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CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 451525

972 questions total · 13pages · All types, answers revealed

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451
MCQhard

A user reports that their new high-resolution monitor (2560x1440) connected via DisplayPort shows intermittent black screens for a few seconds. The monitor works fine at lower resolutions. What is the most likely issue?

A.The monitor's power saving mode is too aggressive
B.The DisplayPort cable is not certified for the required bandwidth
C.The graphics card is overheating
D.The monitor's firmware is outdated
AnswerB

A 2560x1440 resolution, especially at common refresh rates like 60Hz or higher, demands a specific amount of bandwidth from the DisplayPort cable to transmit the video signal reliably. If the cable is an older DisplayPort version (e.g., DP 1.0/1.1) or is of insufficient quality, it may not be certified to handle the required data rate. This bandwidth limitation can lead to intermittent signal loss or dropouts, causing the screen to go black temporarily as the display attempts to re-establish a stable connection.

Why this answer

The most likely issue is that the DisplayPort cable is not certified for the required bandwidth. At 2560x1440 resolution, the monitor requires a high data rate (approximately 7.04 Gbps for 60 Hz), and a non-certified or low-quality cable may not reliably support this bandwidth, causing intermittent signal loss and black screens. Lower resolutions work because they require less bandwidth, allowing the cable to function within its limits.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that intermittent black screens are caused by power saving features or overheating, when in fact the symptom of resolution-dependent failures points directly to cable bandwidth limitations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because aggressive power saving mode would typically cause the monitor to enter a low-power state after a period of inactivity, not intermittent black screens specifically at high resolution. Option C is wrong because graphics card overheating usually causes system-wide instability, artifacts, or crashes, not isolated black screens that resolve after a few seconds. Option D is wrong because outdated firmware might cause compatibility issues or missing features, but it would not selectively affect only high-resolution operation while lower resolutions work fine.

452
MCQhard

A technician is deploying a 3D printer that uses fused deposition modeling (FDM) in a school lab. After several test prints, the prints are warping at the edges and not adhering to the build plate. The filament is PLA, and the build plate is heated. Which adjustment should be made first?

A.Increase the nozzle temperature by 10°C
B.Apply a layer of glue stick to the build plate
C.Adjust the bed leveling or Z-offset to ensure proper first layer height
D.Reduce the print speed
AnswerC

Adjusting the bed leveling or Z-offset to ensure proper first layer height is the most critical step for resolving poor adhesion. Correct bed leveling ensures the build plate is uniformly equidistant from the nozzle across its entire surface, while the Z-offset fine-tunes the nozzle's starting height. Achieving the ideal first layer height, where the filament is slightly compressed onto the bed, maximizes the contact area and promotes strong mechanical bonding, which is essential for preventing prints from detaching.

Why this answer

Warping and poor adhesion in FDM printing are often caused by an incorrect first layer height or bed leveling. If the nozzle is too far from the bed, the filament does not squish enough to stick. Adjusting the bed leveling or Z-offset ensures proper first layer adhesion.

453
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where a user's computer cannot obtain an IP address via DHCP. The computer is connected to a switch, and other devices on the same switch work fine. The technician checks the switch and sees that the port is up and the link light is green. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the Ethernet cable.
B.Check if the switch port is configured with Port Security that is blocking the MAC address.
C.Reboot the DHCP server.
D.Set a static IP address on the computer.
AnswerB

Port Security is a Layer 2 switch feature that restricts input to an interface by limiting and identifying MAC addresses of devices allowed to access the port. If the switch port is configured to allow only a specific MAC address or a limited number of MAC addresses, and the computer's MAC address is not permitted or the limit is exceeded, the switch will block traffic. This prevents the computer from sending its DHCP Discover request, effectively blocking it from obtaining an IP address.

Why this answer

Since the switch port is up and other devices on the same switch obtain IP addresses correctly, the DHCP server and the general network path are functional. The most likely cause is a Layer 2 security feature, such as Port Security, which can be configured to block unknown or specific MAC addresses, preventing the computer from communicating with the DHCP server even though the physical link is active.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a green link light guarantees full Layer 2 connectivity, when in fact security features like Port Security can block traffic at the MAC layer while the physical layer remains operational.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the link light is green and the port is up, indicating the cable is physically functional; replacing it would be premature without first checking for MAC-level filtering. Option C is wrong because other devices on the same switch are working, proving the DHCP server is operational and reachable. Option D is wrong because setting a static IP address bypasses the troubleshooting process and does not address the root cause of why DHCP fails; it is a workaround, not a diagnostic step.

454
MCQmedium

A small business has several PCs that intermittently reboot or fail to start. The building's electrical system is old, and the technician suspects power quality issues. Which device should the technician recommend installing to protect the computers?

A.A power strip with a surge protector.
B.A line conditioner (voltage regulator).
C.An uninterruptible power supply (UPS).
D.A dedicated circuit from the breaker panel.
AnswerC

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is the most effective solution for preventing intermittent reboots caused by unstable power. It provides immediate battery backup during complete power outages or severe undervoltage events (sags/brownouts), ensuring continuous operation for connected devices. Furthermore, most UPS units also incorporate line conditioning capabilities to regulate incoming voltage, protecting against both sags and spikes, thereby delivering a consistently stable power supply.

Why this answer

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) provides battery backup and voltage regulation, protecting against surges, sags, and brownouts that can cause reboots or failures. A surge protector only guards against spikes, not low-voltage conditions. A UPS is the appropriate solution for unstable power.

455
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop's touchpad is not working after they spilt a small amount of coffee on the keyboard. The keyboard still works, but the touchpad cursor does not move. What is the most likely cause?

A.The touchpad driver has been corrupted by the liquid
B.The touchpad has been disabled in the BIOS due to a safety feature
C.The liquid has damaged the touchpad or its ribbon cable
D.The laptop's operating system has detected the liquid and disabled input devices
AnswerC

Liquid spills are highly likely to cause direct physical and electrical damage to sensitive electronic components. For a touchpad, this can involve short-circuiting the capacitive sensor array, corroding the delicate traces on the flexible ribbon cable, or damaging the connector where the cable attaches to the motherboard. Such damage disrupts the electrical signals required for the touchpad's functionality, leading to its failure while other, potentially unaffected components like the keyboard, continue to operate.

Why this answer

Coffee can seep into the touchpad connector or the touchpad itself, causing a short or corrosion. The keyboard working suggests the liquid did not reach the main board, but the touchpad is a separate component that is more exposed. The correct answer is liquid damage to the touchpad.

456
MCQeasy

A user brings in a smartphone with a cracked screen that is still responsive to touch. The device is an older model, and the user wants the screen replaced rather than buying a new phone. After powering off the device and removing the SIM and SD cards, what is the next step in the screen replacement process?

A.Use a spudger to pry the screen off starting from the bottom.
B.Apply heat to the edges of the screen to soften the adhesive.
C.Remove the battery using a plastic pry tool.
D.Insert a guitar pick under the screen to separate it from the frame.
AnswerB

Applying heat to the edges of the screen is the correct initial step because it effectively softens the specialized adhesive used to secure the display assembly to the device's frame. This thermal treatment allows the screen to be carefully lifted with minimal force, significantly reducing the likelihood of causing additional damage to the already cracked glass, the delicate display ribbon cables, or the internal components. It prepares the device for safe and controlled screen removal.

Why this answer

Applying heat to the edges of the screen softens the adhesive that secures the display to the frame, which is a critical step before any prying action. On older smartphone models, the screen is typically bonded with a strong adhesive that can crack the glass further or damage the LCD if pried without softening. This step reduces the risk of breaking the digitizer or LCD during removal.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that you can immediately pry the screen off with a tool, but the correct sequence requires softening the adhesive first to prevent damage to the display and frame.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because prying the screen off starting from the bottom without first softening the adhesive can crack the glass or damage the underlying LCD, especially on older models where adhesive is aged and brittle. Option C is wrong because the battery should be removed only after the screen is opened, as the battery is usually located beneath the display assembly and cannot be accessed without first removing the screen. Option D is wrong because inserting a guitar pick under the screen without heating the adhesive first can cause the glass to shatter or the LCD to delaminate, as the pick may catch on uneven adhesive or glass edges.

457
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laser printer prints fine from Windows, but when they print from a macOS device, the output is garbled with random characters. Both devices are on the same network. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer's firmware is outdated
B.The network cable is faulty
C.The macOS printer driver is incorrect
D.The printer is set to the wrong emulation mode
AnswerC

The macOS printer driver acts as a crucial interpreter, translating the operating system's generic print commands into the specific printer command language (e.g., PCL, PostScript) that the laser printer understands. If the installed macOS driver or its associated PostScript Printer Description (PPD) file is incorrect or corrupted, it will generate print data that the printer cannot properly process. This misinterpretation results in garbled text or incorrect formatting specifically when printing from macOS, while other OSes with correct drivers print normally.

Why this answer

Garbled output from one OS but not another typically indicates a driver or PPD issue. macOS uses PostScript Printer Description (PPD) files for laser printers, and an incorrect or missing PPD can cause communication errors. Installing the correct driver for macOS resolves the problem.

458
MCQhard

A company's remote employees use VPN to connect to the office network. Recently, some users report that they can connect to the VPN but cannot browse the internet or access internal servers by name, though they can ping internal IP addresses. The VPN is configured to push DNS settings. Which protocol is likely misconfigured on the VPN server?

A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.IPsec
D.SSL/TLS
AnswerB

DNS (Domain Name System) is the fundamental service for name resolution, translating domain names and hostnames into the IP addresses that computers use to locate resources. When remote employees connect via VPN, the VPN server must push the correct internal DNS server addresses to the client's network adapter. If these DNS settings are incorrect or not properly applied, the client cannot resolve the names of internal company servers, leading to access failures even if the VPN tunnel is otherwise established.

Why this answer

(DNS) because the users can connect to the VPN and ping internal IP addresses, but cannot resolve hostnames to IP addresses. This indicates that the DNS resolution is failing, which is caused by the VPN server not correctly pushing DNS server settings to the VPN clients. Without proper DNS configuration, clients cannot translate domain names (e.g., internal server names or internet URLs) into IP addresses, even though the network layer connectivity (ping to IPs) works.

Exam trap

The trap in this CompTIA A+ question is that candidates often confuse connectivity (ping to IPs works) with full network functionality, and incorrectly assume the issue is with the VPN tunnel encryption (IPsec) or authentication (SSL/TLS), rather than recognizing that name resolution is a separate service that relies on DNS configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (DHCP) is wrong because DHCP is used for automatic IP address assignment, but the users already have connectivity (they can ping IPs), so IP addressing is not the issue. Option C (IPsec) is wrong because IPsec provides encryption and authentication for VPN tunnels; a misconfiguration here would typically cause connection failures or inability to establish the VPN, not name resolution failures after connection. Option D (SSL/TLS) is wrong because SSL/TLS secures the VPN control channel or web traffic; a misconfiguration would prevent the VPN from establishing or cause certificate errors, not affect DNS resolution after the tunnel is up.

459
MCQmedium

A small business has a single router with four built-in switch ports. They need to connect 12 wired devices. They have a 24-port unmanaged switch. Which configuration will provide the best network performance and connectivity?

A.Connect all 12 devices directly to the router's four ports using splitters.
B.Connect the switch to one of the router's LAN ports, then connect all 12 devices to the switch.
C.Connect half the devices to the router and half to the switch, then connect the switch to the router.
D.Use the router as a switch by disabling its routing functions.
AnswerB

This is the correct and standard method for expanding network capacity. By connecting a multi-port switch to one of the router's LAN ports, the switch effectively extends the local area network. All 12 devices then connect to the switch, forming a star topology where the switch intelligently forwards frames between devices on the local network and routes traffic destined for the internet through the router. This ensures each device receives dedicated bandwidth and avoids collisions, as the switch operates at Layer 2.

Why this answer

Connecting the 24-port unmanaged switch to one of the router's LAN ports extends the network, allowing all 12 devices to connect via the switch. The router handles routing and DHCP, while the switch provides ample ports and wire-speed forwarding at Layer 2, ensuring optimal performance without collisions or bandwidth contention.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think splitters or daisy-chaining can substitute for a switch, but Ethernet requires a switch or hub to properly regenerate signals and manage multiple connections, and splitters only work for two devices on a single cable run, not for 12 devices.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using splitters on a single router port violates Ethernet standards (IEEE 802.3), causing signal degradation, collisions, and no practical connectivity for 12 devices. Option C is wrong because connecting half the devices directly to the router's four ports would exceed the available ports (only 4 built-in switch ports), and the remaining devices on the switch would still work, but this configuration is inefficient and doesn't utilize the router's limited ports properly. Option D is wrong because disabling routing functions on the router does not increase the number of switch ports; the router still has only four built-in switch ports, so it cannot accommodate 12 wired devices.

460
MCQeasy

A technician is deploying a new workstation in a retail store. After connecting all peripherals and power, the system powers on but the monitor shows 'No Signal'. The monitor is connected via VGA to the motherboard. What should the technician check first?

A.Replace the VGA cable.
B.Reseat the RAM modules.
C.Connect the monitor to the discrete graphics card's video port.
D.Update the motherboard BIOS.
AnswerC

Connecting the monitor to the discrete graphics card's video port is the correct solution because most motherboards automatically disable their integrated graphics output when a discrete graphics card is detected and installed. This behavior ensures that the more powerful discrete GPU becomes the primary video output source. Therefore, connecting the monitor to the integrated graphics port on the motherboard when a discrete card is present will result in a 'No Signal' message, as that port is inactive.

Why this answer

When a system has a dedicated GPU, the motherboard video ports are often disabled. The most common oversight is connecting the monitor to the wrong port. This scenario tests basic hardware installation knowledge.

461
MCQmedium

A technician is selecting a CPU for a compact home theater PC (HTPC) that will be passively cooled. Which CPU characteristic is most critical to ensure reliable operation without a fan?

A.High clock speed
B.Integrated graphics
C.Low TDP
D.Large L3 cache
AnswerC

Low Thermal Design Power (TDP) is crucial for a compact system, especially when passive cooling is desired, because it directly indicates the maximum heat a CPU is expected to generate under typical workloads. A CPU with a low TDP produces less heat, making it significantly easier to dissipate that heat through passive means like a heatsink and chassis without relying on active cooling fans. This allows the CPU to operate safely within thermal limits in confined spaces with limited airflow.

Why this answer

Passive cooling relies on low heat output. TDP (Thermal Design Power) directly indicates the amount of heat a cooler must dissipate. A low TDP CPU is essential for fanless operation.

462
MCQmedium

A company's IT department is deploying new VoIP phones. After connecting a phone to a PoE switch, the phone does not power on. The switch port is configured for PoE and shows no errors. Which tool should be used to verify that the Ethernet cable delivers power correctly?

A.Cable tester
B.Tone generator
C.Multimeter
D.Wi-Fi analyzer
AnswerC

A digital multimeter (DMM) is a versatile diagnostic tool capable of measuring various electrical properties, including DC voltage. When set to measure DC voltage, it can be used to directly test the power-carrying pairs (typically pins 1,2,3,6 or 4,5,7,8, depending on the PoE standard) of an Ethernet cable. This allows an IT technician to accurately verify if the required 48V DC (or other standard PoE voltage) is present and being delivered to the VoIP phone.

Why this answer

A multimeter is the correct tool because it can measure DC voltage directly on the Ethernet cable's power-carrying pairs (typically pins 4,5 and 7,8 for Mode A or pins 1,2 and 3,6 for Mode B in 802.3af/at PoE). By probing the switch-side pins while the phone is connected, you can verify whether the switch is actually delivering the expected 48V DC, isolating a cable or power issue. This is the only tool among the options that can confirm the presence of voltage.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose 'Cable tester' (Option A) because they assume a cable tester can verify PoE delivery, but a standard cable tester only checks continuity and pinout, not voltage or power presence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a cable tester checks for wiring continuity, shorts, and pinouts, but it cannot measure voltage or confirm that PoE power is being delivered. Option B is wrong because a tone generator is used to trace and identify specific cables in a bundle by injecting an audio signal, not to measure electrical power. Option D is wrong because a Wi-Fi analyzer scans for wireless signal strength, channels, and interference, and has no capability to test wired Ethernet power delivery.

463
MCQeasy

A user complains that their wireless connection drops frequently, but only when they are in the conference room. Other areas of the office have stable connections. What is the most likely cause?

A.The user's laptop has a faulty wireless adapter.
B.The access point is overloaded with too many connections.
C.The conference room has thick walls or electronic interference that weakens the signal.
D.The access point's firmware is outdated.
AnswerC

Correct. Physical obstructions like concrete or metal, or interference from electronics, can cause signal degradation in specific areas.

Why this answer

The issue is location-specific: the connection drops only in the conference room, while other areas are stable. This strongly points to a local environmental factor, such as thick walls (e.g., concrete or metal) that attenuate the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz signal, or electronic interference from devices like projectors, fluorescent lights, or microwave ovens. A faulty adapter or overloaded AP would cause problems everywhere, not just in one room.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between a localized environmental issue and a device or network-wide fault, tempting candidates to choose 'overloaded AP' because it sounds plausible, but the key clue is the problem's confinement to one room.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a faulty wireless adapter would cause connectivity issues regardless of location, not only in the conference room. Option B is wrong because an overloaded access point would affect all users connected to it, not just one user in a specific room, and the problem is isolated to a single location. Option D is wrong because outdated firmware typically causes systemic issues like intermittent disconnects across the entire AP coverage area, not a location-specific drop.

464
MCQhard

A network administrator needs to segment traffic between the accounting and HR departments to prevent unauthorized access, while still allowing both to reach the internet. The company uses a single managed switch and a router. Which configuration approach meets these requirements?

A.Create two separate subnets and connect each department to a different physical switch
B.Configure VLANs on the switch and set up a trunk port to the router with subinterfaces
C.Assign static IPs to all devices and enable MAC address filtering on the switch
D.Use a firewall between the two departments and disable inter-VLAN routing
AnswerB

VLANs isolate traffic, and the trunk with subinterfaces (router-on-a-stick) allows the router to route between VLANs and to the internet.

Why this answer

VLANs logically segment traffic between departments on a single switch, and configuring a trunk port to the router with subinterfaces (using VLAN tagging) allows inter-VLAN routing for internet access while maintaining isolation between the accounting and HR VLANs. This approach meets the requirement of preventing unauthorized access between departments while enabling shared internet connectivity through the router.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think VLANs alone provide security without considering that inter-VLAN routing must be explicitly configured on the router to enable internet access, or they may confuse MAC address filtering with network segmentation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it requires two separate physical switches, but the scenario specifies a single managed switch, making this approach impossible without additional hardware. Option C is wrong because static IPs and MAC address filtering do not provide network-layer segmentation; they only control access at Layer 2 and can be easily bypassed by spoofing, failing to prevent unauthorized traffic between departments. Option D is wrong because disabling inter-VLAN routing would block all traffic between VLANs, including the required internet access, as the router would not forward packets between subnets; a firewall alone without routing configuration cannot enable internet connectivity for both departments.

465
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a server that uses a RAID 5 array with three 2 TB HDDs. The array reports 4 TB of usable space. One drive fails. What is the immediate impact on data availability?

A.All data is lost because RAID 5 cannot handle any drive failures.
B.The array continues to function, but performance may decrease until the drive is replaced.
C.The usable capacity drops to 2 TB until the drive is replaced.
D.The array automatically switches to RAID 0 to maintain performance.
AnswerB

This is the correct behavior for a RAID 5 array experiencing a single drive failure. The array enters a degraded state, where it remains operational and data is still accessible, but it must actively reconstruct missing data on-the-fly using parity calculations. This real-time reconstruction process consumes additional CPU and I/O resources, leading to a noticeable decrease in read and write performance until the failed drive is replaced and the array is rebuilt.

Why this answer

RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss because parity data is distributed across all drives. The array will continue to operate in a degraded state until the failed drive is replaced and rebuilt. A second failure would cause data loss.

466
MCQeasy

A user wants to print a high-resolution photo on glossy paper using an inkjet printer. After printing, the colors appear washed out and the photo has a grainy appearance. The printer is set to 'normal' quality and 'plain paper' in the driver. What should the technician change to improve the output?

A.Change the paper type to 'glossy photo paper' and the print quality to 'best' or 'photo'.
B.Replace the ink cartridges with high-yield cartridges.
C.Calibrate the printer using the built-in utility.
D.Use a different brand of glossy paper.
AnswerA

Selecting 'glossy photo paper' in the printer driver informs the printer about the media's non-absorbent surface, prompting it to adjust ink droplet size, ink density, and drying time. Concurrently, choosing 'best' or 'photo' quality increases the print resolution (DPI) and the number of print head passes, ensuring finer detail and smoother color transitions essential for a high-resolution photographic output. These combined settings optimize ink application and paper handling for superior image fidelity.

Why this answer

For high-quality photo prints on glossy paper, the driver must be set to 'photo' or 'best' quality and the paper type to 'glossy' or 'photo paper'. This optimizes ink droplet size and drying time. The default 'normal' and 'plain paper' settings use less ink and different halftoning, causing washed-out, grainy results.

467
MCQeasy

A small office is installing new network drops in a drop ceiling for employee workstations. The IT manager wants to minimize future troubleshooting. Which cabling practice should be followed during installation?

A.Use crossover cables for all workstation connections.
B.Run cables parallel to electrical wiring to save space.
C.Label both ends of each cable with a unique identifier.
D.Use flat ribbon cables for all long runs.
AnswerC

Labeling both ends of each network cable with a unique identifier is a fundamental best practice for network installations. This systematic approach significantly streamlines troubleshooting efforts, as technicians can quickly identify the source and destination of any given cable without extensive tracing. Furthermore, proper labeling simplifies future network modifications, expansions, and maintenance tasks, reducing downtime and the potential for errors in complex or high-density cabling environments.

Why this answer

Labeling both ends of each cable with a unique identifier is a best practice for cable management that directly reduces troubleshooting time. When a cable fault occurs or a move/add/change is needed, technicians can quickly trace the cable from the patch panel to the workstation jack without tone-and-probe testing, minimizing downtime. This practice aligns with TIA/EIA-606-A labeling standards for administration of telecommunications infrastructure.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that crossover cables are required for workstation-to-switch connections, but modern switches use Auto-MDIX to automatically correct the cable type. The real key to minimizing future troubleshooting is proper labeling—so that each cable can be traced from patch panel to jack quickly, without needing tone-and-probe testing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because crossover cables are used to connect two like devices (e.g., two switches or two PCs) directly, not for standard workstation-to-switch connections, which require straight-through cables per T568A/T568B wiring. Option B is wrong because running cables parallel to electrical wiring induces electromagnetic interference (EMI) that can corrupt data signals, violating best practices for separation (typically 12 inches for non-shielded cabling). Option D is wrong because flat ribbon cables are not rated for in-wall installation and lack the twist pairs needed to cancel crosstalk, making them unsuitable for long runs in a structured cabling environment.

468
MCQhard

A company's network uses a managed switch with VLANs. Users in VLAN 10 can ping the default gateway but cannot communicate with users in VLAN 20. The switch is connected to a router that handles inter-VLAN routing. What is the most likely misconfiguration?

A.The router's firewall is blocking traffic between VLANs.
B.The switch port connecting to the router is configured as an access port instead of a trunk.
C.The default gateway for VLAN 20 is misconfigured.
D.The switch has Spanning Tree Protocol enabled, blocking the link.
AnswerB

An access port is designed to carry traffic for a single, untagged VLAN, typically connecting to an end device like a PC. For a router to perform inter-VLAN routing, it must receive traffic from multiple VLANs over a single physical link. This requires the switch port connected to the router to be configured as a trunk port, which tags Ethernet frames with their respective VLAN IDs (e.g., 802.1Q) allowing the router to differentiate and route traffic between them. If it's an access port, the router only sees traffic for that single configured VLAN, preventing communication with other VLANs.

Why this answer

The most likely misconfiguration is that the switch port connecting to the router is configured as an access port instead of a trunk. For inter-VLAN routing to work, the router must receive traffic from multiple VLANs on the same physical interface. A trunk port (using 802.1Q tagging) allows frames from VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 to be forwarded to the router, which then routes between them.

An access port can only carry traffic for a single VLAN, so frames from VLAN 20 would be dropped or misdirected, preventing communication.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that inter-VLAN routing can work with an access port if the router's interface is configured with an IP address, but the trap is that an access port strips VLAN tags, so the router cannot differentiate between VLANs, breaking communication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a router's firewall typically operates at Layer 3 or above and would not selectively block traffic between VLANs unless explicitly configured with an ACL; the scenario describes a connectivity issue, not a security block. Option C is wrong because users in VLAN 10 can ping the default gateway, indicating the gateway is reachable; a misconfigured default gateway for VLAN 20 would affect its ability to reach external networks, not communication between VLANs on the same router. Option D is wrong because Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops by blocking redundant links, but it does not block a single link between the switch and router unless there is a loop; STP would not cause a complete failure of inter-VLAN communication on a correctly configured trunk.

469
MCQmedium

A user's laptop has a USB-C port that supports Thunderbolt 3. They want to connect two 4K monitors daisy-chained. The monitors have DisplayPort inputs. Which cable configuration is required?

A.Connect both monitors directly to the laptop using two separate USB-C to HDMI cables.
B.Use a USB-C to DisplayPort cable from the laptop to the first monitor, then a DisplayPort cable from the first monitor to the second.
C.Use a USB-C hub with two HDMI ports.
D.Use a single USB-C to DisplayPort cable that splits into two DisplayPort connectors.
AnswerB

This option correctly describes a DisplayPort Multi-Stream Transport (MST) daisy-chain configuration, which is the standard method for connecting multiple monitors to a single video output port, such as a USB-C port utilizing DisplayPort Alternate Mode. The USB-C port outputs a DisplayPort signal to the first monitor, which then uses its DisplayPort output to forward the signal to the second monitor, allowing for extended desktop functionality across both displays. This setup requires both monitors to support DisplayPort MST.

Why this answer

Thunderbolt 3 over USB-C supports DisplayPort daisy-chaining (Multi-Stream Transport, MST). A USB-C to DisplayPort cable from the laptop to the first monitor carries the video signal, and a standard DisplayPort cable from the first monitor's DisplayPort out to the second monitor's DisplayPort in completes the chain. This configuration leverages the MST capability inherent in Thunderbolt 3 and DisplayPort 1.2 or later, allowing two 4K monitors to be driven from a single port.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that a simple splitter cable (Option D) can drive two independent displays, when in fact MST requires active daisy-chaining or a hub with MST support, not a passive Y-cable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because connecting both monitors directly to the laptop using two separate USB-C to HDMI cables would require two USB-C ports on the laptop, but the question specifies a single USB-C port that supports Thunderbolt 3; daisy-chaining is not achieved, and HDMI does not natively support MST daisy-chaining. Option C is wrong because a USB-C hub with two HDMI ports would split the single Thunderbolt 3 connection into two separate video outputs, but this does not create a daisy-chain; it uses a hub, which is a different topology and may not support two 4K monitors at full resolution depending on the hub's capabilities. Option D is wrong because a single USB-C to DisplayPort cable that splits into two DisplayPort connectors is a passive splitter, which does not support MST; it would either duplicate the same signal or fail to drive two independent 4K displays, as MST requires active signal handling and proper daisy-chain support.

470
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that connects to a Wi-Fi network but gets a 'No Internet, Secured' message. The laptop has a static IP address configured. What is the most likely issue?

A.The Wi-Fi network's SSID is hidden.
B.The laptop's static IP address is not in the same subnet as the router.
C.The laptop's Wi-Fi driver is corrupted.
D.The router's DHCP server is disabled.
AnswerB

If a laptop's statically configured IP address falls outside the router's local subnet, the laptop will be unable to locate or communicate with the router, which serves as its default gateway. This prevents the laptop from routing traffic beyond its local network segment, effectively blocking all internet access. While the laptop might appear connected to the Wi-Fi, it cannot reach external resources.

Why this answer

A static IP address that is not in the same subnet as the router prevents the laptop from communicating with the default gateway. Even though the Wi-Fi association succeeds (hence 'Secured'), the laptop cannot route traffic to the internet because it cannot reach the router's IP address. This mismatch causes the 'No Internet' message while the link-layer connection remains intact.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that 'No Internet, Secured' always points to a DHCP or DNS issue, but here the static IP mismatch is the root cause because the laptop cannot reach the gateway despite a successful layer-2 connection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a hidden SSID does not affect IP configuration; the laptop can still obtain a valid IP via DHCP or static assignment and access the internet once connected. Option C is wrong because a corrupted Wi-Fi driver would typically prevent association or cause frequent disconnections, not allow a successful connection with a 'Secured' status. Option D is wrong because the laptop is using a static IP address, so the router's DHCP server being disabled has no impact on its IP configuration; the issue lies in the static IP not matching the subnet.

471
MCQhard

A company's file server uses a RAID 5 array with five 2 TB HDDs. After a power outage, the server boots but the RAID array is shown as 'Failed' in the controller utility. The drives are all detected. What is the most likely cause and the best first step to recover the array with minimal data loss?

A.Replace all five drives and restore from backup.
B.Initialize the array to clear the failed status.
C.Check the RAID controller's event log and attempt to import the array.
D.Reseat all SATA cables and power connectors.
AnswerC

Checking the RAID controller's event log is the crucial first diagnostic step, as it provides specific details about which drives have failed or if the array configuration itself has become corrupted or lost. If the configuration is lost but the drives are intact, attempting to import the array can re-read the existing metadata from the drives and restore the array's operational status without data loss. This approach prioritizes diagnosis and non-destructive recovery.

Why this answer

A power outage can cause multiple drives to be marked as offline or failed due to incomplete writes, even if they are healthy. The array status 'Failed' with all drives detected suggests a metadata issue. The best first step is to check the controller's event log and attempt to import or rebuild the array without initializing it, which would destroy data.

472
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new Android tablet for a field worker. The worker will use a Bluetooth barcode scanner and a rugged case with a built-in keyboard. After pairing both devices, the keyboard types slowly and misses keystrokes, while the scanner works fine. What is the most likely cause?

A.The keyboard's battery is low
B.The tablet's Bluetooth driver is outdated
C.Interference from the rugged case or other wireless signals is degrading the keyboard's connection
D.The keyboard is not compatible with Android
AnswerC

Rugged cases often incorporate dense materials, such as metal or thick plastic, which can attenuate or reflect 2.4 GHz Bluetooth radio signals, leading to reduced signal strength and increased packet loss. Additionally, other wireless signals in the 2.4 GHz ISM band (e.g., Wi-Fi, cordless phones, microwaves) can cause electromagnetic interference, degrading the keyboard's connection quality. The keyboard's smaller antenna or less robust radio might be more susceptible to these environmental factors than the scanner, resulting in missed keystrokes due to corrupted or dropped data packets.

Why this answer

Bluetooth interference from other devices or physical obstructions (like a rugged case) can cause signal degradation, leading to missed keystrokes. The scanner may use a different Bluetooth profile or be less sensitive to interference. The correct answer identifies interference as the likely cause.

473
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a tablet that has a dim display that flickers intermittently. The device responds to touch and the OS loads normally. Which component is most likely failing?

A.The digitizer is malfunctioning.
B.The LCD panel has dead pixels.
C.The backlight LED or inverter is failing.
D.The motherboard GPU is damaged.
AnswerC

The backlight LED array or its associated inverter/driver circuit is crucial for illuminating the liquid crystal display (LCD) panel, as LCDs do not produce their own light. When this component begins to fail, it commonly manifests as a dim screen, noticeable flickering, or intermittent display output because the illumination source is unstable or insufficient. Since the operating system and touch functionality are reported as normal, the issue is isolated to the display's illumination system rather than its data processing or input.

Why this answer

The backlight LED or inverter is the most likely failing component because the display is dim but still functional (the LCD panel itself works, as the OS loads and touch responds). A failing backlight reduces brightness and can cause flickering due to inconsistent power delivery to the LEDs, while the digitizer and GPU remain operational.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between the display panel (LCD) and the backlight system, trapping candidates who confuse a dim/flickering screen with a failing LCD panel or GPU when the underlying issue is a power supply component for illumination.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the digitizer is responsible for touch input, and the device responds to touch normally, indicating the digitizer is functioning. Option B is wrong because dead pixels are static, non-flickering defects that do not cause overall dimness or intermittent flickering. Option D is wrong because a damaged motherboard GPU would typically cause graphical artifacts, screen corruption, or failure to boot, not a dim display with normal OS loading and touch response.

474
MCQmedium

A user reports that their fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) internet connection works but is slower than expected. The technician finds that the ONT (Optical Network Terminal) is connected to the router via a 100-meter Cat5e cable. What is the most likely issue?

A.The ONT is malfunctioning.
B.The Cat5e cable is too long for 1 Gbps.
C.The router is not configured for the correct speed.
D.The Ethernet cable is damaged or has a bad termination.
AnswerD

A damaged Ethernet cable, such as one with kinks, nicks, or internal wire breaks, or a cable with improperly terminated RJ-45 connectors (e.g., incorrect wire pairing, loose pins), can introduce significant signal integrity issues. These flaws lead to increased packet loss, retransmissions, and ultimately a drastic reduction in effective throughput, even when the link lights indicate an active connection, manifesting as a slow internet experience.

Why this answer

The most likely issue is a damaged or poorly terminated Cat5e cable. A 100-meter Cat5e cable is within the maximum length specification for 1 Gbps (100 meters), so the length alone is not the problem. However, a damaged cable or bad termination can cause excessive packet loss, CRC errors, or auto-negotiation failures, resulting in slower throughput even though the link appears to be up.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a 100-meter Cat5e cable exceeds the maximum length for 1 Gbps, when in fact Cat5e supports 1 Gbps up to exactly 100 meters, so the length is not the problem—the cable condition or termination is the more likely culprit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the ONT is functioning (the connection works), and a malfunctioning ONT would typically cause a complete loss of connectivity or intermittent drops, not just slower speeds. Option B is wrong because Cat5e is rated for 1 Gbps up to 100 meters; 100 meters is the maximum allowed length, so it is not 'too long' and should support full speed if the cable is in good condition. Option C is wrong because the router's speed configuration is unlikely to be the issue—most routers auto-negotiate speed with the ONT, and a mismatch would typically result in a link at a lower speed (e.g., 100 Mbps) rather than a general 'slower than expected' performance.

475
MCQhard

A technician is setting up a new Android tablet for a point-of-sale system. The tablet must stay on and connected to Wi-Fi at all times, even when the screen is off. Which setting should the technician adjust?

A.Disable the 'Adaptive battery' feature.
B.Set the screen timeout to 'Never'.
C.Configure 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' to 'Always'.
D.Enable 'Developer options' and set 'Stay awake'.
AnswerC

This setting directly instructs the Android operating system to keep the Wi-Fi radio powered on and connected to the network even when the device's screen is off and it enters a sleep or idle state. By configuring 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' to 'Always', background applications can continue to receive data, sync information, and deliver notifications without interruption. This is the precise and most power-efficient method to ensure continuous Wi-Fi connectivity during device sleep.

Why this answer

The 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' setting, when configured to 'Always', ensures the Wi-Fi radio remains active even when the screen is off. This is essential for a point-of-sale (POS) tablet that must maintain a constant network connection for transaction processing, regardless of the device's sleep state.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'screen timeout' with 'network connectivity' and select Option B, not realizing that keeping the screen on is unnecessary and wasteful, whereas the correct setting directly controls the Wi-Fi radio's behavior during sleep.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling 'Adaptive battery' only prevents the system from limiting background activity for rarely used apps; it does not control Wi-Fi behavior during sleep. Option B is wrong because setting the screen timeout to 'Never' keeps the display perpetually on, which drains battery unnecessarily and is not required for maintaining Wi-Fi connectivity. Option D is wrong because enabling 'Stay awake' in Developer options only prevents the device from sleeping while charging via USB/ADB; it does not affect Wi-Fi behavior during sleep when not connected to a charger.

476
MCQhard

A technician is tasked with building a high-performance workstation for a data scientist who uses large datasets. The workstation has a motherboard that supports quad-channel memory. The technician has four 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules. Which configuration will yield the best memory performance?

A.Install all four modules in the same channel (e.g., slots 1, 2, 3, 4) to maximize density.
B.Install two modules in one channel and two in another, leaving the other two channels empty.
C.Install one module in each of the four channels (e.g., slots 1, 3, 5, 7) to enable quad-channel mode.
D.Install all four modules in the same slot using a special adapter.
AnswerC

To enable quad-channel mode, the correct approach is to install one memory module into each of the four available memory channels. This typically involves populating specific slots, often indicated by matching colors or motherboard manual guidance (e.g., slots 1, 3, 5, 7 or A1, B1, C1, D1). By distributing the modules across all channels, the CPU's integrated memory controller can simultaneously access data from four independent pathways, maximizing memory bandwidth and significantly boosting the workstation's performance for demanding applications.

Why this answer

Quad-channel memory architecture requires that all four memory channels be populated with identical modules to achieve maximum bandwidth. Installing one module per channel (e.g., in slots 1, 3, 5, 7 or the designated quad-channel slots) allows the memory controller to access all four channels simultaneously, quadrupling the data transfer rate compared to single-channel. Using fewer modules or mismatched sizes would reduce the channel count or cause the system to run in a lower-channel mode.

477
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop battery no longer charges and the system only runs when plugged in. You test the AC adapter and it outputs correct voltage. Inside the battery, which component is most likely failed?

A.The lithium-ion cells have degraded.
B.The battery management system (BMS) is faulty.
C.The DC jack on the laptop is loose.
D.The laptop's motherboard charging circuit is damaged.
AnswerB

A failed BMS prevents the battery from communicating with the charger and accepting power, causing no charging.

Why this answer

The battery management system (BMS) is the circuit board inside the battery pack that controls charging, monitors cell voltage and temperature, and communicates with the laptop. Since the AC adapter outputs correct voltage and the laptop runs on AC power, the BMS is the most likely failed component because it can prevent charging even if the lithium-ion cells are healthy. A faulty BMS may stop communicating with the laptop's embedded controller, causing the system to treat the battery as absent or non-functional.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that battery failure always means the cells are dead, but the trap here is that the BMS can fail independently and prevent charging while the cells remain functional, especially when the AC adapter and laptop power path are verified working.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because degraded lithium-ion cells would typically cause reduced runtime or inability to hold a charge, but the system would still attempt to charge them; the reported symptom of no charging at all points to a control or communication failure, not cell degradation. Option C is wrong because a loose DC jack would cause intermittent power or no power at all to the laptop, but the user reports the system runs when plugged in, indicating the DC jack is making proper contact. Option D is wrong because a damaged motherboard charging circuit would likely prevent the laptop from running on AC power or cause erratic behavior, but the system operates normally on AC, localizing the fault to the battery assembly itself.

478
MCQmedium

A technician is tasked with setting up a RAID 10 array using four 500 GB HDDs for a database server. After configuration, the total capacity shown is 1 TB instead of the expected 1.5 TB. What is the most likely cause?

A.One of the drives is only 250 GB.
B.The array was accidentally configured as RAID 0.
C.The array is configured correctly; RAID 10 provides 1 TB usable.
D.The controller is using a different stripe size.
AnswerC

The array is indeed configured correctly for RAID 10 (RAID 1+0). This nested RAID level combines mirroring (RAID 1) for redundancy with striping (RAID 0) for performance. With four 500 GB drives, two mirrored pairs are created, each providing 500 GB of usable space. These two 500 GB logical volumes are then striped together, resulting in a total usable capacity of 1 TB.

Why this answer

RAID 10 (1+0) mirrors and then stripes, so usable capacity is half of total raw capacity (4 x 500 GB = 2 TB raw, 1 TB usable). The technician likely expected RAID 5 capacity (75% usable) but configured RAID 10.

479
MCQhard

A user reports that their laptop screen suddenly went black, but the laptop is still powered on (fans running, power light on). Connecting an external monitor shows the desktop correctly. What is the most likely cause?

A.The graphics driver has crashed and needs to be reinstalled.
B.The laptop's LCD inverter or backlight has failed.
C.The Windows display settings are set to 'Show only on external display'.
D.The laptop's RAM is faulty and causing video output issues.
AnswerB

A failure of the LCD inverter or the backlight itself is a common cause for a laptop screen to suddenly go black while the system remains operational. The backlight provides the illumination for the LCD panel, and without it, the screen appears completely dark, even though the image data might still be generated. Connecting an external monitor bypasses the internal display's backlight and inverter circuitry, relying instead on the laptop's video output port and the external monitor's own power and display components, thus confirming the internal display's specific hardware failure.

Why this answer

The external display working normally indicates the GPU and OS are functional. The black built-in display points to a failure in the LCD panel, backlight, or the display cable (e.g., LVDS/eDP ribbon cable) connecting the motherboard to the screen. A loose or damaged internal cable is a common cause, especially in laptops that have been moved frequently.

480
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where a user's PC has an IP address of 169.254.12.34. The PC is connected to a switch that is uplinked to a router with DHCP enabled. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DHCP server is out of IP addresses.
B.The Ethernet cable between the PC and the switch is faulty.
C.The PC's DNS settings are incorrect.
D.The router's firewall is blocking DHCP requests.
AnswerB

A faulty Ethernet cable, such as one with a broken wire or poor connection, would prevent the PC from establishing a physical layer (Layer 1) link with the network switch. Without this fundamental connectivity, the PC cannot send its DHCP Discover broadcast packet to reach the DHCP server. Consequently, after multiple attempts and timeouts, the operating system will resort to self-assigning an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.

Why this answer

An APIPA address (169.254.x.x) indicates the PC failed to get a DHCP lease. Since the router has DHCP enabled, the issue is likely a bad Ethernet cable or a port problem preventing communication with the DHCP server.

481
MCQeasy

A user reports that their VoIP phone works but the PC connected to the phone's passthrough port has no network access. What should the technician check first?

A.The PC's IP configuration.
B.The Ethernet cable between the phone and the PC.
C.The VoIP phone's firmware version.
D.The switch port the phone is connected to.
AnswerB

VoIP phones often include a passthrough Ethernet port, allowing a single wall jack to serve both the phone and a connected PC. If the phone itself is operational, its connection to the network switch is functional. However, the PC relies on a separate Ethernet cable connecting its network interface card to the phone's passthrough port to receive network access. A faulty or disconnected cable in this specific segment would directly explain why the PC has no network connectivity while the phone continues to work.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of VoIP passthrough ports. The PC's lack of connectivity is often due to a faulty or unseated Ethernet cable between the phone and PC. The phone itself is working, so the upstream connection is fine.

482
MCQmedium

During a routine check, a technician finds that a RAID 0 array with two SSDs is no longer bootable. The BIOS detects both SSDs individually but the array is missing from the RAID controller. What is the most likely issue?

A.One of the SSDs has failed completely.
B.The RAID controller has failed.
C.The RAID metadata has been corrupted.
D.The SATA cables are swapped.
AnswerC

RAID metadata, which is stored on the drives themselves, contains critical configuration information such as the array type, stripe size, drive order, and parity data. If this metadata becomes corrupted due to a sudden power loss, a controller glitch, or a bad sector, the RAID controller can still detect the physical presence of the individual drives. However, without valid metadata, the controller cannot reconstruct or recognize the logical RAID volume, causing the array to appear unconfigured or "missing" even though the drives are physically present and detected.

Why this answer

RAID 0 stripes data across drives with no parity. If the array metadata is corrupted or one drive fails, the entire array becomes inaccessible. Individual detection suggests the drives are physically okay, but the RAID configuration is lost.

483
MCQeasy

A user is building a new gaming PC and wants to install 32 GB of DDR4 RAM in a dual-channel configuration. They have two 16 GB sticks. Which motherboard slots should they use to ensure dual-channel operation?

A.Slots 1 and 2 (adjacent to each other).
B.Slots 2 and 4 (alternating slots).
C.Slots 1 and 3 (alternating slots).
D.Any two slots will work; dual-channel is automatic.
AnswerB

For optimal dual-channel performance on most motherboards, installing RAM modules in slots 2 and 4 (often labeled A2 and B2) is the recommended configuration. These slots are specifically designed to activate the primary dual-channel mode, allowing the CPU's integrated memory controller to access both modules concurrently. This parallel access effectively doubles the memory bandwidth, which is crucial for demanding applications like gaming.

Why this answer

For dual-channel operation, memory modules must be installed in the correct slots, typically alternating colors or labeled as A2 and B2 (or slots 2 and 4) on most modern motherboards. This ensures the memory controller can access both sticks simultaneously, increasing bandwidth. The user manual or motherboard labeling is the definitive guide, but the common practice is to use the second and fourth slots from the CPU.

484
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop can connect to the internet via Ethernet but cannot connect to any Wi-Fi networks. The wireless adapter is enabled and shows available networks, but connecting always fails. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DHCP server is out of IP addresses.
B.The wireless adapter driver is corrupted.
C.The wireless security settings are incorrect.
D.The router’s SSID is hidden.
AnswerC

When a user can see available wireless networks but consistently fails to establish a connection, it strongly suggests a mismatch in the security parameters. This includes an incorrect pre-shared key (password), an incompatible encryption type (e.g., WPA2 vs. WPA3), or an incorrect authentication method. The wireless adapter successfully identifies the network's SSID but cannot complete the authentication handshake required to join the network and obtain an IP address.

Why this answer

When a device can connect via Ethernet but not Wi-Fi, the issue is usually with the wireless configuration or hardware, not the network itself. Incorrect wireless security settings, such as a mismatched encryption type or password, are a common cause of connection failure after the network is detected.

485
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their new laptop can connect to websites using IP addresses but cannot resolve domain names like 'www.example.com'. Which networking tool should be used to verify the DNS server configuration on the laptop?

A.ping 8.8.8.8
B.ipconfig /all
C.nslookup www.example.com
D.tracert 8.8.8.8
AnswerB

This command displays all network adapter details, including DNS server addresses. It is the correct tool to check if the laptop has a valid DNS server configured.

Why this answer

The ipconfig /all command displays the full TCP/IP configuration, including the DNS server addresses assigned to the laptop's network adapter. Since the user can reach websites by IP address but not by domain name, the issue is likely with DNS resolution; ipconfig /all allows verification of whether the DNS server is correctly configured or pointing to an unreachable server.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between testing DNS resolution (nslookup) and verifying DNS configuration (ipconfig /all), trapping candidates who confuse the symptom-checking tool with the configuration-verification tool.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ping 8.8.8.8 tests basic IP connectivity to a public DNS server, but it does not display or verify the laptop's DNS server configuration. Option C is wrong because nslookup www.example.com tests DNS resolution itself; if DNS is misconfigured, nslookup will fail, but it does not show the current DNS server settings configured on the laptop. Option D is wrong because tracert 8.8.8.8 traces the route to an IP address, which tests network path connectivity but provides no information about the DNS server configuration.

486
MCQmedium

A company's multifunction printer supports faxing over VoIP. Users report that faxes are frequently incomplete or fail to send. The fax line is connected to an analog telephone adapter (ATA). What should you check first?

A.Replace the fax modem card in the printer.
B.Check the ATA's configuration to ensure T.38 fax relay is enabled.
C.Increase the printer's print resolution.
D.Disable the printer's firewall.
AnswerB

Checking the ATA's configuration to ensure T.38 fax relay is enabled is the correct troubleshooting step because T.38 is the industry standard protocol specifically designed for reliable fax transmission over IP networks. Standard voice codecs (like G.711) are prone to packet loss, jitter, and compression artifacts that corrupt sensitive fax tones during VoIP transmission. T.38 mitigates these issues by converting fax tones into a robust data stream, ensuring successful and error-free fax over IP (FoIP) operations.

Why this answer

Fax over VoIP is sensitive to jitter and latency. The ATA's settings for fax passthrough (T.38) must be enabled and properly configured. Without T.38, fax data may be corrupted by voice codecs.

487
MCQeasy

A small business owner wants to connect five computers in a single office so they can share files and a printer without purchasing a server. Which network type should be configured?

A.Client-server network
B.Peer-to-peer network
C.Wide area network (WAN)
D.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
AnswerB

A peer-to-peer network configuration allows each connected computer to function as both a client and a server, directly sharing resources like files, folders, and printers with other devices on the network without requiring a dedicated central server. This model is ideal for small office environments, such as one with five computers, due to its simplicity, ease of setup, and cost-effectiveness, as it avoids the expense and complexity of server hardware and administration.

Why this answer

A peer-to-peer network (B) is the correct choice because it allows five computers to share files and a printer directly without a dedicated server. Each computer acts as both a client and a server, making it ideal for small offices with fewer than 10 devices where centralized management is unnecessary.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that a client-server network is always required for resource sharing, but the trap here is that peer-to-peer is sufficient and cost-effective for small groups without a dedicated server.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a client-server network requires a dedicated server to manage resources, which contradicts the requirement of not purchasing a server. Option C is wrong because a wide area network (WAN) spans large geographic areas (e.g., cities or countries) and is not designed for a single office LAN. Option D is wrong because a metropolitan area network (MAN) covers a city-sized area and is overkill for connecting five computers in one room.

488
MCQhard

A technician is tasked with upgrading a workstation that uses DDR3 RAM. The technician purchases DDR3L modules (low voltage) and installs them. The system fails to boot. What is the most likely reason?

A.The DDR3L modules are physically incompatible with DDR3 slots.
B.The motherboard does not support the lower voltage of DDR3L.
C.The technician installed the modules in the wrong slots.
D.The DDR3L modules are defective.
AnswerB

Many older motherboards designed exclusively for standard DDR3 (1.5V) may lack the necessary voltage regulation circuitry or BIOS support to properly supply and stabilize the lower 1.35V required by DDR3L modules. This voltage mismatch can prevent the memory from initializing correctly, leading to system boot failures or instability. The motherboard's inability to provide the correct operating voltage is a common cause of incompatibility in such scenarios.

Why this answer

DDR3L modules operate at 1.35V, while standard DDR3 operates at 1.5V. Many older motherboards do not support DDR3L, or they require specific BIOS settings to handle the lower voltage. The technician should verify motherboard compatibility before installation.

489
MCQmedium

You are building a workstation for video editing and need to install a dedicated GPU in the primary PCIe x16 slot. After installation, the system boots but the GPU is not detected in Device Manager. The GPU works fine in another PC. What should you check on the motherboard?

A.The PCIe slot's power delivery from the PSU
B.The motherboard's BIOS setting for the PCIe slot
C.The CMOS battery voltage
D.The CPU fan header
AnswerB

Motherboard BIOS/UEFI firmware provides critical configuration options that directly control the operation and detection of PCIe slots. A specific PCIe slot might be manually disabled within the BIOS, or its PCIe generation (e.g., Gen3, Gen4, Gen5) could be incorrectly configured, leading to compatibility issues or complete non-detection of an installed device. Checking and adjusting these firmware settings is a fundamental and often necessary troubleshooting step when a PCIe device, such as a video editing GPU, is not recognized by the system.

Why this answer

If the GPU is not detected, the most likely motherboard-related cause is that the PCIe slot is disabled in BIOS or the slot itself is faulty. Another possibility is that the slot is configured for a different device (e.g., an M.2 drive sharing lanes). Verifying BIOS settings is the first step.

490
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new all-in-one PC for a reception desk. The PC has a touchscreen display. After installation, the touch function does not respond. The technician has verified that the display works and the OS is loaded. What should the technician check first?

A.Replace the touchscreen digitizer
B.Check if the touchscreen driver is installed in Device Manager
C.Clean the screen with a microfiber cloth
D.Disable and re-enable the touchscreen in BIOS
AnswerB

Checking Device Manager for the touchscreen driver is the most logical and effective first step because drivers are essential software components that enable the operating system to communicate with and control hardware devices. If the driver is missing, corrupted, or incorrectly installed, the touchscreen will not function, regardless of its physical integrity. Device Manager provides a centralized interface to verify driver status, update drivers, or identify hardware conflicts, making it crucial for initial diagnostics.

Why this answer

The most common reason a touchscreen fails to respond after a working display and OS load is a missing or incorrect driver. In Windows, the touchscreen driver appears under 'Human Interface Devices' in Device Manager; if it's not present or has a yellow exclamation mark, the OS cannot interpret touch input. Checking Device Manager is the quickest, non-invasive first step before considering hardware replacement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may jump to hardware replacement (digitizer) or BIOS settings, overlooking the fundamental troubleshooting step of verifying the driver in Device Manager, which is the most common cause of a non-functional touchscreen after a fresh OS installation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the touchscreen digitizer is a hardware repair that should only be attempted after all software and driver issues are ruled out, and it is not the first troubleshooting step. Option C is wrong because cleaning the screen with a microfiber cloth addresses physical dirt or smudges, but a non-responsive touchscreen that was never functional is almost certainly a driver or configuration issue, not a cleanliness problem. Option D is wrong because disabling and re-enabling the touchscreen in BIOS is unnecessary; the touchscreen is typically enabled by default in BIOS, and the issue is almost always at the OS/driver level, not the firmware level.

491
MCQmedium

A user complains that their external monitor flickers intermittently when connected via a VGA cable to their laptop. The laptop has a VGA port, and the monitor works fine with another computer. Which connector-related issue is most likely?

A.The monitor's resolution is set too high for the VGA cable.
B.The laptop's VGA port is not providing enough power.
C.A bent pin inside the VGA connector is causing poor contact.
D.The VGA cable is not compatible with the laptop's graphics card.
AnswerC

VGA connectors utilize multiple pins (typically 15) to transmit individual color signals (Red, Green, Blue), horizontal and vertical synchronization, and ground connections. If even one of these delicate pins is bent, it can prevent proper electrical contact with the corresponding receptacle in the port, leading to an intermittent or complete loss of a specific signal component. This disruption often manifests as flickering, color distortion, or a completely blank screen, as the display struggles to maintain a stable image due to an incomplete signal.

Why this answer

VGA connectors have pins that can bend or become loose over time, causing intermittent signal loss. This tests knowledge that VGA is an analog connector susceptible to physical damage and signal degradation.

492
MCQhard

A network administrator is setting up a new branch office. The branch router must automatically obtain a public IP address from the ISP, and internal devices must receive private IP addresses from the router. Which combination of network services should be configured on the router?

A.DHCP client and DNS server
B.DHCP client and DHCP server
C.DHCP server and NAT
D.DNS server and NAT
AnswerB

This option correctly identifies the essential dual roles of a router in a typical branch office setup. On its external (WAN) interface, the router acts as a DHCP client to automatically acquire a public IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server information from the Internet Service Provider. Simultaneously, on its internal (LAN) interface, the router functions as a DHCP server, dynamically assigning private IP addresses, subnet masks, and default gateway information to all connected devices within the branch network, simplifying client configuration.

Why this answer

The branch router needs to obtain a public IP address automatically from the ISP, which requires it to act as a DHCP client on its WAN interface. At the same time, internal devices need private IP addresses, so the router must also act as a DHCP server on its LAN interface, leasing addresses from a private range. Option B correctly combines both roles: DHCP client on the WAN side and DHCP server on the LAN side.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between DHCP client (for obtaining an IP on the WAN) and DHCP server (for assigning IPs on the LAN), and candidates mistakenly think NAT or DNS is required for IP assignment, when in fact NAT is for translation and DNS is for name resolution, not address leasing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while a DHCP client is needed for the WAN interface, a DNS server is not required for internal devices to obtain private IP addresses; DNS resolution can be provided by the ISP or a public DNS, and the router does not need to host a DNS server for basic IP assignment. Option C is wrong because NAT is used to translate private IPs to the public IP, but the question asks for the services that obtain and assign IP addresses, not for address translation; NAT is a separate function that would be configured in addition to DHCP, not instead of a DHCP server. Option D is wrong because neither a DNS server nor NAT directly handles the automatic acquisition of a public IP (DHCP client) or the assignment of private IPs (DHCP server); DNS resolves names, and NAT translates addresses, but neither service obtains or leases IP addresses.

493
MCQeasy

A user complains that they can browse the internet but cannot access network shares on a file server by hostname, though they can access them by IP address. The DNS server is responding to queries for other domains. Which protocol is most likely malfunctioning?

A.HTTP
B.NetBIOS
C.DHCP
D.ARP
AnswerB

NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) provides name resolution services primarily within local area networks, allowing devices to locate each other by name rather than IP address. If a user can successfully browse the internet using IP addresses but fails to access other network resources when using their hostnames, it indicates a specific failure in name-to-IP resolution. This scenario points directly to a malfunctioning NetBIOS name service, as it would prevent the translation of local hostnames into their corresponding IP addresses, while direct IP access bypasses this layer.

Why this answer

The user can access network shares by IP address but not by hostname, which indicates a name resolution failure specific to NetBIOS. NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NBT) is responsible for resolving NetBIOS names (used for file and printer sharing on Windows networks) to IP addresses. Since DNS works for other domains but not for the file server's hostname, the issue is likely with NetBIOS name resolution, not DNS.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume DNS is the only name resolution protocol and overlook NetBIOS, which is specifically used for legacy Windows file sharing and can fail independently of DNS.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because HTTP is an application-layer protocol for web traffic, not for resolving hostnames to IP addresses; the user can browse the internet, so HTTP is functioning. Option C is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses and other network configuration, but the user already has a valid IP address and can communicate via IP, so DHCP is not the cause. Option D is wrong because ARP resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses on the local network; since the user can access the file server by IP address, ARP is working correctly.

494
MCQeasy

During a routine printer maintenance, you replace the toner cartridge in a laser printer. After reassembly, the printer displays 'Replace Toner' error even though the new cartridge is installed. What should you do first?

A.Replace the fuser assembly
B.Clean the corona wire
C.Remove the protective seal and reseat the cartridge
D.Update the printer firmware
AnswerC

Many new toner cartridges come with a protective sealing strip that must be removed to allow toner to flow from the reservoir to the developer unit. Failure to remove this seal will prevent the printer from dispensing toner and can often trigger a "toner low" or "cartridge not detected" error. Additionally, reseating the cartridge ensures it is fully engaged with the printer's electrical contacts and mechanical locking mechanisms, which are essential for proper recognition and communication with the printer's control board.

Why this answer

The 'Replace Toner' error after installing a new cartridge often means the cartridge is not properly seated or the protective seal was not removed. Removing the seal allows toner to flow, and reseating ensures the printer detects the cartridge correctly.

495
MCQmedium

During a hardware installation, you are tasked with setting up a RAID 1 array in a server using two identical 4 TB HDDs. After configuration, the total usable capacity is only 4 TB. Is this expected behavior?

A.No, the array should show 8 TB because the drives are identical.
B.Yes, RAID 1 provides fault tolerance by mirroring data, so usable capacity is 4 TB.
C.No, the array should be configured as RAID 0 to get 8 TB.
D.Yes, but only if the drives are set as JBOD.
AnswerB

This statement is correct because RAID 1's fundamental purpose is to provide fault tolerance by maintaining an identical copy of data across two or more drives. With two 4 TB drives configured in RAID 1, one drive mirrors the other, resulting in a total usable capacity equivalent to a single drive, which is 4 TB. This configuration ensures data availability even if one drive fails.

Why this answer

RAID 1 mirrors data across two drives, so usable capacity equals the size of one drive (4 TB). This provides redundancy, not increased storage. RAID 0 would combine capacity, and RAID 5 requires at least three drives.

496
MCQeasy

A small business wants to migrate its email and document collaboration to the cloud but must keep sensitive financial records on local servers due to regulatory requirements. Which cloud deployment model should they choose?

A.Public cloud
B.Private cloud
C.Hybrid cloud
D.Community cloud
AnswerC

A hybrid cloud strategy integrates public cloud services, such as email and collaboration platforms, with a private cloud or existing on-premises infrastructure. This architecture allows the business to host sensitive data and applications requiring strict regulatory compliance on its secure, controlled private infrastructure. Simultaneously, it leverages the scalability, cost-efficiency, and managed services of a public cloud for less sensitive workloads like email and general collaboration tools, providing the desired flexibility and compliance.

Why this answer

This question covers cloud deployment models. A hybrid cloud combines public cloud services (for email/collaboration) with private or on-premises infrastructure (for sensitive data). Public cloud alone would violate regulations, community cloud is for shared industry needs, and private cloud is entirely on-premises, missing the benefits of public cloud for non-sensitive workloads.

497
MCQeasy

A user reports that their Android phone will not install an app from the Google Play Store. The device has plenty of storage space and a strong internet connection. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The app is not compatible with the device's screen resolution.
B.The device's operating system version is too old for the app.
C.The Google Play Store app needs to be reinstalled.
D.The user is not signed into their Google account.
AnswerB

Many Android applications leverage specific Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) and features introduced in newer versions of the Android operating system. Developers declare a minimum API level in their app's manifest file, which the Google Play Store uses to determine compatibility. If a device's Android OS version is older than the app's declared minimum API level, the Play Store will prevent installation, as the app would likely crash or fail to function correctly due to missing system components.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the device's operating system version is too old for the app. Android apps specify a minimum API level (minSdkVersion) in their manifest; if the device runs an older OS version below that threshold, Google Play Store will block the installation and display an incompatibility message. Since the user has plenty of storage and a strong connection, the OS version is the primary remaining constraint.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that storage or connectivity are the only blockers, but the trap here is that OS version compatibility is a silent filter enforced by the Play Store's server-side logic, not a client-side error message.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because screen resolution incompatibility does not prevent installation; the Play Store may scale or letterbox the app, but it will still install. Option C is wrong because reinstalling the Play Store app is rarely necessary and would not fix an OS version mismatch; the issue is server-side compatibility filtering, not a corrupted client. Option D is wrong because if the user were not signed into their Google account, they would be prompted to sign in, not blocked from installing due to version incompatibility; the Play Store requires an account for any installation, so this would be a different error.

498
MCQmedium

A user reports that their iPhone will not connect to a Bluetooth speaker that is in pairing mode. The speaker is listed in the iPhone's Bluetooth settings but tapping it does nothing. What should the technician try first?

A.Restart the iPhone.
B.Forget the speaker in Bluetooth settings and re-pair.
C.Reset the network settings on the iPhone.
D.Update the speaker's firmware.
AnswerB

Forgetting the speaker in Bluetooth settings and then re-pairing is the most effective solution because it purges the iPhone's stored Bluetooth link key and associated profile data for that specific device. This action forces a complete re-initialization of the pairing process, including device discovery, authentication, and service negotiation. This often resolves issues caused by corrupted pairing information or an outdated connection profile on the iPhone.

Why this answer

When a Bluetooth speaker is listed in the iPhone's settings but tapping it fails to connect, the most common cause is a corrupted pairing record. Selecting 'Forget This Device' removes the stored link key, forcing a fresh pairing handshake that re-establishes the correct encryption and service discovery. This is the first-line troubleshooting step because it directly addresses the stored connection state without affecting other network settings or requiring a device restart.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a full device restart or network reset is required for Bluetooth issues, when in fact the targeted step of forgetting and re-pairing resolves the majority of corrupted-link-key scenarios without collateral damage.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because restarting the iPhone clears temporary caches but does not remove the corrupted pairing record; the same faulty link key will be reloaded, so the connection will still fail. Option C is wrong because resetting network settings is an overly aggressive step that wipes all Wi-Fi networks, VPNs, and cellular settings, while the issue is isolated to a single Bluetooth pairing record. Option D is wrong because updating the speaker's firmware is a valid long-term fix for compatibility bugs, but it is not the first step; the technician should first attempt the simpler, non-destructive re-pairing process.

499
MCQmedium

During a site survey, a technician finds that a new access point on the 2.4 GHz band is experiencing heavy interference. The access point automatically selected channel 6. Which action should the technician take to minimize interference?

A.Enable WPA3 encryption to reduce interference.
B.Change the channel to 1 or 11.
C.Set the channel width to 40 MHz.
D.Disable the 2.4 GHz radio and use only 5 GHz.
AnswerB

In the crowded 2.4 GHz band, Wi-Fi channels are 22 MHz wide but only spaced 5 MHz apart, causing significant overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only three non-overlapping channels available. By switching to one of these specific channels, a technician can effectively reduce co-channel interference from neighboring access points or other wireless devices, thereby improving signal quality, stability, and overall network performance.

Why this answer

In the 2.4 GHz band, only channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping (each occupies 22 MHz with 5 MHz spacing). Since channel 6 is already experiencing heavy interference, moving to channel 1 or 11 avoids co-channel and adjacent-channel interference from other devices on or near channel 6, minimizing contention.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that any channel change will help, but the trap here is that only channels 1, 6, or 11 are non-overlapping in 2.4 GHz, so switching to a channel like 3 or 9 would actually increase adjacent-channel interference.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WPA3 encryption secures data but does not reduce radio frequency interference; interference is a physical-layer issue, not a security-layer one. Option C is wrong because setting the channel width to 40 MHz on 2.4 GHz consumes more spectrum and actually increases the chance of interference, as it overlaps multiple non-overlapping channels and violates best practices for dense deployments. Option D is wrong because disabling the 2.4 GHz radio may not be practical or necessary; the technician should first try a different non-overlapping channel before abandoning the band entirely, as many legacy clients still require 2.4 GHz connectivity.

500
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a network where users can access internal resources but cannot reach any external websites. The internal network uses a proxy server. The technician finds that the proxy server is configured to use a specific protocol to forward requests to the internet. Which protocol is the proxy server most likely using to communicate with external web servers?

A.FTP
B.DNS
C.HTTP
D.SNMP
AnswerC

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is the primary application-layer protocol for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML, across the World Wide Web. When a client is configured to use a proxy server, it sends its web requests (often HTTP or HTTPS) directly to the proxy. The proxy then acts on behalf of the client, establishing its own connection to the destination web server and forwarding the client's HTTP request, receiving the response, and then relaying it back to the client. This makes HTTP the core protocol for forwarding web traffic through a proxy.

Why this answer

The proxy server is most likely using HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) to forward requests to external web servers. Since users are accessing internal resources but cannot reach external websites, the proxy server acts as an intermediary for web traffic. HTTP is the standard protocol for web communication, and proxy servers typically use HTTP (or HTTPS) to forward client requests to internet web servers, as it allows the proxy to cache, filter, and modify web traffic.

Exam trap

Candidates may confuse the protocol used for internal client-to-proxy communication (HTTP/HTTPS) with the protocol used for proxy-to-external server communication, or mistakenly think DNS or FTP are used for forwarding web requests. In CompTIA A+, remember that proxy servers use HTTP/HTTPS to forward web requests to external servers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (FTP) is wrong because FTP is a file transfer protocol used for uploading/downloading files, not for forwarding general web requests to external servers; proxy servers do not use FTP as the primary protocol for internet web access. Option B (DNS) is wrong because DNS is a name resolution protocol that translates domain names to IP addresses, not a protocol for forwarding web requests; while DNS is necessary for resolving external hostnames, the proxy server itself uses HTTP to communicate with web servers. Option D (SNMP) is wrong because SNMP is a network management protocol used for monitoring and managing network devices, not for forwarding client web requests to the internet.

501
MCQmedium

A customer complains that their inkjet printer's output has horizontal white lines across the page. The cartridges are new and the printer passes a nozzle check pattern. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the printhead
B.Clean the encoder strip
C.Inspect the paper feed rollers
D.Update the printer driver
AnswerC

Worn, dirty, or damaged paper feed rollers are a common cause of horizontal white lines or banding in inkjet prints because they lead to inconsistent paper movement through the printer. If the rollers slip or do not grip the paper uniformly, the paper momentarily pauses or slows down as the printhead is laying down ink, creating unprinted gaps or lines. Therefore, inspecting and potentially cleaning or replacing these rollers is a crucial diagnostic step for this specific print defect.

Why this answer

Horizontal white lines on inkjet output often indicate a paper feed issue, such as dirty or worn feed rollers. The roller's surface can lose traction, causing the paper to feed unevenly and creating gaps. Cleaning or replacing the feed rollers typically resolves the problem.

502
MCQeasy

A small office has a single switch connecting all workstations. Several users report that they cannot access the internet, but they can still communicate with each other on the local network. What is the most likely cause?

A.The switch has a bad port.
B.The router is not properly routing traffic to the internet.
C.The DNS server is unreachable.
D.The workstations have incorrect subnet masks.
AnswerB

A router's primary function is to forward packets between different networks, specifically between the local area network (LAN) and external networks like the internet (WAN). If the router is misconfigured, powered off, or experiencing a hardware failure, it cannot perform this essential routing function. Consequently, devices on the local network can still communicate with each other via the switch, but any traffic destined for external networks, such as the internet, will be dropped or fail to reach its intended destination.

Why this answer

Local communication working while internet access fails points to a problem with the router or the connection between the switch and the router. The switch itself is functioning correctly for local traffic, so the issue is upstream.

503
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a corporate iPhone for a new executive. The user needs to access company email, calendar, and contacts, but the company requires that all data be encrypted and the device be remotely wipeable. Which configuration step is essential?

A.Install a third-party antivirus app.
B.Enable the device's passcode and Touch ID/Face ID.
C.Disable iCloud backup for the device.
D.Set up a VPN connection for all traffic.
AnswerB

Enabling a passcode, along with biometric authentication like Touch ID or Face ID, is a fundamental security measure on iOS devices. This action directly activates the device's hardware-based encryption, ensuring that all data at rest is cryptographically protected. Furthermore, a passcode is a prerequisite for Mobile Device Management (MDM) solutions to initiate a remote wipe command, making it essential for data security and device management in a corporate environment.

Why this answer

Enabling the device's passcode and Touch ID/Face ID is essential because it activates hardware-backed encryption on iOS devices. Without a passcode, iOS cannot generate the encryption key required to protect data at rest, and remote wipe capabilities are contingent on the device being able to authenticate and enforce management commands. This step directly satisfies the corporate requirements for data encryption and remote wipeability.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that encryption requires a third-party tool or that VPNs provide device-level encryption, when in fact iOS's built-in Data Protection is triggered solely by enabling a passcode.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because iOS's sandbox architecture and app review process make traditional antivirus software unnecessary and ineffective; iOS does not allow third-party apps to scan system files or other apps' data. Option C is wrong because disabling iCloud backup does not enable encryption or remote wipe; it only prevents data from being backed up to iCloud, which is a separate data protection concern. Option D is wrong because a VPN encrypts data in transit, not data at rest on the device, and does not provide device-level encryption or remote wipe capabilities.

504
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a small network with five computers and a printer. The network must use private IP addresses and allow all devices to communicate. The technician assigns IPs manually but forgets to set a default gateway on one computer. Which functionality will be lost on that computer?

A.Ability to communicate with the printer
B.Ability to access the internet
C.Ability to obtain an IP address via DHCP
D.Ability to resolve DNS names
AnswerB

Without a default gateway configured, a computer cannot send packets to any destination IP address that is not on its local subnet. The internet comprises numerous external networks, making the default gateway essential as the exit point for all traffic destined beyond the local area network. Consequently, internet access is completely lost.

Why this answer

The default gateway is the router's IP address that provides a path to networks outside the local subnet. Without a default gateway, the computer can still communicate with other devices on the same local network (like the printer and other computers) using ARP and direct MAC addressing, but it cannot reach any destination outside its own subnet, including the internet. The technician manually assigned IPs, so DHCP is not involved, and DNS resolution would still work for local names but would fail for external names only because the DNS query packets cannot leave the subnet without a gateway.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that a missing default gateway prevents all communication, but the trap here is that local subnet communication (like with a printer) works fine because it uses ARP and direct MAC addressing, not routing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because communication with the printer occurs on the same local subnet using ARP and direct MAC frames, which does not require a default gateway. Option C is wrong because the technician assigned IPs manually (static configuration), so DHCP is not used at all; the computer never attempts to obtain an IP via DHCP. Option D is wrong because DNS resolution itself is not directly dependent on the default gateway; a DNS server on the local subnet could still be queried, but if the DNS server is external, the query would fail due to the missing gateway, not because DNS resolution is inherently lost.

505
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop cannot connect to the internet, but other devices on the same wired network work fine. The technician checks the IP configuration and sees the laptop has an IP address of 169.254.3.12. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DNS server is unreachable
B.The DHCP server is not responding
C.The default gateway is misconfigured
D.The network cable is faulty
AnswerB

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) assigns an IP address in the 169.254.x.x range specifically when a client is configured for DHCP but fails to receive an IP address from a DHCP server. This indicates that the client attempted to contact a DHCP server but received no response, making the DHCP server unreachable, offline, or misconfigured as the most probable cause for the APIPA assignment.

Why this answer

The IP address 169.254.3.12 falls within the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range (169.254.0.0/16), which Windows assigns when a DHCP discovery broadcast fails to receive a response. Since other devices on the same wired network work fine, the issue is isolated to this laptop's inability to reach the DHCP server, most likely due to a local configuration problem or a faulty network interface.

Exam trap

The most common mistake on this question is to assume that a 169.254.x.x address points to a DNS or gateway problem, but APIPA specifically indicates a DHCP failure, not a higher-layer or routing issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a DNS server being unreachable would not cause the laptop to obtain an APIPA address; DNS failures occur after IP configuration is complete and would still show a valid DHCP-assigned IP. Option C is wrong because a misconfigured default gateway would still allow the laptop to obtain a proper DHCP lease; the APIPA address indicates the DHCP process itself failed, not a routing issue. Option D is wrong because a faulty network cable would typically result in a 'Network cable unplugged' error or a link light issue, not the assignment of an APIPA address; the laptop would not even attempt DHCP discovery if the physical layer were down.

506
MCQhard

A company uses a custom Android app that stores data locally. After a recent OS update, the app fails to write data to the internal storage, but it can read existing data. The app has all necessary permissions. What is the most likely cause?

A.The internal storage is full and cannot accept new data.
B.The OS update introduced scoped storage restrictions that the app does not support.
C.The app's cache needs to be cleared to free up space.
D.The device's SD card has been removed.
AnswerB

Android's scoped storage, introduced in Android 10 (API level 29), restricts apps to their own app-specific directories or specific media types, preventing broad access to shared storage. An older custom Android app, not updated to target a newer API level or implement the new storage access APIs, would lose its ability to write data to previously accessible shared locations after an OS update, even if it can still read its own existing files.

Why this answer

This question tests advanced knowledge of Android storage changes. Starting with Android 11, scoped storage restrictions limit how apps access shared storage. Even with permissions, apps may need to use specific APIs (like MediaStore or SAF) to write files.

The app likely needs an update to comply with the new storage model.

507
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their laptop connects to the office Wi-Fi but cannot access the internet. Other devices on the same network work fine. The technician checks the laptop's IP configuration and sees an IP address of 169.254.15.22. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The DNS server is misconfigured.
B.The laptop's network adapter is faulty.
C.The DHCP server is out of available IP addresses.
D.The laptop's DHCP client is failing to obtain an IP address.
AnswerD

The 169.254 address is a self-assigned APIPA address, which occurs when the DHCP client cannot contact the DHCP server. This is the correct diagnosis.

Why this answer

The IP address 169.254.15.22 falls within the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range (169.254.0.0/16), which Windows assigns when the DHCP client fails to receive a valid IP from a DHCP server. Since other devices on the same network work fine, the DHCP server is not exhausted; rather, this specific laptop's DHCP client could not complete the DORA process, likely due to a misconfiguration, firewall blocking DHCP traffic, or a driver issue. Option D correctly identifies that the DHCP client is failing to obtain an IP address, as evidenced by the APIPA address.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between a DHCP server being out of addresses (which would affect all clients) versus a client-specific DHCP failure (which results in an APIPA address only for that client), leading candidates to incorrectly choose 'DHCP server is out of available IP addresses' when the symptom is isolated to one device.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a misconfigured DNS server would not prevent the laptop from obtaining an IP address; DNS issues occur after a valid IP is assigned, and the APIPA address indicates the DHCP process itself failed. Option B is wrong because a faulty network adapter would typically show no link light or connectivity at all, not a successful association with the Wi-Fi and an APIPA address; the adapter is functional enough to receive an APIPA lease. Option C is wrong because if the DHCP server were out of available IP addresses, other devices on the same network would also fail to obtain an IP and would show APIPA addresses, but the question states other devices work fine, ruling out pool exhaustion.

508
MCQeasy

A user reports that their MFP is making a loud grinding noise when printing, and the output pages have vertical streaks. The MFP is a laser printer with a separate toner cartridge and imaging drum. What is the most likely cause?

A.The toner cartridge is low on toner.
B.The fuser unit is failing.
C.The imaging drum is damaged or worn.
D.The paper tray is misaligned.
AnswerC

The imaging drum, or photoconductive drum, is a critical component that receives the laser image and transfers toner to the paper. If the drum's surface is scratched, pitted, or worn, these imperfections will consistently pick up or fail to pick up toner, resulting in distinct, repetitive vertical streaks on the printed page. Additionally, a damaged or worn drum could rotate unevenly or have issues with its internal gears or bearings, leading to the reported grinding noises as it operates.

Why this answer

Vertical streaks on laser printer output often indicate a damaged or worn imaging drum. The grinding noise suggests a mechanical issue with the drum rotation, which is a common failure point in laser MFPs.

509
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their new Bluetooth headphones pair with their smartphone but produce no audio during calls. The headphones work fine with other devices. What is the most likely cause?

A.The headphones are out of battery.
B.The smartphone's Bluetooth antenna is damaged.
C.The smartphone does not support the required Bluetooth profile for call audio.
D.The headphones are paired to too many devices simultaneously.
AnswerC

Bluetooth profiles like HFP or HSP are needed for call audio; A2DP only handles music. If the phone lacks these profiles, calls will be silent.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the smartphone does not support the Hands-Free Profile (HFP) or Headset Profile (HSP) required for bidirectional call audio over Bluetooth. While the headphones may pair and work for media audio using A2DP, these profiles are distinct and must be supported by both devices for voice calls. Since the headphones work with other devices, the issue is specific to the smartphone's Bluetooth profile support.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between Bluetooth pairing/connection and profile support, trapping candidates who assume that successful pairing guarantees full functionality across all audio use cases.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the headphones were out of battery, they would not pair or maintain a connection, and they would also fail to produce audio with other devices. Option B is wrong because a damaged Bluetooth antenna would typically cause intermittent connectivity, range issues, or failure to pair entirely, not a selective inability to route call audio while still pairing successfully. Option D is wrong because Bluetooth headphones can be paired with multiple devices but can only be actively connected to one audio source at a time; pairing to many devices does not prevent audio during calls on the currently connected device.

510
MCQhard

A client reports that their 5 GHz Wi-Fi connection works fine near the access point but drops out completely when they move to the next room, which has thick concrete walls. The 2.4 GHz band works throughout the house. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A.Replace the access point with a higher-gain antenna.
B.Install a wireless repeater in the next room.
C.Deploy a mesh Wi-Fi system with nodes in each room.
D.Switch the client to 2.4 GHz only.
AnswerC

Mesh systems use multiple nodes to create a seamless network, overcoming obstacles by placing nodes closer to clients.

Why this answer

A mesh Wi-Fi system (Option C) is the best solution because it uses multiple nodes that communicate wirelessly to create a unified network, overcoming signal attenuation caused by thick concrete walls. Unlike a single access point or repeater, mesh nodes are placed in each room to ensure strong 5 GHz coverage by relaying traffic through dedicated backhaul channels, mitigating the high-frequency signal loss that occurs through dense materials.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a higher-gain antenna or a simple repeater can solve signal penetration issues through dense materials, when in fact these solutions fail to address the fundamental physics of 5 GHz attenuation and require a distributed architecture like mesh to maintain performance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the access point with a higher-gain antenna increases signal strength in one direction but does not solve the fundamental problem of signal penetration through thick concrete walls; 5 GHz signals are more easily absorbed by dense materials, and a higher-gain antenna cannot bypass physical obstructions. Option B is wrong because a wireless repeater in the next room would still rely on the weakened 5 GHz signal from the original access point to connect, resulting in poor performance or no connection due to the concrete wall attenuation; repeaters also introduce latency and halve throughput. Option D is wrong because switching the client to 2.4 GHz only avoids the problem rather than solving it, sacrificing the higher throughput and lower interference benefits of 5 GHz; it is a workaround, not a proper solution.

511
MCQeasy

A client wants to upgrade their workstation with a high-end GPU that requires two 8-pin PCIe power connectors. Their current power supply has only one 6+2 pin PCIe cable. What is the best solution to safely power the new GPU?

A.Use a Molex-to-PCIe adapter to create a second 8-pin connector
B.Install a new power supply that has two 8-pin PCIe cables
C.Connect the GPU using only the 6+2 pin cable and leave the second connector empty
D.Use a Y-splitter on the existing 6+2 pin cable to create two 8-pin connectors
AnswerB

Installing a new power supply specifically rated for the GPU's total power requirements, and equipped with the necessary dedicated 8-pin PCIe power cables, is the safest and most reliable solution. This ensures the GPU receives stable and sufficient current directly from the PSU's 12V rails, preventing overloading of individual cables or rails and maintaining optimal system stability and longevity under heavy load.

Why this answer

Using a modular power supply with the correct cables is safest because it ensures proper gauge and pinout. Adapters can be risky if they exceed the power supply's capacity or cable rating. Replacing the PSU is the most reliable solution for high-power GPUs.

512
MCQmedium

A user's iPhone connects to a public Wi-Fi hotspot but cannot load any web pages. The Wi-Fi icon shows full signal. Other devices on the same network work fine. What is the most likely issue?

A.The iPhone's DNS settings are misconfigured.
B.The iPhone is not accepting the captive portal's terms and conditions.
C.The iPhone's Wi-Fi antenna is faulty.
D.The public Wi-Fi network is using an incompatible security protocol.
AnswerB

Public Wi-Fi hotspots commonly utilize captive portals that intercept initial web requests and redirect the user to a specific web page. This page requires the user to accept terms and conditions, provide credentials, or make a payment before full internet access is granted. If the user has not completed this interaction, or if the portal page failed to load correctly, the network will restrict outbound traffic, leading to a "connected but no internet" experience.

Why this answer

The most likely issue is that the iPhone has connected to the Wi-Fi network but has not completed the captive portal authentication process. Captive portals require users to accept terms and conditions or log in via a web page before internet access is granted. Since other devices work fine, the network itself is functional, and the iPhone's full signal indicates a good physical connection, pointing to a failure in the portal acceptance step.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between 'connected to Wi-Fi' and 'authenticated via captive portal,' trapping candidates who assume a full signal and IP address mean full internet access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS misconfiguration would typically cause name resolution failures but not prevent all web page loading; more importantly, if the iPhone were already past the captive portal, DNS would be functional, and the symptom here is a pre-authentication block. Option C is wrong because a faulty Wi-Fi antenna would result in weak or no signal, not full signal bars, and would affect all network communication, not just web browsing. Option D is wrong because public Wi-Fi hotspots almost always use open or WPA2-PSK security, and an incompatible security protocol would prevent the iPhone from associating with the network entirely, not just block web pages after connection.

513
MCQmedium

A small business uses an MFP that also functions as a network scanner. Users can scan to a shared folder on a Windows PC, but some users get an 'Access Denied' error when scanning. Other users can scan successfully. What is the most likely cause?

A.The network switch port is faulty.
B.The MFP's firmware is outdated.
C.The MFP's scan-to-folder credentials do not have write permissions to the shared folder.
D.The Windows firewall is blocking the MFP.
AnswerC

When an MFP attempts to perform a scan-to-folder operation, it utilizes pre-configured credentials (often a dedicated service account or specific user account) to authenticate with the network share. If these specific credentials lack the necessary write permissions on the target shared folder, the operating system will correctly deny the write request, resulting in an "access denied" error message. This scenario explains why individual users might successfully scan using their own authenticated sessions, while the MFP's automated process fails due to its distinct, insufficient permissions.

Why this answer

Scan to folder requires the MFP to have write permissions to the shared folder. If the MFP uses a generic service account, that account must have appropriate NTFS and share permissions. The issue is likely permission-related for the MFP's credentials.

514
MCQhard

A user complains that their wireless Bluetooth earbuds frequently disconnect during calls when their smartphone is in their pocket. The earbuds work fine when the phone is on a desk. Which accessory or configuration change is most likely to resolve this issue?

A.A Bluetooth signal booster app
B.A Bluetooth neckband style headset
C.A metal phone case
D.A Wi-Fi analyzer to change router channels
AnswerB

A Bluetooth neckband style headset positions the primary Bluetooth receiver module on the user's neck or collarbone, rather than directly inside the ear. This placement provides a more direct and less obstructed line of sight to the source device, such as a phone in a pocket. By minimizing the amount of the user's body (which contains water and absorbs RF signals) between the transmitter and receiver, it significantly reduces signal attenuation and improves connection stability.

Why this answer

The issue is that the smartphone's Bluetooth antenna is being physically blocked or attenuated by the user's body (specifically the leg/torso) when the phone is in a pocket. A Bluetooth neckband-style headset places the Bluetooth receiver and antenna around the user's neck, which is typically above the pocket and has a clearer line-of-sight to the phone, significantly reducing signal obstruction and multipath interference. This configuration change directly addresses the physical signal path problem without requiring any software or network changes.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that Bluetooth issues are always caused by RF interference or software problems, when in reality the most common cause of intermittent disconnections with portable devices is physical signal obstruction by the user's own body.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a 'Bluetooth signal booster app' cannot overcome physical signal attenuation caused by the human body; Bluetooth operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band, and software cannot amplify or redirect the radio signal from the phone's antenna. Option C is wrong because a metal phone case would actually worsen the problem by further shielding the phone's Bluetooth antenna, increasing signal loss and disconnections. Option D is wrong because a Wi-Fi analyzer to change router channels addresses co-channel interference from Wi-Fi networks, but the problem is a physical obstruction (the user's body) between the phone and earbuds, not RF interference from other devices.

515
MCQhard

A technician is replacing a failed motherboard in a desktop PC. The original motherboard had an LGA1151 socket. The replacement motherboard has an LGA1200 socket. The technician attempts to install the original CPU but finds it does not fit. What is the most likely reason?

A.The CPU is incompatible with the new motherboard's chipset
B.The CPU has a different number of pins
C.The power supply connector is different
D.The CPU is an AMD processor
AnswerB

The scenario describes attempting to install an LGA1151 CPU into a new motherboard likely designed for a different socket, such as LGA1200. LGA1151 CPUs feature 1151 contact pads, while LGA1200 sockets are engineered for CPUs with 1200 contact pads. This disparity in the number and arrangement of electrical contacts physically prevents the CPU from aligning correctly with the socket's lands, making installation impossible due to the incompatible pin layout.

Why this answer

LGA sockets are keyed for specific generations of CPUs. LGA1151 is used for 6th/7th/8th/9th gen Intel, while LGA1200 is for 10th/11th gen. The physical pin count and keying are different, so a CPU designed for LGA1151 cannot be inserted into an LGA1200 socket.

The chipset is irrelevant to physical fit, and the power connector is unrelated.

516
MCQmedium

A user wants to add a second hard drive to their desktop for extra storage, but the computer only has one SATA data cable available. The technician has an extra SATA power cable from the power supply. What is the most practical solution?

A.Use a Y-splitter on the existing SATA data cable to connect both drives.
B.Purchase an additional SATA data cable and use the existing power cable.
C.Connect the second drive using an external USB-to-SATA adapter.
D.Replace the existing hard drive with a larger one.
AnswerB

Adding a second internal hard drive requires both a dedicated data connection to an available SATA port on the motherboard and a power connection from the power supply. Since the technician has confirmed an extra power cable is available, the only missing component is a dedicated SATA data cable to connect the new drive to the motherboard, fulfilling both essential requirements for operation.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of SATA connectivity requirements. Each SATA drive needs its own data cable, but power can be shared via splitters or by using available power connectors.

517
MCQmedium

A laptop's touchpad is not working correctly; the cursor jumps erratically. You have already updated the driver and checked for debris. What hardware component should you inspect or replace next?

A.Replace the entire keyboard assembly.
B.Reseat the touchpad ribbon cable on the motherboard.
C.Replace the laptop's LCD screen.
D.Reinstall the operating system.
AnswerB

Reseating the touchpad ribbon cable on the motherboard is a highly effective troubleshooting step for erratic or non-functional touchpad behavior. Flexible Printed Circuit (FPC) ribbon cables connect the touchpad's sensor and controller to the laptop's main logic board. A loose, partially dislodged, or poorly seated connection can cause intermittent signal loss or corrupted data transmission, leading directly to the cursor moving erratically or the touchpad becoming unresponsive.

Why this answer

This question tests systematic troubleshooting of input devices. After ruling out software and debris, the next step is to check the touchpad's ribbon cable connection to the motherboard. A loose or damaged cable can cause erratic behavior.

Replacing the touchpad itself is a later step.

518
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a display that shows vertical lines across the entire screen. The lines persist when a different video cable is used, and the monitor works fine when connected to another computer. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's panel is defective.
B.The graphics card driver is corrupted.
C.The video cable is damaged.
D.The monitor's refresh rate is set incorrectly.
AnswerB

A corrupted graphics card driver can lead to improper communication between the operating system, the graphics processing unit (GPU), and the display, resulting in rendering errors such as persistent vertical lines. These drivers are crucial for translating software commands into visual output, and corruption can cause incorrect pixel data to be sent to the monitor. Reinstalling or updating the driver typically resolves these issues by replacing the faulty software instructions with a stable version.

Why this answer

Vertical lines that persist with different cables but disappear on another computer indicate a problem with the graphics card or its driver on the original computer. The monitor is proven good, so the issue is with the video source.

519
MCQeasy

A technician is building a new workstation for video editing and needs to ensure the power supply can handle dual GPUs and multiple hard drives. Which specification is most critical to check when selecting a PSU?

A.The total wattage rating of the power supply.
B.The number of SATA power connectors.
C.The combined amperage on the +12V rail(s).
D.The physical form factor (ATX, SFX, etc.).
AnswerC

The combined amperage on the +12V rail(s) is the most critical specification for a high-performance video editing workstation. This rail supplies power directly to the CPU via the EPS connector and to the graphics cards via PCIe power connectors, which are the most power-hungry components. Multiplying this amperage by 12V yields the maximum wattage available for these critical parts, ensuring stability and preventing system crashes or component damage during intensive rendering and processing tasks.

Why this answer

The +12V rail provides power to the CPU, GPUs, and drives; its combined amperage determines how much power can be delivered to these components. For high-power builds, a single +12V rail with high amperage or multiple rails with sufficient combined capacity is essential. Neglecting this can lead to instability or shutdowns under load.

520
MCQmedium

A user connects a USB-C docking station to their laptop and finds that the external monitor works, but the Ethernet port on the dock does not provide network connectivity. The laptop's built-in Wi-Fi works fine. Which is the most likely cause?

A.The Ethernet cable is faulty
B.The USB-C port on the laptop is damaged
C.The docking station's Ethernet driver is not installed
D.The laptop's Wi-Fi is interfering with Ethernet
AnswerC

Many USB-C docking stations incorporate a dedicated USB-to-Ethernet controller chip (e.g., Realtek, ASIX) to provide wired network connectivity. For the operating system to properly communicate with and utilize this specific hardware component, a corresponding device driver must be installed. Without the correct driver, the OS cannot identify the Ethernet adapter, initialize it, or expose it as a network interface, leading to no network connectivity despite the physical connection.

Why this answer

USB-C docking stations often require specific drivers for their integrated Ethernet adapters to function. Since the external monitor works, the USB-C connection itself is functional, isolating the issue to the Ethernet component. The missing driver prevents the OS from recognizing the network interface, even though the dock's other features operate normally.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a working monitor proves the entire dock is functional, overlooking that USB-C alternate mode for DisplayPort can work independently of the USB data lines or the dock's embedded peripherals, each of which may have separate driver requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a faulty Ethernet cable would typically cause a link light to be absent or intermittent, but the scenario does not mention any physical layer indicators; moreover, the dock's Ethernet port is completely non-functional, which is more consistent with a driver issue. Option B is wrong because the external monitor works through the same USB-C port, proving the port is capable of data and video transmission; a damaged port would likely affect all functions, not just Ethernet. Option D is wrong because Wi-Fi and Ethernet operate on separate network stacks and can coexist; the laptop's Wi-Fi working fine does not prevent the Ethernet interface from being detected or configured if the driver is present.

521
MCQmedium

A small office has a multifunction device that prints, scans, and faxes. Users report that incoming faxes are not being received, but outgoing faxes work. The MFP is connected to a VoIP phone system. What is the most likely issue?

A.The fax line is plugged into the wrong port on the MFP.
B.The MFP's fax memory is full.
C.The VoIP system is not configured for T.38 fax protocol.
D.The MFP's firmware is outdated.
AnswerC

The T.38 protocol is specifically designed to transmit fax data reliably over IP networks by converting analog fax tones into digital packets, mitigating the effects of packet loss and latency inherent in VoIP. Without T.38, standard VoIP codecs compress and decompress the analog fax tones, often corrupting the precise timing and frequency required for successful fax reception. While outgoing faxes might occasionally succeed due to the sending MFP's ability to adapt, incoming faxes are far more susceptible to these distortions, leading to consistent failures.

Why this answer

VoIP systems often use codecs that compress audio, which can interfere with fax tones. The T.38 protocol is designed to transmit faxes over IP networks reliably. Without it, incoming faxes may fail while outgoing faxes might still work if the MFP negotiates differently.

522
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop's battery drains quickly when connected to a USB-C docking station, even when the laptop is plugged into the dock's power delivery port. The dock supports 60W power delivery, but the laptop requires 65W. What is the most likely issue?

A.The laptop's battery is failing
B.The dock's power delivery is insufficient for the laptop
C.The USB-C cable is not rated for power delivery
D.The laptop is running high-performance mode
AnswerB

When a dock's power delivery capability (measured in watts) is lower than the laptop's operational power requirements, the laptop will draw supplemental power directly from its internal battery. This continuous discharge, even while connected to the dock, prevents the battery from charging or maintaining its charge level, leading to the observed rapid battery drain. The laptop effectively uses its battery to bridge the power deficit.

Why this answer

The dock supports 60W power delivery, but the laptop requires 65W. When the power provided is less than the laptop's demand, the laptop will draw power from both the dock and its internal battery to meet the shortfall, causing the battery to drain even while connected. This is a classic case of insufficient power delivery from the dock, not a battery failure or cable issue.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the misconception that any USB-C cable or dock will charge a laptop as long as it's connected, ignoring the specific wattage requirements and the USB-PD negotiation process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a failing battery would typically show symptoms like sudden shutdowns or inability to hold a charge even when the laptop is on its own charger, not specifically when connected to a dock. Option C is wrong because if the USB-C cable were not rated for power delivery, the laptop would not charge at all or would show a 'not charging' status, rather than draining slowly while connected. Option D is wrong because high-performance mode increases power draw, but the core issue is that the dock cannot supply the required wattage; even in balanced mode, the laptop would still draw more than 60W under load, leading to battery drain.

523
MCQmedium

A user complains that their PC is running slowly, especially when opening multiple browser tabs. The system has 4 GB of RAM installed, and the OS is Windows 10 64-bit. Task Manager shows memory usage consistently at 90-95%. Which upgrade would provide the most immediate performance improvement?

A.Upgrade the CPU to a faster model.
B.Add an additional 4 GB of RAM to bring the total to 8 GB.
C.Replace the hard drive with a solid-state drive (SSD).
D.Disable the page file to force the system to use only RAM.
AnswerB

Insufficient RAM is a common cause of a slow PC, as the operating system resorts to using the much slower hard drive as virtual memory (page file) when physical RAM is exhausted. Increasing the RAM from 4 GB to 8 GB directly addresses this memory bottleneck, allowing more applications and data to reside in faster physical memory. This significantly reduces reliance on the page file, thereby improving overall system responsiveness, multitasking capabilities, and preventing performance degradation.

Why this answer

With 4 GB of RAM, Windows 10 is likely using most of it for the OS and background processes, leaving little for applications. Upgrading to 8 GB or more will significantly reduce paging to the hard drive and improve multitasking. Adding more RAM is the most effective solution for this symptom, as the system is memory-constrained.

524
MCQmedium

A customer wants to connect two buildings that are 200 meters apart with a high-speed network link. Which cabling solution is most appropriate?

A.Cat6a copper cable
B.Fiber optic cable
C.Coaxial cable
D.Wireless bridge
AnswerB

Fiber optic cable is the optimal choice for connecting two buildings over a 200-meter distance due to its inherent ability to transmit data reliably over much longer spans, often several kilometers, without signal degradation. Unlike copper, fiber is completely immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI), which is crucial for outdoor or inter-building links where electrical noise can be a concern. Furthermore, it provides superior bandwidth capacity, easily supporting current and future high-speed network requirements.

Why this answer

Fiber optic cable is the most appropriate solution for connecting two buildings 200 meters apart because it supports high-speed data transmission over long distances without signal degradation. Unlike copper cables, fiber is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and can easily exceed the 100-meter distance limit of twisted-pair cabling, making it ideal for inter-building links.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose Cat6a copper cable (Option A) because they overlook the 100-meter distance limitation for twisted-pair Ethernet, assuming higher category cables can magically extend the range.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cat6a copper cable has a maximum segment length of 100 meters for high-speed Ethernet (e.g., 10GBASE-T), and 200 meters exceeds this limit, leading to signal loss and unreliable performance. Option C is wrong because coaxial cable, while capable of longer distances, is typically limited to lower bandwidths (e.g., 10-100 Mbps) and is not designed for modern high-speed network links like Gigabit Ethernet or beyond. Option D is wrong because a wireless bridge can cover 200 meters but introduces potential latency, interference, and throughput variability, making it less reliable and slower than a wired fiber solution for a dedicated high-speed link.

525
MCQmedium

A user complains that their laser printer is picking up multiple sheets of paper at once, causing jams. The paper tray is full of standard 20 lb bond paper. Which component is most likely causing this issue?

A.The pickup roller is worn
B.The paper is too thin
C.The separation pad is worn
D.The fuser is overheating
AnswerC

The separation pad is a crucial component in the paper tray assembly, designed to create friction against the bottom of the top sheet while allowing the pickup roller to advance only that single sheet. When the separation pad becomes worn, its textured surface loses its ability to adequately grip and hold back the sheets beneath the topmost one. This diminished friction allows the pickup roller to pull multiple sheets into the printer's paper path simultaneously, leading to the reported issue.

Why this answer

Multiple sheets feeding into the printer is typically due to worn or dirty separation pads, which are designed to separate one sheet from the stack. Over time, these pads lose friction. Cleaning or replacing the separation pad usually fixes the problem.

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