on unit, or it might be an integrated component that requires proper seating and connection. If the physical duplex unit is not correctly installed, securely connected, or even present, the printer's internal diagnostics and subsequently the installed printer driver will not detect its capability. Without hardware detection, the duplex option will simply not appear in any software interface, making this the essential first troubleshooting step.

Why this answer

The most likely reason the duplex option is missing from the driver installation wizard is that the duplex unit is not installed or not properly connected. Duplex printing requires a physical duplex unit in many printers, and if it is missing or not detected, the driver will not present the option. Checking the hardware first is the logical initial step before software troubleshooting.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the order of troubleshooting steps, and candidates may jump to software solutions (firmware, drivers) before verifying hardware installation, which is the most common cause of missing features.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because updating firmware is a software step that would not enable a missing hardware feature; if the duplex unit is absent, firmware updates won't help. Option C is wrong because reinstalling the driver with the full package might add features, but it is not the first step; hardware should be verified first. Option D is wrong because configuring duplex in the web interface assumes the hardware supports it and the driver would reflect that, but if the unit is not installed, the web interface may not show the option either.

Full explanation →

660

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their new all-in-one printer can scan and copy locally, but they cannot send scanned documents to their email address. The printer is connected to the office network and can ping other devices. Which protocol is most likely misconfigured on the printer?

A.FTP

B.IMAP

C.SMTP

D.SNMP

AnswerC

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the industry standard protocol specifically designed for sending outgoing email messages. When a device, such as an all-in-one printer, needs to send an email, it connects to an SMTP server to deliver the message. A misconfiguration of SMTP settings, such as the server address, port number, or authentication credentials, would directly prevent the printer from successfully transmitting email.

Why this answer

The printer can scan and copy locally and is reachable on the network (ping works), but it cannot send scanned documents to an email address. This indicates the printer is configured to use SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) to send the email, but the SMTP server settings (server address, port, authentication, or encryption) are likely incorrect or missing. SMTP is the standard protocol for sending outgoing email, which is exactly what the printer needs to deliver the scanned document as an email attachment.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates might confuse IMAP (used to read email) with SMTP (used to send email), especially when the question involves an email-related function like scanning to email.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files to/from a server, not for sending emails; the printer would use FTP only if it were configured to upload scans to an FTP server, not to email. Option B is wrong because IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used for retrieving and managing emails from a mail server, not for sending emails; the printer needs to send, not receive, email. Option D is wrong because SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management and monitoring (e.g., querying printer status or traps), not for email transmission.

Full explanation →

661

MCQmedium

A technician is replacing a power supply in a server that has been experiencing random lockups. The old PSU is an 80+ Bronze rated 650W unit. The technician selects an 80+ Gold rated 650W unit from the same brand. What is the primary benefit of this upgrade?

A.The Gold-rated PSU provides more wattage to the components.

B.The Gold-rated PSU produces less heat and is more efficient.

C.The Gold-rated PSU has better voltage regulation and ripple suppression.

D.The Gold-rated PSU will automatically fix the random lockups.

AnswerB

An 80 Plus Gold certification signifies that the power supply converts a higher percentage of the AC power drawn from the wall into usable DC power for the computer's components. This higher efficiency means less energy is wasted as heat during the conversion process. Consequently, a Gold-rated PSU will operate at lower internal temperatures and contribute less heat to the system, potentially allowing for quieter fan operation and improved overall thermal management compared to lower-efficiency units.

Why this answer

80+ Gold and 80+ Bronze are both efficiency certifications under the same 80 PLUS program, so a 650W Gold unit delivers the same maximum wattage as a 650W Bronze unit. The Gold rating means the PSU wastes less energy as heat at 20/50/100% loads (Gold requires 87/90/87% efficiency at 115V vs Bronze's 82/85/82%), so it draws less AC power and dissipates less heat for the same DC output. This is the primary benefit of the upgrade.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the misconception that a higher 80 PLUS tier means more wattage or better voltage regulation, when it strictly measures AC-to-DC conversion efficiency at defined load points.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because wattage is a fixed rating of the unit — a 650W Gold PSU does not deliver more watts than a 650W Bronze PSU; the 80 PLUS tier only measures conversion efficiency, not capacity. Option C is wrong because voltage regulation and ripple suppression are separate quality metrics (tied to topology, capacitors, and design) and are not guaranteed by the 80 PLUS efficiency tier — a Bronze unit can have better ripple than a Gold unit from a different design. Option D is wrong because random lockups are a symptom, not a guaranteed fix; a more efficient PSU may reduce heat-related instability, but the exam asks for the primary benefit of the rating change, which is efficiency, not a diagnostic cure.

Full explanation →

662

MCQeasy

A customer complains that their external USB hard drive is not recognized when plugged into any port on their laptop. The drive spins up and its LED lights up. The drive works fine on another computer. What is the most likely issue?

A.The USB port is physically damaged.

B.The external drive's enclosure has a faulty controller board.

C.The laptop is missing or has corrupted USB mass storage drivers.

D.The USB cable is defective.

AnswerC

If the USB mass storage driver is missing or corrupted, the laptop will provide power to the device but will not be able to enumerate it, so it will not appear in the OS. This explains why the drive spins up but is not recognized.

Why this answer

Because the drive spins up, lights up, and works on another computer, the hardware (drive, enclosure, cable, and the other machine's ports) is functional. The failure is isolated to the laptop's ability to enumerate the USB mass storage device, which points to missing or corrupted USB mass storage drivers on that laptop. Reinstalling or updating the USB storage driver typically resolves it.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests whether candidates use the 'works on another computer' clue to eliminate hardware causes — the trap is blaming the cable or port when the drive powers on and works elsewhere.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the drive fails on any port on the laptop, and the drive works on another computer — a single damaged port would not explain failure across all ports, and the ports clearly provide power since the drive spins up. Option B is wrong because the enclosure controller works on the other computer, so it is not faulty. Option D is wrong because the cable works on the other computer, ruling out a defective cable.

Full explanation →

663

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a smartphone that cannot connect to any Wi-Fi network. The technician has already verified that the device's Wi-Fi adapter is enabled and that other devices can connect to the same networks. What should the technician check next?

A.Check if the device has a static IP address configured.

B.Check the device's MAC address filter on the router.

C.Check if the device's date and time are correct.

D.Check if the device's Bluetooth is interfering.

AnswerA

An incorrectly configured static IP address on a smartphone can prevent it from obtaining network access, even if it successfully associates with a Wi-Fi access point. If the static IP is outside the subnet range, duplicates another device's IP, or has an incorrect gateway/DNS, the device will fail to communicate with the router and the internet. This effectively makes it appear as if the device cannot connect to any Wi-Fi network, as it cannot establish proper network layer communication. The technician must verify the IP settings are set to DHCP or configured correctly for the specific network.

Why this answer

A static IP address can prevent a device from obtaining a valid IP from the DHCP server, causing connection failure. This is a common issue when a device has been manually configured with an IP that is not in the network's range or is already in use.

Full explanation →

664

MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop screen flickers intermittently, especially when the lid is moved. The flickering stops when an external monitor is connected. What is the most likely cause?

A.The graphics driver is outdated.

B.The inverter board is failing.

C.The display cable is loose or damaged.

D.The LCD panel is failing.

AnswerC

The internal display cable, often an eDP (embedded DisplayPort) or LVDS (Low-Voltage Differential Signaling) cable, runs through the laptop's hinge mechanism. Repeated opening and closing of the lid can cause wear, stress, or a loose connection at either the motherboard or the LCD panel interface. This intermittent connection disruption, directly correlating with physical movement, results in flickering exclusively on the built-in screen, as the signal path is compromised.

Why this answer

Intermittent flickering that correlates with moving the lid and disappears when an external monitor is used points to the internal display cable (LVDS/eDP) being loose or damaged at the hinge. The external monitor bypasses the laptop's internal panel and cable entirely, which is why the symptom vanishes. This is the classic hinge-area cable fault pattern.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the distinction between display cable faults and inverter/panel failures — the trap is picking 'inverter board' on a modern LED laptop or 'LCD panel' when the lid-movement correlation and external-monitor success clearly isolate the cable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an outdated graphics driver would cause flickering regardless of lid position and would also affect the external monitor, which it does not. Option B is wrong because the inverter board only exists on older CCFL-backlit LCDs and affects backlight brightness uniformly — it would not be triggered specifically by lid movement, and modern LED-backlit laptops have no inverter. Option D is wrong because a failing LCD panel typically shows persistent artifacts, dead pixels, or lines independent of lid position, and would not be resolved by attaching an external monitor.

Full explanation →

665

MCQmedium

A user's smartphone intermittently disconnects from a known Wi-Fi network when they move to a different room. The network uses a single access point. What is the most likely cause?

A.The smartphone is connecting to the 5 GHz band, which has poor wall penetration.

B.The access point is overloaded with too many clients.

C.The smartphone's MAC address is being filtered.

D.The smartphone's battery saver mode is turning off Wi-Fi.

AnswerA

The 5 GHz Wi-Fi band utilizes higher frequencies, which inherently have shorter wavelengths and are more susceptible to attenuation and absorption by physical obstacles like walls, floors, and furniture. This reduced penetration capability means that as the smartphone moves further from the access point or into different rooms, the signal strength can rapidly degrade below a usable threshold, causing intermittent disconnections. Unlike the 2.4 GHz band, 5 GHz signals struggle to maintain consistent connectivity through multiple barriers, directly explaining the intermittent disconnects tied to movement.

Why this answer

The 5 GHz band offers higher data rates but has significantly poorer wall penetration and range compared to the 2.4 GHz band. When the user moves to a different room, the signal from the single access point attenuates more rapidly at 5 GHz, causing intermittent disconnections. This is the most likely cause because the problem is location-dependent and occurs with a known network.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that 5 GHz is always superior, leading candidates to overlook its range and penetration limitations in favor of blaming client-side settings like battery saver or MAC filtering.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an overloaded access point would cause slow speeds or connection failures for all clients regardless of location, not intermittent disconnects only when moving to a different room. Option C is wrong because MAC address filtering would either permanently allow or block the device, not cause intermittent disconnections based on location. Option D is wrong because battery saver mode typically turns off Wi-Fi only when the screen is off or the device is idle, not when actively moving between rooms with the screen on.

Full explanation →

666

MCQhard

A user reports that their cloud-based application is running slowly, and the IT team discovers that the application is hosted in a different geographic region than the user. Which cloud concept is most directly affecting performance?

A.Bandwidth

B.Elasticity

C.Latency

D.Fault tolerance

AnswerC

Latency is the time delay between when a data packet is sent from a source and when it is received at its destination, often measured in milliseconds (ms). In cloud-based applications, significant geographic distance between the end-user and the cloud server's data center directly increases this transmission delay, as data must travel further across the network infrastructure. This elevated latency results in a noticeable slowdown and unresponsiveness within the application, making it the primary factor for performance issues tied to server location.

Why this answer

This scenario tests understanding of latency in a global cloud context. When an application is hosted far from the user, the physical distance increases network latency, causing slow performance. Bandwidth could be a factor but is not directly tied to geographic distance, while elasticity and fault tolerance are unrelated to the location of the host.

Full explanation →

667

MCQmedium

A technician is deploying 50 company-owned Android tablets for field workers. The tablets must only run a single custom business app and prevent users from accessing any other apps or settings. Which configuration method should the technician use?

A.Enable 'Developer options' and set the app as the default launcher.

B.Use a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution to configure kiosk mode.

C.Perform a factory reset and install only the custom app.

D.Remove the Google Play Store app from the device.

AnswerB

Utilizing a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution is the most effective and secure approach for configuring kiosk mode across 50 company-owned Android tablets. MDM platforms allow administrators to remotely enforce strict policies, locking devices to a single application and restricting access to system settings, notifications, and other unauthorized functions. This ensures a consistent, secure, and centrally manageable user experience, preventing misuse and maintaining device integrity.

Why this answer

A Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution with kiosk mode is the correct approach because it locks the device to a single app, disables access to system settings, and prevents users from launching other applications. MDM enforces this via device policy controllers (DPC) and Android's lock task mode, which cannot be bypassed by the user. This meets the requirement of deploying 50 tablets with a single custom business app and no access to other apps or settings.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that simply removing the Play Store or performing a factory reset is sufficient for locking down a device, when in reality only MDM-enforced kiosk mode provides the necessary system-level restrictions to prevent user access to other apps and settings.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because enabling 'Developer options' and setting the app as the default launcher does not prevent users from accessing settings or other apps; they can still swipe down the notification shade, open the app drawer, or use the back button to exit. Option C is wrong because performing a factory reset and installing only the custom app does not restrict the user from installing additional apps or accessing system settings; the device remains fully functional with standard Android UI. Option D is wrong because removing the Google Play Store app does not block access to other pre-installed apps, system settings, or sideloaded apps; users can still use file managers, browsers, or other built-in apps.

Full explanation →

668

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that cannot connect to a 5 GHz Wi-Fi network, but it connects to 2.4 GHz networks without issue. The laptop supports dual-band Wi-Fi. What is the most likely cause?

A.The 5 GHz router is too far from the laptop.

B.The laptop's Wi-Fi driver is outdated or misconfigured for 5 GHz.

C.The 5 GHz network is using WEP encryption.

D.The laptop's Wi-Fi card is only 2.4 GHz capable.

AnswerB

An outdated or corrupted Wi-Fi driver is a common cause for specific band connectivity issues. The driver acts as the interface between the operating system and the wireless adapter. If it lacks support for newer 5 GHz channels (e.g., DFS channels), fails to properly negotiate 802.11ac/ax protocols, or misinterprets band steering commands, the laptop may fail to detect or establish a stable connection to the 5 GHz network, even if the hardware is physically capable. Updating the driver is often the first troubleshooting step.

Why this answer

Since the laptop connects successfully to 2.4 GHz networks but fails on 5 GHz, the hardware is functional for 2.4 GHz, but the driver or configuration may not support the 5 GHz band properly. An outdated or misconfigured Wi-Fi driver is the most likely cause because it can fail to enable the 5 GHz radio or negotiate 802.11a/n/ac protocols correctly.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that a dual-band laptop always works on both bands equally, but the trap here is that driver or configuration issues can selectively disable one band, leading candidates to incorrectly blame range (A) or encryption (C).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the 5 GHz router were too far, the laptop would still see the network (though with weak signal) or fail to connect due to range, but the symptom is a complete inability to connect to 5 GHz while 2.4 GHz works fine—range issues affect both bands, not selectively. Option C is wrong because WEP encryption is not band-specific; if the laptop supports WEP (which is deprecated but still functional on many adapters), it would affect both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz connections equally, not just the 5 GHz band. Option D is wrong because the question explicitly states the laptop supports dual-band Wi-Fi, meaning the Wi-Fi card is capable of both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz; a 2.4 GHz-only card would not connect to any 5 GHz network at all, but the symptom here is a failure to connect to a specific 5 GHz network, not a hardware limitation.

Full explanation →

669

MCQeasy

You are upgrading a customer's gaming PC to support faster memory. The motherboard supports DDR4-3200, but after installing two 8GB DDR4-3200 modules, the system only runs at 2133 MHz. What is the most likely reason?

A.The RAM modules are defective

B.The motherboard does not support dual-channel memory

C.XMP is not enabled in the BIOS

D.The CPU does not support DDR4-3200

AnswerC

Extreme Memory Profile (XMP) is an Intel-developed technology, also supported by AMD as DOCP (Direct Overclock Profile), that allows RAM modules to operate at speeds higher than the default JEDEC standards. When new, high-speed RAM is installed, the system's BIOS/UEFI typically defaults to a lower, universally compatible JEDEC speed, such as DDR4-2133 or DDR4-2400. Enabling XMP in the BIOS loads the manufacturer-defined overclocking profile, allowing the RAM to run at its advertised speed, like DDR4-3200.

Why this answer

When DDR4 modules rated for 3200 MHz are installed but the system runs at 2133 MHz, the most likely cause is that XMP (Extreme Memory Profile) is not enabled in BIOS/UEFI. DDR4 defaults to the JEDEC standard speed of 2133 MHz; the higher 3200 MHz rating is an overclocked profile that must be explicitly enabled via XMP (Intel) or DOCP/EXPO (AMD).

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the assumption that installing higher-rated RAM automatically runs at that speed; the trap is forgetting that XMP must be manually enabled in BIOS, and candidates may wrongly blame defective RAM or CPU limitations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because defective RAM typically causes boot failures, errors, or instability — not a consistent downclock to the JEDEC baseline. Option B is wrong because dual-channel support affects bandwidth (two channels vs. one), not the memory frequency; the system would still run at the rated speed if XMP were enabled. Option D is wrong because virtually all CPUs that support DDR4 (e.g., Intel 12th–14th gen, AMD Ryzen) support 3200 MHz via XMP; the CPU is not the limiting factor here.

Full explanation →

670

MCQhard

A technician is setting up a mobile workstation for a graphic designer who uses a laptop with a USB-C port that supports Thunderbolt 3. The designer needs to connect two 4K monitors, a wired Ethernet connection, and charge the laptop simultaneously. Which accessory should the technician choose?

A.A USB-C to dual HDMI adapter

B.A Thunderbolt 3 docking station

C.A USB 3.0 hub with HDMI and Ethernet

D.A KVM switch

AnswerB

A Thunderbolt 3 docking station is specifically engineered to provide a comprehensive, single-cable solution for mobile workstations. Leveraging its 40 Gbps bandwidth, it simultaneously supports dual 4K displays at 60Hz, delivers power to charge the laptop, and integrates essential ports like Gigabit Ethernet and multiple USB peripherals. This robust connectivity consolidates all necessary functions, making it ideal for high-performance desktop replacement scenarios.

Why this answer

A Thunderbolt 3 docking station is the correct choice because it provides sufficient bandwidth (up to 40 Gbps) to drive two 4K monitors simultaneously, includes a dedicated Ethernet port for wired networking, and delivers power delivery (PD) to charge the laptop—all through a single USB-C connection that is backward-compatible with Thunderbolt 3.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that any USB-C adapter or hub can support dual 4K displays and charging, but only a Thunderbolt 3 docking station provides the necessary bandwidth and power delivery capabilities for this specific combination of requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB-C to dual HDMI adapter typically relies on DisplayPort Alternate Mode and may not support two 4K displays at 60 Hz simultaneously due to bandwidth limitations (USB 3.1 Gen 2 caps at 10 Gbps), and it lacks an Ethernet port. Option C is wrong because a USB 3.0 hub with HDMI and Ethernet operates at USB 3.0 speeds (5 Gbps), which is insufficient for dual 4K video streams and cannot deliver the power needed to charge the laptop. Option D is wrong because a KVM switch is designed to share a single set of peripherals between multiple computers, not to add video outputs or Ethernet connectivity to a single laptop.

Full explanation →

671

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting an impact printer that is producing faint characters on multipart forms. The ribbon is new, and the print head is clean. The forms are properly aligned. Which adjustment should be made?

A.Increase the print head temperature

B.Replace the platen

C.Adjust the platen gap to bring the print head closer to the paper

D.Change the paper thickness setting to a thicker setting

AnswerC

Adjusting the platen gap to bring the print head closer to the paper is the correct action because it directly increases the impact force of the print pins. This enhanced force ensures that the pins strike the ink ribbon and paper with sufficient pressure to create clear, legible impressions, particularly crucial when printing on multipart forms where the impression must transfer through multiple carbon or carbonless layers effectively.

Why this answer

For an impact printer producing faint characters on multipart forms, the platen gap should be adjusted to bring the print head closer to the paper. This increases the impact force, ensuring proper transfer through multiple copies.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests printer maintenance, and candidates may confuse impact printer adjustments with those for thermal or inkjet printers, such as temperature settings.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because impact printers do not have print head temperature settings; that applies to thermal printers. Option B is wrong because replacing the platen is unnecessary if the platen is not worn; the issue is likely gap adjustment. Option D is wrong because changing the paper thickness setting might adjust the gap automatically, but the question asks for the adjustment to be made, and the platen gap is the direct mechanical adjustment.

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672

MCQhard

A technician is configuring a network for a new branch office. The branch has 50 users and needs to access resources at the main office via a secure tunnel over the internet. Which service is required to establish this connection?

A.DHCP

B.DNS

C.VPN

D.NAT

AnswerC

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) establishes a secure, encrypted connection, often referred to as a "tunnel," over an unsecured network, such as the internet. This technology allows remote users or branch offices to securely access a private network, protecting data confidentiality and integrity by encapsulating and encrypting all traffic flowing through the tunnel. It effectively extends a private network across a public network, ensuring secure communication between disparate locations.

Why this answer

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is required to create a secure, encrypted tunnel over the internet between the branch office and the main office. This allows the 50 users to access internal resources at the main office as if they were on the same local network, using protocols such as IPsec or SSL/TLS to ensure confidentiality and integrity of data in transit.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that NAT alone can provide security or remote access, but NAT only modifies address headers and does not encrypt traffic or authenticate users, making VPN the correct choice for secure tunneling.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a local network, not to establish secure connectivity between remote sites. Option B is wrong because DNS (Domain Name System) resolves human-readable domain names to IP addresses, but does not provide encryption or tunneling for secure remote access. Option D is wrong because NAT (Network Address Translation) translates private IP addresses to a public IP address for internet access, but it does not create a secure tunnel or authenticate remote users; it is often used alongside VPNs but is not the service that establishes the secure connection.

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673

MCQeasy

A user reports that their desktop PC emits a series of short beeps and fails to boot. The monitor shows no display, and the keyboard and mouse LEDs are off. What is the most likely cause?

A.Faulty power supply unit

B.Loose or faulty RAM module

C.Defective hard drive

D.Overheated CPU

AnswerB

A loose or faulty RAM module is a very common cause for a desktop PC to emit specific beep codes during the Power-On Self-Test (POST). The BIOS/UEFI firmware performs memory checks early in the boot process, and if RAM is not detected, is improperly seated, or is defective, it will generate a distinct beep code pattern (e.g., three short beeps, one long and two short, depending on the BIOS manufacturer) to signal a memory error before video output is initialized. Reseating the modules or replacing faulty ones often resolves this issue.

Why this answer

A series of short beeps with no display and no keyboard/mouse LEDs is the classic POST beep code for a memory error, most commonly caused by a loose or faulty RAM module. The motherboard's BIOS emits the beep pattern to indicate that RAM failed the power-on self-test, and the system halts before initializing video or USB controllers.

Exam trap

220-1201 often tests the confusion between beep codes (POST hardware failure, usually RAM or video) and no-power conditions (PSU) — candidates who pick the PSU miss that the beeps prove the PSU is working.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a faulty PSU typically results in no power at all, intermittent shutdowns, or a completely dead system — not a consistent beep code pattern, since the PSU is supplying power well enough for the speaker to beep. Option C is wrong because a defective hard drive causes boot failure after POST (e.g., 'no boot device' or 'operating system not found'), but the system would still display video and initialize peripherals. Option D is wrong because an overheated CPU usually causes thermal shutdown after a period of operation or a continuous high-pitched alarm, not a short beep pattern at cold boot with no display.

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674

MCQmedium

A small office has a single public IP address and uses a router to provide internet access to 20 devices. Users report that some websites load slowly or time out, while others work fine. The router's NAT table shows many entries. Which protocol is most likely being exhausted, causing these intermittent issues?

A.DNS

B.DHCP

C.NAT

D.ICMP

AnswerC

Network Address Translation (NAT) allows multiple private IP addresses within a local network to share a single public IP address for outbound internet access. When the NAT device's translation table, which maps internal private IP/port combinations to external public IP/port combinations, becomes exhausted, it cannot create new entries for subsequent outbound connection requests. This leads to new connections timing out or failing for some websites while existing or less demanding connections might still function, perfectly matching the "intermittent slowness and timeouts to some sites" symptom.

Why this answer

The router's NAT table has many entries, indicating that the single public IP address is being heavily used to translate private IPs for 20 devices. When the NAT table exhausts its available port mappings (typically 65,535 per public IP, but often limited by router resources), new outbound connections cannot be established, causing some websites to time out while existing connections continue to work. This is a classic symptom of NAT overload (PAT) exhaustion.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse NAT exhaustion with DNS failure, but DNS would cause all sites to fail, whereas NAT exhaustion causes intermittent failures as the table fills and empties.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses; if DNS were exhausted or failing, all websites would fail to load, not just some intermittently. Option B is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses to devices; if DHCP were exhausted, devices would fail to obtain an IP address entirely, not experience intermittent slow loading. Option D is wrong because ICMP is used for diagnostic tools like ping and traceroute; ICMP exhaustion would affect those tools, not general web browsing.

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675

MCQmedium

A user reports that their VoIP phone works but the connected PC cannot access the network. The phone is connected to the wall jack, and the PC is connected to the phone's passthrough port. What is the most likely cause?

A.The PC's network cable is faulty.

B.The VoIP phone's passthrough port is disabled.

C.The switch port is not configured for the data VLAN, so the PC cannot get an IP address.

D.The PC's network adapter is set to a static IP address that conflicts with the phone.

AnswerC

This is the most probable cause. VoIP phones commonly operate on a dedicated Voice VLAN, while PCs require access to a separate Data VLAN. If the switch port connecting the VoIP phone is configured only for the Voice VLAN (e.g., as an access port for the voice VLAN or with an incorrect native VLAN), the PC's data traffic, attempting to join the Data VLAN, would be dropped. Consequently, the PC would fail to obtain an IP address via DHCP, even though the phone successfully communicates on its designated VLAN.

Why this answer

The VoIP phone and PC share a single physical switch port via the phone's passthrough port. For the PC to access the network, the switch port must be configured as a trunk (or access port with voice VLAN) carrying both the voice VLAN (for the phone) and the data VLAN (for the PC). If the switch port is not configured for the data VLAN, the PC will not receive an IP address from the DHCP server and cannot communicate on the network, even though the phone works because it uses its own voice VLAN.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a working phone implies the entire port is correctly configured, when in fact the phone can operate on its own voice VLAN even if the data VLAN is missing or misconfigured, leaving the PC stranded.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a faulty PC cable would typically cause a link light issue or complete loss of connectivity, but the scenario states the phone works (which uses the same physical cable from the wall jack) and the PC is connected via the phone's passthrough port, so the cable from the wall is fine. Option B is wrong because if the passthrough port were disabled, the PC would have no link at all, but the question implies the PC cannot access the network (likely no IP address) rather than a physical disconnection. Option D is wrong because a static IP conflict with the phone would cause an IP address conflict error on the PC, not a failure to obtain an IP address; the phone typically uses a separate voice VLAN and does not compete for the same subnet as the PC.

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CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 601–675