CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 301375

1020 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their home office devices—a laptop, printer, and smartphone—can communicate with each other but cannot access the internet. They have a single router provided by their ISP. Which network type is most likely being used for local communication?

A.Personal Area Network (PAN)
B.Local Area Network (LAN)
C.Wide Area Network (WAN)
D.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
AnswerB

A LAN connects devices within a home or office, enabling local communication, which matches the customer's description of devices talking to each other.

Why this answer

A Local Area Network (LAN) connects devices within a limited area, such as a home or office, allowing them to share resources like files and printers. The router creates a LAN for local communication, but internet access requires a properly configured WAN connection. The scenario describes a LAN issue, not a PAN (which is too short-range for a whole home) or a WAN/MAN.

302
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a mobile point-of-sale system for a small retail store. The tablet needs to be mounted on the counter and remain powered throughout the day. Which two accessories are essential for this deployment?

A.A rugged case and a Bluetooth keyboard.
B.A stand and a charging dock.
C.A screen protector and a stylus.
D.A portable battery pack and a car charger.
AnswerB

The stand provides a stable mount, and the charging dock ensures the tablet remains powered all day, which is essential for continuous operation.

Why this answer

A stand securely mounts the tablet on the counter at an ergonomic viewing angle, while a charging dock provides continuous power to keep the tablet operational throughout the day without battery depletion. These two accessories directly address the deployment requirements of fixed mounting and uninterrupted power for a stationary point-of-sale system.

Exam trap

In the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, candidates often confuse accessories that provide temporary power (like portable battery packs) with those that provide continuous, fixed power (like charging docks), leading them to overlook the 'remain powered throughout the day' requirement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a rugged case offers drop protection but does not mount the tablet or provide power, and a Bluetooth keyboard is unnecessary for a touchscreen-based POS system. Option C is wrong because a screen protector guards against scratches but does not mount or power the tablet, and a stylus is not essential for typical POS touch interactions. Option D is wrong because a portable battery pack provides temporary power but requires manual recharging and does not mount the tablet, and a car charger is designed for vehicle use, not for a countertop deployment.

303
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their internet connection drops frequently during rainstorms. They have a cable modem and a wireless router. What is the most likely cause of the intermittent connection?

A.The wireless router is overheating.
B.The cable modem's coaxial cable connection is compromised by moisture.
C.The DSL filter is malfunctioning.
D.The satellite dish is out of alignment.
AnswerB

Moisture in coaxial cable connections can cause intermittent signal loss, which is a known issue with cable internet during rain.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B because cable internet relies on a coaxial cable connection from the street to the modem. During rainstorms, moisture can seep into damaged or poorly sealed coaxial connectors or cable sheathing, causing signal attenuation or intermittent shorting that drops the connection. This is a classic symptom of RF signal degradation due to water ingress, which directly affects the physical layer (Layer 1) of the cable modem's link.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between cable modem (coaxial) and DSL (telephone line) technologies. The trap here is that candidates may confuse DSL filters with cable modem issues or incorrectly assume that rain only affects satellite or wireless signals, ignoring that coaxial cable is also vulnerable to moisture ingress.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because wireless router overheating would cause intermittent Wi-Fi disconnections, not the entire internet connection dropping, and it would not be correlated specifically with rainstorms. Option C is wrong because DSL filters are used only on DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) connections to separate voice and data frequencies; cable modems do not use DSL filters, so a malfunctioning DSL filter is irrelevant to a cable internet setup. Option D is wrong because a satellite dish out of alignment would cause signal loss during heavy rain (rain fade) but the question specifies a cable modem and wireless router, not a satellite dish; satellite internet uses a dish, not a cable modem.

304
MCQeasy

A technician is configuring a new SOHO router for a client who has a DSL internet connection. What type of cable will the technician use to connect the router to the wall jack?

A.Coaxial cable (RG-6)
B.Telephone cable (RJ-11)
C.Fiber optic cable
D.Ethernet cable (RJ-45)
AnswerB

DSL operates over standard telephone lines using RJ-11 connectors.

Why this answer

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) transmits data over standard copper telephone lines using frequencies above the voice band. The wall jack for DSL is a standard RJ-11 phone jack, so the technician must use a telephone cable with RJ-11 connectors to connect the router's DSL port to the wall jack.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between the WAN-side connection type (DSL requiring RJ-11) and the LAN-side connection type (Ethernet requiring RJ-45), causing candidates to mistakenly choose Ethernet cable because they think of the router's LAN ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because coaxial cable (RG-6) is used for cable internet (DOCSIS) or satellite connections, not for DSL. Option C is wrong because fiber optic cable is used for fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) connections, which require an optical network terminal (ONT) and a different type of router port. Option D is wrong because Ethernet cable (RJ-45) is used to connect a router to a modem or LAN devices, not to a DSL wall jack; the DSL port on a SOHO router is an RJ-11 port.

305
MCQmedium

A user’s laptop is connected to a Wi-Fi network with a strong signal, but the user cannot access any network resources. The IP configuration shows an address of 192.168.1.50 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. The technician pings the gateway successfully. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the Wi-Fi adapter.
B.Check the DNS server settings on the laptop.
C.Verify the SSID is correct.
D.Disable the firewall temporarily.
AnswerB

Successful gateway ping indicates layer 3 connectivity, so the problem is likely name resolution; incorrect DNS settings would prevent browsing.

Why this answer

Since the gateway is reachable, the issue is likely beyond the local network. DNS is the most common cause of being unable to access resources by name when basic connectivity exists. Checking DNS resolution is the logical next step.

306
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a network for a municipal government that needs to connect public Wi-Fi hotspots across a city, covering an area of about 50 square kilometers. The network must be secure and provide internet access to citizens. Which network type should be deployed?

A.Local Area Network (LAN)
B.Wide Area Network (WAN)
C.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
D.Personal Area Network (PAN)
AnswerC

A MAN is specifically built to cover a city-sized area, ideal for municipal Wi-Fi hotspots and secure internet access.

Why this answer

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is designed to cover a geographic area larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN, typically spanning a city or a large campus. For a municipal government connecting public Wi-Fi hotspots across 50 square kilometers, a MAN provides the necessary range and can utilize technologies like Metro Ethernet or fiber-optic rings to deliver secure, high-speed internet access to citizens.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a MAN with a WAN because both cover large areas, but a WAN is designed for inter-city or inter-country links, while a MAN is specifically optimized for a city-scale network, making it the correct choice for this scenario.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Local Area Network (LAN) is confined to a small area such as a single building or office, typically up to a few hundred meters, and cannot cover 50 square kilometers. Option B is wrong because a Wide Area Network (WAN) spans large geographical areas like countries or continents, often using leased lines or satellite links, which is overkill and not optimized for city-wide municipal connectivity. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) covers a very short range, usually within a few meters (e.g., Bluetooth or USB connections), and is unsuitable for city-wide Wi-Fi hotspots.

307
MCQmedium

A company uses VMware vSphere to run multiple VMs on a single ESXi host. A user reports that their VM suddenly lost network connectivity, but other VMs on the same host are working fine. The technician checks the virtual switch configuration and finds that the VM’s virtual NIC is connected to a port group that has no active uplinks. What should the technician do to restore connectivity?

A.Reboot the ESXi host to refresh the network stack.
B.Change the VM’s virtual NIC type from E1000 to VMXNET3.
C.Add a physical NIC to the port group as an active uplink.
D.Disable and re-enable the virtual switch.
AnswerC

Adding an uplink connects the port group to the physical network, allowing the VM to communicate externally. This directly addresses the root cause.

Why this answer

In virtualization, a port group defines network settings for VMs. If a port group has no active uplinks, VMs in that group cannot communicate outside the host. The correct answer involves either adding an uplink or moving the VM to a working port group.

This tests understanding of virtual networking components.

308
MCQeasy

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC that will not boot. The motherboard has a 24-pin ATX power connector and a 4-pin CPU power connector. The power supply has a 20+4 pin main connector and an 8-pin CPU connector. What is the correct way to connect the power supply?

A.Use the 20+4 pin connector as a 24-pin, and split the 8-pin CPU connector into a 4+4 pin to use only 4 pins.
B.Connect the 20-pin portion only and leave the 4-pin unconnected; use the 8-pin CPU connector as is.
C.Use the 20+4 pin as a 24-pin, and connect the 8-pin CPU connector to the 4-pin header by forcing it.
D.Replace the power supply with one that has a dedicated 24-pin and 4-pin connector.
AnswerA

This is the correct method; the 20+4 pin is designed to be combined, and the 8-pin CPU connector can be split to fit a 4-pin header.

Why this answer

The correct answer is A because the 20+4 pin connector can be used as a 24-pin by combining the 20-pin and 4-pin sections, and the 8-pin CPU connector can be split into a 4+4 pin to fit the 4-pin CPU power header. This tests understanding of modular power supply connectors and their flexibility.

309
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a PC that fails to boot and emits a series of long beeps. The motherboard documentation indicates this is a memory error. Which component on the motherboard is responsible for generating these beep codes?

A.CMOS battery
B.BIOS/UEFI chip
C.Chipset
D.Super I/O chip
AnswerB

The BIOS/UEFI firmware runs POST and outputs beep codes through the speaker to indicate hardware faults like memory errors.

Why this answer

The BIOS/UEFI firmware is responsible for the Power-On Self-Test (POST) and uses the speaker to emit beep codes to indicate hardware errors. The CMOS battery only retains settings, the chipset handles data flow, and the Super I/O manages I/O but not POST beep codes.

310
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a user's inability to reach a server at 172.16.50.100. The user's IP is 172.16.50.50 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. The technician runs a traceroute and sees the first hop is the gateway (172.16.50.1), but the second hop times out. What does this indicate?

A.The user's IP address is in the wrong subnet.
B.The server is powered off.
C.There is a routing problem between the gateway and the server.
D.The user's default gateway is incorrect.
AnswerC

The traceroute shows the user can reach the gateway, but the next hop fails, indicating a routing issue in the path to the server.

Why this answer

The traceroute shows that the first hop (the gateway at 172.16.50.1) responds, but the second hop times out. This indicates that the packet successfully leaves the user's subnet but fails to reach the server at 172.16.50.100, pointing to a routing issue beyond the local gateway. Since the user and server share the same subnet (172.16.50.0/24), the gateway should be able to forward traffic directly to the server; a timeout at the second hop suggests either a missing route on the gateway or an intermediate router dropping the packets.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between a local subnet issue (where the first hop fails) and a routing issue beyond the gateway (where the first hop succeeds but subsequent hops fail), leading candidates to incorrectly blame the user's IP configuration or the server's power state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the user's IP (172.16.50.50) and subnet mask (255.255.255.0) place it in the 172.16.50.0/24 subnet, which matches the server's IP (172.16.50.100), so there is no subnet mismatch. Option B is wrong because if the server were powered off, the traceroute would show a timeout at the final hop (the server itself), not at the second hop; the second hop timeout indicates a routing problem before reaching the server. Option D is wrong because the user's default gateway is 172.16.50.1, which is the correct gateway for the 172.16.50.0/24 subnet, and the first hop response confirms the gateway is reachable and functioning.

311
MCQeasy

A technician is configuring a new wireless router for a home office. The customer wants to ensure that guests can access the internet but cannot see other devices on the main network. Which feature should the technician enable on the router?

A.MAC address filtering
B.Port forwarding
C.Guest network
D.WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup)
AnswerC

Enabling a guest network creates a separate VLAN that isolates guest traffic, meeting the customer's requirement.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because enabling a guest network creates a separate SSID and VLAN (or subnet) that isolates guest traffic from the main LAN. This prevents guests from accessing local devices (e.g., printers, file shares) while still providing internet access through the router's NAT. The isolation is typically achieved via client isolation or AP isolation settings, ensuring Layer 2 separation between the guest and main networks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse MAC address filtering (which restricts access) with network isolation, or think WPS provides security features beyond simple connection convenience.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MAC address filtering only controls which devices can connect based on their MAC addresses; it does not isolate guest traffic from the main network. Option B is wrong because port forwarding directs external traffic to a specific internal device and does not provide network segmentation or guest isolation. Option D is wrong because WPS is a simplified method for connecting devices to Wi-Fi using a PIN or push button; it offers no network isolation or guest access controls.

312
MCQeasy

A customer wants to use their tablet as a secondary display for their laptop while traveling. They need a solution that does not require a Wi-Fi network. Which accessory should you recommend?

A.A Bluetooth keyboard and mouse set.
B.A USB-C to HDMI adapter.
C.A wireless display adapter like Miracast.
D.A portable battery pack.
AnswerB

This adapter connects the tablet to the laptop's video output, allowing the tablet to serve as a monitor via a wired HDMI connection, which does not rely on Wi-Fi.

Why this answer

A USB-C to HDMI adapter allows you to connect the tablet directly to the laptop via a wired video connection, enabling it to function as a secondary display without relying on any Wi-Fi network. This solution uses the DisplayPort Alt Mode over USB-C, which is a standard feature on many modern tablets and laptops, providing a stable, low-latency video signal.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that Miracast or other wireless display adapters do not require any network infrastructure, but they still use Wi-Fi Direct (a Wi-Fi-based protocol), which disqualifies them when the requirement explicitly states 'no Wi-Fi network'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Bluetooth keyboard and mouse set are input devices that do not provide any video output capability, so they cannot turn a tablet into a secondary display. Option C is wrong because a wireless display adapter like Miracast creates a direct peer-to-peer Wi-Fi connection, which still requires a Wi-Fi radio and is not a 'no Wi-Fi network' solution; it also introduces latency and potential compatibility issues. Option D is wrong because a portable battery pack only provides power and has no video signal transmission capability, making it irrelevant for extending a display.

313
MCQeasy

During a hardware install, you connect a new 4K monitor to a desktop PC using an HDMI cable. The display shows a 'No Signal' message. The PC boots normally and the monitor is powered on. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's refresh rate is set too high in the BIOS.
B.The HDMI cable is not rated for 4K bandwidth.
C.The PC's power supply is insufficient for the new monitor.
D.The monitor's input source is set to VGA instead of HDMI.
AnswerB

Standard HDMI cables may not support 4K; using a high-speed HDMI cable or a DisplayPort cable would resolve this.

Why this answer

The 'No Signal' error most commonly occurs because the HDMI cable lacks sufficient bandwidth to transmit the 4K signal. Many standard HDMI cables are only rated for lower resolutions. If the cable is not High Speed or Premium High Speed HDMI, it may not support 4K at the required refresh rate.

The PC boots normally, indicating the GPU is working. BIOS refresh rate settings are rarely used with modern monitors, and power supply is not a factor for monitor signal. Input source mismatch is possible, but if the user connected via HDMI, the monitor should automatically detect it.

314
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new network printer in a conference room. The printer has an RJ45 port for wired networking, but the only available wall jack is labeled with a different room number. The technician needs to connect the printer to the network. What is the best approach?

A.Connect the printer directly to the router using a long Ethernet cable
B.Use a tone generator and probe to trace the wall jack to the patch panel
C.Assume the jack is functional and connect the printer
D.Use a WiFi adapter for the printer instead
AnswerB

This tool allows the technician to identify which cable in the patch panel corresponds to the wall jack, enabling proper connection.

Why this answer

The wall jack may be connected to a different network drop. The technician should use a tone generator and probe to identify which port on the patch panel corresponds to that wall jack, ensuring correct connectivity.

315
MCQeasy

A small office uses a single public IP address for internet access. The network administrator wants internal web servers to be reachable from the internet on port 80. Which network service should be configured on the router to allow this?

A.DHCP
B.Port forwarding
C.DNS
D.VPN
AnswerB

Port forwarding maps an external port to an internal IP and port, enabling external access to internal services.

Why this answer

Port forwarding (option B) is the correct answer because it allows the router to translate incoming traffic on a specific public IP address and port (e.g., TCP 80) to a specific internal private IP address and port of the web server. This is a form of Destination NAT (DNAT) that enables external hosts to reach internal services when only a single public IP is available.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse DNS with port forwarding, thinking that DNS can direct traffic to internal servers, but DNS only resolves names to IP addresses and cannot change the destination port or translate private addresses.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (DHCP) is wrong because DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration to clients, but it does not translate or forward incoming internet traffic to internal servers. Option C (DNS) is wrong because DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses; it does not redirect or forward traffic to internal hosts behind a NAT router. Option D (VPN) is wrong because a VPN creates an encrypted tunnel for secure remote access to a private network, but it does not expose internal web servers to the general internet on port 80.

316
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a virtual machine to host a database server that requires consistent high disk I/O performance. The host uses a RAID 10 array of SSDs. Which virtual disk type should the technician select to minimize overhead and maximize performance?

A.Dynamically expanding virtual disk
B.Fixed-size virtual disk
C.Differencing virtual disk
D.Thin provisioned virtual disk
AnswerB

A fixed-size disk pre-allocates all space, resulting in contiguous blocks and lower I/O latency, ideal for high-performance databases.

Why this answer

A fixed-size virtual disk (also called thick provisioning) allocates all required space at creation, reducing fragmentation and I/O overhead compared to dynamically expanding disks. This is best for performance-sensitive workloads like databases.

317
MCQmedium

During a conference call, a user complains that their wireless earbuds keep disconnecting from their smartphone every few minutes. The earbuds work fine when paired with a different phone. What is the most likely cause?

A.The earbuds have a low battery.
B.The smartphone's Bluetooth driver is outdated.
C.Bluetooth interference from other devices in the conference room.
D.The earbuds are not compatible with the smartphone's Bluetooth version.
AnswerC

Conference rooms often have many wireless devices (phones, laptops, projectors) that can cause Bluetooth interference, leading to frequent disconnections.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because Bluetooth operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band, which is shared with Wi-Fi, cordless phones, and other wireless devices. In a conference room with many active devices, RF interference can cause packet loss or retransmission delays, leading the Bluetooth Adaptive Frequency Hopping (AFH) mechanism to fail to avoid all congested channels, resulting in periodic disconnections. The fact that the earbuds work fine with a different phone isolates the issue to the smartphone's environment rather than the earbuds themselves.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that Bluetooth disconnections are always due to driver or compatibility issues, but the trap here is that environmental interference (especially in a conference room with many devices) is the most likely cause when the earbuds work elsewhere.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because low battery in the earbuds would typically cause audio degradation, reduced range, or a single final disconnect, not repeated disconnections every few minutes; the earbuds work fine with another phone, ruling out a battery defect. Option B is wrong because an outdated Bluetooth driver would cause persistent pairing failures or inability to maintain any connection, not intermittent disconnects that occur only in a specific environment; the driver is the same regardless of location. Option D is wrong because Bluetooth is backward-compatible across versions (e.g., 4.0, 5.0, 5.2) for basic audio profiles like A2DP and HFP; if the earbuds were incompatible, they would not pair or function at all, and the user reports they work fine with a different phone.

318
MCQhard

A user complains that their computer with a 256 GB NVMe SSD is running out of storage space. They want to add more internal storage but only have one M.2 slot. What is the best solution to expand capacity without sacrificing performance?

A.Replace the NVMe SSD with a larger capacity NVMe SSD.
B.Install a SATA SSD in an available 2.5-inch drive bay.
C.Use an external USB SSD for additional storage.
D.Add a second M.2 drive using a PCIe adapter card.
AnswerA

This uses the single M.2 slot to upgrade capacity while keeping the fastest storage option.

Why this answer

Replacing the existing NVMe SSD with a larger capacity model is the most direct way to increase internal storage while maintaining NVMe performance. Adding a SATA SSD via a 2.5-inch bay is also viable but slower. External drives are not internal.

319
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where users can access the internet but cannot reach a specific internal web server by its hostname. Pinging the server's IP address works. What is the most likely issue?

A.The web server's firewall is blocking ICMP.
B.The DHCP server is not assigning correct IP addresses.
C.The DNS server does not have a record for the server's hostname.
D.The network switch is dropping packets to the server.
AnswerC

Correct. Missing DNS record prevents hostname resolution while IP works.

Why this answer

This question tests DNS resolution. If the IP works but the hostname does not, the problem is with DNS—either the server's A record is missing or the DNS server is not responding for that zone.

320
MCQhard

A technician is upgrading a server's storage and needs to connect multiple SATA SSDs. The motherboard has only four SATA ports, but the technician needs to connect six drives. Which connector solution should be used?

A.Use a Y-splitter cable on one SATA port to connect two drives.
B.Install a PCIe SATA controller card with extra ports.
C.Use eSATA to SATA adapters on the external ports.
D.Replace the motherboard with one that has six SATA ports.
AnswerB

A SATA controller card adds additional SATA ports via a PCIe slot, enabling connection of more drives.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B because a SATA expansion card adds additional SATA ports via a PCIe slot, allowing more drives to be connected. This tests knowledge of expansion cards and SATA controller limitations.

321
MCQmedium

A small office uses a network switch with 24 RJ45 ports to connect all workstations. The switch is connected to the router via a single uplink port. Users report intermittent network drops. The technician suspects a faulty cable between the switch and router. Which tool should be used to test the cable?

A.Tone generator and probe
B.Loopback plug
C.Cable tester
D.Multimeter
AnswerC

A cable tester checks for shorts, opens, and wiring errors in an Ethernet cable, confirming if the cable is faulty.

Why this answer

A cable tester verifies continuity, wiring, and signal integrity in Ethernet cables. This is the correct tool to diagnose a faulty physical connection between the switch and router.

322
MCQmedium

A technician is deploying a fleet of tablets for field workers. The tablets need to connect to a cellular network for data, but the company wants to minimize data usage. Which setting should the technician configure on each tablet?

A.Enable data saver mode.
B.Disable Wi-Fi.
C.Enable airplane mode.
D.Set the preferred network type to 5G.
AnswerA

Data saver mode restricts background data usage and can also limit foreground data for some apps, helping to minimize overall data consumption.

Why this answer

Enabling Data Saver mode restricts background data usage and limits non-essential app activity, directly reducing cellular data consumption. This is the most appropriate setting for field workers who need to stay connected but minimize data costs, as it works at the OS level to restrict background syncs and downloads without disabling connectivity.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between disabling connectivity (Airplane Mode) and reducing data usage (Data Saver), where candidates mistakenly choose Airplane Mode thinking it saves data, but it completely cuts off the required cellular connection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because disabling Wi-Fi does not reduce cellular data usage; it only prevents the tablet from using Wi-Fi networks, which could actually increase cellular data consumption if Wi-Fi was available. Option C is wrong because enabling Airplane Mode disables all wireless radios, including cellular, preventing any data connectivity at all, which defeats the requirement for the tablets to connect to a cellular network. Option D is wrong because setting the preferred network type to 5G does not minimize data usage; 5G may encourage higher data consumption due to faster speeds and does not inherently restrict background data or app behavior.

323
MCQhard

A technician is deploying a wireless network in a large warehouse with metal shelving. The goal is to provide seamless roaming for handheld scanners. Which technology should the technician implement to ensure clients quickly switch between access points without dropping connections?

A.Enable 802.11r (Fast Roaming) on the access points
B.Use a wireless mesh topology
C.Configure beamforming on each access point
D.Deploy MIMO antennas
AnswerA

802.11r reduces the time it takes for a client to authenticate when moving between APs, ensuring seamless roaming.

Why this answer

802.11r, also known as Fast BSS Transition or Fast Roaming, enables clients to authenticate and reassociate with a new access point using a cached PMK (Pairwise Master Key) from the initial full authentication, reducing the handshake process from four EAP frames to two. In a warehouse with metal shelving causing signal attenuation, this minimizes the time clients spend scanning and reconnecting, ensuring seamless roaming for handheld scanners without dropping connections.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between coverage-enhancing features (beamforming, MIMO, mesh) and roaming-optimization protocols (802.11r, 802.11k, 802.11v), leading candidates to confuse signal improvement with handoff speed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a wireless mesh topology extends coverage but does not inherently reduce roaming latency; mesh nodes can introduce additional hop delays and do not optimize the client handoff process. Option C is wrong because beamforming focuses RF energy toward specific clients to improve signal strength and throughput, but it does not address the authentication or reassociation delays that cause dropped connections during roaming. Option D is wrong because MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) antennas increase data rates and reliability through spatial multiplexing and diversity, but they have no direct effect on the speed or efficiency of client transitions between access points.

324
MCQmedium

During a network upgrade, a technician configures a new VoIP phone to use a dedicated VLAN for voice traffic. After connecting the phone to a switch port configured for voice VLAN, the phone powers on but cannot register with the call manager. The switch port is set to trunk mode. Which protocol is essential for the phone to obtain its VLAN assignment?

A.STP
B.LLDP
C.RSTP
D.GVRP
AnswerB

LLDP-MED allows the switch to advertise the voice VLAN to the phone.

Why this answer

Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is essential because it allows the switch to inform the VoIP phone of the configured voice VLAN ID. When a switch port is in trunk mode, the phone uses LLDP (specifically LLDP-MED) to learn which VLAN to tag its voice traffic with, enabling it to communicate with the call manager. Without LLDP, the phone would not know which VLAN to use and would fail to register.

Exam trap

A+ candidates often confuse LLDP-MED with other protocols that manage VLANs between switches, such as GVRP, leading them to select GVRP instead of LLDP for endpoint VLAN assignment.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) prevents loops in a network topology and does not provide VLAN assignment information to endpoints. Option C is wrong because RSTP is an enhancement of STP for faster convergence and also does not convey VLAN IDs to devices. Option D is wrong because VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) manages VLAN databases across switches but does not communicate VLAN assignments to end devices like VoIP phones.

325
MCQhard

A user reports that their inkjet printer produces output with horizontal white lines through text and images. The printer has been used heavily for months without maintenance. What should you do to resolve this issue?

A.Replace the fuser assembly
B.Perform a printhead alignment
C.Run the printer's printhead cleaning cycle
D.Replace the pickup rollers
AnswerC

This is the standard first step for clearing clogged nozzles. The cleaning cycle forces ink through the nozzles to remove blockages.

Why this answer

Horizontal white lines on inkjet output indicate clogged printhead nozzles. Over time, dried ink can block nozzles, preventing ink from being deposited. Running a printhead cleaning cycle uses the printer's built-in routine to clear clogs.

If that fails, a manual cleaning or replacement may be needed.

326
MCQmedium

A customer reports that after a recent fall, their smartphone's screen is completely black, but the device still vibrates when calls come in. The technician suspects the display cable is loose. What is the correct sequence of steps to access and reseat the display cable?

A.Remove the battery first, then the back cover, and reseat the display cable.
B.Remove the back cover, disconnect the battery, then reseat the display cable.
C.Reseat the display cable by inserting a spudger through the charging port.
D.Perform a factory reset to rule out software issues.
AnswerB

This is the correct sequence: back cover off, battery disconnected for safety, then reseat the display cable. It prevents short circuits and damage.

Why this answer

To access the display cable, the technician must first remove the back cover, then the battery (if not integrated), and disconnect the display cable from the motherboard. This sequence ensures safe access without risking a short circuit from a live battery. The display cable is typically a thin ribbon cable near the motherboard.

327
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new NAS with four 10 TB hard drives. The customer wants maximum usable capacity with fault tolerance for one drive failure. The technician sets up RAID 5, but after initialization, the usable capacity is only 10 TB instead of the expected 30 TB. What is the most likely cause?

A.One of the drives is defective and the array is using only three drives.
B.The array was accidentally configured as RAID 1 (mirroring) across two drives.
C.The drives are not all the same size; one is 5 TB.
D.The RAID controller is using a different stripe size.
AnswerB

Correct. RAID 1 with two drives yields 10 TB usable, matching the reported capacity.

Why this answer

RAID 5 with four drives of equal size should yield (n-1) * capacity = 30 TB. A 10 TB result suggests only two drives are being used, possibly due to a misconfiguration like RAID 1 or a stripe set of two drives. This tests RAID 5 capacity calculation and troubleshooting.

328
MCQhard

A company deploys a new 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) access point to support high-density environments. Some older laptops with 802.11ac adapters cannot connect, while newer Wi-Fi 6 laptops work fine. The SSID is broadcast and security is set to WPA2. What is the MOST likely cause?

A.The access point is set to 802.11ax-only mode.
B.The laptops have outdated firmware that does not support OFDMA.
C.The access point is configured to use WPA3 only.
D.The 5 GHz radio is disabled on the access point.
AnswerC

WPA3 is often enabled by default on Wi-Fi 6 APs; 802.11ac laptops may not support WPA3, causing connection failures.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because if the access point is configured to use WPA3 only, it will not accept WPA2 connections. Although the SSID is broadcast and security is set to WPA2, the AP enforces WPA3 for authentication, which older 802.11ac laptops do not support. Newer Wi-Fi 6 laptops support WPA3, so they connect successfully.

This security protocol mismatch is the most likely cause of the issue.

Exam trap

Candidates often assume that backward compatibility is automatic for all features, but here the trap is that candidates assume WPA2 is always supported on Wi-Fi 6 APs, overlooking that the security configuration can be set to WPA3-only, which breaks connectivity for older WPA2-only clients.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 802.11ax access points are backward compatible with 802.11ac clients by default; setting the AP to 'ax-only' mode would prevent all older clients from connecting, but the question says only some older laptops cannot connect, and newer Wi-Fi 6 laptops work fine, which would not be the case if the AP were in ax-only mode. Option B is wrong because OFDMA is a feature of 802.11ax that improves efficiency in high-density environments, but it is not required for basic connectivity; 802.11ac clients do not support OFDMA at all, yet they can still connect to an 802.11ax AP as long as they support the same security and channel settings. Option D is wrong because if the 5 GHz radio were disabled, all 5 GHz clients (including newer Wi-Fi 6 laptops) would fail to connect, but the question states newer laptops work fine; additionally, 802.11ac operates exclusively on 5 GHz, so disabling that radio would prevent all 802.11ac clients from connecting, not just some.

329
MCQmedium

A user reports that their computer randomly restarts when playing games. The technician suspects the CPU is overheating. Which tool should the technician use to monitor the CPU temperature under load?

A.Windows Task Manager
B.The BIOS/UEFI hardware monitor
C.A third-party utility like HWMonitor
D.Windows Event Viewer
AnswerC

HWMonitor logs CPU temperatures in real time, allowing the technician to see peak temperatures during gaming.

Why this answer

To diagnose overheating, a technician needs real-time temperature monitoring. A tool like HWMonitor or Core Temp provides accurate CPU temperature readings. BIOS/UEFI shows idle temps only, and Event Viewer logs crashes but not temperatures.

330
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop PC with a 1 TB HDD is running very slowly, especially when opening large files. They mention that the drive light is constantly active even when the system is idle. What is the most likely cause of this performance issue?

A.The CPU is overheating and throttling performance.
B.The hard disk drive is failing and has developed bad sectors.
C.The system has a virus that is encrypting files in the background.
D.The RAM is insufficient and the system is using the hard drive as virtual memory.
AnswerB

A failing HDD with bad sectors causes the drive to repeatedly attempt reads/writes, leading to constant activity and slow performance.

Why this answer

A failing HDD often causes constant drive activity and slow file access due to bad sectors or mechanical wear. This is a common symptom that technicians should recognize before data loss occurs. SSDs or other components do not typically exhibit this behavior.

331
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop can see multiple Wi-Fi networks but cannot connect to any of them. Other devices in the same location connect without issue. What is the most likely cause?

A.The laptop's wireless adapter is disabled in Device Manager.
B.The Wi-Fi router is out of range.
C.The laptop has an incorrect or outdated Wi-Fi password saved for the networks.
D.The laptop's Bluetooth is interfering with Wi-Fi.
AnswerC

A wrong password prevents authentication even if the network is visible; forgetting the network and re-entering the password often resolves this.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the laptop can see multiple Wi-Fi networks (indicating the wireless adapter is functional and scanning is successful) but fails to connect to any of them. This points to a common credential mismatch issue: if the saved password for a network is incorrect or outdated, the 4-way handshake (WPA2/WPA3) will fail, preventing association even though the SSID is visible. Other devices connecting successfully rules out router-side problems.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between the ability to scan/detect networks (Layer 2 passive/active scanning) and the ability to authenticate/associate (Layer 2 authentication handshake), leading candidates to incorrectly suspect hardware or interference issues when the real problem is credential mismatch.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the wireless adapter were disabled in Device Manager, the laptop would not see any Wi-Fi networks at all, as the adapter would be non-functional for scanning. Option B is wrong because the laptop can see multiple networks, which requires being within range of the router; being out of range would result in no visible networks. Option D is wrong because Bluetooth operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band and can cause interference that degrades throughput or causes disconnections, but it does not prevent initial association or the ability to see networks, and the scenario describes a complete inability to connect, not intermittent issues.

332
MCQmedium

A user reports that their wired desktop cannot connect to the network. The technician verifies the link light on the computer's NIC is off. Using a known-good patch cable does not resolve the issue. Which tool should be used to test the wall jack's wiring?

A.Cable tester
B.Tone generator and probe
C.Loopback plug
D.Multimeter
AnswerB

This tool set allows the technician to identify the specific cable at the patch panel and then test continuity, making it ideal for this scenario.

Why this answer

A tone generator and probe allow a technician to trace the wall jack back to the patch panel and verify continuity. Since the link light is off and a known-good cable didn't help, the issue may be in the wall jack or its termination, and tracing the cable is the next step.

333
MCQeasy

A company deploys a new multifunction printer that supports both USB and network connectivity. The printer is installed in a conference room and must be accessible to all employees on the same subnet. Which connection method should the technician use?

A.Connect the printer via USB to the nearest workstation
B.Connect the printer to the network using an Ethernet cable
C.Use a USB-to-Ethernet adapter
D.Enable Wi-Fi Direct on the printer
AnswerB

Ethernet provides network access, enabling any user on the subnet to print, scan, or use other functions.

Why this answer

This question assesses understanding of connectivity options for shared multifunction devices. A network connection (Ethernet) allows multiple users on the same subnet to access the printer simultaneously. USB is limited to a single directly connected computer.

334
MCQhard

A user reports that their multifunction printer makes a loud grinding noise when printing, and the output has vertical black streaks. The technician has already replaced the toner cartridge. What component is most likely failing?

A.The fuser assembly
B.The imaging drum
C.The pickup rollers
D.The transfer roller
AnswerB

A damaged or worn imaging drum can produce grinding sounds and vertical streaks, as it rotates and contacts the toner.

Why this answer

This question tests advanced troubleshooting of laser printer mechanical issues. The imaging drum is a common wear item that can cause grinding noises and vertical streaks when damaged. The fuser or pickup rollers would produce different symptoms.

335
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a high-performance workstation for scientific simulations that require large amounts of RAM. The motherboard has eight DDR4 slots and supports quad-channel memory. The technician installs four 16 GB sticks in the correct slots for quad-channel mode. After booting, the system reports 64 GB of RAM but only runs in dual-channel mode. What is the most likely cause?

A.The RAM sticks are not identical in speed and timings.
B.The motherboard BIOS needs to be configured to enable quad-channel mode.
C.The installed CPU only supports dual-channel memory.
D.The RAM is installed in the wrong slots for quad-channel operation.
AnswerC

The CPU's memory controller determines the maximum number of channels. A dual-channel CPU will only use two channels even if four sticks are installed, so the system will run in dual-channel mode.

Why this answer

Quad-channel memory requires a compatible CPU that supports quad-channel architecture. Most consumer CPUs (like Intel Core i7/i9) only support dual-channel, even if the motherboard has four slots. Server or HEDT (High-End Desktop) CPUs are needed for quad-channel.

336
MCQmedium

A user on a corporate iPhone cannot receive push notifications from the company's email app, even though notifications are enabled in the app settings. Other apps on the phone receive notifications normally. What should the technician check first?

A.Verify that the device is not in Do Not Disturb mode.
B.Check the notification settings for the email app in iOS Settings.
C.Reinstall the email app to reset its configuration.
D.Update the iPhone to the latest iOS version.
AnswerB

iOS has per-app notification toggles; if disabled at the system level, the app cannot show notifications even if enabled in-app.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the problem is isolated to a single app (the email app) while other apps receive notifications normally. This indicates the issue is not with the device's system-wide notification settings (like Do Not Disturb) but rather with the app-specific notification permissions within iOS Settings. The technician should first check the notification settings for the email app in iOS Settings to ensure that 'Allow Notifications' is toggled on and that the desired alert styles (e.g., banners, sounds, badges) are configured correctly, as these settings override any in-app notification preferences.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between app-specific settings and system-wide settings, trapping candidates who assume that enabling notifications within the app is sufficient without verifying the iOS Settings override.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Do Not Disturb mode affects all notifications system-wide, not just those from a single app; since other apps receive notifications normally, Do Not Disturb is not the cause. Option C is wrong because reinstalling the app is a more drastic step that should only be taken after verifying the notification settings in iOS Settings, as the issue is likely a misconfiguration in the OS-level permissions rather than a corrupted app configuration. Option D is wrong because updating the iOS version is a general troubleshooting step that addresses system-wide bugs, but the problem is isolated to one app and other apps work fine, making an iOS update unlikely to resolve the specific notification issue.

337
MCQmedium

A client wants to add a second internal hard drive to their desktop for additional storage, but all SATA ports on the motherboard are already used. What is the best solution?

A.Use a USB-to-SATA adapter and connect the drive externally.
B.Install a SATA expansion card into an available PCIe slot.
C.Replace the motherboard with one that has more SATA ports.
D.Use an external hard drive enclosure connected via USB.
AnswerB

This adds additional SATA ports internally, allowing the new drive to be installed inside the case.

Why this answer

An eSATA or SATA expansion card adds more SATA ports via a PCIe slot. USB adapters are slower, and replacing the motherboard is unnecessary. External enclosures are not internal.

338
MCQeasy

A technician is upgrading a client's laptop from 8 GB to 16 GB of RAM. After installing the new module, the laptop powers on but the screen remains black, and the system emits a series of short beeps. What is the most likely issue?

A.The new RAM module is incompatible with the laptop's chipset.
B.The RAM module is not fully seated in the slot.
C.The laptop's battery is dead.
D.The RAM is installed in the wrong orientation.
AnswerB

Improperly seated RAM is a common cause of boot failures with beep codes. Reseating the module usually resolves the issue.

Why this answer

A series of short beeps on a laptop usually indicates a memory failure, such as incompatible or improperly seated RAM. The most common cause is that the new RAM module is not fully inserted into the slot, causing a poor connection. The technician should reseat the module firmly until it clicks into place.

339
MCQmedium

A user reports that a virtual machine running on a workstation is extremely slow, especially during high I/O operations. The host has 16 GB of RAM, an SSD, and a quad-core CPU. The VM is configured with 8 GB RAM and 4 vCPUs. What is the most likely cause of the performance issue?

A.The host does not have enough RAM for the VM
B.The VM has too many virtual CPUs assigned
C.The SSD is too slow for virtualization
D.The VM is using a dynamic disk instead of a fixed-size disk
AnswerB

Assigning 4 vCPUs to a quad-core host can cause CPU scheduling overhead; reducing vCPUs to 2 often improves performance.

Why this answer

This question tests resource allocation awareness. Over-allocating vCPUs can cause contention as the hypervisor tries to schedule multiple virtual CPUs on limited physical cores, leading to performance degradation. The correct answer is to reduce the vCPU count.

340
MCQhard

A network engineer is designing a new data center and needs to connect multiple servers to a core switch with redundant paths. To prevent loops while allowing failover, which networking hardware feature should be implemented?

A.Enable Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) on the server connections.
B.Enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on all switches.
C.Use a hub instead of a switch for the core connection.
D.Configure all switch ports as access ports.
AnswerB

RSTP provides loop prevention and fast convergence in case of link failure, making it ideal for redundant network designs.

Why this answer

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) is the correct choice because it provides loop prevention in redundant switch topologies while offering faster convergence than classic STP. In a data center with multiple servers connected to a core switch via redundant paths, RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) ensures that only one active path exists at a time, blocking redundant links to prevent broadcast storms and MAC table instability, yet automatically unblocking them if the primary path fails.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that LACP or link aggregation alone can prevent loops, when in fact LACP requires a spanning tree protocol (like RSTP) to be active on the aggregated links to avoid Layer 2 loops in redundant topologies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) bundles multiple physical links into a single logical link to increase bandwidth and provide load balancing, but it does not prevent loops in a redundant topology — in fact, LACP itself can create loops if the aggregated links are part of a larger redundant network without a spanning tree protocol. Option C is wrong because using a hub instead of a switch for the core connection would create a single collision domain, severely degrade performance, and still not prevent loops; hubs simply repeat all traffic and do not perform any loop prevention. Option D is wrong because configuring all switch ports as access ports would force them into a single VLAN, eliminating VLAN segmentation and potentially causing Layer 2 loops if redundant paths exist, as access ports do not inherently block loops — spanning tree must still be enabled.

341
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a cloud-based virtual machine for a developer who needs to run a custom application that requires 16 GB of RAM and 4 vCPUs. The technician selects an instance type that meets these specs. After launching, the developer complains the application runs slowly. What is the most likely cause?

A.Insufficient storage IOPS
B.Network bandwidth throttling
C.Resource contention from other tenants
D.Incorrect operating system version
AnswerC

In a public cloud, multiple VMs share physical hardware; if neighbors are busy, your VM may not get full resources, causing slowdowns.

Why this answer

Cloud VMs often experience resource contention due to noisy neighbors in multi-tenant environments. Even if the instance type meets specs, performance can degrade if other tenants on the same physical host consume resources. The technician should check if the instance is on a shared host and consider dedicated instances.

342
MCQmedium

A user reports that their internet connection drops out frequently, especially during rainstorms. They have a dish mounted on their roof. Which connection type are they most likely using?

A.Fiber-optic
B.Cable broadband
C.Satellite
D.DSL
AnswerC

Satellite signals can be disrupted by heavy rain, known as rain fade.

Why this answer

Satellite internet (Option C) is the correct answer because the user's dish is mounted on the roof, and the connection drops out during rainstorms—a phenomenon known as 'rain fade.' Rain attenuates the Ku-band or Ka-band radio frequencies (typically 12–18 GHz or 26–40 GHz) used by satellite systems, causing signal loss. Fiber-optic, cable, and DSL are terrestrial connections that do not use a roof-mounted dish and are not significantly affected by rain.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between 'rain fade' affecting satellite connections versus other connection types that are weather-resistant, leading candidates to mistakenly choose cable or DSL because they associate 'dish' with TV rather than internet.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because fiber-optic uses glass strands and laser light, not a roof-mounted dish, and is immune to rain fade—rain does not attenuate light in buried or aerial fiber cables. Option B is wrong because cable broadband uses coaxial cable and RF signals over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) network; it does not require a dish and is not notably disrupted by rain, though it can suffer from signal ingress or noise. Option D is wrong because DSL operates over twisted-pair copper telephone lines and is distance-sensitive, not weather-sensitive; a roof-mounted dish is irrelevant to DSL technology.

343
MCQhard

A technician upgrades a PC from a traditional HDD to an NVMe SSD. After installation, the BIOS detects the SSD, but Windows does not appear in the boot menu. What should the technician do to resolve this?

A.Change the SATA mode from AHCI to IDE
B.Enable Legacy boot mode in BIOS
C.Set the BIOS to UEFI boot mode and ensure the SSD is GPT partitioned
D.Update the chipset drivers
AnswerC

NVMe SSDs require UEFI and GPT for booting; if the drive was cloned from an MBR HDD, it may need conversion or a fresh Windows install in UEFI mode.

Why this answer

When migrating from an HDD to an NVMe SSD, the BIOS may detect the drive but the boot configuration may be missing or incorrect. The solution is to ensure the boot mode is set to UEFI (not Legacy) and that the drive is formatted with GPT, as NVMe drives require UEFI to boot.

344
MCQmedium

You are building a new gaming PC and have installed a 750W 80+ Gold power supply. After connecting all components, the system powers on for a second then immediately shuts down. What is the most likely cause?

A.The power supply is underpowered for the components
B.A motherboard standoff is shorting the board to the case
C.The CPU fan is not connected
D.The power supply's voltage selector is set to 230V instead of 115V
AnswerB

An extra or missing standoff can create a short circuit, causing the PSU to immediately shut down to protect components.

Why this answer

A short circuit triggers the PSU's overcurrent protection, causing immediate shutdown. This is common if a motherboard standoff is missing or a screw is lodged under the board. Other causes like insufficient wattage or loose cables typically cause instability, not instant shutdown.

345
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a remote desktop solution for a user who needs to access their Windows workstation from home. Which port must be forwarded on the router for RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)?

A.22
B.3389
C.5900
D.443
AnswerB

Port 3389 is the default port for RDP, used for remote desktop connections to Windows.

Why this answer

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389 by default to establish a graphical interface connection to a Windows workstation. Forwarding this port on the home router allows the technician to route incoming RDP traffic from the internet to the specific internal IP address of the target Windows machine, enabling remote access.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between RDP (port 3389) and VNC (port 5900). Candidates may confuse these two common remote desktop protocols since both provide graphical remote access but use different default ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell) for secure command-line access, typically on Linux/Unix systems, not for Windows RDP. Option C is wrong because port 5900 is the default port for VNC (Virtual Network Computing), a different remote desktop protocol that is not native to Windows. Option D is wrong because port 443 is used by HTTPS (HTTP over TLS/SSL) for secure web traffic, not for RDP connections.

346
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a network where one workstation intermittently loses connectivity. The cable run is 85 meters and passes through a conduit with several sharp bends. The cable tester shows intermittent shorts. Which cabling issue is most likely?

A.The cable is too long for the network standard.
B.The cable is being pinched or crushed in the conduit.
C.The cable is unshielded and picking up EMI.
D.The cable is a flat patch cable used for a permanent run.
AnswerB

Sharp bends or crushing can damage the cable's internal conductors, causing intermittent shorts.

Why this answer

The cable tester indicates intermittent shorts, which are classic symptoms of physical damage to the cable. The 85-meter run with sharp bends in the conduit creates a high risk of the cable being pinched or crushed, leading to conductor contact or insulation breakdown. This physical stress causes intermittent connectivity issues, not a length or interference problem.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ exams often test the distinction between length-related attenuation and physical damage symptoms, so the trap here is that candidates see '85 meters' and immediately assume a length violation, ignoring the intermittent shorts and sharp bends that indicate a physical crush.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the maximum length for a twisted-pair Ethernet segment (e.g., 100BASE-TX) is 100 meters, and 85 meters is well within that limit, so length alone is not the cause. Option C is wrong because EMI from unshielded cable typically causes CRC errors or packet loss, not intermittent shorts detected by a cable tester; shorts are a physical fault, not an interference issue. Option D is wrong because while flat patch cables are not recommended for permanent runs due to lack of strain relief and potential for damage, the tester's intermittent shorts point to a physical pinch or crush in the conduit, not the cable type itself.

347
MCQeasy

A user cannot connect to a remote server using RDP. The network team confirms that the firewall allows outbound traffic on all ports. Which port is typically used for RDP and should be verified on the server side?

A.Port 22
B.Port 3389
C.Port 23
D.Port 5900
AnswerB

Port 3389 is the default port for Remote Desktop Protocol.

Why this answer

RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) uses TCP port 3389 by default. Since the firewall allows outbound traffic on all ports, the issue is likely that the server-side firewall or the RDP service is not listening on port 3389, or the port is blocked inbound on the server's firewall. Verifying that port 3389 is open and the RDP service is running on the server is the correct next step.

Exam trap

The A+ exam often tests default port numbers for common protocols, and the trap here is that candidates confuse RDP with VNC (port 5900) or SSH (port 22), especially when the question mentions 'remote server' without specifying the protocol.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), not RDP. Option C is wrong because port 23 is used for Telnet, an unencrypted remote access protocol, not RDP. Option D is wrong because port 5900 is used for VNC (Virtual Network Computing), a different remote desktop protocol, not RDP.

348
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a network monitoring tool that uses SNMP to query network devices. Which two ports should be allowed for SNMP communication?

A.Port 22 and 23
B.Port 80 and 443
C.Port 161 and 162
D.Port 67 and 68
AnswerC

Port 161 is for SNMP queries and port 162 for SNMP traps.

Why this answer

SNMP uses UDP port 161 for sending queries and receiving responses between the manager and agents, and UDP port 162 for the agent to send unsolicited traps or informs to the manager. These two ports must be allowed through firewalls for proper SNMP communication.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistakenly think SNMP uses a single port or confuse it with other management protocols like SSH or HTTP. Remember that SNMP uses UDP port 161 for queries and responses, and UDP port 162 for traps.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 22 is used for SSH and port 23 for Telnet, which are remote administration protocols, not SNMP. Option B is wrong because port 80 is used for HTTP and port 443 for HTTPS, which are web traffic protocols, not SNMP. Option D is wrong because port 67 and 68 are used for DHCP (server and client respectively), not SNMP.

349
MCQeasy

A technician is installing a new network-connected laser printer in a conference room. After connecting the Ethernet cable and power, the printer's control panel shows an IP address of 169.254.3.18. What is the most likely issue?

A.The printer is configured with a static IP address.
B.The printer's Ethernet cable is faulty or not connected properly.
C.The printer's toner cartridge is empty.
D.The printer's firmware needs to be updated.
AnswerB

A poor connection prevents DHCP communication, causing the printer to use APIPA.

Why this answer

An IP address starting with 169.254 indicates the printer failed to obtain an address from a DHCP server and assigned itself an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. The network connection or DHCP server should be checked.

350
MCQeasy

A small office experiences intermittent Wi-Fi drops on laptops but not on desktops connected via Ethernet. The wireless network uses 2.4 GHz. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A.The access point is overheating.
B.A microwave oven is operating near the access point.
C.The laptops have outdated Bluetooth drivers.
D.The Ethernet switch is failing.
AnswerB

Microwave ovens operate at 2.4 GHz and can cause significant interference, leading to intermittent drops on Wi-Fi but not on wired connections.

Why this answer

Microwave ovens operate at approximately 2.45 GHz, which falls within the 2.4 GHz ISM band used by Wi-Fi. When a microwave is running near an access point, it generates strong electromagnetic interference that can cause intermittent signal degradation or drops, affecting wireless clients like laptops but not wired desktops.

Exam trap

A common pitfall in CompTIA A+ is to attribute intermittent wireless drops to driver or configuration issues, but the key clue is that only wireless clients are affected while wired desktops work fine. This points to RF interference, such as from a microwave oven operating in the 2.4 GHz band.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because overheating typically causes the access point to throttle performance or shut down entirely, not cause intermittent drops only on wireless clients while wired connections remain stable. Option C is wrong because outdated Bluetooth drivers affect Bluetooth functionality, not Wi-Fi connectivity; Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are separate radios even if they share the 2.4 GHz band. Option D is wrong because a failing Ethernet switch would affect all devices connected via Ethernet, including desktops, but the issue is isolated to wireless laptops.

351
MCQmedium

A user's PC randomly restarts during heavy workloads, such as video rendering. The CPU temperature reads 95°C under load. The heatsink fan is spinning, but the thermal paste appears dry and cracked. What is the most effective first step?

A.Replace the CPU fan with a higher RPM model.
B.Apply new thermal paste between the CPU and heatsink.
C.Underclock the CPU in BIOS.
D.Add an additional case fan.
AnswerB

Correct; dry, cracked thermal paste loses its ability to conduct heat, so reapplying it is the most effective fix.

Why this answer

High CPU temperatures under load with dry thermal paste indicate poor heat transfer. Replacing the thermal paste is the most direct and effective solution, as it restores proper thermal conductivity between the CPU and heatsink.

352
MCQmedium

A technician is upgrading a client's older PC from 8 GB to 16 GB of DDR3 RAM. After installing the new modules, the system boots but only recognizes 8 GB in the BIOS and Windows. The technician has tried reseating the RAM and swapping slots. What should the technician check next?

A.Update the motherboard BIOS to the latest version.
B.Check if the motherboard supports 16 GB of RAM.
C.Verify that the operating system is 64-bit.
D.Test each RAM module individually in a known working system.
AnswerB

Correct. The BIOS detecting only 8 GB indicates a hardware limitation. Checking the motherboard's maximum supported RAM is the next logical step.

Why this answer

Since the BIOS also reports only 8 GB, the issue is hardware-related, not an OS limitation. The most likely cause is that the motherboard or CPU does not support 16 GB of RAM. The technician should check the system's maximum supported RAM and the compatibility of the new modules.

353
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their Android smartphone's screen remains black when they press the power button, but the device vibrates when receiving calls. They have already tried a force restart by holding Power+Volume Down for 15 seconds. What should you do next to isolate the issue?

A.Replace the battery immediately.
B.Connect the phone to a known-good external monitor via USB-C to test video output.
C.Perform a factory reset from recovery mode.
D.Reinstall the operating system using a PC.
AnswerB

If the external display shows content, the phone's internal display or its connector is faulty. This isolates the issue to the display assembly.

Why this answer

This scenario points to a display or backlight failure, not a total system crash. The device is operational (vibrates), so the problem is likely with the LCD, backlight, or display cable. Testing with an external display or checking for physical damage is the logical next step.

354
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their smartphone connects to Wi-Fi at home but cannot connect to the corporate Wi-Fi network at their office. The office uses WPA2-Enterprise with 802.1X authentication. What is the most likely reason for the connectivity failure?

A.The phone's Wi-Fi antenna is damaged.
B.The corporate network requires a different security protocol like WEP.
C.The phone does not have the correct 802.1X credentials configured for the corporate SSID.
D.The phone is out of range of the corporate access point.
AnswerC

WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication, which requires a username/password or certificate, unlike the home PSK.

Why this answer

The corporate network uses WPA2-Enterprise with 802.1X authentication, which requires the smartphone to have the correct 802.1X credentials (e.g., username/password or certificate) configured for that specific SSID. Without these credentials, the phone cannot complete the EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) handshake with the RADIUS server, even though it can connect to a home WPA2-Personal network. Option C directly addresses this missing configuration.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between home (WPA2-Personal) and enterprise (WPA2-Enterprise) authentication, and the trap here is that candidates assume any Wi-Fi connection failure is due to range or hardware, overlooking the credential configuration requirement for 802.1X.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a damaged Wi-Fi antenna would prevent connection to any Wi-Fi network, not just the corporate one, and the phone works fine at home. Option B is wrong because WEP is an outdated, insecure protocol and is not used in modern corporate environments; the network uses WPA2-Enterprise, which is more secure and not interchangeable with WEP. Option D is wrong because if the phone were out of range, it would not see the corporate SSID at all, but the user reports it cannot connect, implying the SSID is visible but authentication fails.

355
MCQeasy

A user complains that their LCD monitor has a persistent dark spot in the center of the screen that does not change with different images. What is the most likely issue?

A.The monitor's backlight is failing.
B.There is a stuck pixel.
C.The graphics card is overheating.
D.The video cable is loose.
AnswerB

A stuck pixel appears as a constant dark or bright spot. It is a hardware defect where the pixel's transistor is stuck in one state.

Why this answer

This scenario describes a stuck or dead pixel, a common LCD defect. A dark spot that remains constant indicates a pixel that is not receiving power or is stuck in the off state. This is a hardware defect, not a software or connection issue.

356
MCQhard

A technician is upgrading a workstation from a dual-core CPU to a quad-core CPU. After installation, the system boots but only shows two cores in the operating system. The technician has already verified the CPU is properly seated. What is the most likely cause?

A.The CPU is counterfeit and only has two functional cores
B.The operating system is limited to two cores due to licensing
C.The motherboard BIOS is outdated and does not fully support the new CPU
D.The CPU cooler is too tight, causing physical damage to the CPU
AnswerC

An outdated BIOS can cause the system to misidentify the CPU, often detecting fewer cores. Updating the BIOS typically resolves this.

Why this answer

If the OS only detects half the cores, the CPU might be faulty, but a more common cause is that the motherboard's BIOS needs an update to support the new CPU's full feature set. Older BIOS versions may not recognize all cores.

357
MCQmedium

A user reports that their monitor displays a 'No Signal' message when they turn on their computer. The monitor is connected via DisplayPort. The technician checks that the monitor is powered on and the cable is secure. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the monitor.
B.Check the input source setting on the monitor.
C.Try a different DisplayPort cable or port on the GPU.
D.Update the graphics driver.
AnswerC

A faulty cable or port can cause a 'No Signal' error. Trying a different cable or port is a standard troubleshooting step.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the 'No Signal' message with a DisplayPort connection typically indicates a loss of link training between the GPU and monitor. Since the cable is secure and the monitor is powered on, the next logical step is to isolate whether the issue is with the cable or the GPU port by trying an alternative DisplayPort cable or a different port on the GPU. This is a standard hardware troubleshooting step before moving to driver or replacement actions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often jump to checking the input source (Option B) because it is a common fix for HDMI connections, but DisplayPort's automatic source detection makes that step less relevant, and the correct next step is to test the cable or port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the monitor is premature and wasteful; the issue is more likely with the cable, port, or signal path, not the monitor itself. Option B is wrong because while checking the input source is valid for HDMI or VGA, DisplayPort uses automatic source detection and link training, so a manual input source mismatch is rare and not the next best step after verifying power and cable security. Option D is wrong because updating the graphics driver is a software-level fix that assumes the system is booting and the OS is loaded, but a 'No Signal' message at power-on occurs before the OS loads, so driver updates cannot resolve a hardware link failure.

358
MCQhard

A user reports that their laptop's built-in display shows a dim image that is barely visible even at maximum brightness. An external monitor works perfectly. The laptop uses an LED-backlit screen. What component is most likely failing?

A.The LCD panel is defective.
B.The inverter board is failing.
C.The backlight LED driver is failing.
D.The graphics card is outputting a low signal.
AnswerC

The LED driver provides power to the backlight LEDs. If it fails, the backlight dims or turns off, making the screen very dim even though the LCD is still receiving signal.

Why this answer

A dim display on a laptop with a working external monitor points to a backlight issue. In LED-backlit screens, the backlight is driven by an LED driver circuit on the display or motherboard. A failing backlight or its driver causes dimness while the LCD panel itself may still function.

359
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a tablet for field workers who need to transfer large files to a central server. The tablet has a USB-C port. Which connection method provides the fastest data transfer speed?

A.Bluetooth 5.0
B.Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac)
C.USB 3.1 Gen 2 over USB-C
D.NFC
AnswerC

USB 3.1 Gen 2 supports up to 10 Gbps, making it the fastest widely available wired connection for file transfers.

Why this answer

USB 3.1 Gen 2 over USB-C supports a maximum signaling rate of 10 Gbps, which is significantly faster than any wireless or NFC option. For transferring large files to a central server, this wired connection provides the highest throughput and lowest latency, making it the optimal choice for the scenario.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) is faster than wired USB connections, but the trap here is that even the fastest Wi-Fi 5 speeds (1.3 Gbps theoretical) are still far slower than USB 3.1 Gen 2's 10 Gbps, and real-world Wi-Fi throughput is even lower due to overhead and interference.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Bluetooth 5.0 has a maximum data transfer speed of only 2 Mbps (up to 50 Mbps in Bluetooth 5.2 with LE Audio enhancements, but still far slower than USB 3.1 Gen 2). Option B is wrong because Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) offers theoretical speeds up to 1.3 Gbps in ideal conditions, but real-world throughput is often lower due to interference and overhead, and it is still slower than the 10 Gbps of USB 3.1 Gen 2. Option D is wrong because NFC (Near Field Communication) operates at a maximum data rate of 424 kbps, which is orders of magnitude too slow for transferring large files.

360
MCQeasy

A small office uses a legacy 2.4 GHz wireless b/g router. Employees report frequent disconnects and slow speeds, especially when the microwave is used in the break room. Which change would most directly reduce interference in this scenario?

A.Enable WPA3 encryption on the router.
B.Upgrade to a dual-band router and connect clients to the 5 GHz SSID.
C.Increase the router's transmit power to maximum.
D.Change the 2.4 GHz channel from 6 to 11.
AnswerB

5 GHz is less congested and not affected by microwave interference, directly solving the problem.

Why this answer

The legacy 2.4 GHz router operates in the same frequency band as microwave ovens, which emit broadband interference around 2.45 GHz. Upgrading to a dual-band router and moving clients to the 5 GHz SSID directly avoids this interference because 5 GHz is not affected by microwave emissions, providing a cleaner RF environment and more available channels.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ exams often test the misconception that changing channels or increasing power can solve interference from non-Wi-Fi sources, when in fact the only effective solution is to move to a different frequency band (5 GHz) that is not affected by the interferer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WPA3 encryption improves security, not RF interference; it does not address the frequency overlap with microwave ovens. Option C is wrong because increasing transmit power can actually worsen co-channel interference and does not mitigate the broadband noise from the microwave; it may also cause clients to stay connected to a noisy signal longer. Option D is wrong because changing from channel 6 to 11 only shifts the operating frequency within the 2.4 GHz band, but microwave interference spans the entire 2.4–2.5 GHz range, so it will still cause disruption on any 2.4 GHz channel.

361
MCQmedium

A customer complains that their Wi-Fi signal is weak in a specific conference room. You need to measure the signal strength and identify potential interference sources. Which tool is best suited for this task?

A.Spectrum analyzer
B.Wi-Fi analyzer
C.Cable tester
D.Multimeter
AnswerB

A Wi-Fi analyzer provides signal strength readings, channel overlap information, and can help identify sources of interference like other access points or devices.

Why this answer

A Wi-Fi analyzer (Option B) is specifically designed to measure wireless signal strength (RSSI) and identify interference sources such as overlapping channels, co-channel interference, or non-Wi-Fi devices (e.g., Bluetooth, microwave ovens) by displaying real-time spectrum usage and channel utilization. This tool provides the granularity needed to diagnose weak signal in a specific area, unlike generic tools that lack wireless analysis capabilities.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between a spectrum analyzer and a Wi-Fi analyzer, trapping candidates who think a spectrum analyzer is the best choice for basic signal strength measurement, when in fact a Wi-Fi analyzer is the correct field tool for this specific task.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a spectrum analyzer, while capable of measuring RF energy across frequencies, is a more advanced and expensive tool typically used for deep RF analysis (e.g., identifying non-Wi-Fi interference like analog video transmitters) and is overkill for basic signal strength measurement; a Wi-Fi analyzer is the standard field tool for this task. Option C is wrong because a cable tester is used to verify physical cabling (e.g., continuity, wiring faults, or length) and cannot measure wireless signal strength or detect RF interference. Option D is wrong because a multimeter measures electrical properties like voltage, current, and resistance, and has no capability to detect or analyze Wi-Fi signals or interference sources.

362
MCQhard

A technician is installing a new server in a data center and needs to connect it to a 10GbE switch. The server has an SFP+ port, and the switch also has SFP+ ports. The technician has a selection of cables: Cat6a, Cat7, multimode fiber with LC connectors, and single-mode fiber with SC connectors. Which cable should the technician use?

A.Cat6a cable with RJ45 connectors.
B.Cat7 cable with RJ45 connectors.
C.Multimode fiber patch cable with LC connectors.
D.Single-mode fiber patch cable with SC connectors.
AnswerC

Multimode fiber with LC connectors is standard for SFP+ 10GbE connections in data centers, offering reliable performance.

Why this answer

This question tests knowledge of 10GbE connectivity options. The correct answer is multimode fiber with LC connectors, as SFP+ ports typically use fiber or DAC cables, and multimode fiber with LC is common for short-range 10GbE in data centers.

363
MCQmedium

A user reports that their computer is connected to the network but cannot access any websites. The technician checks the IP configuration and sees an IP address of 169.254.1.5. What does this indicate?

A.The computer has a valid static IP address.
B.The DNS server is not responding.
C.The DHCP server is unavailable or the computer cannot reach it.
D.The network cable is unplugged.
AnswerC

APIPA is assigned when DHCP fails, so the computer cannot get a routable IP, preventing internet access.

Why this answer

An IP address in the 169.254.x.x range is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned when a DHCP server is unreachable. This means the computer failed to get a valid IP from DHCP, so it cannot communicate beyond the local link.

364
MCQeasy

A customer complains that their LCD monitor has a persistent faint shadow of the previous image visible on the screen, even after changing applications. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.A failing backlight inverter
B.Image persistence due to static content
C.A damaged video cable
D.Incorrect color calibration settings
AnswerB

Prolonged display of static images can cause temporary or permanent ghosting on LCD panels.

Why this answer

This describes image persistence or burn-in, common in LCD panels left on static images for extended periods. Unlike dead pixels or backlight issues, this is a temporary or permanent ghosting of static content. The correct answer identifies the root cause as static image retention, which can sometimes be reversed with screen refreshers.

365
MCQmedium

After updating the firmware on a workstation, the system fails to boot and displays a 'Boot Device Not Found' error. The hard drive is detected in UEFI settings. What is the most likely cause?

A.The hard drive has failed due to the update
B.Secure Boot is blocking the bootloader
C.The boot mode changed from Legacy to UEFI (or vice versa)
D.The CMOS battery needs replacement
AnswerC

A firmware update can reset the boot mode, making the existing partition table (MBR vs GPT) incompatible.

Why this answer

A firmware update can reset UEFI settings to defaults, including boot mode. If the drive was formatted for Legacy (CSM) but the system now defaults to UEFI, or vice versa, the bootloader won't be found. This tests understanding of boot mode compatibility.

366
MCQeasy

A technician is configuring a company-issued Android tablet for a field worker. The worker needs to use a specific business app that requires location access to log job sites. What should the technician do to ensure the app works correctly?

A.Disable location services to save battery.
B.Grant the location permission when the app requests it.
C.Install a third-party location spoofing app.
D.Set the tablet to Airplane mode to prevent network interference.
AnswerB

Granting the required permission allows the app to access location data as needed.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of mobile app permissions. For an app that needs location data to function, the technician must grant the location permission when prompted or via settings. Denying or ignoring the permission will prevent the app from accessing location services, leading to malfunction.

367
MCQhard

A network administrator needs to connect two switches that are 200 meters apart. The connection must support 1 Gbps speed. The administrator has Cat5e cable available. However, Cat5e is only rated for 100 meters at 1 Gbps. Which device can be used to extend the distance without replacing the cable?

A.Media converter
B.Network extender (repeater)
C.PoE injector
D.Load balancer
AnswerB

A network extender regenerates the signal, allowing the 200-meter run to be broken into two segments within the 100-meter limit.

Why this answer

A network extender (repeater) regenerates the electrical signal, allowing a Cat5e segment to exceed the 100-meter distance limitation while maintaining 1 Gbps speed. Since the administrator already has Cat5e cable and only needs to extend the reach, a repeater operates at Layer 1 to boost the signal without replacing the cable.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that a media converter can extend the distance of a copper Ethernet segment, but a media converter only changes the physical connector type (e.g., RJ45 to SFP) and does not regenerate the signal. The trap is confusing physical layer conversion with signal regeneration, which is only provided by a repeater or network extender.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a media converter changes the physical medium (e.g., copper to fiber) but does not inherently extend the distance of a copper cable beyond its rated limit; it would require fiber to achieve longer distances. Option C is wrong because a PoE injector adds power to the cable for devices like IP cameras or phones, but it does not regenerate or amplify the data signal to overcome the 100-meter distance limitation. Option D is wrong because a load balancer distributes network traffic across multiple links or servers for redundancy or performance, and it has no function in extending the physical reach of a single cable segment.

368
MCQmedium

A user complains that their VoIP phone intermittently loses audio during calls. The phone is connected to a PoE switch. The technician checks the switch and sees that the port's PoE power budget is at 95% capacity. What is the most likely cause of the audio drops?

A.The Ethernet cable is too long, causing signal attenuation.
B.The VoIP phone is faulty and needs replacement.
C.The switch is power-cycling the phone due to PoE power budget constraints.
D.The switch port is configured with a VLAN mismatch.
AnswerC

When the PoE power budget is near capacity, the switch may prioritize power delivery and occasionally drop power to lower-priority devices, causing the phone to reset and drop audio.

Why this answer

When a PoE switch's power budget reaches 95% capacity, it may begin to prioritize power delivery, potentially power-cycling lower-priority devices like VoIP phones to free up power for critical devices. This intermittent power loss causes the audio drops, as the phone reboots or loses power momentarily. The issue is directly tied to PoE power management, not cable length, hardware faults, or VLAN configuration.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that PoE power budget issues only cause devices to fail to power on, not intermittent behavior like audio drops during calls, leading candidates to incorrectly choose cable length or VLAN mismatch.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because signal attenuation from a long Ethernet cable would cause persistent connectivity issues or packet loss, not intermittent audio drops specifically tied to PoE power constraints; the maximum cable length for Ethernet is 100 meters, and attenuation affects data signals, not power delivery. Option B is wrong because a faulty VoIP phone would typically exhibit consistent failure or static issues, not intermittent audio drops that correlate with the switch's PoE power budget being near capacity; the phone is likely functional but being deprioritized. Option D is wrong because a VLAN mismatch would prevent the phone from registering or communicating on the network entirely, not cause intermittent audio drops during calls; it would result in no connectivity or persistent call failures.

369
MCQeasy

A small office has several desktop PCs that are experiencing intermittent blue screen errors, especially when running multiple applications. The IT support team suspects faulty RAM. Which tool should they use to test the memory modules?

A.Task Manager.
B.Windows Memory Diagnostic.
C.CHKDSK.
D.System Configuration (msconfig).
AnswerB

This tool is designed specifically to test RAM for errors and is built into Windows, making it a convenient choice for initial diagnosis.

Why this answer

Windows Memory Diagnostic is a built-in tool in Windows that performs a thorough test of installed RAM to detect errors. It can be run from the boot menu or within Windows and is the standard first step for diagnosing memory issues. Other tools like MemTest86 are also common, but Windows Memory Diagnostic is readily available without additional downloads.

370
MCQeasy

A technician is troubleshooting a VM that fails to boot with an error 'Operating system not found'. The VM was just created from an ISO file. What is the most likely cause?

A.The ISO file is corrupted
B.The VM's boot order is set to hard disk first, and the hard disk is empty
C.The VM has insufficient RAM
D.The virtual hard disk is not attached
AnswerB

If the boot order prioritizes the hard disk over the CD/DVD, the VM tries to boot from an empty disk and fails.

Why this answer

The boot order in the VM's BIOS must be set to boot from the CD/DVD drive (ISO) before the hard disk. If the ISO is not mounted or boot order is wrong, the VM cannot find an OS.

371
MCQeasy

A customer wants to install a modular power supply in their PC but notes that the included cables have different pin shapes on the PSU end. What should the technician advise?

A.The cables are interchangeable as long as they fit the connector.
B.The technician should verify the pinout diagram and use cables from the same manufacturer.
C.The technician should use only the cables that came with that specific power supply.
D.The customer should return the PSU and buy a non-modular one.
AnswerC

Modular cables are designed for that PSU model; mixing cables can cause electrical damage.

Why this answer

Modular PSU cables are keyed to prevent incorrect insertion, but they are not standardized across brands. Using cables from a different PSU can cause shorts and damage components. Always use the cables that came with the specific PSU.

372
MCQmedium

A user wants to mirror their Android smartphone's screen to a smart TV that does not support Miracast. The TV has HDMI and USB ports. Which device should the technician recommend?

A.A USB-C to HDMI cable
B.A Bluetooth transmitter
C.A Chromecast device
D.An NFC tag
AnswerC

Chromecast plugs into HDMI and allows screen mirroring via Wi-Fi using the Google Cast protocol.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because a Chromecast device connects to the TV via HDMI and uses Wi-Fi Direct (not Miracast) to receive a screen mirror from an Android smartphone. Since the TV lacks Miracast support but has an HDMI port, Chromecast provides the necessary hardware and protocol (Google Cast) to enable wireless display mirroring.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that any USB-C to HDMI cable will work for screen mirroring, but many Android phones lack DisplayPort Alt Mode support, making Option A a common distractor.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB-C to HDMI cable requires the smartphone to support DisplayPort Alt Mode over USB-C, which many Android phones do not, and it would not solve the wireless mirroring requirement. Option B is wrong because a Bluetooth transmitter cannot transmit video signals; Bluetooth lacks the bandwidth for screen mirroring and is designed for audio streaming only. Option D is wrong because an NFC tag can only trigger actions like launching an app or pairing a device, but it cannot transmit video or establish a screen mirroring session.

373
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their computer will not power on. The power supply fan does not spin, and the motherboard's power LED is off. You have verified the power cord and outlet are working. Which motherboard component is most likely causing this issue?

A.Faulty CMOS battery
B.Failed motherboard power-on circuit
C.Loose front panel power switch connector
D.Incorrect BIOS settings
AnswerB

A failed power-on circuit on the motherboard can prevent the PSU from receiving the signal to start, causing no power to the system.

Why this answer

The motherboard's power LED not lighting up and the PSU fan not spinning indicate a lack of standby power, which is typically supplied through the CMOS battery or the PSU itself. However, a failed CMOS battery can prevent the system from retaining BIOS settings, but it does not usually stop the PSU from providing standby power. The most common cause in this scenario is a failed power supply, but since the question focuses on the motherboard, a shorted motherboard or a failed power-on circuit is the likely culprit.

The correct answer is a failed motherboard power-on circuit, as it can prevent the PSU from turning on even if the PSU is functional.

374
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop computer, which is connected to the network via a wall jack, can access the internet but cannot see other computers on the same local network. The network uses a single switch and a router. What is the most likely misconfiguration causing this issue?

A.The switch is a hub, not a switch.
B.The computer's network profile is set to 'Public', disabling Network Discovery.
C.The router is blocking multicast traffic.
D.The Ethernet cable is a crossover cable.
AnswerB

In Windows, a Public network profile disables Network Discovery, preventing the computer from seeing other devices on the local network, even though internet access works.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because when a Windows computer's network profile is set to 'Public', the Windows Firewall automatically enables the 'Public' profile rules, which block Network Discovery and file sharing. This prevents the computer from seeing other devices on the local subnet even though internet access (which uses the default gateway) remains functional. The symptom—internet works but LAN visibility fails—is a classic indicator of a network profile misconfiguration.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between network-layer connectivity (internet access via default gateway) and link-layer visibility (broadcast/multicast-based discovery), leading candidates to incorrectly blame hardware (switch, cable) or router filtering when the real issue is a host-based firewall profile.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a hub would cause collisions and degrade performance, but it would not selectively block the ability to see other computers while still allowing internet access; hubs forward all frames to all ports, so broadcast traffic (used by NetBIOS/LLMNR for discovery) would still reach other hosts. Option C is wrong because routers typically do not block multicast traffic by default on the LAN side; even if IGMP snooping or multicast filtering were enabled, it would affect services like UPnP or mDNS, but Windows Network Discovery relies on NetBIOS over TCP/IP (broadcast, not multicast) and LLMNR (link-local multicast), which are not typically blocked by a router's default ACL. Option D is wrong because a crossover cable is used to connect two similar devices directly (e.g., PC to PC) without a switch; if the PC is connected to a wall jack (which leads to a switch), a crossover cable would either not work at all (if the switch lacks Auto-MDIX) or would work fine (modern switches support Auto-MDIX), but it would not cause a partial connectivity issue where internet works but LAN discovery fails.

375
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a PC that shuts down randomly after a few minutes of use. The technician measures the +12V rail with a multimeter and gets 11.2V. The +5V rail reads 4.9V, and the +3.3V rail reads 3.2V. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.The motherboard voltage regulator is failing.
B.The power supply is failing and needs replacement.
C.The system is drawing too much current, causing voltage drop.
D.The AC input voltage is too low.
AnswerB

A +12V reading of 11.2V is below the ATX tolerance of 11.4V, indicating the PSU cannot maintain proper voltage, likely due to aging capacitors or other internal faults.

Why this answer

The +12V rail is significantly below the ATX specification of ±5% (11.4V minimum), indicating a failing power supply. The other rails are within tolerance but the +12V is critical for CPU and GPU power. A failing PSU can cause random shutdowns as voltage drops under load.

Replacement is necessary.

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