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CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 601–675

1020 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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601

MCQhard

During a BIOS update on a workstation, the power is interrupted, and now the system fails to POST. The motherboard has a backup BIOS chip. What is the most efficient way to recover the system?

A.Replace the motherboard

B.Use a USB flash drive with the correct BIOS file and press a recovery key combination

C.Remove the CMOS battery for 30 minutes

D.Switch the motherboard's dual BIOS jumper to the backup position

AnswerD

This physically selects the backup BIOS chip, allowing the system to boot and later reflash the primary chip.

Why this answer

Many motherboards have a dual BIOS feature where a backup chip stores a factory-default firmware. Switching to the backup BIOS restores functionality without needing external tools. This scenario tests knowledge of BIOS recovery mechanisms and the importance of redundant firmware.

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602

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop that has a 256GB SATA SSD (C:) and a 1TB SATA HDD (D:). The user reports that the system is running very slowly, and the C: drive is nearly full. The technician runs a disk cleanup and removes temporary files, but the C: drive still has only 5GB free. What should the technician do to resolve the performance issue without replacing the SSD?

A.Enable write caching on the SSD in Device Manager.

B.Move the user's Documents, Pictures, and other personal folders to the D: drive.

C.Defragment the C: drive to consolidate free space.

D.Disable the page file on the C: drive.

AnswerB

Moving personal folders to the D: drive frees up significant space on the C: drive. This allows the SSD to have more free space for wear leveling and garbage collection, restoring performance.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of SSD performance degradation due to low free space. SSDs need free space for wear leveling and garbage collection. When an SSD is nearly full, performance drops significantly.

The best solution is to move user data and large files to the D: drive to free up space on the C: drive.

Full explanation →

603

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a cloud-based application that must handle unpredictable spikes in user traffic. The application should automatically add more virtual servers during peak times and remove them when traffic decreases. Which cloud concept is this?

A.Scalability

B.Elasticity

C.High availability

D.Load balancing

AnswerB

Elasticity refers to the automatic provisioning and de-provisioning of resources to match current demand, exactly as described.

Why this answer

Elasticity is the ability to automatically scale resources up and down in response to demand. This is a key benefit of cloud computing, allowing cost efficiency while handling spikes. Scalability is a broader term that includes manual scaling, but elasticity specifically implies automatic, dynamic adjustment.

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604

MCQeasy

A technician is building a new workstation for video editing. The motherboard supports LGA 1700 socket CPUs. Which of the following CPUs is compatible with this socket?

A.AMD Ryzen 7 5800X

B.Intel Core i5-13600K

C.Intel Core i7-9700K

D.AMD Threadripper 3970X

AnswerB

Intel 13th generation CPUs use LGA 1700, making this the correct choice.

Why this answer

This question tests knowledge of CPU socket compatibility. LGA 1700 is used by Intel 12th, 13th, and 14th generation processors. Choosing the correct socket ensures the CPU physically fits and operates.

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605

MCQhard

A user's smartphone intermittently drops Wi-Fi connection when the device is moved from one room to another. The home uses a single Wi-Fi router. The technician suspects the issue is related to the device's power management. Which setting should be adjusted to maintain a stable connection?

A.Enable 'Wi-Fi calling' to offload calls to cellular.

B.Set the device to 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' to 'Always'.

C.Disable 'Wi-Fi power saving mode' in the advanced Wi-Fi settings.

D.Change the Wi-Fi frequency band from 5 GHz to 2.4 GHz.

AnswerC

Power saving mode can throttle the Wi-Fi radio to save battery, causing drops when the signal weakens; disabling it keeps the radio at full power.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because disabling 'Wi-Fi power saving mode' prevents the device from reducing radio power or entering low-power states when moving between rooms, which can cause intermittent signal drops. This setting directly addresses the power management behavior that leads to unstable connections during transitions.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between power management settings (like Wi-Fi power saving mode) and connectivity settings (like band selection or sleep behavior), trapping candidates who confuse range-related fixes with power-saving adjustments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Wi-Fi calling' offloads voice calls to the cellular network when Wi-Fi is weak, but it does not affect the device's power management or prevent Wi-Fi disconnections during movement. Option B is wrong because 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' controls behavior only when the device is in sleep mode, not during active movement between rooms; it does not address power management during active use. Option D is wrong because changing the frequency band from 5 GHz to 2.4 GHz may improve range but does not resolve power management issues that cause intermittent drops; the problem is related to the device's power-saving algorithms, not the band selection.

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606

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop that will not boot. The power LED is on, fans spin, but there is no display and no beep codes. The CPU and RAM have been reseated, and the motherboard appears to have power. What should the technician check next?

A.Test the power supply with a multimeter

B.Replace the CMOS battery

C.Inspect the CPU socket for bent pins

D.Flash the BIOS

AnswerC

Bent pins can prevent the CPU from communicating with the chipset, causing a no-POST condition with fans spinning but no beeps.

Why this answer

With power, fans, and no beep codes, the system is likely not completing POST. The most common cause after reseating CPU and RAM is a bent CPU socket pin or a misaligned CPU, which can prevent the system from initializing the processor. This is a common issue on LGA sockets.

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607

MCQeasy

A user reports that their virtual machine is running very slowly. The host system has 16 GB of RAM, and the VM is configured with 8 GB. The host is running a Type 2 hypervisor on Windows 10. The technician checks Task Manager and sees that the host is using 14 GB of RAM. What is the most likely cause of the VM's poor performance?

A.The VM's virtual CPU is overclocked

B.The hypervisor is not compatible with Windows 10

C.The host does not have enough free RAM to support the VM's needs

D.The VM's network adapter is set to NAT instead of bridged

AnswerC

With only 2 GB free on the host, the VM may be forced to use virtual memory (paging), causing severe performance degradation.

Why this answer

The host is running low on available RAM because the VM's allocated memory is not being released efficiently, or other host processes are consuming memory. In a Type 2 hypervisor, the host OS manages memory, and if it is oversubscribed, the VM will experience swapping and slowdowns.

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608

MCQhard

A data center technician is installing a new server that requires a redundant power supply with two C13 power cords. The rack has two separate PDUs (Power Distribution Units) with C19 outlets. What type of power cable is needed to connect the server to the PDUs?

A.C14 to C19 power cord

B.C13 to C14 power cord

C.C13 to C19 power cord

D.C19 to C20 power cord

AnswerC

This cable connects the server's C13 connector to the PDU's C19 outlet, providing the required power connection.

Why this answer

The server has C13 inlets (the power supply accepts C13 connectors), so the cable must have a C13 connector on the server end. The PDU has C19 outlets, so the cable must have a C19 connector on the PDU end. Therefore, a C13 to C19 power cord is required.

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609

MCQmedium

A small office server uses RAID 5 with three 1 TB hard drives. One drive fails and is replaced with a new 1 TB drive. During the rebuild process, the server becomes very slow and the RAID controller reports an error. What is the most likely cause of the slowdown?

A.The new drive is not the same model as the others.

B.The RAID controller is overheating.

C.The rebuild process is consuming all available disk I/O.

D.The new drive is not properly seated in the bay.

AnswerC

RAID 5 rebuilds are I/O-intensive as they read all data from surviving drives to calculate parity. This can saturate the array's bandwidth, causing system slowdowns.

Why this answer

RAID 5 rebuilds require reading data from all remaining drives to reconstruct parity, which consumes significant I/O resources. This can cause performance degradation, especially if the array is in use during rebuild. The error may also indicate a second drive failure or a bad sector.

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610

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop computer intermittently freezes and emits a high-pitched whine. The issue occurs more frequently under heavy load, such as when rendering video. Which CPU-related feature is most likely causing this symptom?

A.CPU throttling due to overheating

B.Coil whine from the voltage regulator modules

C.A failing CPU fan bearing

D.Incorrect CPU multiplier setting in BIOS

AnswerB

Coil whine is a common electrical noise from VRMs under high current draw, often heard during heavy CPU load.

Why this answer

The high-pitched whine from a CPU under load is typically coil whine, caused by electrical vibrations in the voltage regulator modules (VRMs) or inductors. This is not a sign of failure but can be annoying. The correct answer identifies the source as power delivery components, not the CPU itself.

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611

MCQmedium

During a laptop keyboard replacement, a technician accidentally dislodges a small ribbon cable from the touchpad connector. The touchpad is now unresponsive. The technician has never worked on this model before. What is the best course of action to resolve the issue?

A.Use tweezers to gently push the ribbon cable into any nearby empty connector.

B.Reboot the laptop to see if the touchpad driver reloads.

C.Consult the service manual to identify the correct connector and reseat the cable.

D.Replace the entire keyboard assembly since the touchpad cable is likely broken.

AnswerC

The service manual provides the exact location and orientation for the touchpad ribbon cable, ensuring proper reconnection.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the most logical and safe first step when dealing with an unfamiliar laptop model is to consult the service manual. This ensures the technician identifies the exact connector for the touchpad ribbon cable, preventing damage from forcing the cable into the wrong port. Reseating the cable correctly is the standard fix for a dislodged connection.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume a reboot (Option B) will fix any unresponsive device, overlooking the fundamental hardware disconnection, or they may panic and try to force the cable into any available slot (Option A) without verifying the correct port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because inserting the ribbon cable into any empty connector risks shorting circuits or damaging the cable and motherboard, as connectors are keyed for specific functions and voltages. Option B is wrong because rebooting will not physically reconnect a dislodged cable; the touchpad is unresponsive due to a hardware disconnection, not a driver issue. Option D is wrong because replacing the entire keyboard assembly is an unnecessary and costly step when the cable is likely intact and simply needs to be reseated.

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612

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their laptop connects to the office Wi-Fi but cannot access the internet. Other devices on the same network work fine. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The laptop's DNS server address is set to a public DNS like 8.8.8.8

B.The laptop's default gateway address is incorrect

C.The laptop's IP address is set to a static address in the same subnet as the router

D.The office Wi-Fi network is using a different SSID than expected

AnswerB

A wrong default gateway prevents the device from sending traffic outside its local subnet, which is exactly what is described.

Why this answer

The laptop can connect to the Wi-Fi network but cannot access the internet, while other devices work fine. This points to a client-side configuration issue. The default gateway is the router that forwards traffic from the local subnet to external networks; if the laptop's default gateway address is incorrect, its packets cannot leave the local subnet, breaking internet access while local connectivity remains.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that DNS is the root cause of internet access failure, but the trap here is that DNS only affects name resolution, not the ability to route packets to the internet; candidates must distinguish between connectivity to the local network and connectivity beyond the gateway.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using a public DNS like 8.8.8.8 would still allow internet access if the gateway is correct; DNS only affects name resolution, not basic IP connectivity. Option C is wrong because a static IP in the same subnet as the router would still allow internet access as long as the gateway and DNS are correctly configured; being in the same subnet does not inherently break internet access. Option D is wrong because if the laptop connects to the office Wi-Fi, it is already associated with the correct SSID; a different SSID would prevent connection entirely, not allow connection but block internet.

Full explanation →

613

MCQeasy

A small office uses a network printer that is shared via a print server. Users report that print jobs are not reaching the printer. The technician pings the print server successfully but cannot connect to the printer's web interface using its IP address. Which protocol is most likely blocked or malfunctioning?

A.HTTP

B.TCP

C.UDP

D.SNMP

AnswerA

The web interface typically uses HTTP or HTTPS; if this protocol is blocked or the service is down, the interface becomes unreachable despite network connectivity.

Why this answer

The technician can ping the print server (ICMP success) but cannot connect to the printer's web interface via its IP address. The web interface uses HTTP (port 80) or HTTPS (port 443). Since ICMP is working but HTTP is not, the most likely issue is that HTTP traffic is being blocked by a firewall or the HTTP service on the printer is malfunctioning.

This directly points to HTTP as the blocked or malfunctioning protocol.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between ICMP (ping) success and application-layer protocol failure, trapping candidates who assume that a successful ping guarantees full network connectivity to all services.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (TCP) is wrong because TCP is a transport-layer protocol, not an application-layer service; blocking TCP entirely would break all TCP-based communication, including the successful ping (which uses ICMP, not TCP) and any other network functions. Option C (UDP) is wrong because the printer's web interface uses HTTP over TCP, not UDP; blocking UDP would not affect HTTP connectivity. Option D (SNMP) is wrong because SNMP is used for network management and monitoring, not for accessing a printer's web interface; blocking SNMP would not prevent HTTP access.

Full explanation →

614

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop that shuts down abruptly after 10 minutes of use. The CPU fan is spinning, but the heatsink feels cool to the touch. What is the most likely cause?

A.The CPU is not receiving power from the motherboard.

B.The CPU fan is plugged into a chassis fan header instead of the CPU_FAN header.

C.The thermal paste has been applied too thickly.

D.The power supply is failing under load.

AnswerB

Correct; if the fan is connected to a chassis header, the CPU may overheat because the system does not monitor its speed, and the fan may not spin at the correct speed for cooling.

Why this answer

When the CPU fan is plugged into a chassis fan header instead of the CPU_FAN header, the motherboard does not detect a fan on the CPU header. Many motherboards have a safety feature that shuts down the system after a short period if no CPU fan is detected, even if the CPU is not overheating. The spinning fan (on the chassis header) may cool the case but does not satisfy the CPU fan detection requirement, leading to an automatic shutdown after about 10 minutes.

The cool heatsink confirms the CPU is not overheating, ruling out thermal issues.

Full explanation →

615

MCQmedium

A customer complains that their LCD monitor shows a persistent dark shadow in the upper-left corner that does not change with different input sources. The monitor is three years old. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's resolution is set incorrectly.

B.The video cable is loose or damaged.

C.The monitor's backlight has failed partially.

D.The graphics card is overheating and throttling.

AnswerC

Partial backlight failure creates dark areas; since it's consistent across inputs, the backlight or panel is faulty.

Why this answer

A dark shadow that stays in the same spot regardless of input indicates a hardware defect, typically backlight failure or a damaged LCD panel. Backlight LEDs can fail over time, creating uneven illumination. Replacing the monitor is the standard fix because panel repair is often cost-prohibitive.

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616

MCQmedium

A user reports that their color laser printer is producing prints with a repeating vertical black line down the left side of every page. The line appears at regular intervals. Which component is most likely causing this defect?

A.Toner cartridge

B.Transfer belt

C.Imaging drum

D.Fuser roller

AnswerC

A scratch or debris on the imaging drum will create a repeating mark on each page as the drum rotates; the interval matches the drum's circumference.

Why this answer

Repeating marks on laser printer output often indicate a damaged component that rotates, such as the imaging drum or fuser roller. The distance between repeats helps identify the source. A vertical line at regular intervals is characteristic of a scratch or debris on the drum.

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617

MCQeasy

A client wants to upgrade their desktop PC with a new, faster processor. They have purchased a CPU that is listed as compatible with the motherboard's socket type. After installation, the system powers on but displays a blank screen. What is the most likely issue?

A.The CPU is not seated properly

B.The motherboard BIOS needs an update

C.The RAM is incompatible with the new CPU

D.The power supply is insufficient

AnswerB

A BIOS update is often required to support newer CPU models, even if the socket is physically compatible; without it, the system may power on but not post.

Why this answer

Even if the CPU fits the socket, the motherboard's BIOS/UEFI may require an update to support a newer CPU model. This is a common scenario where the hardware is physically compatible but the firmware is outdated. The system powers on but fails to post because the BIOS does not recognize the CPU.

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618

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a kiosk mode on an Android tablet for a retail display. The tablet will run a single app that customers use to browse products. After enabling kiosk mode via a third-party app, the tablet reboots and the kiosk app does not start automatically. What should the technician verify?

A.The tablet is connected to Wi-Fi for app updates.

B.The kiosk app is set as the default home screen app.

C.The tablet's battery is fully charged.

D.The kiosk app is installed on the SD card.

AnswerB

Setting the app as the default launcher ensures it starts automatically when the device boots up.

Why this answer

When kiosk mode is enabled on Android, the device must designate the kiosk app as the default home screen app. This ensures that after a reboot, the Android launcher automatically starts the designated app instead of the system launcher. Without this setting, the tablet will boot to the default home screen, not the kiosk app.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that simply enabling kiosk mode via a third-party app is enough, without understanding that Android requires the app to be set as the default home screen to survive a reboot.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Wi-Fi connectivity is not required for the kiosk app to start automatically after a reboot; app updates are unrelated to the boot-time launch behavior. Option C is wrong because battery charge level does not affect whether the kiosk app launches on boot; a low battery might prevent boot entirely but not cause the app to fail to start. Option D is wrong because installing the app on an SD card does not prevent it from launching automatically; Android can launch apps from external storage, though performance may vary, but this is not the cause of the failure.

Full explanation →

619

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a satellite internet connection that has high latency and frequent disconnections. The dish is installed on a roof with a clear view of the sky. What is the most likely cause of the high latency?

A.The satellite dish is not grounded properly.

B.The modem is outdated.

C.The signal has to travel a long distance to the satellite and back.

D.There is interference from nearby cellular towers.

AnswerC

Geostationary satellites are about 22,000 miles away, causing unavoidable latency.

Why this answer

Satellite internet inherently suffers from high latency because the signal must travel to a geostationary satellite approximately 35,786 km above the equator and back. This round-trip distance of roughly 70,000 km, even at the speed of light, results in a minimum latency of about 240 ms, which is far higher than terrestrial connections. Frequent disconnections can also occur due to atmospheric conditions, but the high latency is a direct consequence of the physical distance the signal must traverse.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the candidate's understanding that latency in satellite internet is a physical limitation of distance, not a configuration or interference issue, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse symptoms like disconnections (which can have many causes) with the root cause of high latency.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because improper grounding of the satellite dish can cause electrical safety hazards or damage from lightning strikes, but it does not directly cause high latency or frequent disconnections related to signal travel time. Option B is wrong because an outdated modem might limit throughput or lack support for newer standards, but it does not change the fundamental physics of signal propagation delay to and from the satellite. Option D is wrong because interference from nearby cellular towers typically causes signal degradation, packet loss, or reduced signal-to-noise ratio, not the consistently high latency that is characteristic of satellite links.

Full explanation →

620

MCQmedium

A user complains that their laptop's built-in webcam is not working in video conferencing apps. The device manager shows the camera as 'disabled'. The technician enables it, but the camera still shows a black screen in apps. What should the technician do next?

A.Uninstall and reinstall the camera driver

B.Check for a physical privacy shutter on the webcam and verify Windows camera privacy settings

C.Replace the webcam module

D.Update the laptop's BIOS

AnswerB

Many laptops have a physical shutter that can block the camera. Also, Windows has a privacy setting that can disable camera access for apps. Both are common causes of a black screen.

Why this answer

Even if the camera is enabled in Device Manager, the privacy shutter or a privacy setting in the OS (like Windows Camera privacy settings) can block the camera. Checking the physical shutter and OS privacy settings is the logical next step.

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621

MCQmedium

A company uses a Type 1 hypervisor for production servers. A technician needs to migrate a running VM from one host to another without any downtime. Which feature should be used?

A.Snapshot the VM and restore on the new host

B.Use virtual machine cloning

C.Perform a live migration using the hypervisor's built-in feature

D.Export the VM as an OVF and import on the new host

AnswerC

Live migration transfers memory and state while the VM runs, ensuring zero downtime.

Why this answer

Live migration (vMotion in VMware) moves a running VM between hosts with zero downtime. This is a key feature of enterprise hypervisors for maintenance and load balancing.

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622

MCQhard

A company uses a cloud-based VoIP service, and users report intermittent call drops and poor audio quality. Network monitoring shows high jitter and packet loss. Which service is most likely contributing to the problem?

A.The DHCP server is leasing IP addresses with a short lease time.

B.The DNS server is responding slowly to queries.

C.The SIP server is overloaded with registration requests.

D.The network is not prioritizing VoIP traffic via QoS.

AnswerD

Without QoS, real-time traffic like VoIP competes with other data, causing jitter and packet loss.

Why this answer

High jitter and packet loss directly degrade real-time VoIP traffic, causing call drops and poor audio. QoS (Quality of Service) mechanisms like DiffServ or 802.1p prioritize voice packets over other traffic, ensuring low latency and consistent delivery. Without QoS, the network treats VoIP packets the same as bulk data, leading to the reported symptoms.

Exam trap

Note the distinction between application-layer issues (SIP overload, DNS) and transport/network-layer issues (jitter, loss). Candidates often mistakenly attribute packet-level symptoms to server overload rather than missing QoS.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP lease time affects IP address renewal, not jitter or packet loss; a short lease might cause brief connectivity interruptions but not sustained high jitter. Option B is wrong because slow DNS responses impact call setup (name resolution) but do not cause in-call jitter or packet loss. Option C is wrong because an overloaded SIP server would cause registration failures or call setup delays, not the continuous packet-level issues of jitter and loss during active calls.

Full explanation →

623

MCQhard

A technician is diagnosing a system that fails to boot after a CPU upgrade. The old CPU worked fine. The new CPU is installed correctly, but the system beeps repeatedly (1 long, 3 short). Which of the following is the most likely issue?

A.The CPU is not receiving power

B.The RAM is incompatible with the new CPU

C.The motherboard BIOS does not support the new CPU

D.The CPU cooler is not installed properly

AnswerC

This beep code often indicates a CPU initialization failure, which is typical when the BIOS lacks microcode for the new processor.

Why this answer

Beep codes are diagnostic indicators. 1 long, 3 short beeps from an AMI BIOS typically indicate a memory or graphics issue, but in this context, it often points to the CPU not being fully supported or a BIOS incompatibility.

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624

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting intermittent packet loss on a critical link between two buildings. The link uses single-mode fiber optic cable. Which tool is specifically designed to measure the length of the fiber and locate breaks or splices that could cause signal loss?

A.Light meter

B.OTDR

C.Multimeter

D.Cable tester

AnswerB

An OTDR provides a detailed trace of the fiber, showing the length, loss at splices, and location of breaks, making it essential for troubleshooting fiber links.

Why this answer

An Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is the correct tool because it sends a series of light pulses into the fiber and measures the backscattered and reflected light to calculate fiber length, locate breaks, splices, and connectors, and quantify loss at each event. This makes it ideal for troubleshooting intermittent packet loss caused by physical impairments in a single-mode fiber link between buildings.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistakenly choose a light meter when the question asks for locating breaks or splices, confusing total loss measurement with event location.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a light meter (optical power meter) measures the absolute optical power level at a point, not the length of the fiber or the location of breaks/splices. Option C is wrong because a multimeter measures electrical properties like voltage, current, and resistance, and cannot be used on fiber optic cables which transmit light, not electricity. Option D is wrong because a standard cable tester (e.g., for copper Ethernet) checks wire mapping, continuity, and basic electrical faults, but does not measure fiber length or locate events along a fiber optic cable.

Full explanation →

625

MCQhard

A technician is tasked with connecting a legacy printer that uses a parallel port to a modern laptop that only has USB ports. Which adapter is required to make this connection work?

A.USB to serial adapter

B.USB to parallel adapter

C.USB to PS/2 adapter

D.USB to VGA adapter

AnswerB

This adapter converts USB signals to parallel, allowing the laptop to communicate with the printer.

Why this answer

A USB to parallel adapter allows a modern laptop to communicate with a legacy parallel printer. This requires an active adapter that converts USB signals to parallel. This tests knowledge of legacy connector adaptation and the need for active conversion.

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626

MCQmedium

A user reports that their computer randomly freezes and displays a blue screen error with the message 'MEMORY_MANAGEMENT'. They recently installed a new 8 GB DDR4 module alongside the existing 8 GB module. Both modules are from different manufacturers and have different CAS latencies. What is the most likely cause of the issue?

A.The new RAM module is defective.

B.The RAM is not seated properly in the slot.

C.The RAM modules have mismatched CAS latencies, causing timing conflicts.

D.The motherboard does not support 16 GB of RAM.

AnswerC

Different CAS latencies force the memory controller to use the slower timing for both sticks, which can lead to instability if the modules are not designed to work together.

Why this answer

Mixing RAM modules with different specifications, especially CAS latency, can cause timing mismatches that lead to system instability and blue screen errors like MEMORY_MANAGEMENT. The system tries to run both sticks at the same timings, which can fail if the modules are not compatible.

Full explanation →

627

MCQmedium

A user reports that their PC emits a single short beep and then nothing happens. The screen remains blank, and the keyboard and mouse do not light up. What is the most likely issue?

A.The RAM is not seated properly.

B.The graphics card is not fully inserted into the PCIe slot.

C.The power supply is delivering insufficient power.

D.The motherboard CMOS battery is dead.

AnswerB

Correct; a single short beep suggests POST passed, so the problem is likely with video output, and a loose graphics card is a common cause.

Why this answer

A single short beep typically indicates a successful POST on many BIOS versions. If the system beeps but then fails to display anything, the issue is likely with the video subsystem, such as a faulty graphics card or loose connection.

Full explanation →

628

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a laser printer that frequently jams paper. The jams occur mostly when printing on both sides (duplex). What is the most likely cause?

A.The paper is too thick for the printer

B.The fuser is overheating

C.The duplex rollers are worn

D.The toner cartridge is low

AnswerC

Worn duplex rollers fail to grip the paper during the flip process, causing jams only in duplex mode.

Why this answer

Duplex printing requires the paper to be flipped and fed back through the printer, which involves additional rollers and a duplex unit. Worn or dirty duplex rollers are a common cause of jams during duplex operations. Cleaning or replacing these rollers often fixes the issue.

Full explanation →

629

MCQmedium

A technician is deploying a new VoIP phone and needs to ensure the Ethernet cable connecting the phone to the wall jack provides sufficient power for the phone to operate. The network switch supports Power over Ethernet (PoE). Which tool can verify that PoE is active on the cable?

A.Multimeter

B.PoE tester

C.Cable tester

D.Loopback plug

AnswerB

A PoE tester is designed to verify the presence and type of PoE on a cable, providing clear indication of power delivery.

Why this answer

A PoE tester is specifically designed to detect the presence and voltage of Power over Ethernet on a cable, confirming that the switch is delivering power. Unlike a standard cable tester, it checks for the DC voltage (typically 48V) that powers the VoIP phone, ensuring the phone will operate without needing a separate power adapter.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a cable tester (which checks wiring) with a PoE tester (which checks power), leading them to select Option C because they think any 'tester' for cables will verify PoE, but only a dedicated PoE tester can confirm active power delivery.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a multimeter can measure voltage but requires physical probing of individual pins and knowledge of the correct pin pairs (e.g., 4-5 and 7-8 for Mode A, or 1-2 and 3-6 for Mode B), making it impractical for quick field verification and it cannot confirm the power signature or negotiation (e.g., 802.3af/at/bt). Option C is wrong because a cable tester only checks for continuity, wiring faults, and length; it does not detect the presence of DC power or PoE negotiation signals. Option D is wrong because a loopback plug is used to test network interface functionality by reflecting transmitted signals back to the sender, and it has no capability to detect or verify PoE power delivery.

Full explanation →

630

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a workstation that randomly reboots under heavy load, such as when running a benchmark or rendering video. The system passes a memory test with no errors, and the CPU temperatures are normal. The power supply is a 500W unit that is three years old. What is the most likely cause of the reboots?

A.The RAM is overheating under load.

B.The motherboard capacitors are failing.

C.The power supply is unable to deliver consistent power under peak load.

D.The CPU is throttling due to a failing fan.

AnswerC

A power supply that is aging or underpowered can cause voltage drops under heavy load, leading to sudden system reboots as a protection mechanism.

Why this answer

Under heavy load, the system draws more power. An aging or insufficient power supply may not be able to deliver stable voltage, causing the system to reboot. This is a common issue that can mimic RAM problems but is actually power-related.

Full explanation →

631

MCQmedium

A technician is building a new gaming PC. The motherboard has two PCIe x16 slots, but the graphics card only works in the second slot. When installed in the first slot (closest to the CPU), the system powers on but no display. What is the most likely cause?

A.The graphics card is not fully seated in the first slot

B.The first PCIe slot is disabled in BIOS

C.The power supply is insufficient for the first slot

D.The CPU has bent pins affecting the first slot

AnswerB

Some motherboards allow disabling individual PCIe slots; if the first slot is disabled, the card will not work there but will work in an enabled slot.

Why this answer

This scenario often occurs when the first PCIe x16 slot shares bandwidth with other components or is configured differently in BIOS. However, a common issue is that the first slot may require a specific BIOS setting, or the slot itself is damaged. The most likely cause is that the motherboard's BIOS is set to use the second slot as the primary display, or the first slot is faulty.

Since the card works in the second slot, the first slot is likely the problem.

Full explanation →

632

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a wireless network where users experience intermittent drops during peak hours. The access point is an 802.11n model operating on 2.4 GHz. The technician suspects channel congestion. Which tool should the technician use to identify the least congested channel?

A.Wi-Fi analyzer

B.Spectrum analyzer

C.Cable tester

D.Ping command

AnswerA

A Wi-Fi analyzer displays nearby networks and their channels, helping the technician pick the channel with least interference.

Why this answer

A Wi-Fi analyzer is the correct tool because it scans the 2.4 GHz band and displays channel utilization, signal strength, and overlapping channels. This allows the technician to identify which channel has the least interference and congestion, directly addressing the intermittent drops during peak hours.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a spectrum analyzer (which detects RF interference) with a Wi-Fi analyzer (which analyzes 802.11 channel usage), leading them to choose B even though the question specifically asks for identifying the least congested channel, not general interference.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a spectrum analyzer detects non-802.11 interference (e.g., microwave ovens, Bluetooth) but does not show per-channel utilization or identify the least congested Wi-Fi channel. Option C is wrong because a cable tester verifies physical cabling (e.g., continuity, shorts) and is irrelevant to wireless channel congestion. Option D is wrong because the ping command tests connectivity and latency but provides no information about channel usage or congestion on the 2.4 GHz band.

Full explanation →

633

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their laptop screen flickers intermittently, especially when they adjust the lid angle. The image is clear when the screen is at a specific angle but flickers or goes black at others. What is the most likely cause?

A.The LCD panel has a dead pixel

B.The display cable is loose or damaged

C.The video card driver is outdated

D.The inverter is failing

AnswerB

A loose or damaged cable in the hinge area causes intermittent contact, leading to flickering when the lid moves.

Why this answer

The intermittent flickering that correlates with lid angle changes is a classic symptom of a loose or damaged display cable (e.g., LVDS or eDP ribbon cable). As the lid moves, the cable flexes, causing intermittent contact and signal loss, which results in flickering or a black screen at certain angles.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between physical connection issues (like a loose cable) and component failures (like a dead pixel or inverter), tempting candidates to choose a more dramatic-sounding failure when the symptom clearly points to a mechanical cause.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a dead pixel appears as a static, non-changing dot on the screen, not as intermittent flickering that varies with lid angle. Option C is wrong because an outdated video card driver would cause persistent graphical artifacts, crashes, or performance issues across all angles, not a flicker that is triggered by physical movement. Option D is wrong because an inverter failure (relevant to CCFL backlights) would cause the entire backlight to fail uniformly, not a flicker that correlates with lid position; modern LED-backlit laptops do not use inverters.

Full explanation →

634

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their new rural cabin has no cable TV or phone line, but they need a reliable internet connection for remote work. Which connection type would provide the most consistent service without requiring a wired infrastructure?

A.DSL

B.Cable broadband

C.Satellite

D.Cellular (4G/5G)

AnswerC

Satellite internet works anywhere with a clear view of the sky, making it ideal for rural areas.

Why this answer

Satellite internet is the correct choice because it provides connectivity without any wired infrastructure, relying on a dish communicating with an orbiting satellite. This makes it ideal for remote rural cabins where cable, DSL, or fiber are unavailable, and it offers consistent service independent of terrestrial wiring.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that cellular (4G/5G) is always reliable in rural areas, but candidates overlook that it still requires tower proximity and can be inconsistent, whereas satellite works anywhere with sky access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DSL requires a copper telephone line to be present at the location, which the cabin lacks. Option B is wrong because cable broadband requires a coaxial cable connection from a cable TV provider, which is not available. Option D is wrong because cellular (4G/5G) depends on nearby cell towers and can suffer from signal degradation or congestion in rural areas, making it less reliable than satellite for consistent service without wired infrastructure.

Full explanation →

635

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a network printer that supports both LPD (Line Printer Daemon) and IPP (Internet Printing Protocol). The printer must be accessible from Windows and Linux clients. Which port should be opened for IPP?

A.515

B.631

C.9100

D.80

AnswerB

Port 631 is the standard port for IPP, used by both Windows and Linux.

Why this answer

IPP (Internet Printing Protocol) uses TCP port 631 by default, as defined in RFC 2911. Since the printer must be accessible from both Windows and Linux clients, opening port 631 allows IPP-based printing, which is natively supported by both operating systems.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between LPD (port 515), IPP (port 631), and raw printing (port 9100), so candidates must remember that IPP is specifically associated with port 631, not the more common HTTP port 80.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 515 is used by LPD (Line Printer Daemon), not IPP. Option C is wrong because port 9100 is used by raw printing protocols (e.g., HP JetDirect), not IPP. Option D is wrong because port 80 is used by HTTP, not IPP; although IPP can be tunneled over HTTP, the standard IPP port is 631.

Full explanation →

636

MCQmedium

A customer reports that their new printer, configured with a static IP of 192.168.1.100, cannot be accessed from any computer on the network. The technician pings 192.168.1.100 from a workstation and gets no reply. The workstation's IP is 192.168.1.50 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer's IP address is on a different subnet than the workstation.

B.The printer's static IP address conflicts with another device on the network.

C.The workstation's subnet mask is set to 255.255.0.0.

D.The printer's default gateway is misconfigured.

AnswerB

Correct. An IP conflict can cause one or both devices to be unreachable. The technician should check for duplicate IPs.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the printer's static IP address (192.168.1.100) conflicts with another device on the same subnet. When two devices share the same IP, the network becomes unreachable for one or both due to ARP table instability. The ping fails because the workstation's ARP cache may resolve the IP to the wrong MAC address, or the printer may not respond at all if it detects the conflict via gratuitous ARP.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a ping failure between two devices on the same subnet must be caused by a subnet mismatch or gateway issue, when in fact an IP address conflict is the more likely culprit given the static IP configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because both the printer (192.168.1.100) and the workstation (192.168.1.50) have IP addresses in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet (subnet mask 255.255.255.0), so they are on the same subnet. Option C is wrong because the workstation's subnet mask is given as 255.255.255.0, not 255.255.0.0; even if it were 255.255.0.0, that would expand the subnet range and still include the printer's IP, so it would not cause a ping failure. Option D is wrong because the default gateway is only needed for traffic destined outside the local subnet; since the workstation and printer are on the same subnet, communication occurs directly via ARP and does not involve the gateway.

Full explanation →

637

MCQhard

A customer reports that their new Cat6a installation passes a cable certifier test but the link only negotiates at 100 Mbps. The cable run is 90 meters and uses standard T568B terminations. What is the most likely cause of the speed limitation?

A.The cable run exceeds the maximum length for Cat6a.

B.The switch port is configured for 100 Mbps only.

C.The patch cables are Cat5e instead of Cat6a.

D.The cable is terminated in T568A instead of T568B.

AnswerC

Using Cat5e patch cables can bottleneck the link to 100 Mbps, even if the permanent link is Cat6a.

Why this answer

The cable certifier passes because the physical layer (Cat6a cabling) meets specifications for signal integrity and crosstalk. However, if the patch cables connecting the equipment to the structured cabling are Cat5e, they may not support the higher frequencies required for 1000BASE-T (up to 100 MHz for Cat5e vs. 500 MHz for Cat6a). This can cause the link to fall back to 100BASE-TX, which operates at lower frequencies and is more tolerant of the reduced performance of Cat5e patch cables.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a passing certifier result guarantees full link speed, but the certifier tests the permanent link only, not the patch cables, so the issue is likely in the patch cords.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cat6a supports a maximum channel length of 100 meters (90 meters permanent link plus 10 meters patch cables), so a 90-meter run is within specification. Option B is wrong because the question states the link negotiates at 100 Mbps, which could be due to a switch port configuration, but the most likely cause given the certifier passes and the cable is new is a component limitation, not a configuration issue. Option D is wrong because T568A and T568B are both valid wiring schemes that are electrically identical; the difference is only in the pair-to-pin assignment, and both support Gigabit Ethernet as long as the same standard is used at both ends.

Full explanation →

638

MCQhard

A network administrator notices that a critical database server is responding slowly. The server uses both TCP and UDP for different services. Which of the following is a characteristic of UDP that could explain performance issues under heavy load?

A.UDP retransmits lost packets automatically

B.UDP uses a three-way handshake to establish a connection

C.UDP does not guarantee packet delivery or order

D.UDP provides flow control to prevent congestion

AnswerC

UDP is unreliable and does not guarantee delivery or ordering, which can cause data loss under heavy load.

Why this answer

UDP is a connectionless transport protocol that does not guarantee packet delivery, ordering, or error recovery. Under heavy load, if the database server receives UDP datagrams out of order or loses packets, the application layer must handle retransmissions and reassembly, which can degrade performance. This lack of reliability and flow control means UDP can overwhelm a server with traffic it cannot manage, leading to slow responses.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that UDP is always faster or more reliable under load, when in fact its lack of flow control and retransmission can cause performance degradation in high-traffic environments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because UDP does not retransmit lost packets; retransmission is a feature of TCP, which uses sequence numbers and acknowledgments to ensure delivery. Option B is wrong because UDP does not use a three-way handshake; that connection-establishment process is unique to TCP. Option D is wrong because UDP does not provide flow control; TCP implements flow control via sliding windows and congestion avoidance algorithms like Reno or Cubic.

Full explanation →

639

MCQhard

A server administrator needs to upgrade a critical database server from 64 GB to 128 GB of RAM. The server uses registered ECC DDR4 memory. They have purchased 8 x 16 GB registered ECC modules. When they install them, the server fails to POST with a memory error. The original 64 GB (4 x 16 GB) modules work fine. What is the most likely reason?

A.The new RAM modules are not compatible because they are not ECC, while the server requires ECC.

B.The server's BIOS needs to be updated to support 128 GB.

C.The new modules have a different number of ranks (e.g., dual-rank vs. single-rank) than the original modules, causing a rank mismatch that the memory controller cannot handle.

D.The new modules are not seated properly in the slots.

AnswerC

Servers are sensitive to rank configuration. Mixing single-rank and dual-rank modules, or using modules with a different number of ranks than the system expects, can prevent POST.

Why this answer

Registered (buffered) ECC memory is designed for servers and has specific compatibility requirements, especially regarding the number of ranks per channel and the memory controller's capabilities. The most likely issue is that the new modules are of a different rank (e.g., dual-rank vs. single-rank) or the server's memory controller cannot handle the total number of ranks when all slots are populated. Mixing ranks or exceeding the rank limit per channel can cause POST failures.

Full explanation →

640

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a home network where the 5 GHz band works fine, but the 2.4 GHz band is extremely slow and drops connections. The router is placed near a cordless phone base station. Which type of interference is most likely occurring?

A.Bluetooth interference

B.Microwave oven interference

C.Co-channel interference from a neighboring Wi-Fi network

D.RF interference from the cordless phone base

AnswerD

Cordless phones operating at 2.4 GHz cause continuous interference, explaining the poor performance on that band.

Why this answer

The 2.4 GHz band is shared by many consumer devices, including cordless phones that operate in the 2.4 GHz ISM band. The proximity of the router to the cordless phone base station causes RF interference, which degrades the 2.4 GHz signal, leading to slow speeds and dropped connections, while the 5 GHz band remains unaffected because it operates on a different frequency range.

Exam trap

This question tests the candidate's ability to distinguish between common 2.4 GHz interference sources. The trap is to assume that any 2.4 GHz device (like Bluetooth or a microwave) causes similar interference, but the specific symptoms of persistent, severe degradation due to a nearby cordless phone base station point to intentional RF interference from a device that operates continuously on the same frequency band.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Bluetooth also operates in the 2.4 GHz band but uses frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) with low duty cycles, making it unlikely to cause persistent, severe degradation; the primary culprit here is the cordless phone base. Option B is wrong because microwave ovens operate at approximately 2.45 GHz and can cause interference, but the question explicitly states the router is placed near a cordless phone base station, making that the more direct and likely source of interference. Option C is wrong because co-channel interference from a neighboring Wi-Fi network would affect both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands if the neighbor uses the same channels, and the problem is isolated to the 2.4 GHz band; moreover, the proximity to the cordless phone base is the key clue.

Full explanation →

641

MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop cannot connect to the internet, but other devices on the same network work fine. The technician runs ipconfig and sees an IP address of 169.254.12.34 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The laptop has a static IP address configured incorrectly.

B.The DHCP server is not responding to the laptop's request.

C.The subnet mask is wrong; it should be 255.255.255.0.

D.The laptop's network adapter is faulty.

AnswerB

Correct. APIPA addresses are assigned when DHCP fails, so the DHCP server is likely unreachable or not responding.

Why this answer

The IP address 169.254.12.34 with a 255.255.0.0 subnet mask is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned by Windows when the DHCP client fails to receive a response from a DHCP server. Since other devices on the same network work fine, the DHCP server is operational, but the laptop's DHCP request is not being answered, likely due to a network connectivity issue between the laptop and the DHCP server or a DHCP client service problem.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a 169.254.x.x address indicates a faulty NIC, but the trap here is that the address is actually a sign of DHCP failure, not hardware failure, and the subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is correct for APIPA.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a static IP address configured incorrectly would typically show a user-assigned address, not the 169.254.x.x APIPA range, which is automatically assigned by the operating system when DHCP fails. Option C is wrong because the subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is correct for an APIPA address (per RFC 3927, APIPA uses a /16 prefix), and changing it to 255.255.255.0 would not resolve the underlying DHCP failure. Option D is wrong because a faulty network adapter would likely prevent any IP address from being assigned or cause link-layer issues, whereas the laptop successfully obtained an APIPA address, indicating the adapter is functional at the physical and data link layers.

Full explanation →

642

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting an iPhone that cannot install or update any apps from the App Store. The device is connected to Wi-Fi, and other internet services (Safari, email) work. What should the technician check first?

A.Check if the date and time are set correctly on the iPhone.

B.Verify that the Apple ID is signed in and has no payment issues.

C.Reset the iPhone's network settings.

D.Check if the iPhone is in Low Power Mode.

AnswerB

App Store downloads require a valid Apple ID; if the account has an outstanding balance or is not signed in, downloads will fail.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the most common cause for an iPhone being unable to install or update apps while other internet services work is an issue with the Apple ID, such as a payment method that has expired or a billing problem. The App Store requires a valid payment method on file even for free apps, and the device will block downloads until the account is resolved. Since Safari and email function normally, the network connectivity is fine, narrowing the issue to account authentication or authorization.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that network connectivity issues are the root cause when only one service fails, but the trap here is that candidates overlook account-level restrictions that are specific to the App Store's authentication and payment validation process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because incorrect date and time would typically cause SSL certificate errors, breaking all HTTPS connections (including Safari and email), not just App Store downloads. Option C is wrong because resetting network settings is unnecessary when Wi-Fi and other internet services are already working, indicating the network stack is functional. Option D is wrong because Low Power Mode only pauses background tasks and reduces performance but does not block manual app installations or updates from the App Store.

Full explanation →

643

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new server and needs to ensure that only signed operating system bootloaders can be loaded. Which UEFI feature should be enabled?

A.Enable Fast Boot

B.Enable Legacy Boot

C.Enable Secure Boot

D.Enable Boot from USB

AnswerC

Secure Boot verifies digital signatures of bootloaders, ensuring only trusted code executes.

Why this answer

Secure Boot enforces cryptographic verification of bootloaders, preventing unauthorized code from running during boot. This is a key security feature in UEFI. The question tests understanding of Secure Boot's purpose and implementation.

Full explanation →

644

MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new video card in a desktop PC used for graphic design. The card has one HDMI port, one DisplayPort, and two DVI ports. The user wants to connect two 1920x1080 monitors. Which combination of ports and cables will provide the best image quality and support for both monitors?

A.Use the HDMI port for one monitor and a DVI port for the other

B.Use the HDMI port for one monitor and the DisplayPort for the other

C.Use both DVI ports for the monitors

D.Use a DisplayPort splitter to run both monitors from the single DisplayPort

AnswerB

Both are digital, support high resolutions, and are the best choices for image quality and compatibility.

Why this answer

The DisplayPort and HDMI ports both support digital video and audio, and at 1920x1080 resolution, both can deliver excellent image quality. However, DisplayPort is the preferred choice for the primary monitor in a graphic design setup because it supports higher color depths and refresh rates over longer cable lengths, and it is the native interface for modern video cards. Using HDMI for one monitor and DisplayPort for the other allows both monitors to run at their native resolution without signal degradation, while DVI (especially single-link DVI) is limited to 1920x1080 at 60 Hz and lacks the bandwidth for higher color fidelity or future upgrades.

Exam trap

A common pitfall in CompTIA A+ is assuming DVI is equivalent to HDMI or DisplayPort. In reality, DVI has bandwidth limitations (especially single-link) and lacks support for newer features like higher refresh rates and color depths, making HDMI and DisplayPort superior choices for modern graphic design setups.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while HDMI and DVI are both digital, DVI (single-link) is limited to 1920x1080 at 60 Hz and does not support audio or higher color depths, making it inferior to DisplayPort for graphic design work. Option C is wrong because using both DVI ports would force both monitors to rely on an older interface that lacks the bandwidth for higher refresh rates or color accuracy, and it does not leverage the superior DisplayPort or HDMI capabilities of the card. Option D is wrong because a DisplayPort splitter (MST hub) would require the monitors to be daisy-chained or use a hub, which can reduce maximum resolution or refresh rate and may not be supported by all monitors; it is also unnecessary when the card has multiple native ports.

Full explanation →

645

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a network for a university campus that has multiple buildings spread across a 5-kilometer area. Each building has its own LAN, and they all need to be interconnected to share resources. Which network type best describes the overall campus network?

A.Local area network (LAN)

B.Metropolitan area network (MAN)

C.Campus area network (CAN)

D.Wide area network (WAN)

AnswerC

A CAN interconnects LANs within a campus-sized area, exactly matching this scenario.

Why this answer

A campus area network (CAN) is specifically designed to interconnect multiple LANs within a limited geographic area, such as a university campus or corporate park. With buildings spread across 5 kilometers, the network fits the CAN scope, which typically spans up to 10 km and uses high-speed backbone links like Gigabit Ethernet or fiber optics to connect the individual LANs.

Exam trap

The distinction between CAN and MAN can be tricky because the distance (5 km) might seem large, but a CAN is limited to a single campus or site, while a MAN connects multiple sites across a city.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a local area network (LAN) is confined to a single building or small area, not multiple buildings across 5 km. Option B is wrong because a metropolitan area network (MAN) covers a larger city-wide area, typically 10–100 km, and is often used for interconnecting multiple campuses or city offices, not a single campus. Option D is wrong because a wide area network (WAN) spans large geographic distances (e.g., countries or continents) and relies on leased lines or public infrastructure, which is overkill and not appropriate for a single campus site.

Full explanation →

646

MCQhard

A user reports that their inkjet printer prints colors that are significantly different from what appears on the screen. The printer uses cyan, magenta, yellow, and black cartridges. What should the technician do first to resolve this issue?

A.Replace all ink cartridges with new ones

B.Run the printer's color calibration utility

C.Clean the printhead

D.Change the paper type to photo paper

AnswerB

Color calibration aligns the printer's output with standard color profiles, addressing the mismatch.

Why this answer

Color mismatch between screen and print is often due to lack of color management. The printer and monitor use different color spaces (CMYK vs. RGB).

Calibrating the monitor and using ICC profiles ensures consistent color reproduction. This is the first step before replacing hardware.

Full explanation →

647

MCQmedium

A company's network uses a /24 subnet mask. The IT manager asks a technician to configure a new server with a static IP address of 192.168.1.300. The technician knows this is invalid. What is the reason this IP address cannot be used?

A.The address is outside the private IP range.

B.The address is a broadcast address.

C.The address is a network address.

D.The octet value 300 exceeds the maximum of 255.

AnswerD

Each octet in an IPv4 address must be between 0 and 255. 300 is invalid, so the address cannot be used.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because an IPv4 octet must be a decimal value between 0 and 255 inclusive. The value 300 exceeds this maximum, making the address 192.168.1.300 invalid. This is a fundamental rule of IPv4 addressing defined in RFC 791.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the octet range rule (0–255) to catch candidates who might confuse an invalid octet with other subnetting concepts like broadcast or network addresses.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 192.168.1.300 is not outside the private IP range (192.168.0.0/16 is private per RFC 1918); the address is simply malformed. Option B is wrong because a broadcast address for the 192.168.1.0/24 network would be 192.168.1.255, not 192.168.1.300. Option C is wrong because the network address for the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet is 192.168.1.0, not 192.168.1.300.

Full explanation →

648

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a dual-monitor setup for a financial analyst. Both monitors are identical 27-inch 1440p displays. After connecting them, one monitor shows a pink tint across the entire screen. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's color temperature is set incorrectly.

B.The graphics card driver is corrupted.

C.The video cable is not fully seated or has a bent pin.

D.The monitor's backlight is failing.

AnswerC

A loose connection or bent pin can cause a missing color channel, resulting in a pink tint (missing green or blue). Reseating or replacing the cable fixes it.

Why this answer

A pink tint on one monitor while the other looks normal suggests a loose or damaged video cable, specifically a missing blue color channel. VGA cables are prone to this, but even HDMI or DisplayPort cables can have pin issues. Swapping cables can confirm.

Full explanation →

649

MCQeasy

A user complains that their desktop computer cannot connect to any network shares, but they can access the internet. The technician pings the file server by IP address successfully, but pinging by hostname fails. Which network configuration issue is most likely causing this problem?

A.The DHCP server is not assigning a default gateway.

B.The subnet mask is incorrect.

C.The DNS server is not resolving local hostnames.

D.The file server has a firewall blocking ICMP.

AnswerC

Since IP pings work but hostname pings fail, the DNS server is not providing the correct A record for the file server, causing the resolution failure.

Why this answer

The user can access the internet (which relies on external DNS resolution) and can ping the file server by IP address, but cannot ping by hostname. This indicates that the local DNS server is failing to resolve the file server's hostname to its IP address. Since the user can reach the internet, the default gateway and subnet mask are likely correct, and the file server's firewall is not blocking ICMP because the IP-based ping succeeds.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume a firewall is blocking ICMP (Option D) because they see a ping failure, but the successful ping by IP proves the firewall is not the issue, and the real problem is DNS resolution for local hostnames.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the DHCP server were not assigning a default gateway, the user would not be able to access the internet at all, as traffic to external networks would have no route. Option B is wrong because an incorrect subnet mask would typically cause communication failures with both local and remote hosts, including the file server by IP, which is working. Option D is wrong because the file server's firewall blocking ICMP would prevent pinging by IP address as well, but the technician successfully pings the file server by IP.

Full explanation →

650

MCQhard

A technician is configuring a kiosk tablet that must connect to a wired Ethernet network for security reasons. The tablet only has a USB-C port. The network drop provides an RJ45 connection. Which of the following should the technician use to achieve a wired connection?

A.USB-C to HDMI adapter

B.USB-C to USB-A adapter with a USB Ethernet dongle

C.USB-C to Ethernet adapter

D.USB-C to DisplayPort adapter

AnswerC

This adapter directly converts the USB-C port to an RJ45 Ethernet port, providing a wired network connection.

Why this answer

The tablet has a USB-C port and needs to connect to an RJ45 Ethernet network. A USB-C to Ethernet adapter directly converts the USB-C signal to a standard RJ45 Ethernet connection, providing a wired network interface without additional adapters or protocol conversions. This is the simplest and most reliable solution for achieving a wired Ethernet connection from a USB-C-only device.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the candidate's ability to identify the most direct and appropriate adapter for a given port and purpose, trapping those who overcomplicate the solution by stacking adapters (like Option B) when a single-purpose adapter exists.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB-C to HDMI adapter is designed for video output, not network connectivity, and cannot provide an Ethernet connection. Option B is wrong because while a USB-C to USB-A adapter with a USB Ethernet dongle could technically work, it introduces unnecessary complexity and potential compatibility issues; the direct USB-C to Ethernet adapter is the intended and more efficient solution. Option D is wrong because a USB-C to DisplayPort adapter is for video output only and does not support Ethernet networking.

Full explanation →

651

MCQhard

A user reports that their new Thunderbolt 4 external GPU (eGPU) is not recognized by their laptop, which has a Thunderbolt 4 port. The eGPU works on another laptop. Which connector-related issue is most likely?

A.The laptop's Thunderbolt 4 port is disabled in BIOS.

B.The cable used is a passive USB-C cable, not an active Thunderbolt 4 cable.

C.The eGPU requires a Thunderbolt 3 port, not Thunderbolt 4.

D.The laptop's Thunderbolt 4 port is not providing enough power.

AnswerB

Thunderbolt 4 requires active cables for full bandwidth and PCIe tunneling; a passive USB-C cable may not support eGPU connectivity.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B because Thunderbolt 4 requires an active cable for full functionality, and a passive USB-C cable may not carry the PCIe signal needed for eGPU operation. This tests understanding of Thunderbolt cable requirements and the difference between passive and active cables.

Full explanation →

652

MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a small office with 15 devices and needs to assign private IP addresses. The router's LAN interface is 10.0.0.1/24. Which of the following is a valid IP address for a workstation on this network?

A.10.0.1.50

B.10.0.0.0

C.10.0.0.50

D.10.0.0.255

AnswerC

10.0.0.50 is within the valid host range of 10.0.0.1 to 10.0.0.254 for the /24 subnet.

Why this answer

Option C (10.0.0.50) is correct because the router's LAN interface is configured with the IP address 10.0.0.1 and a subnet mask of /24 (255.255.255.0). This defines the network as 10.0.0.0/24, which includes usable host addresses from 10.0.0.1 to 10.0.0.254. 10.0.0.50 falls within this valid host range.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between network, broadcast, and usable host addresses within a given CIDR prefix, and the trap here is that candidates may forget that the first and last addresses in a subnet are reserved and not assignable to hosts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 10.0.1.50 belongs to the 10.0.1.0/24 network, which is a different subnet than the router's 10.0.0.0/24 LAN, so it would not be reachable without routing. Option B is wrong because 10.0.0.0 is the network address (all host bits zero) and cannot be assigned to a workstation; it is reserved to identify the subnet itself. Option D is wrong because 10.0.0.255 is the broadcast address for the 10.0.0.0/24 network (all host bits one) and cannot be assigned to a host.

Full explanation →

653

MCQmedium

A small business runs a single physical server hosting three virtual machines (VMs) for file sharing, database, and email. The server has 32 GB of RAM, and each VM is allocated 8 GB. Users report that the file-sharing VM is extremely slow. The hypervisor shows the host has 4 GB of RAM free. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issue?

A.The hypervisor is not configured to use hardware-assisted virtualization.

B.The file-sharing VM’s virtual hard disk is stored on a slow USB 2.0 external drive.

C.The file-sharing VM has been allocated insufficient RAM and is experiencing memory ballooning.

D.The network switch port for the server is set to half-duplex.

AnswerC

Memory ballooning is a technique where the hypervisor reclaims RAM from VMs, causing performance degradation. With only 4 GB free, the host is likely ballooning memory from the file-sharing VM.

Why this answer

The scenario describes memory overcommitment, where the total allocated RAM (24 GB) plus the host overhead leaves only 4 GB free. The file-sharing VM is likely starved for memory because the hypervisor is swapping or ballooning memory to compensate. The correct answer identifies that the VM needs more RAM than currently allocated, which is a common virtualization performance bottleneck.

Full explanation →

654

MCQeasy

A small business is moving to a new office that already has a fiber-optic termination point installed. They need the fastest symmetrical speeds for cloud-based applications. Which internet connection type should they choose?

A.DSL

B.Cable broadband

C.Fiber-optic

D.Satellite

AnswerC

Fiber provides symmetrical high-speed connections, perfect for cloud applications.

Why this answer

Fiber-optic internet provides symmetrical speeds (equal upload and download) essential for cloud-based applications that require fast data transfer in both directions. Unlike other connection types, fiber uses light signals through glass strands, offering low latency and high bandwidth that scale to meet business needs without the distance limitations of copper-based technologies.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that 'fast download speeds' (as with cable or DSL) are sufficient for cloud applications, but the key requirement is symmetrical speeds for bidirectional data flow, which only fiber reliably provides among the listed options.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DSL uses existing telephone lines with asymmetrical speeds (typically up to 100 Mbps download but much lower upload), and performance degrades with distance from the central office, making it unsuitable for symmetrical cloud workloads. Option B is wrong because cable broadband relies on coaxial cables shared among neighborhood users, resulting in asymmetrical speeds (high download, low upload) and variable performance during peak usage due to contention. Option D is wrong because satellite internet has high latency (typically 600-800 ms) due to the long signal path to geostationary orbit, and speeds are asymmetrical with data caps, making it impractical for real-time cloud applications.

Full explanation →

655

MCQeasy

A user reports that their laser printer is producing pages with vertical black streaks. The streaks appear in the same position on every page. Which component is most likely the cause?

A.Toner cartridge is low on toner.

B.Drum unit is scratched or damaged.

C.Fuser assembly is malfunctioning.

D.Pickup rollers are worn out.

AnswerB

A scratched drum picks up excess toner and deposits it as a repeating streak on each page.

Why this answer

Vertical black streaks on laser printer output that repeat in the same position are typically caused by a scratched or damaged drum. The drum carries the toner image, and any defect transfers toner to the paper in a repeating pattern.

Full explanation →

656

MCQeasy

A customer complains that their PC randomly shuts down after about 30 minutes of use, especially when playing games. The case feels warm to the touch. What should you check first?

A.Replace the power supply

B.Update the graphics driver

C.Check CPU and GPU temperatures

D.Run a memory diagnostic

AnswerC

High temperatures under load trigger thermal protection, and monitoring temps with software like HWMonitor is the correct first diagnostic step.

Why this answer

Random shutdowns under load are classic symptoms of overheating. The warm case reinforces this, so checking CPU and GPU temperatures should be the first step to confirm thermal throttling or thermal protection.

Full explanation →

657

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new workstation for video editing. After installing a high-end GPU and additional RAM, the system powers on but the screen is blank. The motherboard has diagnostic LEDs; the VGA LED is lit. What is the most likely issue?

A.Incompatible RAM

B.Loose GPU power cables

C.Faulty CPU

D.Monitor set to wrong input

AnswerB

High-end GPUs require dedicated power; if these are missing, the GPU will not initialize.

Why this answer

A lit VGA diagnostic LED indicates the motherboard is not detecting the GPU. This is common when the GPU is not fully seated in the PCIe slot or when additional power cables are not connected. The technician should reseat the GPU and ensure all power connectors are attached.

Full explanation →

658

MCQeasy

A user complains that their VoIP phone intermittently loses connectivity. The phone is connected to a switch via a 50-meter run of solid-core Cat6 cable. You suspect interference from nearby fluorescent lights. Which cabling characteristic is most relevant to this issue?

A.The cable is not properly terminated with RJ45 connectors.

B.The cable is not shielded (STP).

C.The cable length exceeds the maximum for Cat6.

D.The cable is a crossover cable.

AnswerB

UTP cable lacks shielding, making it vulnerable to EMI from nearby electrical equipment.

Why this answer

Fluorescent lights generate electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can disrupt data transmission over unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cabling. Shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable includes a conductive shield that protects against EMI, making it the relevant characteristic for this issue. The user's intermittent connectivity is likely caused by EMI coupling onto the UTP cable, and using STP would mitigate this.

Exam trap

In the CompTIA A+ exam, this question tests understanding of how electromagnetic interference (EMI) from sources like fluorescent lights affects UTP cabling and the importance of using shielded twisted-pair (STP). The trap is that candidates may incorrectly attribute the issue to cable length or termination, overlooking that interference is a shielding problem, not a distance or connector issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because improper termination (e.g., untwisted pairs, poor crimp) would cause persistent errors or link failures, not intermittent connectivity specifically tied to EMI from fluorescent lights. Option C is wrong because the maximum length for Cat6 is 100 meters (328 feet) for 10GBASE-T and 100 meters for 1000BASE-T; a 50-meter run is well within specification. Option D is wrong because a crossover cable is used to connect two similar devices (e.g., switch to switch) without an uplink port; it does not affect susceptibility to interference, and modern switches auto-MDIX negate the need for crossover cables.

Full explanation →

659

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a legacy application that uses FTP for file transfers. The transfers work but are extremely slow. The network team mentions that the firewall is configured to inspect traffic on certain ports. Which port should be opened for FTP data transfer to improve performance?

A.Port 22

B.Port 20

C.Port 23

D.Port 69

AnswerB

Port 20 is the default data port for active FTP transfers.

Why this answer

FTP uses two channels: a control channel on port 21 and a data channel on port 20 (in active mode). When a firewall inspects traffic, it may interfere with the dynamic negotiation of the data port, causing performance degradation. Opening port 20 allows the data channel to pass through without inspection, improving transfer speed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse FTP data port 20 with the control port 21, or they mistakenly associate port 22 (SSH/SFTP) with secure file transfers, overlooking that the question specifically asks for FTP data transfer performance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 22 is used for SSH and SFTP, not standard FTP data transfer. Option C is wrong because port 23 is used for Telnet, an unencrypted remote access protocol unrelated to FTP. Option D is wrong because port 69 is used for TFTP, a simpler, connectionless file transfer protocol that does not use separate data and control channels.

Full explanation →

660

MCQhard

A user reports that their computer with a 256GB SSD and a 1TB HDD is running out of space on the C: drive (SSD). The user wants to move the 'Users' folder to the HDD to free space. What is the best method to accomplish this without data loss?

A.Cut and paste the Users folder to the HDD, then create a shortcut on the SSD.

B.Use the 'Location' tab in the Users folder properties to change the target path to the HDD.

C.Format the HDD as a dynamic disk and extend the C: partition onto it.

D.Delete the pagefile on the SSD to free space.

AnswerB

Windows allows redirecting user folders like Documents, Music, etc., via the Location tab, which safely moves data and updates paths.

Why this answer

This question tests advanced storage management skills. Moving system folders like 'Users' requires using symbolic links (junctions) or the built-in 'Location' tab in folder properties to redirect the path without breaking system functionality.

Full explanation →

661

MCQeasy

A user complains that they cannot access any websites, but they can ping external IP addresses like 8.8.8.8 successfully. Other devices on the same network work fine. Which network service is most likely failing on this user's computer?

A.DHCP

B.DNS

C.NAT

D.Proxy

AnswerB

DNS resolves domain names to IPs. The user can ping by IP but not by name, so DNS is likely misconfigured or not responding on that machine.

Why this answer

The user can ping external IP addresses (e.g., 8.8.8.8) successfully, which confirms that IP connectivity, routing, and NAT are working. However, they cannot access websites by name, which requires DNS resolution to translate domain names into IP addresses. Since other devices on the same network work fine, the issue is isolated to this computer's DNS client configuration or service, making DNS the most likely failing service.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between IP connectivity (ping to IP) and name resolution (ping to hostname), trapping candidates who confuse a working ping to an IP with full internet functionality, when DNS is actually the broken link.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP is responsible for assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and DNS servers; if DHCP were failing, the user would likely have no IP connectivity or an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), but they can ping external IPs, so DHCP is working. Option C is wrong because NAT translates private IP addresses to a public IP for internet access; since the user can ping external IPs, NAT is functioning correctly. Option D is wrong because a proxy server acts as an intermediary for web requests; if a proxy were failing, the user might still be able to ping external IPs (if the proxy is not required for ICMP), but the symptom of being unable to access websites while other devices work fine points to a DNS issue, not a proxy misconfiguration.

Full explanation →

662

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a server that randomly resets the time and date to 2000 after being powered off for a few hours. The system otherwise boots and runs normally. Which component is most likely failing?

A.The power supply unit is failing

B.The motherboard clock crystal is defective

C.The CMOS battery needs replacement

D.The UEFI firmware has a bug

AnswerC

A low battery cannot keep the clock running when the system is off.

Why this answer

The CMOS battery maintains the real-time clock and UEFI settings when power is off. If it fails, the time resets and settings may be lost. This tests the ability to distinguish between battery failure and other hardware issues.

Full explanation →

663

MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a workstation that randomly reboots when running 3D rendering software. The CPU and GPU temperatures are normal. You have already replaced the RAM and tested the hard drive. What component is most likely the root cause?

A.The CPU is overheating despite normal readings

B.The power supply is unable to deliver consistent power under load

C.The GPU driver is corrupted

D.The motherboard has a short circuit

AnswerB

A failing PSU can cause voltage drops or ripple under load, triggering a system reset or shutdown.

Why this answer

Random reboots under load, especially with normal temperatures, often point to a failing power supply that cannot sustain stable voltage under high demand. The PSU may still power the system at idle but fail under peak load. Other components have been ruled out.

Full explanation →

664

MCQmedium

A customer reports that their new laptop cannot connect to the company's Wi-Fi network, but other devices connect fine. You need to check if the laptop's wireless adapter is functioning properly and can see available networks. Which tool should you use?

A.Cable tester

B.Loopback plug

C.Wi-Fi analyzer

D.Multimeter

AnswerC

A Wi-Fi analyzer can scan for nearby networks and verify if the adapter detects the company SSID, indicating it is functional.

Why this answer

A Wi-Fi analyzer (option C) is the correct tool because it can scan for available wireless networks, display their SSIDs, signal strengths, and channels, and verify whether the laptop's wireless adapter is detecting any networks at all. This directly addresses the need to check if the adapter is functioning and can see the company's Wi-Fi, isolating the issue to the laptop's wireless hardware or configuration rather than the network itself.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between tools for wired vs. wireless troubleshooting, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly choose a cable tester or loopback plug because they think of general 'connectivity testing' without recognizing that the issue is specifically wireless and requires a tool that can see RF signals and SSIDs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a cable tester is used to verify the physical integrity and wiring of Ethernet cables (e.g., T568A/B pinouts, continuity, shorts), not for wireless connectivity or adapter functionality. Option B is wrong because a loopback plug is used to test a physical network port (e.g., RJ45 Ethernet) by sending signals back to the same device to verify transmit/receive capability, but it has no application for wireless adapters or Wi-Fi network detection. Option D is wrong because a multimeter measures electrical properties like voltage, current, and resistance, which is irrelevant for checking wireless adapter operation or scanning for Wi-Fi networks.

Full explanation →

665

MCQhard

A large conference center needs to provide Wi-Fi for 500 attendees. The IT team installs multiple 802.11ax access points. During the event, attendees report slow speeds and frequent reconnections. Analysis shows many clients are on the same channel despite multiple APs. Which advanced feature should be configured to distribute clients more evenly?

A.Enable WPA3-Enterprise for all SSIDs.

B.Configure all APs to use the same SSID and enable band steering and load balancing.

C.Set each AP to a different SSID and instruct users to connect to the least crowded one.

D.Reduce the beacon interval on all APs to 50 ms.

AnswerB

Band steering pushes clients to 5 GHz, and load balancing distributes them across APs, reducing congestion on any single channel.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because band steering and load balancing are advanced features designed to distribute clients evenly across access points and frequency bands. Band steering encourages dual-band clients to use the less congested 5 GHz band, while load balancing monitors AP utilization and steers new clients to less loaded APs. This directly addresses the problem of many clients clustering on the same channel despite multiple APs being available.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that security features like WPA3 or different SSIDs can solve capacity and distribution issues, when in fact only radio resource management features like band steering and load balancing address client distribution at the RF level.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WPA3-Enterprise is a security protocol that enhances authentication and encryption; it does not influence client distribution or channel utilization. Option C is wrong because using different SSIDs per AP forces manual user selection, which is impractical for 500 attendees and does not automatically balance load; it also prevents seamless roaming. Option D is wrong because reducing the beacon interval to 50 ms increases management frame overhead and can degrade performance, but it does not distribute clients more evenly across channels or APs.

Full explanation →

666

MCQmedium

A small business uses a router with DHCP enabled, issuing addresses in the 192.168.1.0/24 range. A technician installs a new server with a static IP of 192.168.1.50, but users cannot connect to it. The technician pings 192.168.1.50 from the server itself successfully. What is the most likely cause?

A.The server's subnet mask is set to 255.255.255.0.

B.The server's default gateway is missing.

C.Another device on the network has the same IP address.

D.The server's network cable is faulty.

AnswerC

A static IP within the DHCP range can cause a conflict if the DHCP server assigns that address to another device, leading to intermittent connectivity.

Why this answer

If the DHCP server assigned 192.168.1.50 to another device, there is an IP address conflict. The server can ping itself because it uses its own IP, but other devices may have the same IP or the server's address is already in use. This tests understanding of IP conflicts and static vs.

DHCP assignments.

Full explanation →

667

MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new power supply in a high-end gaming PC. The PSU has two +12V rails rated at 20A each. The GPU requires a single +12V rail with at least 30A. What potential issue could arise?

A.The PSU will automatically combine the rails to provide 40A to the GPU.

B.The GPU may cause overcurrent protection to trip on one rail, causing shutdowns.

C.The PSU will deliver stable power as long as the total wattage is sufficient.

D.The GPU will automatically draw power from both rails equally.

AnswerB

If the GPU's power draw exceeds 20A on the rail it is connected to, the rail's OCP will activate, cutting power. This is a common issue with multi-rail PSUs and high-power GPUs.

Why this answer

Multi-rail PSUs split the +12V output across separate rails, each with its own overcurrent protection. If the GPU draws more than 20A from one rail, it can trip the protection, causing shutdowns. Using a single-rail PSU or ensuring the GPU is connected across both rails (if the PSU allows) would avoid this.

Full explanation →

668

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new printer on a network with the IP 172.16.0.50 and subnet mask 255.255.0.0. The router's LAN IP is 172.16.0.1. A workstation with IP 172.16.1.10 can ping the printer, but a workstation with IP 172.17.0.10 cannot. What is the most likely reason?

A.The printer's subnet mask is wrong.

B.The workstation with IP 172.17.0.10 is on a different network and needs a router to reach the printer.

C.The printer has a duplicate IP address.

D.The default gateway on the printer is missing.

AnswerB

172.17.0.10 is on the 172.17.0.0/16 network, which is separate from 172.16.0.0/16, so they require a router to communicate.

Why this answer

The workstation with IP 172.17.0.10 has a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, so it considers its local network to be 172.17.0.0/16. The printer's IP 172.16.0.50 is on the 172.16.0.0/16 network. Since these are different classful networks (172.16.0.0 vs 172.17.0.0), the workstation will send traffic to its default gateway (the router) for delivery.

If the router is not configured to route between these subnets, or if the workstation lacks a default gateway, the ping fails. Option B correctly identifies that the workstation is on a different network and requires a router to reach the printer.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a printer's default gateway is required for any communication, but the trap here is that the default gateway is only needed for traffic leaving the local subnet, not for receiving replies from a host on the same subnet, and the real issue is the workstation being on a different network without proper routing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the printer's subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is correct for its IP 172.16.0.50, placing it in the 172.16.0.0/16 network, and the workstation 172.16.1.10 can ping it successfully, proving the mask is not the issue. Option C is wrong because a duplicate IP address would cause intermittent failures or conflicts for both devices, but the workstation 172.16.1.10 can consistently ping the printer, ruling out a duplicate. Option D is wrong because the default gateway on the printer is only needed for the printer to send traffic off its local subnet (e.g., to the internet or other networks); it is not required for receiving ping replies from a workstation on the same subnet (172.16.1.10) or for the workstation to initiate the ping.

Full explanation →

669

MCQeasy

A user complains that their external monitor shows a 'No Signal' message when connected to their laptop via HDMI. The laptop display works fine. You test the monitor with another computer and it works. What should you check first?

A.Replace the HDMI cable

B.Update the laptop's BIOS

C.Press the function key to switch display modes

D.Reinstall the graphics driver

AnswerC

Laptops often require pressing a function key (like F4 or F8) to enable external display output, which is the most straightforward first step.

Why this answer

The most common cause of an external monitor showing 'No Signal' when the laptop display works fine is that the laptop is not sending video output to the external port. Pressing the function key (e.g., Fn+F4, Fn+F8, or a dedicated display toggle key) cycles through display modes (e.g., PC screen only, Duplicate, Extend, Second screen only). This is the first and simplest troubleshooting step because it directly addresses the output routing without introducing hardware or driver changes.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the candidate's ability to follow a logical troubleshooting methodology (start with the simplest, most likely cause) rather than jumping to hardware replacement or driver reinstallation, and the trap here is that candidates assume a hardware fault (cable or driver) when the issue is actually a software-based output routing setting.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the monitor works with another computer, proving the HDMI cable and monitor are functional; replacing the cable would be unnecessary and wastes time. Option B is wrong because updating the BIOS is a low-level firmware update that does not control display output routing or driver-level functionality; it is not a first-line step for a 'No Signal' issue. Option D is wrong because reinstalling the graphics driver is a more invasive step that should be attempted only after verifying the display mode is correctly set and the cable is secure; the driver is likely fine since the laptop display works.

Full explanation →

670

MCQhard

A user reports that their PC, which has 16 GB of DDR4 RAM, suddenly shows only 8 GB in Windows. The system boots normally. The technician checks the BIOS and sees 16 GB detected. What is the most likely cause of this discrepancy?

A.One of the RAM modules is faulty and not being recognized by Windows.

B.The system is using a 32-bit version of Windows, which has a 4 GB limit.

C.Integrated graphics is reserving 8 GB of system RAM for video memory.

D.Windows has a memory leak that is using 8 GB of RAM.

AnswerC

This is a common scenario; the BIOS may allocate a large chunk of RAM to the integrated GPU, reducing available memory in Windows.

Why this answer

When the BIOS detects full RAM but Windows shows less, it often indicates that a portion of RAM is reserved for hardware or is being used by the integrated GPU. This is common if the system uses integrated graphics and the BIOS allocates a fixed amount of system RAM for video memory. Another possibility is a 32-bit OS limitation, but that is rare with modern systems.

Full explanation →

671

MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a virtualized test environment where each virtual machine must have a unique MAC address and IP address, and the VMs must be able to communicate with each other and the physical network. The host has only one physical NIC. Which virtual switch configuration should the technician use?

A.Internal virtual switch

B.Private virtual switch

C.Bridged (external) virtual switch

D.NAT virtual switch

AnswerC

A bridged switch connects VMs to the physical network, enabling unique MAC/IP addresses and full network access.

Why this answer

A bridged (or external) virtual switch connects VMs to the physical network through the host's NIC, giving each VM its own MAC and IP address on the same subnet. This allows full communication with other VMs and physical devices.

Full explanation →

672

MCQmedium

A customer wants to add a dedicated graphics card to their PC for gaming. The motherboard has one PCIe x16 slot, but it is currently occupied by a Wi-Fi card. The customer asks if they can use the PCIe x1 slot for the graphics card. What should the technician advise?

A.Yes, but the graphics card will run at reduced performance

B.Yes, but only if the motherboard supports SLI

C.No, the graphics card requires a PCIe x16 slot

D.No, because the Wi-Fi card must stay in the x16 slot

AnswerC

Graphics cards are designed for PCIe x16 slots; using a smaller slot would not physically fit and would severely bottleneck performance.

Why this answer

PCIe x1 slots are physically shorter and provide only one lane of bandwidth, which is insufficient for a modern graphics card's performance needs. A graphics card requires a PCIe x16 slot (electrically x8 or x16) for adequate data transfer. The Wi-Fi card can be moved to the x1 slot, but the graphics card must go in the x16 slot.

Full explanation →

673

MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop's keyboard types random characters when certain keys are pressed. The laptop has not been dropped or spilled on. What is the most likely hardware issue?

A.The keyboard driver is corrupted.

B.The keyboard ribbon cable is loose.

C.The keyboard has an internal short or faulty controller.

D.The operating system has a malware infection.

AnswerC

An internal short can cause ghost key presses, leading to random characters. Replacement is necessary.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because a keyboard with an internal short or faulty controller can cause erratic behavior like typing random characters when keys are pressed. This occurs because the short or controller failure disrupts the matrix scanning process, sending incorrect key codes to the system. Since the laptop was not dropped or spilled, physical damage like a loose ribbon cable is less likely, making an internal component failure the most probable hardware cause.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between hardware and software issues, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse a loose ribbon cable (which causes missing keys) with a faulty controller (which causes random characters), as both are hardware problems but with different symptoms.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a corrupted keyboard driver would typically cause all keys to fail or produce no input, not random characters; driver issues are software-based and would affect the entire keyboard uniformly. Option B is wrong because a loose ribbon cable would usually cause specific rows or columns of keys to stop working entirely, not produce random characters; it would result in missing or intermittent input, not incorrect key codes. Option D is wrong because a malware infection could cause random input through software manipulation, but the question specifies a hardware issue, and malware is a software problem that would be addressed by OS-level troubleshooting, not hardware servicing.

Full explanation →

674

MCQeasy

A small business owner wants to access their accounting software from any device, including a tablet and a home computer, without installing the software locally. Which cloud service model should the technician recommend?

A.Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

B.Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

AnswerC

SaaS delivers fully functional applications over the internet, accessible from any device with a browser, which is exactly what the business needs.

Why this answer

SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers applications over the internet, accessible via a web browser without local installation. This matches the requirement of accessing accounting software from any device without installation. PaaS and IaaS provide platforms or infrastructure, not end-user applications.

Full explanation →

675

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that shuts down randomly after a few minutes of use. The fan is spinning, and the vents are clear. The CPU temperature reaches 95°C quickly. What is the most likely cause?

A.The fan is running at low speed due to a faulty fan controller.

B.The thermal paste between the CPU and heatsink has dried out.

C.The CPU is faulty and needs replacement.

D.The BIOS is set to an aggressive power-saving mode.

AnswerB

Dried thermal paste reduces heat transfer, causing rapid overheating even with a working fan.

Why this answer

High CPU temperature despite a spinning fan indicates poor thermal transfer, often due to dried-out thermal paste or a heatsink that is not making proper contact. Reapplying thermal paste and reseating the heatsink is the solution. The fan working rules out a fan failure.

Full explanation →

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