CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 901975

1020 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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901
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a multifunction printer for a legal office that requires all scanned documents to be saved in a searchable PDF format. The printer supports OCR. Which setting must be enabled during the scan job?

A.Enable duplex scanning
B.Set the file format to TIFF
C.Enable OCR processing
D.Increase the scan resolution to 1200 DPI
AnswerC

OCR creates searchable text from scanned images, enabling the PDF to be searched.

Why this answer

This question tests knowledge of OCR (Optical Character Recognition) functionality in multifunction devices. OCR converts scanned images into searchable text within a PDF. Without OCR, the PDF would be a non-searchable image.

902
MCQhard

A company's cloud-based virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) is experiencing slow logins for users in a remote office. The network latency between the remote office and the cloud data center is 150 ms. What is the most effective solution to improve login performance?

A.Increase the bandwidth at the remote office
B.Upgrade the cloud VDI servers to faster CPUs
C.Deploy a local VDI broker or caching server at the remote office
D.Switch to a different cloud provider
AnswerC

A local broker can cache login profiles and reduce the need for frequent round trips to the cloud, significantly improving login speed.

Why this answer

High latency significantly impacts VDI performance, especially during login when many resources are loaded. Deploying a local VDI broker or caching server at the remote office reduces round-trip time. Alternatively, using a CDN or WAN optimization can help, but a local broker is most effective for VDI.

903
MCQeasy

A user reports that their desktop computer connected to the network via a 10-meter Cat6 cable keeps losing connectivity when they move their chair. The cable runs under the desk and is occasionally stepped on. What is the most likely issue?

A.The cable is too long for reliable connectivity.
B.The cable is not shielded and picking up interference.
C.The cable has been crushed or kinked from being stepped on.
D.The network switch port is faulty.
AnswerC

Physical damage from stepping on the cable can break internal wires, causing intermittent loss when pressure is applied.

Why this answer

This question tests basic troubleshooting for physical cable damage. The correct answer is that the cable is likely damaged from being stepped on, causing intermittent connectivity.

904
MCQmedium

A customer wants to switch from cable internet to a fixed wireless ISP (WISP) to reduce costs. What is a critical requirement for the WISP installation?

A.A direct fiber connection from the provider's office.
B.A clear line-of-sight to the provider's tower.
C.A dedicated phone line for the modem.
D.A satellite dish with a 2-foot diameter.
AnswerB

Line-of-sight is essential for reliable fixed wireless; obstructions cause signal loss or intermittent connectivity.

Why this answer

Fixed wireless internet (WISP) relies on radio frequency (RF) signals transmitted between an antenna at the customer's location and a tower operated by the provider. Unlike cable or fiber, RF signals are highly susceptible to physical obstructions such as buildings, trees, or terrain; therefore, a clear line-of-sight (LOS) is a critical requirement for establishing a reliable connection. Without LOS, signal attenuation or multipath interference will likely prevent the link from achieving usable throughput or even establishing a connection at all.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between fixed wireless and satellite internet, where candidates mistakenly think a satellite dish is required for any wireless connection, but fixed wireless uses a directional antenna aimed at a local tower, not a satellite in orbit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a direct fiber connection is not required for fixed wireless; the WISP typically backhauls traffic via fiber to its tower, but the customer premises equipment (CPE) connects wirelessly, not via fiber. Option C is wrong because a dedicated phone line is irrelevant to fixed wireless; WISPs use Ethernet or Wi-Fi for local connectivity, and the modem connects via coaxial or Ethernet, not a POTS line. Option D is wrong because a satellite dish is designed for geostationary satellite communication (e.g., VSAT), not for terrestrial fixed wireless; WISPs use directional antennas (e.g., panel or parabolic grids) that operate in unlicensed or licensed bands (e.g., 5 GHz, 11 GHz) and are typically smaller than 2 feet, though size depends on frequency and distance.

905
MCQmedium

A customer brings in a desktop PC with a 4K monitor that displays a blurry image at native resolution. The monitor's settings show 3840x2160 resolution, but text is hard to read. What is the most likely issue?

A.The monitor's sharpness setting is too low.
B.The display scaling is set to 100%.
C.The HDMI cable does not support 4K.
D.The graphics card is overheating.
AnswerB

At 4K resolution, 100% scaling makes UI elements and text tiny and often blurry due to poor rendering. Increasing scaling to 150% or 200% fixes this.

Why this answer

Blurry text at native resolution on a 4K monitor often indicates incorrect scaling settings in the operating system. Windows scaling should be set to 150% or 200% to make text readable, otherwise it appears too small and blurry due to pixel density.

906
MCQhard

A technician is servicing a tablet that will not power on. The technician has confirmed the battery is charged by testing it with a multimeter (voltage within spec). The power button feels normal when pressed. What is the most likely hardware component that has failed, and how should it be addressed?

A.Replace the LCD screen assembly.
B.Replace the motherboard.
C.Reseat or replace the power button flex cable.
D.Perform a hard reset by holding the power and volume buttons for 30 seconds.
AnswerC

A loose or damaged power button flex cable can prevent the power button from sending the signal to the motherboard, even if the button feels normal.

Why this answer

The power button flex cable is the most likely failed component because the battery is confirmed good (voltage within spec) and the power button itself feels normal, indicating the button mechanism is intact but the electrical connection to the motherboard is broken. Reseating or replacing the flex cable restores the circuit that signals the power management IC to initiate boot, which is a common failure point in tablets due to flex cable wear or loose connection.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a 'normal-feeling' power button means the entire button circuit is working, when in fact the flex cable can fail internally or at the connector while the button dome remains physically intact.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the LCD screen assembly does not prevent the tablet from powering on; a failed LCD would still allow the device to boot (e.g., hear sounds or feel vibrations) but display nothing. Option B is wrong because replacing the motherboard is a last-resort step only after verifying all simpler, cheaper components like the power button flex cable, battery, and charging port are functional; the battery voltage is within spec, so the motherboard is not the most likely failure. Option D is wrong because a hard reset (holding power and volume buttons for 30 seconds) is a software-level troubleshooting step that cannot fix a hardware disconnection in the power button flex cable; it only forces a reboot if the device is frozen but powered on, not if it fails to power on at all.

907
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a server that requires maximum memory bandwidth for virtual machines. The motherboard has four memory slots and supports dual-channel architecture. The technician installs two 16 GB DIMMs. Which configuration will provide the best performance?

A.Install both DIMMs in slots 1 and 2 (same channel)
B.Install both DIMMs in slots 1 and 3 (different channels)
C.Install one DIMM in slot 1 and leave the other empty
D.Install both DIMMs in slots 2 and 3 (adjacent slots)
AnswerB

This populates both channels, enabling dual-channel mode and doubling memory bandwidth for better performance.

Why this answer

Dual-channel memory architecture requires matched pairs of DIMMs installed in specific slots (usually slots 1 and 3 or 2 and 4) to operate in dual-channel mode. Installing them in the same channel (e.g., slots 1 and 2) forces single-channel mode, halving memory bandwidth.

908
MCQeasy

A customer reports that they can browse the internet but cannot send or receive emails using their desktop email client. The email server is known to be working. Which port is most likely being blocked by a firewall?

A.Port 80
B.Port 443
C.Port 587
D.Port 110
AnswerC

Port 587 is the standard SMTP submission port for outgoing email.

Why this answer

Port 587 is the standard SMTP submission port (RFC 6409) used by email clients to send outgoing mail. Since the user can browse the internet (ports 80/443 are open) but cannot send or receive emails, a firewall blocking port 587 would prevent the email client from submitting outgoing messages to the server, while leaving web traffic unaffected. The email server is confirmed working, so the issue is likely a blocked outbound port on the client's firewall.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistakenly think that SMTP uses only port 25, but many ISPs and firewalls block port 25 to prevent spam. Port 587 is the standard submission port for email clients. Additionally, port 110 (POP3) is for receiving email, not sending.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 80 (HTTP) is used for web browsing, which the user can already do, so blocking it would prevent internet access entirely. Option B is wrong because port 443 (HTTPS) is also used for secure web browsing and is clearly open since the user can browse the internet. Option D is wrong because port 110 (POP3) is used for receiving email, not sending; blocking it would prevent receiving but not sending, and the user reports both sending and receiving are failing, indicating a common outbound port like 587 is blocked.

909
MCQhard

A technician is called to a data center where a server with a RAID 6 array of six 8 TB drives has experienced a double drive failure. The technician replaces both failed drives. After the rebuild, the array reports as healthy but the performance is extremely slow during normal operations. What is the most likely cause?

A.The new drives have a different rotational speed.
B.The array is still rebuilding in the background, consuming I/O resources.
C.The RAID controller cache battery is dead.
D.The stripe size was changed during the rebuild.
AnswerB

Correct. After replacing drives, the RAID controller performs a lengthy rebuild that can slow performance until complete.

Why this answer

After a rebuild, the array may be performing a background consistency check or initialization that consumes I/O resources. RAID 6 rebuilds are intensive, and the controller may be verifying parity. This tests advanced RAID troubleshooting.

910
MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a new tablet for a sales team member who travels frequently. The user needs to access the internet via cellular data and also connect to a Bluetooth headset. What should the technician configure first?

A.Enable airplane mode to prevent interference.
B.Insert the SIM card and configure the cellular APN settings.
C.Pair the Bluetooth headset first to ensure audio works.
D.Disable Wi-Fi to force cellular data usage.
AnswerB

Cellular data requires a valid SIM and correct APN settings to access the internet, which is the primary need.

Why this answer

The tablet must first have cellular connectivity established before any other network-dependent features can function. Inserting the SIM card and configuring the Access Point Name (APN) settings is the prerequisite step because the APN defines the gateway between the cellular network and the internet, including required authentication and packet data protocol (PDP) context parameters. Without a correctly configured APN, the tablet cannot obtain an IP address or route data over the cellular carrier's network, making Bluetooth headset pairing or Wi-Fi settings irrelevant for internet access.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that Bluetooth pairing must be done before cellular configuration because it 'requires a stable connection,' when in fact Bluetooth is a short-range, peer-to-peer radio that operates independently of cellular data provisioning.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because enabling airplane mode disables all wireless radios, including cellular and Bluetooth, which would prevent both internet access and headset pairing; it is a troubleshooting step for interference, not a configuration prerequisite. Option C is wrong because pairing a Bluetooth headset is an independent, local wireless process that does not require cellular data or internet access; it can be performed at any time and does not affect cellular connectivity. Option D is wrong because disabling Wi-Fi does not enable cellular data; cellular data must be provisioned via the SIM and APN settings, and Wi-Fi can remain enabled without interfering with cellular data usage when the tablet is configured to prefer cellular.

911
MCQmedium

A small business has an inkjet printer that prints blank pages even though the ink cartridges are full. The printer passes the nozzle check pattern test. What should be done next?

A.Update the printer driver
B.Replace the printhead
C.Check the paper type setting
D.Perform a power cycle
AnswerA

Correct. A corrupted or outdated printer driver can cause blank pages even with full ink and clear nozzles, as the printer may not receive proper print data.

Why this answer

The nozzle check pattern test passes, indicating the printhead and nozzles are functioning correctly. Blank pages with full ink carticles suggest a communication or driver issue. Updating the printer driver can resolve software conflicts or corruption that prevents data from being sent to the printer.

Exam trap

Many candidates assume blank pages always indicate a clogged printhead, but if the nozzle check passes, the printhead is likely fine. The real issue is often driver-related.

912
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a company-issued Android phone for a remote employee. The employee needs to access corporate email via the Gmail app and use a VPN for secure connections. After setup, the user cannot send emails from the Gmail app, but can receive them. What should the technician check first?

A.Verify that the VPN is connected and routing traffic correctly.
B.Check the outgoing mail server (SMTP) settings in the Gmail app.
C.Ensure the device has enough free storage space.
D.Reinstall the Gmail app from the Play Store.
AnswerB

Outgoing mail requires proper SMTP server address, port, and authentication; misconfiguration here prevents sending but not receiving.

Why this answer

The Gmail app on Android uses SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) for sending emails. Since the user can receive emails (IMAP/POP works) but cannot send, the most likely cause is incorrect SMTP server settings—such as the server address, port (e.g., 587 with STARTTLS), or authentication credentials. The technician should verify these outgoing mail server configurations first, as they are independent of VPN connectivity or storage issues.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between incoming (IMAP/POP) and outgoing (SMTP) mail protocols, trapping candidates who assume a network-level issue (VPN) when the problem is specific to the mail submission path.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a VPN issue would typically affect both sending and receiving, or cause a complete connectivity failure; the fact that receiving works suggests the VPN is functional. Option C is wrong because insufficient storage would manifest as an inability to download attachments or sync, not a specific failure to send emails. Option D is wrong because reinstalling the app would not fix misconfigured SMTP settings; it would only reset the app's state, and the same settings would need to be re-entered.

913
MCQmedium

A user complains that their computer, which uses a RAID 1 mirror with two identical HDDs, is running very slowly. The OS is installed on the array. The technician checks and finds that one drive has a high number of bad sectors. What should be done to restore performance and data safety?

A.Remove the failing drive and continue with the good drive only.
B.Replace the failing drive with a new one and rebuild the array.
C.Defragment both drives.
D.Reformat the array and reinstall the OS.
AnswerB

Replacing the bad drive and rebuilding restores mirroring and eliminates the slow retries.

Why this answer

In RAID 1, a failing drive causes the controller to spend time retrying reads, slowing performance. The correct fix is to replace the failing drive and let the array rebuild, restoring both performance and redundancy.

914
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new wireless network for a small business. The owner wants to ensure that only company-issued laptops can connect, and that data is encrypted. The laptops support WPA2-Enterprise. Which authentication method should be used?

A.WPA2-PSK with a strong passphrase
B.WPA3-SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals)
C.802.1X with a RADIUS server
D.MAC address filtering
AnswerC

802.1X requires each device to authenticate individually via a RADIUS server, allowing only authorized company laptops to connect.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication, which requires a RADIUS server to validate individual user or device credentials. This allows the business to enforce that only company-issued laptops (which have the correct certificates or credentials) can connect, while also providing strong per-session encryption via dynamic WPA2 keys.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between personal-mode (PSK/SAE) and enterprise-mode (802.1X/RADIUS), and the trap here is that candidates see 'WPA2-Enterprise' in the question but then incorrectly choose WPA2-PSK or WPA3-SAE because they focus on encryption strength rather than the authentication mechanism required for per-device control.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WPA2-PSK uses a shared passphrase for all clients, which cannot restrict access to only company-issued laptops; anyone with the passphrase can connect, and there is no per-device authentication. Option B is wrong because WPA3-SAE is a personal-mode authentication method (like PSK) that uses a shared password, not enterprise-grade per-device authentication; it also does not integrate with a RADIUS server for individual credential validation. Option D is wrong because MAC address filtering is not an authentication method; it only checks the hardware address, which can be easily spoofed, and it does not provide encryption or secure credential verification.

915
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop PC is running very slowly, especially when opening multiple applications. The system has 8 GB of RAM and a 1 TB HDD. You check Task Manager and see that the CPU is consistently at 100% usage even with only a few apps open. Which CPU characteristic is most likely causing this bottleneck?

A.Number of cores
B.Cache size
C.Clock speed
D.Thermal design power (TDP)
AnswerC

A low clock speed means the CPU processes instructions slowly, leading to high utilization and poor performance in everyday tasks.

Why this answer

This scenario tests understanding of how CPU clock speed affects multitasking performance. A low clock speed means the processor cannot execute instructions quickly enough, leading to high usage and sluggishness. Upgrading to a CPU with a higher clock speed would directly address the bottleneck.

916
MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a new server that must always have the same IP address on a network using DHCP. The network administrator wants to avoid manually configuring the server's IP to prevent misconfiguration. Which method should be used to ensure the server receives the same IP from the DHCP server?

A.Set the server to use a static IP address outside the DHCP scope.
B.Configure a DHCP reservation on the router for the server's MAC address.
C.Set the server's IP address to 169.254.x.x.
D.Disable the server's network adapter and re-enable it.
AnswerB

A DHCP reservation assigns a fixed IP to a specific MAC address, ensuring the server always receives the same IP from DHCP.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because a DHCP reservation binds the server's MAC address to a specific IP address on the DHCP server. This ensures the server always receives the same IP from the DHCP pool without requiring manual static configuration, which aligns with the administrator's goal of avoiding misconfiguration.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a DHCP reservation and a static IP address, trapping candidates who think any manual IP assignment outside the scope is acceptable, when the question specifically requires avoiding manual configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because setting a static IP outside the DHCP scope still requires manual configuration, which the administrator explicitly wants to avoid, and it can lead to IP conflicts if the static IP is later added to the scope. Option C is wrong because 169.254.x.x addresses are APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) used when DHCP fails, not a method to guarantee a consistent IP from a DHCP server. Option D is wrong because disabling and re-enabling the network adapter only forces a new DHCP lease cycle but does not ensure the same IP address is assigned each time.

917
MCQmedium

A user's cable internet goes out completely after a power outage. The modem's power light is on, but the 'online' light is blinking. What is the most likely issue?

A.The modem's firmware was corrupted during the outage.
B.The coaxial cable was damaged by the power surge.
C.The modem is re-establishing its connection to the ISP.
D.The router's DHCP server failed.
AnswerC

After power loss, the modem must re-sync with the cable headend, which is indicated by a blinking online light.

Why this answer

After a power outage, the modem's power light being on indicates it has power, but the blinking 'online' light shows it has lost its upstream connection to the ISP. Cable modems use DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) to establish a link with the Cable Modem Termination System (CMTS). The blinking online light is the standard behavior during the re-initialization and ranging process, which can take several minutes as the modem negotiates frequencies, timing, and power levels with the CMTS.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the misconception that a blinking light always indicates a hardware failure or corruption, when in fact it is a standard operational state during reconnection after a power loss.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because firmware corruption from a power outage is extremely rare; modems store firmware in non-volatile flash memory that is not affected by a simple loss of power, and a blinking online light is a normal post-outage behavior, not a sign of corruption. Option B is wrong because a damaged coaxial cable would typically cause the modem to fail to lock onto any downstream channel, resulting in no lights or a constant 'cable' light error, not a blinking 'online' light that indicates active negotiation. Option D is wrong because the router's DHCP server is a separate device that assigns local IP addresses; the modem's blinking online light indicates it has not yet obtained a public IP from the ISP's DHCP server, and a failed local DHCP server would not prevent the modem from establishing its WAN connection.

918
MCQhard

A user's multifunction printer is displaying a 'Replace Fuser' error message, but the technician has a replacement fuser available. After installing the new fuser, the error persists. What is the most likely cause?

A.The new fuser is defective
B.The printer was not turned off during replacement
C.The fuser error must be cleared via the printer's menu or software
D.The toner cartridge is also low
AnswerC

Many printers require a reset or calibration after fuser replacement to clear the error code and recognize the new part.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of printer maintenance procedures and error reset mechanisms. Many printers require a manual reset or calibration after replacing a consumable like the fuser. Simply installing the part without resetting the error code will not clear the message.

919
MCQmedium

A user reports that their email client cannot send messages but can receive them. The technician verifies that the email server is reachable and that the user's credentials are correct. Which protocol is most likely misconfigured in the email client?

A.SMTP
B.POP3
C.IMAP
D.HTTP
AnswerA

SMTP is used for outgoing mail; if its server address, port, or authentication settings are wrong, sending fails.

Why this answer

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending outgoing email messages from a client to a server or between mail servers. Since the user can receive emails but not send them, and the server is reachable with correct credentials, the most likely misconfiguration is in the SMTP settings (e.g., wrong port, missing authentication, or incorrect server address).

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between sending and receiving protocols, and the trap here is that candidates confuse POP3 or IMAP as being involved in sending emails, when they are strictly for retrieval.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (POP3) is wrong because POP3 is a protocol for retrieving incoming emails from a mail server to a client, not for sending messages. Option C (IMAP) is wrong because IMAP is also used for receiving and managing emails on the server, not for sending. Option D (HTTP) is wrong because HTTP is a web protocol used for web browsing and not a standard protocol for email transmission; while webmail may use HTTP, the email client itself relies on SMTP for sending.

920
MCQmedium

A technician is tasked with upgrading the RAM in a desktop motherboard that has four DIMM slots. The existing configuration has two 4GB sticks in slots A1 and B1. The user wants to add two more 4GB sticks for a total of 16GB. After installing the new sticks in slots A2 and B2, the system boots but only shows 8GB of RAM. What is the most likely cause?

A.The new RAM is not seated properly
B.The motherboard does not support four sticks of RAM
C.The new RAM is incompatible with the existing RAM
D.The BIOS needs an update to support higher capacity
AnswerC

Mismatched RAM modules can cause the system to only recognize the original pair, as the motherboard may fail to train all four modules together.

Why this answer

When mixing RAM modules, even if they are the same size, they may not be compatible if they have different timings, speeds, or ranks. The motherboard may default to the lowest common denominator or fail to recognize mismatched modules. This is a common issue when not using matched kits.

921
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a network printer for secure printing using IPsec. After enabling IPsec on the printer and the print server, print jobs fail to reach the printer. The technician can ping the printer from the server. Which protocol negotiation step is most likely failing?

A.The printer is not responding to ARP requests.
B.The IPsec security association (SA) is not being established due to IKE failure.
C.The printer's TCP/IP stack is misconfigured.
D.The print server is using the wrong port number.
AnswerB

IKE negotiates SAs; failure here prevents IPsec from securing traffic, causing print jobs to fail.

Why this answer

IPsec requires the Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol to negotiate and establish a security association (SA) between the printer and the print server. Since the technician can ping the printer, basic network connectivity (including ARP and IP routing) is working, but the print jobs fail because the IPsec SA is not established. An IKE failure—often due to mismatched pre-shared keys, authentication methods, or IKE phase parameters—prevents the encrypted tunnel from forming, causing all IPsec-protected traffic to be dropped.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ exams often test the distinction between basic connectivity (ping working) and protocol-specific negotiation (IKE for IPsec), trapping candidates who assume ping success guarantees all higher-layer services will work.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the technician can successfully ping the printer, which proves that ARP resolution is working (ping relies on ARP to map the printer's IP to its MAC address). Option C is wrong because a misconfigured TCP/IP stack would typically cause ping failures or inconsistent connectivity, but the printer is reachable via ping, indicating the stack is functioning at the network layer. Option D is wrong because the print server using the wrong port number would cause a different symptom—the print job might reach the printer but be rejected or ignored—whereas here the jobs fail to reach the printer entirely, which aligns with IPsec SA failure, not a port mismatch.

922
MCQmedium

A small office has several desktop PCs that intermittently fail to power on in the morning. The issue is more common on humid days. After checking the wall outlets, you find they are properly grounded. What is the most likely cause?

A.The power supply units are failing due to moisture-related internal corrosion
B.The building's circuit breaker is tripping due to overload
C.The CMOS battery is dead on each PC
D.The power button is stuck on each case
AnswerA

Humidity can accelerate corrosion on PSU components, leading to intermittent startup failures, especially after the system has been off.

Why this answer

A failing power supply can be sensitive to humidity, causing internal shorts or capacitor leakage. Inrush current from multiple PCs on the same circuit could also be a factor, but the humidity correlation points to PSU degradation. Proper grounding eliminates outlet issues.

923
MCQhard

A company is moving to a new building that has no existing internet infrastructure. They need the highest possible download speeds with low latency for cloud applications. Which connection type should they choose?

A.DSL
B.Cable
C.Fixed wireless
D.Fiber optic
AnswerD

Fiber optic offers the highest speeds, lowest latency, and is not affected by electromagnetic interference, ideal for cloud apps.

Why this answer

Fiber optic uses light pulses transmitted through glass or plastic strands, offering symmetrical gigabit speeds (e.g., 1 Gbps or higher) with extremely low latency (often <5 ms). This makes it ideal for cloud applications requiring high download speeds and real-time responsiveness, unlike older copper-based or wireless technologies.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse 'high speed' with 'best for cloud apps' and pick cable or fixed wireless due to marketing speeds, ignoring the critical factors of latency consistency and symmetrical bandwidth that fiber uniquely provides.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) uses existing telephone copper lines, with maximum download speeds typically limited to 100 Mbps (VDSL2) and latency higher than fiber, insufficient for high-bandwidth cloud apps. Option B is wrong because cable internet (DOCSIS 3.1) shares bandwidth among neighborhood users, causing speed degradation during peak times and higher latency than fiber, making it less consistent for cloud workloads. Option C is wrong because fixed wireless (e.g., 5G or LTE) can offer high speeds but suffers from higher latency (10-50 ms) and susceptibility to interference, weather, and line-of-sight issues, failing to match fiber's low-latency and symmetrical performance.

924
MCQmedium

A technician is upgrading a workstation by adding a second high-end GPU. The current power supply has a single +12V rail rated at 40A and two 6+2 pin PCIe power cables. What is the most important factor to check before proceeding?

A.Whether the motherboard has enough SATA power connectors.
B.The physical clearance inside the case for the second GPU.
C.The total power draw of the system does not exceed the PSU's +12V rail capacity.
D.The operating system supports dual GPUs.
AnswerC

The +12V rail powers the GPU and CPU; exceeding its current rating can cause shutdowns or damage. This is the critical check.

Why this answer

The +12V rail's current rating determines how much power it can deliver to GPUs and CPU. A single rail at 40A provides 480W, which may be insufficient for two high-end GPUs. The technician must verify total system power draw against the PSU's capacity.

925
MCQeasy

A user reports that after installing a new app on their Android phone, the device has become noticeably slower and the battery drains faster. What is the most likely cause?

A.The app is a known malware that steals personal data.
B.The app is running background services that consume resources.
C.The phone's storage is full from the app installation.
D.The app requires a newer version of Android.
AnswerB

Many apps run background services for updates or notifications, which can slow the device and drain battery.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the most common cause of performance degradation and increased battery drain after installing a new app is that the app runs background services, such as sync adapters, location listeners, or push notification keep-alives. These services consume CPU cycles, memory, and network activity even when the app is not in the foreground, leading to slower device responsiveness and faster battery depletion.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may immediately assume malware (Option A) because of the dramatic symptoms, but CompTIA A+ tests the understanding that legitimate background services are the most common and probable cause for performance and battery issues after a new app installation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while malware can cause similar symptoms, the question states the user installed a 'new app' and does not mention any suspicious behavior, data loss, or unauthorized access; the most likely cause is legitimate background services, not necessarily malware. Option C is wrong because a single app installation typically uses only a few megabytes to a few hundred megabytes of storage, which is unlikely to fill the phone's storage to the point of causing noticeable slowdowns or battery drain; storage fullness primarily affects write performance and app installation, not CPU or battery consumption. Option D is wrong because if the app required a newer Android version, it would typically fail to install or display a compatibility error, not install successfully and then cause performance and battery issues.

926
MCQeasy

A user reports that their external monitor connected via HDMI displays a 'No Signal' message, though the monitor power LED is lit. The laptop's built-in display works fine. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?

A.Update the graphics driver
B.Replace the monitor
C.Ensure the HDMI cable is fully seated at both ends
D.Adjust the screen resolution in Windows settings
AnswerC

A loose or disconnected cable is the most common cause of a 'No Signal' error on an otherwise functional monitor.

Why this answer

This question tests the systematic approach to display troubleshooting. The monitor is powered on (LED lit) but not receiving a signal, so the most common cause is a loose or faulty cable connection. Always check physical connections before moving to more complex settings or hardware replacements, as this is the quickest and simplest fix.

927
MCQmedium

A company has two branch offices in different cities. They need to connect their LANs so employees can access resources at both locations securely over the internet. Which network type should be used?

A.Local Area Network (LAN)
B.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
C.Wide Area Network (WAN)
D.Personal Area Network (PAN)
AnswerC

A WAN is exactly for connecting LANs over long distances, such as between cities, often using VPNs or leased lines.

Why this answer

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is the correct choice because it connects geographically separated LANs across a large distance, such as between two cities, using public or private infrastructure like the internet. WAN technologies, such as MPLS, leased lines, or IPsec VPNs, provide secure, encrypted tunnels over the internet to ensure data confidentiality and integrity between the branch offices.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a MAN can cover inter-city distances, but MANs are limited to a metropolitan area (typically up to 100 km), whereas a WAN is required for connections spanning multiple cities or countries.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Local Area Network (LAN) is confined to a single building or campus and cannot span the distance between two cities. Option B is wrong because a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) typically covers a city or metropolitan region, not the inter-city distance required here. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) covers only a few meters around an individual (e.g., Bluetooth or USB connections) and is unsuitable for connecting remote offices.

928
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a mobile point-of-sale system using a tablet and a portable receipt printer. The printer supports both Bluetooth and NFC. Which connection method should the technician use for reliable, low-latency printing?

A.NFC
B.Bluetooth
C.Infrared
D.Wi-Fi Direct
AnswerB

Bluetooth offers a reliable, low-latency connection for continuous printing over several meters.

Why this answer

Bluetooth is the correct choice because it provides a reliable, low-latency wireless connection specifically designed for peripheral devices like printers. Unlike NFC, which is optimized for very short-range (under 4 cm) tap-to-pair operations and not sustained data streaming, Bluetooth maintains a stable link over distances up to 10 meters and supports the Serial Port Profile (SPP) or Bluetooth Basic Rate/Enhanced Data Rate (BR/EDR) for consistent print job throughput.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose NFC because they associate it with 'tap-to-pair' convenience, but they overlook that NFC is a pairing trigger, not a data transport method for sustained printing—Bluetooth handles the actual data transfer after the initial NFC tap.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NFC operates at a maximum range of about 4 cm and is intended for quick pairing or contactless payments, not for sustained, low-latency printing; it lacks the bandwidth and connection stability for streaming print data. Option C is wrong because Infrared (IrDA) requires direct line-of-sight and a very short range (typically 1 meter), making it impractical for a mobile point-of-sale scenario where the tablet and printer may be moved or repositioned. Option D is wrong because Wi-Fi Direct, while capable of high throughput, introduces higher latency and connection setup overhead compared to Bluetooth, and it is overkill for the simple data payload of a receipt printer, often consuming more power unnecessarily.

929
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new thermal printer for a retail point-of-sale system. The printer uses direct thermal technology and will print receipts. After connecting the printer via USB and installing the driver, the test page prints, but the text is very faint. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer driver is incorrect
B.The thermal paper is loaded upside down
C.The printhead darkness setting is too low
D.The USB cable is faulty
AnswerC

Direct thermal printers rely on heat to darken the paper; a low darkness setting produces faint text. Increasing the setting resolves the issue.

Why this answer

Faint output on a direct thermal printer is typically due to insufficient heat from the printhead. The printhead's temperature setting or the media's thermal sensitivity may be mismatched. Adjusting the darkness or heat setting in the driver or printer configuration is the correct fix.

930
MCQhard

A technician is deploying a new laser printer in a medical office. After installation, the printer prints a test page correctly, but when users print from their workstations, the output is garbled with random characters. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer's network cable is faulty
B.The printer driver is incorrect or corrupt
C.The printer's memory is full
D.The printer is set to PostScript emulation but the driver uses PCL
AnswerB

A wrong or corrupt driver sends data in a format the printer cannot interpret, causing garbled output.

Why this answer

Garbled output from a printer that works on a test page but not from workstations usually indicates a driver mismatch. The test page uses the printer's internal firmware, while user print jobs rely on the installed driver. Installing the correct driver for the printer model and operating system resolves the issue.

931
MCQmedium

A customer wants to use a 34-inch ultrawide monitor (3440x1440) with their desktop PC. The PC has an older GPU with a DVI-D dual-link port and an HDMI 1.4 port. Which connection should the technician recommend for the best image quality?

A.DVI-D dual-link
B.HDMI 1.4
C.VGA
D.DisplayPort
AnswerB

HDMI 1.4 supports 3440x1440 at up to 75 Hz, which is sufficient for the monitor's typical 60 Hz refresh rate, making it the best available option.

Why this answer

HDMI 1.4 supports 3440x1440 at up to 75 Hz, which is sufficient for the monitor's typical 60 Hz refresh rate. DVI-D dual-link is limited to 2560x1600 at 60 Hz and cannot deliver the full 3440x1440 resolution. Therefore, HDMI 1.4 provides the best image quality among the available ports.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that DVI-D dual-link is always superior to HDMI for high resolutions, but candidates forget that DVI-D dual-link's maximum resolution is 2560x1600, not 3440x1440.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DVI-D dual-link has a maximum pixel clock of 330 MHz, which caps its resolution at 2560x1600 at 60 Hz, making it unable to drive a 3440x1440 ultrawide monitor. Option C is wrong because VGA is an analog interface that maxes out at 2048x1536 at 60 Hz and introduces signal degradation, making it unsuitable for high-resolution digital displays. Option D is wrong because DisplayPort is not available on the PC's older GPU, so it cannot be used as a connection option.

932
MCQmedium

A user reports that their computer cannot access any network resources, but the link light on the NIC is solid. The technician suspects a faulty cable. Which tool can quickly test the cable's continuity and detect a broken wire?

A.Multimeter
B.Cable tester
C.Toner and probe
D.Crimper
AnswerB

A cable tester quickly checks all eight wires for continuity, shorts, and proper pinout, making it the ideal tool for diagnosing a faulty cable.

Why this answer

A cable tester sends a small electrical signal through each conductor in the cable and checks for a return signal on the correct pin. If a wire is broken, the tester will indicate an open circuit, confirming the fault. This is the fastest and most direct way to verify continuity in a copper Ethernet cable.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a cable tester with a multimeter, thinking a multimeter is sufficient for quick cable continuity checks, but the cable tester is purpose-built for this task and provides a pass/fail result for all eight wires simultaneously.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a multimeter can measure continuity but requires manually probing each pin and interpreting resistance values, which is slower and less convenient for testing a full cable with multiple conductors. Option C is wrong because a toner and probe is designed to trace a specific cable within a bundle or locate its endpoints, not to test continuity or detect broken wires. Option D is wrong because a crimper is used to attach connectors to cable ends, not to test the electrical integrity of an already-terminated cable.

933
MCQhard

A technician is tasked with securing a workstation that will be used in a public kiosk. The requirement is that the system must only boot from the internal SSD and must prevent booting from USB drives or optical media. Which UEFI security feature should be configured?

A.Enable Secure Boot and set a UEFI administrator password.
B.Disable all external boot devices in the UEFI boot order and set a supervisor password.
C.Set the boot mode to Legacy BIOS and disable USB support.
D.Enable the TPM and set a power-on password.
AnswerB

Disabling external boot devices in the boot order prevents the system from attempting to boot from them; a supervisor password prevents unauthorized changes to these settings.

Why this answer

To prevent unauthorized booting from external media, the technician must set a boot order that prioritizes the internal SSD and disable other boot devices. Additionally, setting a UEFI administrator password prevents unauthorized users from changing these settings.

934
MCQmedium

During a network upgrade, a technician needs to allow remote desktop connections to Windows workstations from the internal network. Which port must be opened in the firewall?

A.22
B.23
C.3389
D.5900
AnswerC

Port 3389 is the default port for RDP, enabling remote desktop connections.

Why this answer

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389 by default. To allow remote desktop connections to Windows workstations from the internal network, the firewall must permit inbound traffic on port 3389. This is the standard port for RDP, which provides graphical remote access to Windows systems.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between common remote access protocols: SSH (port 22), Telnet (port 23), RDP (port 3389), and VNC (port 5900), and the trap here is confusing RDP with VNC or SSH because all provide remote access, but only RDP is native to Windows for graphical remote desktop.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which provides encrypted command-line remote access, not graphical remote desktop connections. Option B is wrong because port 23 is used for Telnet, an unencrypted command-line protocol that is insecure and not used for Windows remote desktop. Option D is wrong because port 5900 is used by VNC (Virtual Network Computing), a different remote desktop protocol that is not native to Windows and is not the default for Windows Remote Desktop.

935
MCQeasy

A customer wants to set up a home network that supports the fastest possible speeds for streaming 4K video and gaming, with support for multiple devices. They have a cable modem that supports up to 1 Gbps. Which wireless standard should you recommend for the new router?

A.802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5)
B.802.11n (Wi-Fi 4)
C.802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6)
D.802.11g (Wi-Fi 3)
AnswerC

Wi-Fi 6 provides the highest real-world speeds, better handling of multiple devices, and is backward compatible.

Why this answer

802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) is the correct recommendation because it offers the highest theoretical data rates (up to 9.6 Gbps aggregate), improved efficiency in dense environments via OFDMA and MU-MIMO, and lower latency, all of which are critical for streaming 4K video and gaming on multiple devices. It also provides backward compatibility with older Wi-Fi standards while maximizing throughput over the existing 1 Gbps cable modem connection.

Exam trap

A common trap is assuming that 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) is the fastest standard available for home networks, but 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) offers higher throughput and better multi-device performance, making it the correct choice for 4K streaming and gaming.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) operates only on the 5 GHz band and lacks OFDMA and Target Wake Time, making it less efficient for multiple simultaneous high-bandwidth streams compared to Wi-Fi 6. Option B is wrong because 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4) is limited to a maximum theoretical speed of 600 Mbps and uses only 40 MHz channels, which is insufficient for multiple 4K streams and modern gaming demands. Option D is wrong because 802.11g (Wi-Fi 3) is a legacy 2.4 GHz-only standard with a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps, far too slow for 4K video or online gaming.

936
MCQeasy

A user reports that their smartphone's battery drains very quickly, even when the phone is idle. The phone is less than a year old. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The battery is defective and needs replacement
B.The screen brightness is set too high
C.An app is running in the background and consuming power
D.The phone is infected with a virus
AnswerC

Background apps, especially those with bugs or high power usage, can drain the battery even when the phone is not in active use.

Why this answer

A common cause of rapid battery drain on smartphones is apps running in the background, especially after an OS update that may change permissions or app behavior. Checking battery usage statistics can help identify the culprit.

937
MCQmedium

A law office wants to enable secure printing on their multifunction device so that users must enter a PIN at the printer before their documents print. The printer supports this feature. What must be configured to make this work?

A.Enable SNMP on the printer.
B.Configure user authentication and PIN codes in the printer's settings.
C.Install a print server on the network.
D.Update the printer driver to the latest version.
AnswerB

User authentication with PINs is required for secure print release.

Why this answer

Secure printing requires user authentication at the device. The printer must have user accounts or a PIN code system configured, and users must select 'Secure Print' or 'Hold Print' from the driver. The printer then releases the job only after the correct PIN is entered.

938
MCQeasy

A small business uses a router with a default IP of 192.168.1.1. The owner wants to set up a new printer with a static IP of 192.168.1.50. After configuring the printer, it cannot be accessed from any computer on the network. All computers are set to obtain IP addresses automatically. What is the most likely problem?

A.The printer's subnet mask is set to 255.0.0.0.
B.The printer's IP address is outside the router's DHCP range.
C.The printer's IP address conflicts with an address already assigned by DHCP.
D.The printer is not connected to the network via an Ethernet cable.
AnswerC

Since the router's DHCP range likely includes 192.168.1.50, another device may have been given that IP, causing a conflict and preventing the printer from being reached.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the printer's static IP (192.168.1.50) likely falls within the router's default DHCP pool (commonly 192.168.1.2–192.168.1.254 or a subset like 192.168.1.100–199). If the router has already assigned 192.168.1.50 to another device via DHCP, a duplicate IP conflict occurs, causing the printer to be unreachable. The printer may appear to have an IP, but the conflict prevents proper ARP resolution and communication.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a static IP outside the DHCP range is always the problem, but Cisco tests the nuance that a static IP inside the default DHCP pool can cause a conflict even if the address is not currently leased, because the router may have assigned it dynamically to another device.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 would place the printer in a different logical subnet (0.0.0.0/8) than the router's 192.168.1.0/24 network, making it unreachable, but this is less likely than a DHCP conflict given the default router configuration. Option B is wrong because the printer's IP (192.168.1.50) is inside the typical DHCP range (e.g., 192.168.1.2–192.168.1.254) for a 192.168.1.1 router, so being outside the DHCP range is not the issue. Option D is wrong because if the printer were not connected via Ethernet, it would not receive any IP configuration or be visible on the network at all, but the question states the printer was configured with a static IP, implying a physical connection exists.

939
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a smartwatch that will not sync with a smartphone via Bluetooth. The smartwatch pairs but data syncs only intermittently. The smartphone is an Android device with battery optimization enabled for the companion app. What is the most likely cause?

A.The smartwatch firmware is outdated.
B.The Bluetooth radio is experiencing interference from other devices.
C.The smartphone's battery optimization is preventing the companion app from running in the background.
D.The smartwatch's battery is low.
AnswerC

Battery optimization can pause the app, breaking the Bluetooth data sync; disabling it for the app ensures continuous background operation.

Why this answer

Battery optimization on Android (Doze mode) restricts background app activity to conserve power. When the companion app is prevented from running in the background, it cannot maintain the persistent Bluetooth connection needed for continuous data sync, even though the initial pairing succeeds. This explains intermittent sync because the app is periodically killed or throttled by the OS.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between pairing (authentication) and syncing (data transfer), leading candidates to overlook how Android's power management features can interrupt background services while still allowing a paired connection to exist.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because outdated smartwatch firmware typically causes pairing failures or complete sync failure, not intermittent sync after successful pairing. Option B is wrong because Bluetooth interference from other devices usually causes dropped connections or degraded throughput, not a pattern where sync works intermittently only when the app is in the foreground. Option D is wrong because a low smartwatch battery would typically cause the watch to disconnect entirely or fail to pair, not allow pairing with intermittent data sync.

940
MCQhard

A network administrator is deploying a new wireless network in a large office building. They need to ensure seamless roaming for users moving between floors. The building has concrete floors and metal studs. Which hardware configuration will best support this requirement?

A.Install multiple thick access points with overlapping channels.
B.Use a single high-power access point in the center of the building.
C.Deploy thin access points connected to a wireless LAN controller.
D.Use mesh access points with wireless backhaul.
AnswerC

Correct. Thin APs are managed by a controller that handles roaming, load balancing, and channel selection, ensuring seamless connectivity as users move.

Why this answer

Thin access points (APs) are designed to be managed centrally by a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC). The WLC coordinates channel selection, power levels, and client handoffs, enabling seamless roaming across floors. In a building with concrete floors and metal studs, multiple thin APs with controlled overlap ensure consistent coverage and fast roaming without the interference issues that would plague overlapping channels on thick APs.

Exam trap

The trap here is the misconception that 'more power equals better coverage' (Option B) or that 'mesh is always the easiest solution' (Option D). In reality, for seamless roaming in a dense, multi-floor environment with signal-blocking materials like concrete and metal, thin APs managed by a central controller are necessary to coordinate handoffs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because installing multiple thick (autonomous) APs with overlapping channels would cause co-channel interference and degrade performance; thick APs lack centralized coordination for seamless roaming. Option B is wrong because a single high-power AP cannot penetrate concrete floors and metal studs effectively, leading to dead zones and no roaming support. Option D is wrong because mesh APs with wireless backhaul introduce latency and throughput loss on the backhaul link, and they do not provide the fast, controller-based roaming required for seamless mobility across floors.

941
MCQeasy

A user reports that their cloud storage files are not syncing to their laptop. The internet connection is working, and other cloud services are accessible. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.The cloud storage server is down for maintenance
B.The user's account has been suspended
C.The cloud sync client application is not running
D.A firewall is blocking the sync port
AnswerC

If the sync client is not running, files won't sync even with a working internet connection.

Why this answer

This question tests troubleshooting cloud synchronization issues. A common cause is the client application being stopped or crashed, which prevents syncing despite a working internet connection. Account suspension would block access entirely, firewall rules would affect other services too, and server downtime would impact all users, not just one.

942
MCQmedium

A company deploys a new VoIP phone system. Users report that calls are choppy and sometimes drop. The network uses a single flat subnet with no QoS. What is the most likely cause?

A.The VoIP phones have incorrect DNS settings.
B.The switch ports are set to half-duplex.
C.There is no Quality of Service (QoS) configured.
D.The Ethernet cables are Cat5 instead of Cat6.
AnswerC

Correct—without QoS, voice packets compete with data traffic, leading to jitter and dropped calls.

Why this answer

VoIP traffic is sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss. Without QoS, data traffic can congest the network, causing choppy audio and dropped calls. Implementing QoS prioritizes voice traffic.

943
MCQmedium

A user reports that their computer will not boot and the motherboard's diagnostic LEDs show a CPU error. You reseat the CPU and check for bent pins, but the error persists. Which of the following should you check next?

A.The RAM modules are in the correct slots
B.The motherboard's BIOS is corrupted
C.The CPU power cable is not fully connected
D.The CPU cooler is installed incorrectly
AnswerC

If the 8-pin CPU power connector is loose or disconnected, the CPU will not receive power, causing the motherboard to indicate a CPU error.

Why this answer

A CPU error LED can indicate several issues, including power delivery problems. The 8-pin CPU power connector is often overlooked; if it is loose or not connected, the CPU will not receive power, triggering the error. This is a common mistake during builds or after cleaning.

944
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a server that uses a hardware RAID controller with four SSDs in RAID 10. The server randomly freezes and the event log shows 'Lost communication with drive' errors. The drives pass SMART tests. What is the most likely cause?

A.The SSDs are experiencing write amplification.
B.The RAID controller firmware is corrupted.
C.The SSDs need to be defragmented.
D.The server's power supply is failing.
AnswerB

Corrupted firmware can cause intermittent communication failures and system freezes, even if the drives are healthy. This is a common hardware RAID issue.

Why this answer

Intermittent communication errors with drives that pass SMART tests often point to a faulty RAID controller, cable, or backplane. Since the drives themselves are healthy, the issue is likely with the controller or its connection to the drives.

945
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new workstation and needs to ensure the system can address more than 4 GB of RAM. The motherboard supports 16 GB of DDR4 memory. Which UEFI setting must be verified to ensure the OS can use all installed memory?

A.Enable the 'Memory Remap' feature in the UEFI.
B.Set the boot mode to Legacy BIOS instead of UEFI.
C.Disable the integrated graphics in the UEFI.
D.Change the SATA mode from AHCI to RAID.
AnswerA

Memory remapping reallocates the address space above 4 GB so the OS can use all installed RAM; without it, the system may only see 4 GB or less.

Why this answer

For systems with more than 4 GB of RAM, the OS must be 64-bit, and the firmware must have memory remapping enabled. This feature allows the UEFI to reassign memory addresses previously reserved for PCI devices, making the full RAM capacity available to the OS.

946
MCQeasy

A customer complains that their iOS device's calendar app no longer syncs with their work Exchange account after a recent iOS update. Other email and contacts sync correctly. What is the most likely cause?

A.The Exchange server is down.
B.The iOS update removed the Exchange account from the device.
C.The calendar app needs to be re-authorized for the Exchange account.
D.The calendar app is corrupted and must be reinstalled.
AnswerC

iOS updates can reset app-specific permissions, requiring the user to re-authorize the calendar app to access the Exchange account.

Why this answer

This scenario focuses on app-specific sync issues after an OS update. The most common cause is that the app's permissions or account settings were reset during the update, requiring re-authorization or re-configuration of the Exchange account within the calendar app.

947
MCQhard

A user's workstation has intermittent connectivity issues. You suspect the Ethernet cable might be damaged or improperly terminated. You need to test the cable for continuity, shorts, and correct pinout. Which tool should you use, and what is a key feature of this tool?

A.Cable tester; it can detect split pairs
B.Toner probe; it can measure signal strength
C.Multimeter; it can measure resistance
D.Loopback plug; it can simulate network traffic
AnswerA

A cable tester can detect split pairs, which occur when wires are not correctly paired, causing interference and connectivity issues.

Why this answer

A cable tester is the correct tool because it verifies continuity, detects shorts, and confirms the correct pinout (e.g., T568A/B) of an Ethernet cable. A key feature is its ability to detect split pairs, which can cause crosstalk and intermittent connectivity even if continuity appears fine, as the pairs are not properly twisted.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between a cable tester and a multimeter, trapping candidates who think a multimeter can fully validate Ethernet cabling because it can measure continuity, but it cannot detect split pairs or verify pinout compliance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a toner probe is used to trace and identify cables within a bundle or at a patch panel, not to test for continuity, shorts, or pinout errors; it does not measure signal strength in the context of cable integrity. Option C is wrong because a multimeter can measure resistance and check for opens or shorts, but it cannot verify correct pinout or detect split pairs, which are critical for Ethernet performance. Option D is wrong because a loopback plug is used to test network interface functionality by sending transmitted data back to the receiver, not to test cable wiring or detect physical faults like shorts or miswiring.

948
MCQeasy

A small office manager wants to upgrade the RAM in several identical workstations from 8 GB to 16 GB. The current modules are DDR3-1600. The company has a box of unused DDR3-1333 modules from an older system. Can they use these modules to upgrade the workstations?

A.No, because the speeds are different and will cause system instability.
B.Yes, but only if they replace the existing modules entirely with the DDR3-1333 modules.
C.No, because DDR3-1333 is not compatible with DDR3-1600 slots.
D.Yes, they can add the DDR3-1333 modules, but all RAM will run at 1333 MHz.
AnswerD

Mixing speeds is allowed; the memory controller will run all modules at the speed of the slowest module, which is 1333 MHz.

Why this answer

DDR3-1333 and DDR3-1600 are both DDR3, so they are physically compatible. However, mixing speeds forces all modules to run at the slower 1333 MHz, which may slightly reduce performance. The upgrade is possible but not optimal.

949
MCQhard

A user reports that their laptop's battery life has dropped significantly over the past month. The battery now lasts only 30 minutes on a full charge. The technician runs a battery report and finds that the design capacity is 50,000 mWh, but the full charge capacity is only 12,000 mWh. What is the most likely conclusion?

A.The battery calibration is off and needs to be recalibrated by fully discharging and recharging.
B.A background process is consuming excessive power, draining the battery quickly.
C.The battery has reached the end of its useful life and needs to be replaced.
D.The laptop's power adapter is not providing enough voltage to charge the battery fully.
AnswerC

A full charge capacity of 12,000 mWh versus a design capacity of 50,000 mWh means the battery has lost over 75% of its capacity. This is a clear sign of battery wear and requires replacement.

Why this answer

The battery report shows a severe reduction in full charge capacity compared to design capacity. This indicates the battery has degraded significantly, likely due to age, heat, or charging cycles. A battery with a full charge capacity below 80% of design capacity is considered worn out and should be replaced.

There is no software fix for this hardware degradation.

950
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop PC will not power on at all. The power supply fan does not spin, and no LEDs are lit. You have verified the power cord is good and the outlet has power. Which motherboard component should you check first?

A.The CMOS battery
B.The front panel power switch header
C.The 24-pin ATX power connector
D.The CPU fan header
AnswerC

This is the primary power connection from the PSU to the motherboard; if loose, no power reaches the board.

Why this answer

The ATX power connector (main power connector) supplies power from the PSU to the motherboard. If it is loose or disconnected, the motherboard will not receive power, causing a no-power condition. Always check this first before assuming PSU failure.

951
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a server that uses a RAID 5 array with three 1TB HDDs. One drive fails, and the technician replaces it with a new 1TB HDD. After rebuilding, the array reports only 1.8TB of usable space. What is the most likely cause?

A.The new drive has a different sector size (4K vs 512e).
B.The RAID controller is using some space for metadata.
C.The replacement drive has a slightly smaller actual capacity than the original drives.
D.The RAID 5 array is degraded and needs a second drive to be replaced.
AnswerC

Drive manufacturers advertise capacity in decimal (1TB = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes), but actual capacity can vary slightly; the array uses the smallest drive's capacity.

Why this answer

This question tests advanced RAID understanding. RAID 5 uses one drive's worth of capacity for parity, so three 1TB drives yield 2TB usable. The loss of 0.2TB suggests the replacement drive has slightly less capacity due to manufacturer differences or sector mapping.

952
MCQhard

A technician needs to install a CPU that supports both DDR4 and DDR5 memory on a new motherboard. The motherboard manual lists support for only DDR5. Which of the following is the best course of action?

A.Install DDR4 RAM because the CPU supports it
B.Install DDR5 RAM as the motherboard supports it
C.Update the BIOS to enable DDR4 support
D.Use a different CPU that only supports DDR5
AnswerB

The motherboard dictates the memory type; the CPU's compatibility with both is irrelevant if the board only accepts DDR5.

Why this answer

Memory controllers are integrated into the CPU, but the motherboard's memory slots and BIOS determine which type is supported. If the board only supports DDR5, using a CPU that supports both will still require DDR5 modules.

953
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop that fails to boot after the user installed a new M.2 NVMe SSD. The computer powers on, but the screen remains black and no BIOS splash screen appears. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The M.2 drive is not fully seated in the slot.
B.The motherboard's BIOS is outdated and does not support NVMe boot.
C.The M.2 drive is a SATA type but the slot only supports NVMe.
D.The power supply unit is insufficient to power the new drive.
AnswerB

Older motherboards may require a BIOS update to add NVMe support. Without it, the system cannot initialize the NVMe drive as a boot device, resulting in a black screen.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of M.2 installation and BIOS/UEFI configuration. Many motherboards require a specific UEFI setting (CSM disabled, UEFI boot enabled) or a BIOS update to support NVMe as a boot device. The most common issue is that the motherboard's firmware does not recognize the NVMe drive without a BIOS update.

954
MCQeasy

A user's laptop screen flickers intermittently, but the external monitor works fine. What is the most likely cause?

A.The graphics driver is outdated.
B.The LCD panel is failing.
C.The inverter or backlight is failing.
D.The display cable connecting the motherboard to the screen is loose or damaged.
AnswerD

A loose or damaged display cable can cause intermittent flickering on the internal screen while the external monitor remains unaffected.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is a loose or damaged display cable because the external monitor works fine, which rules out a GPU or driver issue. The display cable carries video signals from the motherboard to the LCD panel; intermittent flickering on the internal screen only indicates a physical connection problem at the hinge or connector. This is a common failure point in laptops due to repeated opening and closing.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between backlight failures (which cause dim/no light) and signal failures (which cause flickering or no image), leading candidates to confuse inverter/backlight issues with display cable problems.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an outdated graphics driver would affect both the internal display and an external monitor, not just the laptop screen. Option B is wrong because a failing LCD panel typically causes persistent artifacts, dead pixels, or a completely black screen, not intermittent flickering that comes and goes. Option C is wrong because a failing inverter or backlight would cause the screen to be dim or completely dark, not flicker with visible content; flickering with normal brightness points to a signal issue, not a backlight problem.

955
MCQmedium

A technician is building a workstation for video editing and needs to configure a RAID array for maximum performance without redundancy. The motherboard supports RAID 0, 1, 5, and 10. Which RAID level should the technician choose?

A.RAID 1
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 0
D.RAID 10
AnswerC

RAID 0 stripes data across all drives, providing the highest performance with no redundancy, ideal for video editing where speed is critical.

Why this answer

RAID 0 stripes data across multiple drives, offering the best read/write performance by utilizing all drives simultaneously. However, it provides no fault tolerance, meaning if one drive fails, all data is lost. This matches the requirement for maximum performance without redundancy.

956
MCQeasy

A user wants to connect their smartphone to a hotel TV to stream a presentation during a conference. The TV has only an HDMI port and no wireless capabilities. Which accessory is most appropriate for this task?

A.A USB-C to USB-A hub
B.An MHL-to-HDMI adapter
C.A Bluetooth speaker
D.A wireless display adapter like Chromecast
AnswerB

MHL (Mobile High-Definition Link) adapters allow smartphones to output video and audio to HDMI displays.

Why this answer

MHL (Mobile High-Definition Link) allows a smartphone to output video and audio through its USB port (often USB-C or micro-USB) and converts it to HDMI, which is exactly what is needed to connect to a TV with only an HDMI port. This adapter is the most appropriate because it directly bridges the smartphone's mobile output to the TV's HDMI input without requiring any wireless network or additional power source.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between adapters that merely replicate ports (like USB hubs) versus those that actively convert signal protocols (like MHL-to-HDMI), and the trap here is that candidates may choose a wireless adapter like Chromecast without considering the requirement for a Wi-Fi network, assuming any HDMI-connected device will work regardless of network dependency.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB-C to USB-A hub only expands USB connectivity for peripherals like flash drives or keyboards; it does not convert the smartphone's video signal to HDMI, so it cannot stream video to the TV. Option C is wrong because a Bluetooth speaker only outputs audio wirelessly and does not provide any video signal, making it useless for streaming a presentation to a TV. Option D is wrong because a wireless display adapter like Chromecast requires the TV to have an HDMI port (which it does) but also needs a Wi-Fi network to stream content; the question states the TV has no wireless capabilities, and the user would need a separate network setup, making it less appropriate than a direct wired MHL adapter.

957
MCQmedium

A technician is tasked with upgrading a desktop computer that has a 500GB SATA SSD and a 2TB SATA HDD. The motherboard has one M.2 slot (PCIe 3.0 x4) and four SATA III ports. The user wants faster boot times and application loading. Which upgrade will provide the most noticeable performance improvement?

A.Replace the 2TB HDD with a 2TB SATA SSD.
B.Install an M.2 NVMe SSD and migrate the OS and applications to it.
C.Add more RAM to the system.
D.Replace the 500GB SATA SSD with a larger SATA SSD.
AnswerB

An M.2 NVMe SSD is much faster than a SATA SSD (up to 3,500 MB/s vs 550 MB/s). Moving the OS and applications to the NVMe drive will dramatically reduce boot times and application loading.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of storage performance hierarchy. The existing SATA SSD is already fast for boot and applications, but an M.2 NVMe SSD is significantly faster (3-5x). Replacing the HDD with another SSD would not improve boot times as much, and adding RAM does not directly affect storage speed.

958
MCQeasy

A user complains that their tablet's battery drains very quickly, even when not in use. The device is one year old and was working normally until last week. Which hardware component is most likely failing?

A.The charging port is loose.
B.The battery has degraded or is failing.
C.The power management IC is faulty.
D.The screen brightness is set too high.
AnswerB

A failing battery cannot hold a charge and will discharge quickly, even in standby.

Why this answer

A battery that drains quickly even when the device is idle typically indicates that the battery's internal chemistry has degraded, leading to increased self-discharge and reduced capacity. After one year of use, lithium-ion batteries naturally lose about 20% of their capacity, and a sudden failure can occur due to a defective cell or internal short. This matches the symptom of normal operation followed by rapid drain, as the battery can no longer hold a charge effectively.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between hardware failure and user-configurable settings, so the trap here is that candidates may confuse a high screen brightness setting (a software/user issue) with a hardware battery failure, even though the symptom occurs when the device is not in use.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a loose charging port would cause intermittent charging or failure to charge, not rapid battery drain when the device is not in use. Option C is wrong because a faulty power management IC (PMIC) typically causes symptoms like failure to power on, random shutdowns, or overheating, not a consistent rapid drain during idle. Option D is wrong because screen brightness is a user setting that affects active usage drain, not idle battery drain, and it would not cause a sudden change in battery behavior.

959
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laser printer is producing pages with vertical black streaks. The streaks appear in the same position on every page. What is the most likely cause?

A.Low toner cartridge
B.A dirty corona wire
C.A scratched drum
D.A faulty fuser
AnswerC

A scratched drum picks up toner and transfers it repeatedly, creating consistent vertical black streaks.

Why this answer

Vertical black streaks on laser printer output are typically caused by a damaged or scratched drum. The drum rotates and transfers toner, so any defect creates a repeating mark. Cleaning or replacing the drum usually resolves the issue.

960
MCQmedium

A company is setting up a guest wireless network in a conference room. They want to ensure that guests can access the internet but cannot communicate with internal corporate devices. The network uses a single router and a switch. Which configuration on the router will best achieve this?

A.Configure the router to use DHCP for the guest network.
B.Create a separate VLAN for the guest network and apply an ACL to block traffic to the internal network.
C.Disable the SSID broadcast for the guest network.
D.Use a wireless access point with a built-in firewall.
AnswerB

VLANs logically separate traffic, and ACLs on the router can block inter-VLAN communication, ensuring guests cannot access internal resources while still allowing internet access.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because creating a separate VLAN for the guest network isolates guest traffic at Layer 2, and applying an ACL on the router's VLAN interface blocks traffic destined for the internal network while permitting internet-bound traffic. This ensures guests cannot reach internal corporate devices, meeting the security requirement without additional hardware.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that disabling SSID broadcast or using DHCP alone provides security, when in fact VLANs with ACLs are required for true network segmentation and access control.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP only assigns IP addresses and does not provide any traffic isolation or access control; guests could still communicate with internal devices if they are on the same subnet. Option C is wrong because disabling SSID broadcast merely hides the network name and does not prevent guests from accessing internal devices once connected; it is a privacy measure, not a security control. Option D is wrong because using a wireless access point with a built-in firewall is a hardware solution that may not be available or necessary; the question specifies a single router and switch, and the best approach is to configure the existing router with VLANs and ACLs.

961
MCQeasy

A user wants to connect a new monitor to their desktop PC. The monitor has a DisplayPort input, and the PC has an HDMI output. Which cable type will work without additional adapters?

A.HDMI to HDMI cable
B.DisplayPort to DisplayPort cable
C.HDMI to DisplayPort cable
D.VGA to HDMI cable
AnswerC

This cable has an HDMI plug for the PC and a DisplayPort plug for the monitor, making a direct connection.

Why this answer

HDMI and DisplayPort are different standards, but many cables are available with HDMI on one end and DisplayPort on the other. A bidirectional cable can connect an HDMI source to a DisplayPort monitor.

962
MCQmedium

A user's projector displays a very dim image, even with the brightness setting at maximum. The lamp hour counter shows 1500 hours, and the projector is three years old. What is the most likely cause?

A.The projector's air filter is clogged
B.The video cable is damaged
C.The projector lamp is reaching end of life
D.The input source is set to low brightness
AnswerC

Lamps lose brightness over time; 1500 hours is within the typical lifespan where dimming becomes noticeable.

Why this answer

Projector lamps dim over time and typically need replacement after 2000-4000 hours. A dim image with max brightness and moderate lamp hours indicates the lamp is nearing end of life. The correct answer identifies lamp aging as the primary cause, not filters or cables.

963
MCQeasy

A company is migrating its on-premises email server to a cloud service. Employees must retain all existing emails and folders. Which cloud deployment model best fits this requirement?

A.Public cloud
B.Private cloud
C.Hybrid cloud
D.Community cloud
AnswerC

Hybrid cloud allows the company to keep some data on-premises while moving other data to the cloud, enabling a smooth migration with full data retention.

Why this answer

A hybrid cloud deployment combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services, allowing data migration while maintaining local access during the transition. This ensures existing emails can be retained and synchronized. A public-only or private-only model would not support the migration seamlessly.

964
MCQhard

A laptop's built-in webcam is not recognized by any application. You have checked Device Manager and the camera is not listed. The webcam ribbon cable appears intact. Which component should you suspect next?

A.The webcam driver is outdated.
B.The laptop's BIOS has the webcam disabled.
C.The webcam module or motherboard USB controller has failed.
D.The operating system needs to be reinstalled.
AnswerC

Complete absence from Device Manager suggests a hardware failure of the camera module or the motherboard's internal USB controller.

Why this answer

Since the webcam is not listed in Device Manager at all, the issue is at the hardware detection level, not the driver or software level. An intact ribbon cable suggests the webcam module itself or the motherboard's USB controller (which typically handles the internal webcam as a USB device) has failed, preventing enumeration. Option C correctly identifies this hardware failure as the next logical suspect.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a missing device in Device Manager is always a driver issue, when in fact it is a hardware detection failure that must be resolved before drivers can be considered.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a missing device in Device Manager indicates the operating system never detected the hardware, so a driver cannot be loaded or outdated—drivers only apply after enumeration. Option B is wrong because a BIOS-disabled webcam would still appear in Device Manager as a hidden or disabled device (often with a yellow exclamation mark), not be completely absent. Option D is wrong because reinstalling the operating system would not fix a hardware-level detection failure; the OS cannot enumerate a device that is not responding on the USB bus.

965
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop PC randomly shuts down when playing a graphically intensive game. The system has a 500W power supply, a high-end GPU, and a CPU with a 125W TDP. What is the most likely cause of the shutdowns?

A.The GPU is overheating due to poor case airflow.
B.The power supply is undersized for the system's peak power demands.
C.The motherboard's VRM is failing due to age.
D.The RAM is faulty causing memory errors during gaming.
AnswerB

A high-end GPU and CPU can draw more than 500W under load, causing the PSU to trip overcurrent protection or shut down. This is the most direct cause given the symptoms.

Why this answer

The random shutdowns under load suggest the power supply cannot deliver enough wattage to sustain peak power draw from the GPU and CPU. A 500W PSU may be insufficient for a high-end gaming system, causing voltage drops or thermal overload protection to trigger. Upgrading to a higher-wattage PSU with adequate +12V rail capacity would resolve the issue.

966
MCQmedium

A company uses a SaaS CRM application and wants to ensure that if the internet connection fails, employees can still access customer data. Which of the following is the best solution?

A.Set up a VPN to the cloud provider
B.Install a local server running the same CRM software
C.Configure the SaaS application to cache data locally on each user's device
D.Purchase a secondary internet connection from a different provider
AnswerC

Many SaaS applications offer offline caching, allowing users to access recently synced data without an internet connection.

Why this answer

SaaS applications are entirely dependent on internet connectivity. A local cached copy of the data can provide offline access. Other options like VPN or secondary internet are not practical for all employees, and a local server would require a different service model.

967
MCQeasy

After installing a new graphics card, a user's display shows distorted colors and random artifacts during boot. The system POSTs successfully. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor is incompatible with the new card
B.The graphics card driver is outdated
C.The power supply unit is insufficient for the new card
D.The display cable is loose
AnswerC

Inadequate power can cause unstable GPU operation, leading to artifacts and color distortion, especially under load.

Why this answer

Artifacts and color distortion after a new GPU install typically point to insufficient power delivery or a faulty card. Since the system POSTs, it's not a complete failure but likely a power or driver issue. The correct answer highlights that the power supply may not meet the card's requirements, causing instability.

968
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new all-in-one PC for a graphic designer. The designer needs to calibrate the display for accurate color reproduction. Which technology should the technician ensure the monitor supports?

A.TN panel with 144Hz refresh rate
B.IPS panel with high color gamut
C.VA panel with high contrast ratio
D.OLED panel with burn-in protection
AnswerB

IPS panels provide excellent color accuracy and wide viewing angles, essential for graphic design calibration.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B because an IPS (In-Plane Switching) panel with a high color gamut (e.g., sRGB, Adobe RGB, or DCI-P3 coverage) is essential for accurate color reproduction. IPS technology provides consistent color and brightness across wide viewing angles, which is critical for graphic design work where color fidelity is paramount. High color gamut ensures the display can reproduce a broader range of colors, meeting professional calibration standards.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse high refresh rate (144Hz) or high contrast ratio (VA) with color accuracy, but CompTIA A+ tests the specific requirement for graphic design: IPS panels are the industry standard for color-critical work due to their wide viewing angles and consistent color reproduction.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a TN (Twisted Nematic) panel, even with a 144Hz refresh rate, is designed for fast response times in gaming, not for color accuracy; TN panels typically have poor color reproduction and narrow viewing angles. Option C is wrong because a VA (Vertical Alignment) panel, while offering high contrast ratios for deep blacks, suffers from color shift at off-angles and lower color accuracy compared to IPS, making it unsuitable for precise color calibration. Option D is wrong because OLED panels, despite excellent color and contrast, are prone to burn-in over time, and the question asks for a technology that supports calibration for accurate color reproduction, not burn-in protection; IPS is the standard for color-critical work.

969
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop computer randomly shuts down when they run video editing software. The system has a high-end GPU and 32 GB of RAM. During troubleshooting, you notice the CPU temperature quickly rises to 95°C under load. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.Insufficient power supply wattage
B.Faulty RAM module
C.CPU cooler fan failure or poor thermal paste application
D.Outdated BIOS firmware
AnswerC

A failed cooler or dried thermal paste prevents heat dissipation, causing the CPU to overheat and trigger thermal shutdown.

Why this answer

Overheating is a common cause of random shutdowns, especially under heavy load. The CPU thermal protection mechanism triggers to prevent damage. This scenario tests the understanding of thermal management and its impact on system stability.

970
MCQmedium

A small business is moving to a new office and wants to connect all their computers, printers, and a server. They have a limited budget and need a simple, wired network that does not require internet access initially. Which network type should they implement?

A.Wide Area Network (WAN)
B.Local Area Network (LAN)
C.Personal Area Network (PAN)
D.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
AnswerB

A LAN is perfect for a single office, providing local connectivity for computers, printers, and servers.

Why this answer

A Local Area Network (LAN) is the correct choice because it connects devices within a single physical location, such as an office, using wired Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) and switches. It requires no internet access and is cost-effective for a small business with a limited budget, as it only needs basic hardware like a switch and Cat5e/Cat6 cabling.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse LAN and WAN by associating 'network' with internet access, overlooking that a LAN is sufficient for local connectivity without internet.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Wide Area Network (WAN) connects geographically dispersed locations (e.g., offices in different cities) using leased lines or internet links, which is overkill and expensive for a single office. Option C is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) covers a very short range (typically up to 10 meters) for personal devices like Bluetooth or USB, not for connecting multiple computers, printers, and a server in an office. Option D is wrong because a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) spans a city or large campus, requiring higher-cost infrastructure like fiber optics, which exceeds the small business's budget and scope.

971
MCQmedium

A school district with five elementary schools spread across a city needs to connect each school's LAN to a central data center for internet access and shared resources. Which network type should connect the schools to the data center?

A.Local Area Network (LAN)
B.Wide Area Network (WAN)
C.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
D.Personal Area Network (PAN)
AnswerC

A MAN is specifically designed to connect multiple sites within a metropolitan area, such as a school district's schools and data center.

Why this answer

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is designed to interconnect multiple LANs across a city or metropolitan region, typically using high-speed fiber optic links such as Metro Ethernet or SONET/SDH. This makes it the ideal choice for connecting five elementary schools spread across a city to a central data center, as it covers a larger geographic area than a LAN but is more localized than a WAN.

Exam trap

A common trap is confusing a MAN with a WAN because both connect multiple LANs, but the key differentiator is geographic scope: a MAN covers a city or metropolitan area, while a WAN covers larger regions like states or countries.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Local Area Network (LAN) is confined to a single building or campus and cannot span the distances required to connect schools across a city. Option B is wrong because a Wide Area Network (WAN) is used for connecting sites across large geographic areas such as states or countries, often using leased lines or MPLS, which is overkill and more expensive for a city-wide connection. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) covers only a few meters (e.g., Bluetooth or USB connections) and is unsuitable for connecting multiple school LANs to a data center.

972
MCQeasy

During a network upgrade, you need to identify which cable in a messy patch panel corresponds to a specific office wall jack. The cables are not labeled. Which tool should you use?

A.Cable tester
B.Toner probe
C.Multimeter
D.Loopback plug
AnswerB

A toner probe generates a tone on the cable that can be detected with a probe, enabling identification of the correct cable at the patch panel.

Why this answer

A toner probe (inductive amplifier and tone generator) is the correct tool for tracing an unlabeled cable from a patch panel to a specific wall jack. The tone generator injects a distinctive audio signal onto the wire pair, and the inductive probe detects that signal without requiring a direct electrical connection, allowing you to identify the correct cable even in a dense, messy bundle.

Exam trap

A common mistake on the CompTIA A+ exam is confusing a cable tester with a toner probe. The cable tester checks electrical continuity and wiring faults, not physical location, so candidates often incorrectly choose it for cable identification tasks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a cable tester verifies wiring continuity, pinout, and faults (e.g., opens, shorts, miswires) but cannot identify which physical cable corresponds to a specific endpoint in a bundle. Option C is wrong because a multimeter measures voltage, resistance, and continuity but cannot inject a traceable signal through a live network cable to identify it among many. Option D is wrong because a loopback plug is used to test a network interface by reflecting transmitted signals back to the sender, not for tracing or identifying cables.

973
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a RAID 5 array with three 1 TB HDDs on a motherboard RAID controller. After setup, the array works but the system occasionally freezes during heavy disk I/O. The drives are all SATA 3 Gb/s and the motherboard supports SATA 6 Gb/s. What is the most likely cause?

A.The SATA 3 Gb/s drives are bottlenecking the SATA 6 Gb/s controller.
B.The drives are overheating due to continuous I/O.
C.The RAID controller's firmware is outdated.
D.The stripe size is set too small.
AnswerB

RAID 5 with heavy I/O generates heat; if cooling is inadequate, drives can overheat and cause the system to freeze or throttle.

Why this answer

Mixing SATA speeds (3 Gb/s drives on a 6 Gb/s controller) is generally backward-compatible and should not cause freezes. The freezing during heavy I/O suggests a thermal issue, as RAID 5 rebuilds and heavy writes generate significant heat. Overheating can cause drives to throttle or the controller to lock up.

974
MCQhard

A user reports that their laser printer occasionally prints pages with a faint ghost image of the previous page. The ghost image appears about 2 inches below the current content. What is the most likely cause?

A.The toner cartridge is low
B.The fuser is overheating
C.The drum cleaning blade is worn
D.The paper is damp
AnswerC

A worn cleaning blade leaves toner on the drum, which transfers as a ghost image.

Why this answer

Ghosting in laser printers is often caused by a worn or damaged cleaning blade that fails to remove residual toner from the drum. The leftover toner transfers to the next page, creating a faint duplicate. Replacing the cleaning blade or drum unit usually fixes the problem.

975
MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new graphics card in a desktop PC. The card requires two 8-pin PCIe power connectors, but the power supply only has one 8-pin and one 6-pin connector. What is the best solution to power the card?

A.Use a 6+2 pin PCIe power cable on the 6-pin connector.
B.Use a Molex to 8-pin adapter on one of the connectors.
C.Plug the 6-pin connector into the 8-pin slot; it will work with reduced power.
D.Replace the power supply with one that has two 8-pin connectors.
AnswerA

A 6+2 pin cable is designed to be used as either a 6-pin or 8-pin, making it the correct solution.

Why this answer

The correct answer is A because a 6+2 pin PCIe power cable can be used to convert the 6-pin connector into an 8-pin by attaching the additional 2 pins. This tests understanding of modular power supply cables and PCIe power connector compatibility.

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