CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 451525

1020 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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451
MCQeasy

During a routine hardware upgrade, a technician installs a new CPU into a workstation. After powering on, the system emits a series of long beeps and the screen remains blank. What is the most likely cause?

A.The CPU is not compatible with the motherboard socket
B.The CPU is installed backwards
C.The RAM is not seated properly
D.The CPU fan is not connected to the motherboard
AnswerC

Long beeps during POST are a standard indication of a memory error, often caused by loose or improperly seated RAM.

Why this answer

POST beep codes are used to indicate hardware errors. A series of long beeps typically points to a memory issue, not a CPU problem. The technician should reseat the RAM modules to resolve this.

452
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new PC for a user who runs multiple virtual machines. The motherboard has an AM5 socket. Which CPU feature is most important for this workload?

A.High clock speed
B.Large L3 cache
C.High core and thread count
D.Integrated graphics
AnswerC

Multiple VMs require many cores/threads to run simultaneously without performance degradation.

Why this answer

Virtual machines benefit from many cores and threads because each VM can be assigned to a separate core. AMD AM5 CPUs offer high core counts, making them ideal for virtualization. This tests understanding of how CPU architecture affects specific tasks.

453
MCQmedium

A small business server with a RAID 10 array of four 2 TB hard drives experiences a drive failure. The technician replaces the failed drive with an identical model. After rebuilding, the array reports as healthy, but the total capacity is now 2 TB instead of the expected 4 TB. What is the most likely cause?

A.The replacement drive has a different sector size.
B.The array was accidentally rebuilt as a RAID 1 mirror instead of RAID 10.
C.The new drive is 1 TB instead of 2 TB.
D.The array is using a non-standard stripe size.
AnswerB

Correct. If the controller treats the four drives as two mirrored pairs but only one pair is used, capacity would be 2 TB.

Why this answer

RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping. If the replacement drive is not properly sized or the array is misconfigured, capacity can be incorrect. However, the most common cause is using a drive with different geometry or the array being rebuilt as a single mirror instead of striped mirrors.

This question tests understanding of RAID 10 capacity calculation.

454
MCQmedium

A client brings in a desktop that will not power on. The technician verifies the power cord is connected and the PSU fan does not spin when the power button is pressed. What is the most appropriate next step?

A.Replace the motherboard
B.Test the power supply using a PSU tester
C.Reseat the CPU
D.Check the front panel power switch
AnswerB

A PSU tester confirms whether the power supply is delivering correct voltages; if not, the PSU is the problem.

Why this answer

When the PSU fan does not spin, the power supply may be dead. The quickest and safest test is to use a power supply tester or perform the paperclip test to see if the PSU turns on. If it does not, replacement is needed.

Always eliminate the PSU as the cause before checking other components.

455
MCQmedium

A technician is deploying 20 new tablets for a hospital's nursing staff. After configuring Wi-Fi and email, they find that the tablets will not connect to the corporate 5 GHz wireless network, only to the 2.4 GHz network. All tablets are the same model. What is the most likely cause?

A.The 5 GHz SSID is hidden and requires manual entry.
B.The tablets only support 802.11b/g/n on the 2.4 GHz band and lack 5 GHz hardware support.
C.The corporate 5 GHz network requires 802.1X authentication that is not configured on the tablets.
D.The tablets have a defective Wi-Fi antenna.
AnswerB

Many low-cost tablets only include 2.4 GHz radios to save on cost and battery. This is a hardware limitation that cannot be fixed with software, explaining why all 20 tablets behave identically.

Why this answer

This is a common deployment issue where the device's wireless radio supports 2.4 GHz but not 5 GHz, or the 5 GHz channel is not supported. Older or budget tablets may lack 5 GHz capability, or the corporate network may use a 5 GHz channel (e.g., DFS channels) that the tablet's radio cannot use. Checking the tablet's Wi-Fi specifications is the correct first step.

456
MCQeasy

During a printer installation, the setup wizard asks for the printer's IP address. The multifunction device is connected via Ethernet and has a static IP. Where can you find the IP address on the printer itself?

A.On the back of the printer near the Ethernet port.
B.By pressing the 'Home' button, then navigating to 'Network Settings' or 'Information'.
C.By looking at the toner cartridge label.
D.By checking the DHCP server logs on the network.
AnswerB

The printer's control panel provides access to network configuration, including the IP address.

Why this answer

This question tests basic printer configuration knowledge. Most multifunction printers have a control panel menu that displays network settings, including the IP address. Alternatively, printing a configuration page from the printer's menu will show the IP.

457
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a network where a single workstation cannot access any network resources. The link light on the NIC is solid, and the IP configuration shows an address of 192.168.1.100 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The workstation can ping its own IP but not the default gateway (192.168.1.1). What is the most likely cause?

A.The DNS server is unreachable.
B.The switch port is configured with the wrong VLAN.
C.The Ethernet cable is a crossover cable.
D.The workstation's subnet mask is wrong.
AnswerB

Correct—if the switch port is in a different VLAN, the workstation cannot reach the gateway, even with a valid IP.

Why this answer

The workstation has a valid IP and can ping itself, indicating the NIC and stack are working. However, it cannot reach the gateway, which suggests a Layer 2 issue—likely an incorrect or missing default gateway configuration, or a VLAN mismatch on the switch port.

458
MCQmedium

A technician is tasked with connecting a legacy projector that only has a VGA input to a modern laptop that has only HDMI and USB-C outputs. Which adapter should the technician use?

A.USB-C to VGA passive adapter
B.HDMI to VGA active adapter
C.VGA to HDMI cable
D.USB-C to HDMI adapter
AnswerB

This active adapter converts the digital HDMI signal to analog VGA, allowing the laptop to connect to the projector.

Why this answer

Since VGA is analog and HDMI is digital, an active converter is needed. A USB-C to VGA adapter can work if the laptop supports video over USB-C, but an HDMI to VGA adapter is also an option if the laptop has HDMI. The best answer is an HDMI to VGA active adapter, as it directly converts the digital signal to analog.

459
MCQeasy

A small office uses an inkjet printer that has started leaving horizontal white streaks across printed documents. The user has already run the printer's cleaning cycle twice with no improvement. What should the technician do next to resolve this issue?

A.Replace the printer's fuser unit.
B.Replace the ink cartridges with new ones.
C.Manually clean the printhead or replace it.
D.Adjust the paper type setting in the driver to 'photo paper'.
AnswerC

Manual cleaning or replacing the printhead directly addresses persistent nozzle clogs that automated cleaning cannot clear.

Why this answer

Horizontal white streaks on inkjet prints typically indicate clogged printhead nozzles. Since the cleaning cycle did not help, physically cleaning the printhead or replacing it is the next step. Replacing ink cartridges or adjusting paper settings would not address clogged nozzles.

460
MCQmedium

A user complains that their iOS device's screen brightness automatically dims when using a particular streaming app, but stays normal with other apps. The auto-brightness setting is enabled. What is the most likely reason?

A.The app is using HDR content, which requires lower brightness.
B.The device's ambient light sensor is malfunctioning.
C.The app has its own brightness control that is set to dim.
D.The device is overheating and throttling brightness.
AnswerC

Many streaming apps have independent brightness settings that can dim the screen regardless of system settings.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because many streaming apps implement their own brightness control logic, often to optimize video playback or reduce power consumption. When the app's internal brightness setting is configured to dim, it overrides the system's auto-brightness for that specific app, causing the screen to dim only while the app is active. This is a common behavior in apps that manage their own display parameters independently of the iOS system settings.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between system-level settings (like auto-brightness) and app-specific controls, leading candidates to incorrectly attribute the issue to hardware faults or system-wide problems rather than recognizing that apps can independently manage display brightness.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because HDR content typically requires higher brightness to display the expanded dynamic range, not lower brightness; the device would increase brightness for HDR playback. Option B is wrong because if the ambient light sensor were malfunctioning, the dimming would occur across all apps and in various lighting conditions, not just within a single streaming app. Option D is wrong because overheating throttling affects the entire device and would cause brightness reduction system-wide, not exclusively within one app, and the user would likely notice other performance issues or warnings.

461
MCQeasy

A technician is installing a new SSD into a customer's laptop. After removing the bottom cover, they see the existing hard drive is held in place by a metal bracket and a single screw. What is the correct next step?

A.Remove the screw and bracket, then gently lift the drive out of the SATA connector.
B.Pull the drive straight out with force to disconnect it.
C.Use a plastic spudger to pry the drive from the connector.
D.Remove the battery first to avoid electrical shock.
AnswerA

This is the correct method to safely remove the drive without damaging the connector.

Why this answer

The correct next step is to remove the screw and bracket, then gently lift the drive out of the SATA connector. This is because the metal bracket secures the drive in place, and the SATA connector is a fragile, keyed interface that requires a straight, gentle pull to avoid damaging the pins or the drive's edge connector. Forcing the drive or prying it can bend pins or crack the connector.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think removing the battery is the mandatory first step for any hardware servicing, but the question specifically asks for the next step to physically remove the drive, which is to release the securing bracket and screw.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because pulling the drive straight out with force can damage the SATA connector pins or the drive's interface, and the bracket must be removed first to free the drive. Option C is wrong because using a plastic spudger to pry the drive from the connector risks bending the SATA connector pins or cracking the laptop's motherboard, as the connector is not designed for lateral force. Option D is wrong because while removing the battery is a good safety practice to prevent short circuits, it is not the immediate next step required to physically release the drive; the screw and bracket must be addressed first.

462
MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new network drop in a warehouse where the cable must run near high-voltage machinery. The run is 60 meters. Which type of cable should be used to minimize interference?

A.UTP Cat6 cable.
B.STP Cat6a cable.
C.Coaxial RG-6 cable.
D.Fiber optic cable.
AnswerB

STP provides shielding against EMI, making it ideal for environments with electrical interference.

Why this answer

STP Cat6a cable includes a conductive shield that protects against electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby high-voltage machinery. The 60-meter run is well within Cat6a's 100-meter maximum segment length, making it the best choice for this environment.

Exam trap

A common pitfall in CompTIA A+ exams is assuming that UTP is always sufficient for Ethernet, but in high-EMI environments like near machinery, shielded cabling (STP) is required. Fiber is also immune but more expensive and harder to terminate, so STP is the best practical choice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because UTP Cat6 cable lacks shielding, making it susceptible to EMI from high-voltage machinery, which can cause data corruption or packet loss. Option C is wrong because coaxial RG-6 cable is designed for broadband video and RF signals, not for standard Ethernet networking, and it does not provide the same immunity to EMI as STP in a structured cabling environment. Option D is wrong because fiber optic cable, while immune to EMI, is overkill for a 60-meter run and typically requires more expensive transceivers and termination tools, making it less practical for a simple network drop.

463
MCQeasy

During a routine hardware upgrade, a technician installs a new graphics card. The system powers on but no display appears. The old card works fine. What UEFI setting should be checked first?

A.Disable Secure Boot
B.Change the primary video adapter from onboard to PCIe
C.Enable CSM (Compatibility Support Module)
D.Update the UEFI firmware to the latest version
AnswerB

This tells the firmware to initialize the discrete GPU first.

Why this answer

If the system has integrated graphics and a discrete card, the UEFI may default to the integrated output. Changing the primary video adapter to PCIe/ PEG forces the system to use the new card. This tests understanding of video initialization order in UEFI.

464
MCQmedium

A company deploys a new web server and wants to ensure that data transmitted between clients and the server is encrypted. The technician configures the server to use a certificate. Which protocol should be enabled on the server?

A.HTTPS
B.HTTP
C.FTP
D.SSH
AnswerA

HTTPS uses TLS/SSL to encrypt data between client and server, and requires a certificate.

Why this answer

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) encrypts data between clients and a web server using TLS/SSL. The certificate you configured on the server is used to establish a trusted, encrypted session, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of transmitted data.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between secure and insecure protocols, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse SSH (used for secure remote shell access) with HTTPS (used for secure web traffic), or think that HTTP with a certificate is sufficient without enabling the encryption layer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (HTTP) is wrong because it transmits data in plaintext, providing no encryption or security for the data in transit. Option C (FTP) is wrong because it is a file transfer protocol that also sends credentials and data in cleartext by default, and it is not designed for web server client communication. Option D (SSH) is wrong because it is a secure protocol for remote administration and secure file transfer (SFTP), not for serving web pages to clients via a browser.

465
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a network drop that was working yesterday but now shows 'No Link' on the switch port. The cable run is through a conduit in the wall. The technician tests the cable with a continuity tester and finds that pins 1, 2, 3, and 6 are good, but pins 4, 5, 7, and 8 show no continuity. What is the most likely cause?

A.The cable is only Cat5 and cannot support Gigabit.
B.The cable has a short circuit between pins 4 and 5.
C.The cable is cut or crushed in the conduit, breaking the secondary pairs.
D.The wall jack is wired for T568A but the patch panel is T568B.
AnswerC

An open on pins 4-5 and 7-8 indicates a physical break in the cable that affects only those pairs, likely from damage in the conduit.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of Ethernet pinout and fault isolation. The correct answer is that the cable is likely damaged or broken on the pairs used for 1000Base-T (all four pairs), but 100Base-TX only uses pairs 1-2 and 3-6. The symptom indicates a break in the cable affecting the secondary pairs.

466
MCQeasy

A company uses virtual machines for its production environment. A technician needs to perform maintenance on the host server without disrupting the VMs. The technician wants to move the VMs to another host in the cluster while they are running. Which feature must be configured to allow this?

A.Virtual machine snapshots
B.Live migration (vMotion)
C.Virtual switch trunking
D.Resource pooling
AnswerB

Live migration enables moving a running VM to another host without interruption, which is exactly what the technician needs.

Why this answer

Live migration (vMotion in VMware, live migration in Hyper-V) allows moving running VMs between hosts with zero downtime. This is a key feature for high availability and maintenance. The correct answer directly names this feature.

467
MCQhard

A user reports that their new high-resolution monitor (2560x1440) connected via DisplayPort shows intermittent black screens for a few seconds. The monitor works fine at lower resolutions. What is the most likely issue?

A.The monitor's power saving mode is too aggressive
B.The DisplayPort cable is not certified for the required bandwidth
C.The graphics card is overheating
D.The monitor's firmware is outdated
AnswerB

A cable not rated for the necessary DisplayPort version can cause signal dropouts at high resolutions.

Why this answer

The most likely issue is that the DisplayPort cable is not certified for the required bandwidth. At 2560x1440 resolution, the monitor requires a high data rate (approximately 7.04 Gbps for 60 Hz), and a non-certified or low-quality cable may not reliably support this bandwidth, causing intermittent signal loss and black screens. Lower resolutions work because they require less bandwidth, allowing the cable to function within its limits.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that intermittent black screens are caused by power saving features or overheating, when in fact the symptom of resolution-dependent failures points directly to cable bandwidth limitations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because aggressive power saving mode would typically cause the monitor to enter a low-power state after a period of inactivity, not intermittent black screens specifically at high resolution. Option C is wrong because graphics card overheating usually causes system-wide instability, artifacts, or crashes, not isolated black screens that resolve after a few seconds. Option D is wrong because outdated firmware might cause compatibility issues or missing features, but it would not selectively affect only high-resolution operation while lower resolutions work fine.

468
MCQhard

A technician is deploying a 3D printer that uses fused deposition modeling (FDM) in a school lab. After several test prints, the prints are warping at the edges and not adhering to the build plate. The filament is PLA, and the build plate is heated. Which adjustment should be made first?

A.Increase the nozzle temperature by 10°C
B.Apply a layer of glue stick to the build plate
C.Adjust the bed leveling or Z-offset to ensure proper first layer height
D.Reduce the print speed
AnswerC

Correct first layer height is critical for adhesion; the filament must be slightly squished onto the bed. Leveling the bed is the primary adjustment.

Why this answer

Warping and poor adhesion in FDM printing are often caused by an incorrect first layer height or bed leveling. If the nozzle is too far from the bed, the filament does not squish enough to stick. Adjusting the bed leveling or Z-offset ensures proper first layer adhesion.

469
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where a user's computer cannot obtain an IP address via DHCP. The computer is connected to a switch, and other devices on the same switch work fine. The technician checks the switch and sees that the port is up and the link light is green. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the Ethernet cable.
B.Check if the switch port is configured with Port Security that is blocking the MAC address.
C.Reboot the DHCP server.
D.Set a static IP address on the computer.
AnswerB

Port Security can limit the number of MAC addresses on a port or block specific MACs, preventing DHCP requests from being processed. This is a common cause of DHCP failures on otherwise functional ports.

Why this answer

Since the switch port is up and other devices on the same switch obtain IP addresses correctly, the DHCP server and the general network path are functional. The most likely cause is a Layer 2 security feature, such as Port Security, which can be configured to block unknown or specific MAC addresses, preventing the computer from communicating with the DHCP server even though the physical link is active.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a green link light guarantees full Layer 2 connectivity, when in fact security features like Port Security can block traffic at the MAC layer while the physical layer remains operational.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the link light is green and the port is up, indicating the cable is physically functional; replacing it would be premature without first checking for MAC-level filtering. Option C is wrong because other devices on the same switch are working, proving the DHCP server is operational and reachable. Option D is wrong because setting a static IP address bypasses the troubleshooting process and does not address the root cause of why DHCP fails; it is a workaround, not a diagnostic step.

470
MCQmedium

A small business has several PCs that intermittently reboot or fail to start. The building's electrical system is old, and the technician suspects power quality issues. Which device should the technician recommend installing to protect the computers?

A.A power strip with a surge protector.
B.A line conditioner (voltage regulator).
C.An uninterruptible power supply (UPS).
D.A dedicated circuit from the breaker panel.
AnswerC

A UPS provides battery power during outages and regulates voltage, preventing reboots from both sags and spikes, making it ideal for unstable power environments.

Why this answer

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) provides battery backup and voltage regulation, protecting against surges, sags, and brownouts that can cause reboots or failures. A surge protector only guards against spikes, not low-voltage conditions. A UPS is the appropriate solution for unstable power.

471
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop's touchpad is not working after they spilt a small amount of coffee on the keyboard. The keyboard still works, but the touchpad cursor does not move. What is the most likely cause?

A.The touchpad driver has been corrupted by the liquid
B.The touchpad has been disabled in the BIOS due to a safety feature
C.The liquid has damaged the touchpad or its ribbon cable
D.The laptop's operating system has detected the liquid and disabled input devices
AnswerC

Liquid can short-circuit the touchpad's capacitive sensors or corrode the ribbon cable connector, causing the touchpad to stop working while the keyboard remains functional.

Why this answer

Coffee can seep into the touchpad connector or the touchpad itself, causing a short or corrosion. The keyboard working suggests the liquid did not reach the main board, but the touchpad is a separate component that is more exposed. The correct answer is liquid damage to the touchpad.

472
MCQeasy

A user brings in a smartphone with a cracked screen that is still responsive to touch. The device is an older model, and the user wants the screen replaced rather than buying a new phone. After powering off the device and removing the SIM and SD cards, what is the next step in the screen replacement process?

A.Use a spudger to pry the screen off starting from the bottom.
B.Apply heat to the edges of the screen to soften the adhesive.
C.Remove the battery using a plastic pry tool.
D.Insert a guitar pick under the screen to separate it from the frame.
AnswerB

Heating the edges softens the adhesive, allowing the screen to be lifted with minimal force and reducing the risk of further damage.

Why this answer

Applying heat to the edges of the screen softens the adhesive that secures the display to the frame, which is a critical step before any prying action. On older smartphone models, the screen is typically bonded with a strong adhesive that can crack the glass further or damage the LCD if pried without softening. This step reduces the risk of breaking the digitizer or LCD during removal.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that you can immediately pry the screen off with a tool, but the correct sequence requires softening the adhesive first to prevent damage to the display and frame.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because prying the screen off starting from the bottom without first softening the adhesive can crack the glass or damage the underlying LCD, especially on older models where adhesive is aged and brittle. Option C is wrong because the battery should be removed only after the screen is opened, as the battery is usually located beneath the display assembly and cannot be accessed without first removing the screen. Option D is wrong because inserting a guitar pick under the screen without heating the adhesive first can cause the glass to shatter or the LCD to delaminate, as the pick may catch on uneven adhesive or glass edges.

473
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laser printer prints fine from Windows, but when they print from a macOS device, the output is garbled with random characters. Both devices are on the same network. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer's firmware is outdated
B.The network cable is faulty
C.The macOS printer driver is incorrect
D.The printer is set to the wrong emulation mode
AnswerC

An incorrect driver or PPD file causes the printer to misinterpret print data, resulting in garbled text.

Why this answer

Garbled output from one OS but not another typically indicates a driver or PPD issue. macOS uses PostScript Printer Description (PPD) files for laser printers, and an incorrect or missing PPD can cause communication errors. Installing the correct driver for macOS resolves the problem.

474
MCQhard

A company's remote employees use VPN to connect to the office network. Recently, some users report that they can connect to the VPN but cannot browse the internet or access internal servers by name, though they can ping internal IP addresses. The VPN is configured to push DNS settings. Which protocol is likely misconfigured on the VPN server?

A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.IPsec
D.SSL/TLS
AnswerB

DNS is responsible for name resolution; if the VPN server does not push correct DNS servers, name resolution fails.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B (DNS) because the users can connect to the VPN and ping internal IP addresses, but cannot resolve hostnames to IP addresses. This indicates that the DNS resolution is failing, which is caused by the VPN server not correctly pushing DNS server settings to the VPN clients. Without proper DNS configuration, clients cannot translate domain names (e.g., internal server names or internet URLs) into IP addresses, even though the network layer connectivity (ping to IPs) works.

Exam trap

The trap in this CompTIA A+ question is that candidates often confuse connectivity (ping to IPs works) with full network functionality, and incorrectly assume the issue is with the VPN tunnel encryption (IPsec) or authentication (SSL/TLS), rather than recognizing that name resolution is a separate service that relies on DNS configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (DHCP) is wrong because DHCP is used for automatic IP address assignment, but the users already have connectivity (they can ping IPs), so IP addressing is not the issue. Option C (IPsec) is wrong because IPsec provides encryption and authentication for VPN tunnels; a misconfiguration here would typically cause connection failures or inability to establish the VPN, not name resolution failures after connection. Option D (SSL/TLS) is wrong because SSL/TLS secures the VPN control channel or web traffic; a misconfiguration would prevent the VPN from establishing or cause certificate errors, not affect DNS resolution after the tunnel is up.

475
MCQmedium

A small business has a single router with four built-in switch ports. They need to connect 12 wired devices. They have a 24-port unmanaged switch. Which configuration will provide the best network performance and connectivity?

A.Connect all 12 devices directly to the router's four ports using splitters.
B.Connect the switch to one of the router's LAN ports, then connect all 12 devices to the switch.
C.Connect half the devices to the router and half to the switch, then connect the switch to the router.
D.Use the router as a switch by disabling its routing functions.
AnswerB

Correct. This creates a star topology where the switch handles local traffic, and the router manages internet access. It provides full bandwidth to each device.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because connecting the 24-port unmanaged switch to one of the router's LAN ports extends the network, allowing all 12 devices to connect via the switch. The router handles routing and DHCP, while the switch provides ample ports and wire-speed forwarding at Layer 2, ensuring optimal performance without collisions or bandwidth contention.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think splitters or daisy-chaining can substitute for a switch, but Ethernet requires a switch or hub to properly regenerate signals and manage multiple connections, and splitters only work for two devices on a single cable run, not for 12 devices.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using splitters on a single router port violates Ethernet standards (IEEE 802.3), causing signal degradation, collisions, and no practical connectivity for 12 devices. Option C is wrong because connecting half the devices directly to the router's four ports would exceed the available ports (only 4 built-in switch ports), and the remaining devices on the switch would still work, but this configuration is inefficient and doesn't utilize the router's limited ports properly. Option D is wrong because disabling routing functions on the router does not increase the number of switch ports; the router still has only four built-in switch ports, so it cannot accommodate 12 wired devices.

476
MCQeasy

A technician is deploying a new workstation in a retail store. After connecting all peripherals and power, the system powers on but the monitor shows 'No Signal'. The monitor is connected via VGA to the motherboard. What should the technician check first?

A.Replace the VGA cable.
B.Reseat the RAM modules.
C.Connect the monitor to the discrete graphics card's video port.
D.Update the motherboard BIOS.
AnswerC

Correct; if a discrete GPU is installed, the motherboard's video ports are usually disabled, so the monitor must be connected to the GPU.

Why this answer

When a system has a dedicated GPU, the motherboard video ports are often disabled. The most common oversight is connecting the monitor to the wrong port. This scenario tests basic hardware installation knowledge.

477
MCQmedium

A technician is selecting a CPU for a compact home theater PC (HTPC) that will be passively cooled. Which CPU characteristic is most critical to ensure reliable operation without a fan?

A.High clock speed
B.Integrated graphics
C.Low TDP
D.Large L3 cache
AnswerC

Low TDP means less heat generated, allowing the CPU to run safely without active cooling.

Why this answer

Passive cooling relies on low heat output. TDP (Thermal Design Power) directly indicates the amount of heat a cooler must dissipate. A low TDP CPU is essential for fanless operation.

478
MCQmedium

A company's IT department is deploying new VoIP phones. After connecting a phone to a PoE switch, the phone does not power on. The switch port is configured for PoE and shows no errors. Which tool should be used to verify that the Ethernet cable delivers power correctly?

A.Cable tester
B.Tone generator
C.Multimeter
D.Wi-Fi analyzer
AnswerC

A multimeter set to DC voltage can measure the voltage on the power pairs of the Ethernet cable to verify PoE is being delivered.

Why this answer

A multimeter is the correct tool because it can measure DC voltage directly on the Ethernet cable's power-carrying pairs (typically pins 4,5 and 7,8 for Mode A or pins 1,2 and 3,6 for Mode B in 802.3af/at PoE). By probing the switch-side pins while the phone is connected, you can verify whether the switch is actually delivering the expected 48V DC, isolating a cable or power issue. This is the only tool among the options that can confirm the presence of voltage.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose 'Cable tester' (Option A) because they assume a cable tester can verify PoE delivery, but a standard cable tester only checks continuity and pinout, not voltage or power presence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a cable tester checks for wiring continuity, shorts, and pinouts, but it cannot measure voltage or confirm that PoE power is being delivered. Option B is wrong because a tone generator is used to trace and identify specific cables in a bundle by injecting an audio signal, not to measure electrical power. Option D is wrong because a Wi-Fi analyzer scans for wireless signal strength, channels, and interference, and has no capability to test wired Ethernet power delivery.

479
MCQeasy

A user complains that their wireless connection drops frequently, but only when they are in the conference room. Other areas of the office have stable connections. What is the most likely cause?

A.The user's laptop has a faulty wireless adapter.
B.The access point is overloaded with too many connections.
C.The conference room has thick walls or electronic interference that weakens the signal.
D.The access point's firmware is outdated.
AnswerC

Correct. Physical obstructions like concrete or metal, or interference from electronics, can cause signal degradation in specific areas.

Why this answer

The issue is location-specific: the connection drops only in the conference room, while other areas are stable. This strongly points to a local environmental factor, such as thick walls (e.g., concrete or metal) that attenuate the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz signal, or electronic interference from devices like projectors, fluorescent lights, or microwave ovens. A faulty adapter or overloaded AP would cause problems everywhere, not just in one room.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between a localized environmental issue and a device or network-wide fault, tempting candidates to choose 'overloaded AP' because it sounds plausible, but the key clue is the problem's confinement to one room.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a faulty wireless adapter would cause connectivity issues regardless of location, not only in the conference room. Option B is wrong because an overloaded access point would affect all users connected to it, not just one user in a specific room, and the problem is isolated to a single location. Option D is wrong because outdated firmware typically causes systemic issues like intermittent disconnects across the entire AP coverage area, not a location-specific drop.

480
MCQhard

A network administrator needs to segment traffic between the accounting and HR departments to prevent unauthorized access, while still allowing both to reach the internet. The company uses a single managed switch and a router. Which configuration approach meets these requirements?

A.Create two separate subnets and connect each department to a different physical switch
B.Configure VLANs on the switch and set up a trunk port to the router with subinterfaces
C.Assign static IPs to all devices and enable MAC address filtering on the switch
D.Use a firewall between the two departments and disable inter-VLAN routing
AnswerB

VLANs isolate traffic, and the trunk with subinterfaces (router-on-a-stick) allows the router to route between VLANs and to the internet.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because VLANs logically segment traffic between departments on a single switch, and configuring a trunk port to the router with subinterfaces (using VLAN tagging) allows inter-VLAN routing for internet access while maintaining isolation between the accounting and HR VLANs. This approach meets the requirement of preventing unauthorized access between departments while enabling shared internet connectivity through the router.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think VLANs alone provide security without considering that inter-VLAN routing must be explicitly configured on the router to enable internet access, or they may confuse MAC address filtering with network segmentation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it requires two separate physical switches, but the scenario specifies a single managed switch, making this approach impossible without additional hardware. Option C is wrong because static IPs and MAC address filtering do not provide network-layer segmentation; they only control access at Layer 2 and can be easily bypassed by spoofing, failing to prevent unauthorized traffic between departments. Option D is wrong because disabling inter-VLAN routing would block all traffic between VLANs, including the required internet access, as the router would not forward packets between subnets; a firewall alone without routing configuration cannot enable internet connectivity for both departments.

481
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a server that uses a RAID 5 array with three 2 TB HDDs. The array reports 4 TB of usable space. One drive fails. What is the immediate impact on data availability?

A.All data is lost because RAID 5 cannot handle any drive failures.
B.The array continues to function, but performance may decrease until the drive is replaced.
C.The usable capacity drops to 2 TB until the drive is replaced.
D.The array automatically switches to RAID 0 to maintain performance.
AnswerB

With one failed drive, the array is in a degraded state but still accessible; performance may drop due to parity calculations.

Why this answer

RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss because parity data is distributed across all drives. The array will continue to operate in a degraded state until the failed drive is replaced and rebuilt. A second failure would cause data loss.

482
MCQeasy

A user wants to print a high-resolution photo on glossy paper using an inkjet printer. After printing, the colors appear washed out and the photo has a grainy appearance. The printer is set to 'normal' quality and 'plain paper' in the driver. What should the technician change to improve the output?

A.Change the paper type to 'glossy photo paper' and the print quality to 'best' or 'photo'.
B.Replace the ink cartridges with high-yield cartridges.
C.Calibrate the printer using the built-in utility.
D.Use a different brand of glossy paper.
AnswerA

These settings adjust ink density and drying to match glossy media, producing vibrant, smooth photos.

Why this answer

For high-quality photo prints on glossy paper, the driver must be set to 'photo' or 'best' quality and the paper type to 'glossy' or 'photo paper'. This optimizes ink droplet size and drying time. The default 'normal' and 'plain paper' settings use less ink and different halftoning, causing washed-out, grainy results.

483
MCQeasy

A small office is installing new network drops in a drop ceiling for employee workstations. The IT manager wants to minimize future troubleshooting. Which cabling practice should be followed during installation?

A.Use crossover cables for all workstation connections.
B.Run cables parallel to electrical wiring to save space.
C.Label both ends of each cable with a unique identifier.
D.Use flat ribbon cables for all long runs.
AnswerC

Labeling helps with identification and troubleshooting, especially in dense installations.

Why this answer

Labeling both ends of each cable with a unique identifier is a best practice for cable management that directly reduces troubleshooting time. When a cable fault occurs or a move/add/change is needed, technicians can quickly trace the cable from the patch panel to the workstation jack without tone-and-probe testing, minimizing downtime. This practice aligns with TIA/EIA-606-A labeling standards for administration of telecommunications infrastructure.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that crossover cables are required for workstation-to-switch connections, but modern switches use Auto-MDIX to automatically correct the cable type. The real key to minimizing future troubleshooting is proper labeling—so that each cable can be traced from patch panel to jack quickly, without needing tone-and-probe testing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because crossover cables are used to connect two like devices (e.g., two switches or two PCs) directly, not for standard workstation-to-switch connections, which require straight-through cables per T568A/T568B wiring. Option B is wrong because running cables parallel to electrical wiring induces electromagnetic interference (EMI) that can corrupt data signals, violating best practices for separation (typically 12 inches for non-shielded cabling). Option D is wrong because flat ribbon cables are not rated for in-wall installation and lack the twist pairs needed to cancel crosstalk, making them unsuitable for long runs in a structured cabling environment.

484
MCQhard

A company's network uses a managed switch with VLANs. Users in VLAN 10 can ping the default gateway but cannot communicate with users in VLAN 20. The switch is connected to a router that handles inter-VLAN routing. What is the most likely misconfiguration?

A.The router's firewall is blocking traffic between VLANs.
B.The switch port connecting to the router is configured as an access port instead of a trunk.
C.The default gateway for VLAN 20 is misconfigured.
D.The switch has Spanning Tree Protocol enabled, blocking the link.
AnswerB

An access port carries traffic for only one VLAN. For the router to receive traffic from multiple VLANs, the port must be a trunk port that tags frames with VLAN IDs.

Why this answer

The most likely misconfiguration is that the switch port connecting to the router is configured as an access port instead of a trunk. For inter-VLAN routing to work, the router must receive traffic from multiple VLANs on the same physical interface. A trunk port (using 802.1Q tagging) allows frames from VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 to be forwarded to the router, which then routes between them.

An access port can only carry traffic for a single VLAN, so frames from VLAN 20 would be dropped or misdirected, preventing communication.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that inter-VLAN routing can work with an access port if the router's interface is configured with an IP address, but the trap is that an access port strips VLAN tags, so the router cannot differentiate between VLANs, breaking communication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a router's firewall typically operates at Layer 3 or above and would not selectively block traffic between VLANs unless explicitly configured with an ACL; the scenario describes a connectivity issue, not a security block. Option C is wrong because users in VLAN 10 can ping the default gateway, indicating the gateway is reachable; a misconfigured default gateway for VLAN 20 would affect its ability to reach external networks, not communication between VLANs on the same router. Option D is wrong because Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops by blocking redundant links, but it does not block a single link between the switch and router unless there is a loop; STP would not cause a complete failure of inter-VLAN communication on a correctly configured trunk.

485
MCQmedium

A user's laptop has a USB-C port that supports Thunderbolt 3. They want to connect two 4K monitors daisy-chained. The monitors have DisplayPort inputs. Which cable configuration is required?

A.Connect both monitors directly to the laptop using two separate USB-C to HDMI cables.
B.Use a USB-C to DisplayPort cable from the laptop to the first monitor, then a DisplayPort cable from the first monitor to the second.
C.Use a USB-C hub with two HDMI ports.
D.Use a single USB-C to DisplayPort cable that splits into two DisplayPort connectors.
AnswerB

This daisy-chain configuration works if both monitors support DisplayPort MST, allowing video to pass through the first monitor to the second.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because Thunderbolt 3 over USB-C supports DisplayPort daisy-chaining (Multi-Stream Transport, MST). A USB-C to DisplayPort cable from the laptop to the first monitor carries the video signal, and a standard DisplayPort cable from the first monitor's DisplayPort out to the second monitor's DisplayPort in completes the chain. This configuration leverages the MST capability inherent in Thunderbolt 3 and DisplayPort 1.2 or later, allowing two 4K monitors to be driven from a single port.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that a simple splitter cable (Option D) can drive two independent displays, when in fact MST requires active daisy-chaining or a hub with MST support, not a passive Y-cable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because connecting both monitors directly to the laptop using two separate USB-C to HDMI cables would require two USB-C ports on the laptop, but the question specifies a single USB-C port that supports Thunderbolt 3; daisy-chaining is not achieved, and HDMI does not natively support MST daisy-chaining. Option C is wrong because a USB-C hub with two HDMI ports would split the single Thunderbolt 3 connection into two separate video outputs, but this does not create a daisy-chain; it uses a hub, which is a different topology and may not support two 4K monitors at full resolution depending on the hub's capabilities. Option D is wrong because a single USB-C to DisplayPort cable that splits into two DisplayPort connectors is a passive splitter, which does not support MST; it would either duplicate the same signal or fail to drive two independent 4K displays, as MST requires active signal handling and proper daisy-chain support.

486
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that connects to a Wi-Fi network but gets a 'No Internet, Secured' message. The laptop has a static IP address configured. What is the most likely issue?

A.The Wi-Fi network's SSID is hidden.
B.The laptop's static IP address is not in the same subnet as the router.
C.The laptop's Wi-Fi driver is corrupted.
D.The router's DHCP server is disabled.
AnswerB

A mismatched subnet means the laptop cannot communicate with the default gateway, so internet access fails.

Why this answer

A static IP address that is not in the same subnet as the router prevents the laptop from communicating with the default gateway. Even though the Wi-Fi association succeeds (hence 'Secured'), the laptop cannot route traffic to the internet because it cannot reach the router's IP address. This mismatch causes the 'No Internet' message while the link-layer connection remains intact.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that 'No Internet, Secured' always points to a DHCP or DNS issue, but here the static IP mismatch is the root cause because the laptop cannot reach the gateway despite a successful layer-2 connection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a hidden SSID does not affect IP configuration; the laptop can still obtain a valid IP via DHCP or static assignment and access the internet once connected. Option C is wrong because a corrupted Wi-Fi driver would typically prevent association or cause frequent disconnections, not allow a successful connection with a 'Secured' status. Option D is wrong because the laptop is using a static IP address, so the router's DHCP server being disabled has no impact on its IP configuration; the issue lies in the static IP not matching the subnet.

487
MCQhard

A user reports that their Windows tablet's battery drains quickly even when the device is idle. The technician checks the battery report and finds that the 'System' process is using a high percentage of CPU. What is the most likely cause?

A.The battery is nearing the end of its life and cannot hold a charge
B.A background app is consuming CPU resources
C.A device driver is preventing the tablet from entering a low-power sleep state
D.The tablet's power plan is set to 'High performance'
AnswerC

A malfunctioning driver (e.g., for the network adapter or chipset) can keep the CPU active, preventing sleep. This is a known cause of high System CPU usage and battery drain in tablets.

Why this answer

High CPU usage by the 'System' process often indicates a driver or hardware issue, such as a failing battery or a misconfigured power plan. In tablets, a common cause is a driver that prevents the device from entering low-power sleep states, leading to constant CPU activity and battery drain.

488
MCQhard

A company's file server uses a RAID 5 array with five 2 TB HDDs. After a power outage, the server boots but the RAID array is shown as 'Failed' in the controller utility. The drives are all detected. What is the most likely cause and the best first step to recover the array with minimal data loss?

A.Replace all five drives and restore from backup.
B.Initialize the array to clear the failed status.
C.Check the RAID controller's event log and attempt to import the array.
D.Reseat all SATA cables and power connectors.
AnswerC

The event log can reveal which drives were affected, and importing the array (if supported) can recover the configuration without data loss.

Why this answer

A power outage can cause multiple drives to be marked as offline or failed due to incomplete writes, even if they are healthy. The array status 'Failed' with all drives detected suggests a metadata issue. The best first step is to check the controller's event log and attempt to import or rebuild the array without initializing it, which would destroy data.

489
MCQmedium

A technician needs to configure a router to allow internal users to access a web server on the internet using a public IP address. The web server is hosted internally on a private IP. Which network service must be configured on the router?

A.DNS
B.DHCP
C.NAT
D.RADIUS
AnswerC

NAT (specifically port forwarding) maps the public IP to the internal server's private IP.

Why this answer

C is correct because Network Address Translation (NAT) translates the private IP address of the internal web server to a public IP address, allowing internal users to reach it over the internet. Without NAT, the router would drop packets with private source addresses destined for the internet, as private IPs are not routable on the public internet per RFC 1918.

Exam trap

The trap is to think that DNS can make a private IP reachable from the internet, but DNS only resolves names to IPs and does not handle routing or address translation. NAT must be used to translate the private IP to a public IP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not perform address translation; it cannot map a private IP to a public IP for routing. Option B is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses to devices on a local network but does not translate addresses for internet access. Option D is wrong because RADIUS is an authentication, authorization, and accounting protocol used for network access control, not for translating private to public IP addresses.

490
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new Android tablet for a field worker. The worker will use a Bluetooth barcode scanner and a rugged case with a built-in keyboard. After pairing both devices, the keyboard types slowly and misses keystrokes, while the scanner works fine. What is the most likely cause?

A.The keyboard's battery is low
B.The tablet's Bluetooth driver is outdated
C.Interference from the rugged case or other wireless signals is degrading the keyboard's connection
D.The keyboard is not compatible with Android
AnswerC

Rugged cases can contain metal or shielding that interferes with Bluetooth signals. The keyboard's antenna may be more susceptible than the scanner's.

Why this answer

Bluetooth interference from other devices or physical obstructions (like a rugged case) can cause signal degradation, leading to missed keystrokes. The scanner may use a different Bluetooth profile or be less sensitive to interference. The correct answer identifies interference as the likely cause.

491
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a tablet that has a dim display that flickers intermittently. The device responds to touch and the OS loads normally. Which component is most likely failing?

A.The digitizer is malfunctioning.
B.The LCD panel has dead pixels.
C.The backlight LED or inverter is failing.
D.The motherboard GPU is damaged.
AnswerC

A failing backlight causes dim, flickering display while touch and OS remain functional.

Why this answer

The backlight LED or inverter is the most likely failing component because the display is dim but still functional (the LCD panel itself works, as the OS loads and touch responds). A failing backlight reduces brightness and can cause flickering due to inconsistent power delivery to the LEDs, while the digitizer and GPU remain operational.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between the display panel (LCD) and the backlight system, trapping candidates who confuse a dim/flickering screen with a failing LCD panel or GPU when the underlying issue is a power supply component for illumination.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the digitizer is responsible for touch input, and the device responds to touch normally, indicating the digitizer is functioning. Option B is wrong because dead pixels are static, non-flickering defects that do not cause overall dimness or intermittent flickering. Option D is wrong because a damaged motherboard GPU would typically cause graphical artifacts, screen corruption, or failure to boot, not a dim display with normal OS loading and touch response.

492
MCQmedium

A user reports that their fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) internet connection works but is slower than expected. The technician finds that the ONT (Optical Network Terminal) is connected to the router via a 100-meter Cat5e cable. What is the most likely issue?

A.The ONT is malfunctioning.
B.The Cat5e cable is too long for 1 Gbps.
C.The router is not configured for the correct speed.
D.The Ethernet cable is damaged or has a bad termination.
AnswerD

A damaged or poorly terminated cable can cause packet loss and speed degradation, even if the link appears active.

Why this answer

The most likely issue is a damaged or poorly terminated Cat5e cable. A 100-meter Cat5e cable is within the maximum length specification for 1 Gbps (100 meters), so the length alone is not the problem. However, a damaged cable or bad termination can cause excessive packet loss, CRC errors, or auto-negotiation failures, resulting in slower throughput even though the link appears to be up.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a 100-meter Cat5e cable exceeds the maximum length for 1 Gbps, when in fact Cat5e supports 1 Gbps up to exactly 100 meters, so the length is not the problem—the cable condition or termination is the more likely culprit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the ONT is functioning (the connection works), and a malfunctioning ONT would typically cause a complete loss of connectivity or intermittent drops, not just slower speeds. Option B is wrong because Cat5e is rated for 1 Gbps up to 100 meters; 100 meters is the maximum allowed length, so it is not 'too long' and should support full speed if the cable is in good condition. Option C is wrong because the router's speed configuration is unlikely to be the issue—most routers auto-negotiate speed with the ONT, and a mismatch would typically result in a link at a lower speed (e.g., 100 Mbps) rather than a general 'slower than expected' performance.

493
MCQhard

A technician is setting up a new Android tablet for a point-of-sale system. The tablet must stay on and connected to Wi-Fi at all times, even when the screen is off. Which setting should the technician adjust?

A.Disable the 'Adaptive battery' feature.
B.Set the screen timeout to 'Never'.
C.Configure 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' to 'Always'.
D.Enable 'Developer options' and set 'Stay awake'.
AnswerC

Correct. This setting ensures the Wi-Fi radio stays active even when the device enters sleep mode.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' setting, when configured to 'Always', ensures the Wi-Fi radio remains active even when the screen is off. This is essential for a point-of-sale (POS) tablet that must maintain a constant network connection for transaction processing, regardless of the device's sleep state.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'screen timeout' with 'network connectivity' and select Option B, not realizing that keeping the screen on is unnecessary and wasteful, whereas the correct setting directly controls the Wi-Fi radio's behavior during sleep.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling 'Adaptive battery' only prevents the system from limiting background activity for rarely used apps; it does not control Wi-Fi behavior during sleep. Option B is wrong because setting the screen timeout to 'Never' keeps the display perpetually on, which drains battery unnecessarily and is not required for maintaining Wi-Fi connectivity. Option D is wrong because enabling 'Stay awake' in Developer options only prevents the device from sleeping while charging via USB/ADB; it does not affect Wi-Fi behavior during sleep when not connected to a charger.

494
MCQhard

A technician is tasked with building a high-performance workstation for a data scientist who uses large datasets. The workstation has a motherboard that supports quad-channel memory. The technician has four 16 GB DDR4-3200 modules. Which configuration will yield the best memory performance?

A.Install all four modules in the same channel (e.g., slots 1, 2, 3, 4) to maximize density.
B.Install two modules in one channel and two in another, leaving the other two channels empty.
C.Install one module in each of the four channels (e.g., slots 1, 3, 5, 7) to enable quad-channel mode.
D.Install all four modules in the same slot using a special adapter.
AnswerC

Using one module per channel populates all four memory channels, allowing the CPU to access memory in quad-channel mode, which provides the highest bandwidth.

Why this answer

Quad-channel memory architecture requires that all four memory channels be populated with identical modules to achieve maximum bandwidth. Installing one module per channel (e.g., in slots 1, 3, 5, 7 or the designated quad-channel slots) allows the memory controller to access all four channels simultaneously, quadrupling the data transfer rate compared to single-channel. Using fewer modules or mismatched sizes would reduce the channel count or cause the system to run in a lower-channel mode.

495
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop battery no longer charges and the system only runs when plugged in. You test the AC adapter and it outputs correct voltage. Inside the battery, which component is most likely failed?

A.The lithium-ion cells have degraded.
B.The battery management system (BMS) is faulty.
C.The DC jack on the laptop is loose.
D.The laptop's motherboard charging circuit is damaged.
AnswerB

A failed BMS prevents the battery from communicating with the charger and accepting power, causing no charging.

Why this answer

The battery management system (BMS) is the circuit board inside the battery pack that controls charging, monitors cell voltage and temperature, and communicates with the laptop. Since the AC adapter outputs correct voltage and the laptop runs on AC power, the BMS is the most likely failed component because it can prevent charging even if the lithium-ion cells are healthy. A faulty BMS may stop communicating with the laptop's embedded controller, causing the system to treat the battery as absent or non-functional.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that battery failure always means the cells are dead, but the trap here is that the BMS can fail independently and prevent charging while the cells remain functional, especially when the AC adapter and laptop power path are verified working.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because degraded lithium-ion cells would typically cause reduced runtime or inability to hold a charge, but the system would still attempt to charge them; the reported symptom of no charging at all points to a control or communication failure, not cell degradation. Option C is wrong because a loose DC jack would cause intermittent power or no power at all to the laptop, but the user reports the system runs when plugged in, indicating the DC jack is making proper contact. Option D is wrong because a damaged motherboard charging circuit would likely prevent the laptop from running on AC power or cause erratic behavior, but the system operates normally on AC, localizing the fault to the battery assembly itself.

496
MCQmedium

A technician is tasked with setting up a RAID 10 array using four 500 GB HDDs for a database server. After configuration, the total capacity shown is 1 TB instead of the expected 1.5 TB. What is the most likely cause?

A.One of the drives is only 250 GB.
B.The array was accidentally configured as RAID 0.
C.The array is configured correctly; RAID 10 provides 1 TB usable.
D.The controller is using a different stripe size.
AnswerC

RAID 10 uses half the raw capacity for mirroring, so 2 TB raw yields 1 TB usable.

Why this answer

RAID 10 (1+0) mirrors and then stripes, so usable capacity is half of total raw capacity (4 x 500 GB = 2 TB raw, 1 TB usable). The technician likely expected RAID 5 capacity (75% usable) but configured RAID 10.

497
MCQhard

A user reports that their laptop screen suddenly went black, but the laptop is still powered on (fans running, power light on). Connecting an external monitor shows the desktop correctly. What is the most likely cause?

A.The graphics driver has crashed and needs to be reinstalled.
B.The laptop's LCD inverter or backlight has failed.
C.The Windows display settings are set to 'Show only on external display'.
D.The laptop's RAM is faulty and causing video output issues.
AnswerB

A failed backlight would cause a black screen while the laptop still runs; an external monitor bypasses the internal display circuit.

Why this answer

The external display working normally indicates the GPU and OS are functional. The black built-in display points to a failure in the LCD panel, backlight, or the display cable (e.g., LVDS/eDP ribbon cable) connecting the motherboard to the screen. A loose or damaged internal cable is a common cause, especially in laptops that have been moved frequently.

498
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where a user's PC has an IP address of 169.254.12.34. The PC is connected to a switch that is uplinked to a router with DHCP enabled. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DHCP server is out of IP addresses.
B.The Ethernet cable between the PC and the switch is faulty.
C.The PC's DNS settings are incorrect.
D.The router's firewall is blocking DHCP requests.
AnswerB

Correct—a faulty cable prevents the PC from reaching the DHCP server, causing it to self-assign an APIPA address.

Why this answer

An APIPA address (169.254.x.x) indicates the PC failed to get a DHCP lease. Since the router has DHCP enabled, the issue is likely a bad Ethernet cable or a port problem preventing communication with the DHCP server.

499
MCQeasy

A user reports that their VoIP phone works but the PC connected to the phone's passthrough port has no network access. What should the technician check first?

A.The PC's IP configuration.
B.The Ethernet cable between the phone and the PC.
C.The VoIP phone's firmware version.
D.The switch port the phone is connected to.
AnswerB

Correct. The passthrough port relies on that cable; a bad cable breaks the PC's connection.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of VoIP passthrough ports. The PC's lack of connectivity is often due to a faulty or unseated Ethernet cable between the phone and PC. The phone itself is working, so the upstream connection is fine.

500
MCQmedium

During a routine check, a technician finds that a RAID 0 array with two SSDs is no longer bootable. The BIOS detects both SSDs individually but the array is missing from the RAID controller. What is the most likely issue?

A.One of the SSDs has failed completely.
B.The RAID controller has failed.
C.The RAID metadata has been corrupted.
D.The SATA cables are swapped.
AnswerC

Corrupted metadata on the drives can cause the array to disappear while drives are still detected.

Why this answer

RAID 0 stripes data across drives with no parity. If the array metadata is corrupted or one drive fails, the entire array becomes inaccessible. Individual detection suggests the drives are physically okay, but the RAID configuration is lost.

501
MCQeasy

A user is building a new gaming PC and wants to install 32 GB of DDR4 RAM in a dual-channel configuration. They have two 16 GB sticks. Which motherboard slots should they use to ensure dual-channel operation?

A.Slots 1 and 2 (adjacent to each other).
B.Slots 2 and 4 (alternating slots).
C.Slots 1 and 3 (alternating slots).
D.Any two slots will work; dual-channel is automatic.
AnswerB

Most motherboards designate slots 2 and 4 (or A2 and B2) as the primary dual-channel configuration, ensuring the memory controller can access both sticks in parallel.

Why this answer

For dual-channel operation, memory modules must be installed in the correct slots, typically alternating colors or labeled as A2 and B2 (or slots 2 and 4) on most modern motherboards. This ensures the memory controller can access both sticks simultaneously, increasing bandwidth. The user manual or motherboard labeling is the definitive guide, but the common practice is to use the second and fourth slots from the CPU.

502
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop can connect to the internet via Ethernet but cannot connect to any Wi-Fi networks. The wireless adapter is enabled and shows available networks, but connecting always fails. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DHCP server is out of IP addresses.
B.The wireless adapter driver is corrupted.
C.The wireless security settings are incorrect.
D.The router’s SSID is hidden.
AnswerC

Seeing networks but failing to connect often indicates a mismatch in security key or encryption type, which is a configuration issue.

Why this answer

When a device can connect via Ethernet but not Wi-Fi, the issue is usually with the wireless configuration or hardware, not the network itself. Incorrect wireless security settings, such as a mismatched encryption type or password, are a common cause of connection failure after the network is detected.

503
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their new laptop can connect to websites using IP addresses but cannot resolve domain names like 'www.example.com'. Which networking tool should be used to verify the DNS server configuration on the laptop?

A.ping 8.8.8.8
B.ipconfig /all
C.nslookup www.example.com
D.tracert 8.8.8.8
AnswerB

This command displays all network adapter details, including DNS server addresses. It is the correct tool to check if the laptop has a valid DNS server configured.

Why this answer

The ipconfig /all command displays the full TCP/IP configuration, including the DNS server addresses assigned to the laptop's network adapter. Since the user can reach websites by IP address but not by domain name, the issue is likely with DNS resolution; ipconfig /all allows verification of whether the DNS server is correctly configured or pointing to an unreachable server.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between testing DNS resolution (nslookup) and verifying DNS configuration (ipconfig /all), trapping candidates who confuse the symptom-checking tool with the configuration-verification tool.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ping 8.8.8.8 tests basic IP connectivity to a public DNS server, but it does not display or verify the laptop's DNS server configuration. Option C is wrong because nslookup www.example.com tests DNS resolution itself; if DNS is misconfigured, nslookup will fail, but it does not show the current DNS server settings configured on the laptop. Option D is wrong because tracert 8.8.8.8 traces the route to an IP address, which tests network path connectivity but provides no information about the DNS server configuration.

504
MCQmedium

A company's multifunction printer supports faxing over VoIP. Users report that faxes are frequently incomplete or fail to send. The fax line is connected to an analog telephone adapter (ATA). What should you check first?

A.Replace the fax modem card in the printer.
B.Check the ATA's configuration to ensure T.38 fax relay is enabled.
C.Increase the printer's print resolution.
D.Disable the printer's firewall.
AnswerB

T.38 is the standard for fax over IP; without it, faxes fail over VoIP.

Why this answer

Fax over VoIP is sensitive to jitter and latency. The ATA's settings for fax passthrough (T.38) must be enabled and properly configured. Without T.38, fax data may be corrupted by voice codecs.

505
MCQeasy

A small business owner wants to connect five computers in a single office so they can share files and a printer without purchasing a server. Which network type should be configured?

A.Client-server network
B.Peer-to-peer network
C.Wide area network (WAN)
D.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
AnswerB

Peer-to-peer networks allow each computer to share resources directly with others, perfect for small offices without a server.

Why this answer

A peer-to-peer network (B) is the correct choice because it allows five computers to share files and a printer directly without a dedicated server. Each computer acts as both a client and a server, making it ideal for small offices with fewer than 10 devices where centralized management is unnecessary.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that a client-server network is always required for resource sharing, but the trap here is that peer-to-peer is sufficient and cost-effective for small groups without a dedicated server.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a client-server network requires a dedicated server to manage resources, which contradicts the requirement of not purchasing a server. Option C is wrong because a wide area network (WAN) spans large geographic areas (e.g., cities or countries) and is not designed for a single office LAN. Option D is wrong because a metropolitan area network (MAN) covers a city-sized area and is overkill for connecting five computers in one room.

506
MCQhard

A technician is tasked with upgrading a workstation that uses DDR3 RAM. The technician purchases DDR3L modules (low voltage) and installs them. The system fails to boot. What is the most likely reason?

A.The DDR3L modules are physically incompatible with DDR3 slots.
B.The motherboard does not support the lower voltage of DDR3L.
C.The technician installed the modules in the wrong slots.
D.The DDR3L modules are defective.
AnswerB

Some older motherboards cannot supply or regulate 1.35V, causing boot failure.

Why this answer

DDR3L modules operate at 1.35V, while standard DDR3 operates at 1.5V. Many older motherboards do not support DDR3L, or they require specific BIOS settings to handle the lower voltage. The technician should verify motherboard compatibility before installation.

507
MCQmedium

You are building a workstation for video editing and need to install a dedicated GPU in the primary PCIe x16 slot. After installation, the system boots but the GPU is not detected in Device Manager. The GPU works fine in another PC. What should you check on the motherboard?

A.The PCIe slot's power delivery from the PSU
B.The motherboard's BIOS setting for the PCIe slot
C.The CMOS battery voltage
D.The CPU fan header
AnswerB

The slot may be disabled or set to a different generation; checking BIOS configuration is essential.

Why this answer

If the GPU is not detected, the most likely motherboard-related cause is that the PCIe slot is disabled in BIOS or the slot itself is faulty. Another possibility is that the slot is configured for a different device (e.g., an M.2 drive sharing lanes). Verifying BIOS settings is the first step.

508
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new all-in-one PC for a reception desk. The PC has a touchscreen display. After installation, the touch function does not respond. The technician has verified that the display works and the OS is loaded. What should the technician check first?

A.Replace the touchscreen digitizer
B.Check if the touchscreen driver is installed in Device Manager
C.Clean the screen with a microfiber cloth
D.Disable and re-enable the touchscreen in BIOS
AnswerB

Missing or incorrect drivers are the most common cause of touchscreen non-functionality.

Why this answer

The most common reason a touchscreen fails to respond after a working display and OS load is a missing or incorrect driver. In Windows, the touchscreen driver appears under 'Human Interface Devices' in Device Manager; if it's not present or has a yellow exclamation mark, the OS cannot interpret touch input. Checking Device Manager is the quickest, non-invasive first step before considering hardware replacement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may jump to hardware replacement (digitizer) or BIOS settings, overlooking the fundamental troubleshooting step of verifying the driver in Device Manager, which is the most common cause of a non-functional touchscreen after a fresh OS installation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the touchscreen digitizer is a hardware repair that should only be attempted after all software and driver issues are ruled out, and it is not the first troubleshooting step. Option C is wrong because cleaning the screen with a microfiber cloth addresses physical dirt or smudges, but a non-responsive touchscreen that was never functional is almost certainly a driver or configuration issue, not a cleanliness problem. Option D is wrong because disabling and re-enabling the touchscreen in BIOS is unnecessary; the touchscreen is typically enabled by default in BIOS, and the issue is almost always at the OS/driver level, not the firmware level.

509
MCQmedium

A user complains that their external monitor flickers intermittently when connected via a VGA cable to their laptop. The laptop has a VGA port, and the monitor works fine with another computer. Which connector-related issue is most likely?

A.The monitor's resolution is set too high for the VGA cable.
B.The laptop's VGA port is not providing enough power.
C.A bent pin inside the VGA connector is causing poor contact.
D.The VGA cable is not compatible with the laptop's graphics card.
AnswerC

Bent pins are a common cause of intermittent flickering in VGA connections.

Why this answer

The correct answer is C because VGA connectors have pins that can bend or become loose over time, causing intermittent signal loss. This tests knowledge that VGA is an analog connector susceptible to physical damage and signal degradation.

510
MCQhard

A network administrator is setting up a new branch office. The branch router must automatically obtain a public IP address from the ISP, and internal devices must receive private IP addresses from the router. Which combination of network services should be configured on the router?

A.DHCP client and DNS server
B.DHCP client and DHCP server
C.DHCP server and NAT
D.DNS server and NAT
AnswerB

The router acts as a DHCP client on the WAN side to get a public IP, and as a DHCP server on the LAN side to assign private IPs.

Why this answer

The branch router needs to obtain a public IP address automatically from the ISP, which requires it to act as a DHCP client on its WAN interface. At the same time, internal devices need private IP addresses, so the router must also act as a DHCP server on its LAN interface, leasing addresses from a private range. Option B correctly combines both roles: DHCP client on the WAN side and DHCP server on the LAN side.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between DHCP client (for obtaining an IP on the WAN) and DHCP server (for assigning IPs on the LAN), and candidates mistakenly think NAT or DNS is required for IP assignment, when in fact NAT is for translation and DNS is for name resolution, not address leasing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while a DHCP client is needed for the WAN interface, a DNS server is not required for internal devices to obtain private IP addresses; DNS resolution can be provided by the ISP or a public DNS, and the router does not need to host a DNS server for basic IP assignment. Option C is wrong because NAT is used to translate private IPs to the public IP, but the question asks for the services that obtain and assign IP addresses, not for address translation; NAT is a separate function that would be configured in addition to DHCP, not instead of a DHCP server. Option D is wrong because neither a DNS server nor NAT directly handles the automatic acquisition of a public IP (DHCP client) or the assignment of private IPs (DHCP server); DNS resolves names, and NAT translates addresses, but neither service obtains or leases IP addresses.

511
MCQeasy

A user complains that they can browse the internet but cannot access network shares on a file server by hostname, though they can access them by IP address. The DNS server is responding to queries for other domains. Which protocol is most likely malfunctioning?

A.HTTP
B.NetBIOS
C.DHCP
D.ARP
AnswerB

NetBIOS resolves hostnames to IP addresses in local networks; its failure explains why hostnames fail but IPs work.

Why this answer

The user can access network shares by IP address but not by hostname, which indicates a name resolution failure specific to NetBIOS. NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NBT) is responsible for resolving NetBIOS names (used for file and printer sharing on Windows networks) to IP addresses. Since DNS works for other domains but not for the file server's hostname, the issue is likely with NetBIOS name resolution, not DNS.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume DNS is the only name resolution protocol and overlook NetBIOS, which is specifically used for legacy Windows file sharing and can fail independently of DNS.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because HTTP is an application-layer protocol for web traffic, not for resolving hostnames to IP addresses; the user can browse the internet, so HTTP is functioning. Option C is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses and other network configuration, but the user already has a valid IP address and can communicate via IP, so DHCP is not the cause. Option D is wrong because ARP resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses on the local network; since the user can access the file server by IP address, ARP is working correctly.

512
MCQmedium

A technician is building a new gaming PC and wants to ensure the CPU can handle heavy multitasking and overclocking. The motherboard supports both Intel and AMD CPUs, but the technician is unsure which CPU features to prioritize. Which CPU characteristic is most important for overclocking stability?

A.A high number of cores (e.g., 12 cores)
B.A large L3 cache (e.g., 32 MB)
C.An unlocked multiplier (e.g., Intel K-series or AMD Ryzen)
D.A high-quality aftermarket CPU cooler
AnswerD

Effective cooling is critical for overclocking stability because it prevents overheating, which is the main limiting factor when increasing clock speeds.

Why this answer

Overclocking increases the CPU's clock speed beyond stock settings, which generates more heat. A robust cooling solution is essential to maintain stability and prevent thermal throttling or damage. Other features like core count or cache are secondary for overclocking.

513
MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new graphics card in a workstation. The card requires two 8-pin PCIe power connectors, but the power supply only has one 8-pin and one 6-pin PCIe cable. What is the best solution?

A.Use the 6-pin cable alone, leaving one power slot empty
B.Use a Molex to 8-pin adapter
C.Replace the power supply with one that has two 8-pin connectors
D.Use the 8-pin cable and the 6+2 pin cable with the 2-pin section attached
AnswerD

The 6+2 pin cable can be configured as an 8-pin by attaching the 2-pin part, providing the required two 8-pin connections.

Why this answer

A 6+2 pin PCIe power cable can be used as either a 6-pin or 8-pin connector. The technician can use the 8-pin cable and the 6+2 pin cable (with the 2-pin attached) to provide two 8-pin connections.

514
MCQeasy

During a routine printer maintenance, you replace the toner cartridge in a laser printer. After reassembly, the printer displays 'Replace Toner' error even though the new cartridge is installed. What should you do first?

A.Replace the fuser assembly
B.Clean the corona wire
C.Remove the protective seal and reseat the cartridge
D.Update the printer firmware
AnswerC

This is the correct first step because the seal blocks toner flow and the cartridge may not be fully seated, preventing the printer from recognizing it.

Why this answer

The 'Replace Toner' error after installing a new cartridge often means the cartridge is not properly seated or the protective seal was not removed. Removing the seal allows toner to flow, and reseating ensures the printer detects the cartridge correctly.

515
MCQmedium

During a hardware installation, you are tasked with setting up a RAID 1 array in a server using two identical 4 TB HDDs. After configuration, the total usable capacity is only 4 TB. Is this expected behavior?

A.No, the array should show 8 TB because the drives are identical.
B.Yes, RAID 1 provides fault tolerance by mirroring data, so usable capacity is 4 TB.
C.No, the array should be configured as RAID 0 to get 8 TB.
D.Yes, but only if the drives are set as JBOD.
AnswerB

RAID 1 writes identical data to both drives, so the total storage is limited to the smallest drive's capacity.

Why this answer

RAID 1 mirrors data across two drives, so usable capacity equals the size of one drive (4 TB). This provides redundancy, not increased storage. RAID 0 would combine capacity, and RAID 5 requires at least three drives.

516
MCQeasy

A small business wants to migrate its email and document collaboration to the cloud but must keep sensitive financial records on local servers due to regulatory requirements. Which cloud deployment model should they choose?

A.Public cloud
B.Private cloud
C.Hybrid cloud
D.Community cloud
AnswerC

Hybrid cloud allows mixing public cloud services with on-premises infrastructure, meeting both collaboration needs and regulatory compliance.

Why this answer

This question covers cloud deployment models. A hybrid cloud combines public cloud services (for email/collaboration) with private or on-premises infrastructure (for sensitive data). Public cloud alone would violate regulations, community cloud is for shared industry needs, and private cloud is entirely on-premises, missing the benefits of public cloud for non-sensitive workloads.

517
MCQeasy

A user reports that their Android phone will not install an app from the Google Play Store. The device has plenty of storage space and a strong internet connection. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The app is not compatible with the device's screen resolution.
B.The device's operating system version is too old for the app.
C.The Google Play Store app needs to be reinstalled.
D.The user is not signed into their Google account.
AnswerB

Many apps require a minimum Android version; if the device is outdated, the app will not install.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the device's operating system version is too old for the app. Android apps specify a minimum API level (minSdkVersion) in their manifest; if the device runs an older OS version below that threshold, Google Play Store will block the installation and display an incompatibility message. Since the user has plenty of storage and a strong connection, the OS version is the primary remaining constraint.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that storage or connectivity are the only blockers, but the trap here is that OS version compatibility is a silent filter enforced by the Play Store's server-side logic, not a client-side error message.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because screen resolution incompatibility does not prevent installation; the Play Store may scale or letterbox the app, but it will still install. Option C is wrong because reinstalling the Play Store app is rarely necessary and would not fix an OS version mismatch; the issue is server-side compatibility filtering, not a corrupted client. Option D is wrong because if the user were not signed into their Google account, they would be prompted to sign in, not blocked from installing due to version incompatibility; the Play Store requires an account for any installation, so this would be a different error.

518
MCQmedium

A user reports that their iPhone will not connect to a Bluetooth speaker that is in pairing mode. The speaker is listed in the iPhone's Bluetooth settings but tapping it does nothing. What should the technician try first?

A.Restart the iPhone.
B.Forget the speaker in Bluetooth settings and re-pair.
C.Reset the network settings on the iPhone.
D.Update the speaker's firmware.
AnswerB

This removes the old pairing data, allowing the iPhone to establish a new connection with the speaker.

Why this answer

When a Bluetooth speaker is listed in the iPhone's settings but tapping it fails to connect, the most common cause is a corrupted pairing record. Selecting 'Forget This Device' removes the stored link key, forcing a fresh pairing handshake that re-establishes the correct encryption and service discovery. This is the first-line troubleshooting step because it directly addresses the stored connection state without affecting other network settings or requiring a device restart.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a full device restart or network reset is required for Bluetooth issues, when in fact the targeted step of forgetting and re-pairing resolves the majority of corrupted-link-key scenarios without collateral damage.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because restarting the iPhone clears temporary caches but does not remove the corrupted pairing record; the same faulty link key will be reloaded, so the connection will still fail. Option C is wrong because resetting network settings is an overly aggressive step that wipes all Wi-Fi networks, VPNs, and cellular settings, while the issue is isolated to a single Bluetooth pairing record. Option D is wrong because updating the speaker's firmware is a valid long-term fix for compatibility bugs, but it is not the first step; the technician should first attempt the simpler, non-destructive re-pairing process.

519
MCQmedium

During a site survey, a technician finds that a new access point on the 2.4 GHz band is experiencing heavy interference. The access point automatically selected channel 6. Which action should the technician take to minimize interference?

A.Enable WPA3 encryption to reduce interference.
B.Change the channel to 1 or 11.
C.Set the channel width to 40 MHz.
D.Disable the 2.4 GHz radio and use only 5 GHz.
AnswerB

Channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping; switching to a less congested one reduces co-channel interference.

Why this answer

In the 2.4 GHz band, only channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping (each occupies 22 MHz with 5 MHz spacing). Since channel 6 is already experiencing heavy interference, moving to channel 1 or 11 avoids co-channel and adjacent-channel interference from other devices on or near channel 6, minimizing contention.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that any channel change will help, but the trap here is that only channels 1, 6, or 11 are non-overlapping in 2.4 GHz, so switching to a channel like 3 or 9 would actually increase adjacent-channel interference.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WPA3 encryption secures data but does not reduce radio frequency interference; interference is a physical-layer issue, not a security-layer one. Option C is wrong because setting the channel width to 40 MHz on 2.4 GHz consumes more spectrum and actually increases the chance of interference, as it overlaps multiple non-overlapping channels and violates best practices for dense deployments. Option D is wrong because disabling the 2.4 GHz radio may not be practical or necessary; the technician should first try a different non-overlapping channel before abandoning the band entirely, as many legacy clients still require 2.4 GHz connectivity.

520
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a network where users can access internal resources but cannot reach any external websites. The internal network uses a proxy server. The technician finds that the proxy server is configured to use a specific protocol to forward requests to the internet. Which protocol is the proxy server most likely using to communicate with external web servers?

A.FTP
B.DNS
C.HTTP
D.SNMP
AnswerC

HTTP is the protocol used by proxy servers to forward web requests to external servers.

Why this answer

The proxy server is most likely using HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) to forward requests to external web servers. Since users are accessing internal resources but cannot reach external websites, the proxy server acts as an intermediary for web traffic. HTTP is the standard protocol for web communication, and proxy servers typically use HTTP (or HTTPS) to forward client requests to internet web servers, as it allows the proxy to cache, filter, and modify web traffic.

Exam trap

Candidates may confuse the protocol used for internal client-to-proxy communication (HTTP/HTTPS) with the protocol used for proxy-to-external server communication, or mistakenly think DNS or FTP are used for forwarding web requests. In CompTIA A+, remember that proxy servers use HTTP/HTTPS to forward web requests to external servers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (FTP) is wrong because FTP is a file transfer protocol used for uploading/downloading files, not for forwarding general web requests to external servers; proxy servers do not use FTP as the primary protocol for internet web access. Option B (DNS) is wrong because DNS is a name resolution protocol that translates domain names to IP addresses, not a protocol for forwarding web requests; while DNS is necessary for resolving external hostnames, the proxy server itself uses HTTP to communicate with web servers. Option D (SNMP) is wrong because SNMP is a network management protocol used for monitoring and managing network devices, not for forwarding client web requests to the internet.

521
MCQmedium

A customer complains that their inkjet printer's output has horizontal white lines across the page. The cartridges are new and the printer passes a nozzle check pattern. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the printhead
B.Clean the encoder strip
C.Inspect the paper feed rollers
D.Update the printer driver
AnswerC

Worn or dirty feed rollers cause inconsistent paper movement, resulting in horizontal white lines.

Why this answer

Horizontal white lines on inkjet output often indicate a paper feed issue, such as dirty or worn feed rollers. The roller's surface can lose traction, causing the paper to feed unevenly and creating gaps. Cleaning or replacing the feed rollers typically resolves the problem.

522
MCQeasy

A small office has a single switch connecting all workstations. Several users report that they cannot access the internet, but they can still communicate with each other on the local network. What is the most likely cause?

A.The switch has a bad port.
B.The router is not properly routing traffic to the internet.
C.The DNS server is unreachable.
D.The workstations have incorrect subnet masks.
AnswerB

If the router is down or misconfigured, local traffic within the switch works, but internet-bound traffic fails because routing is broken.

Why this answer

Local communication working while internet access fails points to a problem with the router or the connection between the switch and the router. The switch itself is functioning correctly for local traffic, so the issue is upstream.

523
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a corporate iPhone for a new executive. The user needs to access company email, calendar, and contacts, but the company requires that all data be encrypted and the device be remotely wipeable. Which configuration step is essential?

A.Install a third-party antivirus app.
B.Enable the device's passcode and Touch ID/Face ID.
C.Disable iCloud backup for the device.
D.Set up a VPN connection for all traffic.
AnswerB

Correct. A passcode is required to enable hardware encryption and to allow remote wipe via MDM.

Why this answer

Enabling the device's passcode and Touch ID/Face ID is essential because it activates hardware-backed encryption on iOS devices. Without a passcode, iOS cannot generate the encryption key required to protect data at rest, and remote wipe capabilities are contingent on the device being able to authenticate and enforce management commands. This step directly satisfies the corporate requirements for data encryption and remote wipeability.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that encryption requires a third-party tool or that VPNs provide device-level encryption, when in fact iOS's built-in Data Protection is triggered solely by enabling a passcode.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because iOS's sandbox architecture and app review process make traditional antivirus software unnecessary and ineffective; iOS does not allow third-party apps to scan system files or other apps' data. Option C is wrong because disabling iCloud backup does not enable encryption or remote wipe; it only prevents data from being backed up to iCloud, which is a separate data protection concern. Option D is wrong because a VPN encrypts data in transit, not data at rest on the device, and does not provide device-level encryption or remote wipe capabilities.

524
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a small network with five computers and a printer. The network must use private IP addresses and allow all devices to communicate. The technician assigns IPs manually but forgets to set a default gateway on one computer. Which functionality will be lost on that computer?

A.Ability to communicate with the printer
B.Ability to access the internet
C.Ability to obtain an IP address via DHCP
D.Ability to resolve DNS names
AnswerB

Without a default gateway, the computer cannot send packets to destinations outside its own subnet, so internet access is lost.

Why this answer

The default gateway is the router's IP address that provides a path to networks outside the local subnet. Without a default gateway, the computer can still communicate with other devices on the same local network (like the printer and other computers) using ARP and direct MAC addressing, but it cannot reach any destination outside its own subnet, including the internet. The technician manually assigned IPs, so DHCP is not involved, and DNS resolution would still work for local names but would fail for external names only because the DNS query packets cannot leave the subnet without a gateway.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that a missing default gateway prevents all communication, but the trap here is that local subnet communication (like with a printer) works fine because it uses ARP and direct MAC addressing, not routing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because communication with the printer occurs on the same local subnet using ARP and direct MAC frames, which does not require a default gateway. Option C is wrong because the technician assigned IPs manually (static configuration), so DHCP is not used at all; the computer never attempts to obtain an IP via DHCP. Option D is wrong because DNS resolution itself is not directly dependent on the default gateway; a DNS server on the local subnet could still be queried, but if the DNS server is external, the query would fail due to the missing gateway, not because DNS resolution is inherently lost.

525
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop cannot connect to the internet, but other devices on the same wired network work fine. The technician checks the IP configuration and sees the laptop has an IP address of 169.254.3.12. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DNS server is unreachable
B.The DHCP server is not responding
C.The default gateway is misconfigured
D.The network cable is faulty
AnswerB

APIPA addresses are assigned when DHCP fails, so the most likely cause is that the DHCP server is unreachable or not functioning.

Why this answer

The IP address 169.254.3.12 falls within the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range (169.254.0.0/16), which Windows assigns when a DHCP discovery broadcast fails to receive a response. Since other devices on the same wired network work fine, the issue is isolated to this laptop's inability to reach the DHCP server, most likely due to a local configuration problem or a faulty network interface.

Exam trap

The most common mistake on this question is to assume that a 169.254.x.x address points to a DNS or gateway problem, but APIPA specifically indicates a DHCP failure, not a higher-layer or routing issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a DNS server being unreachable would not cause the laptop to obtain an APIPA address; DNS failures occur after IP configuration is complete and would still show a valid DHCP-assigned IP. Option C is wrong because a misconfigured default gateway would still allow the laptop to obtain a proper DHCP lease; the APIPA address indicates the DHCP process itself failed, not a routing issue. Option D is wrong because a faulty network cable would typically result in a 'Network cable unplugged' error or a link light issue, not the assignment of an APIPA address; the laptop would not even attempt DHCP discovery if the physical layer were down.

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