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CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 226–300

1020 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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226

MCQhard

A user reports that their PC's USB 3.0 ports are only operating at USB 2.0 speeds. The device works fine on another computer. The motherboard has both USB 3.0 and USB 2.0 headers. What is the most likely cause?

A.The USB 3.0 controller driver is not installed

B.The USB cable is too long

C.The front panel USB 3.0 header is loose

D.The motherboard's USB 3.0 controller is faulty

AnswerA

Without the correct driver, the USB 3.0 ports will default to USB 2.0 speeds.

Why this answer

USB 3.0 ports require a dedicated controller and proper driver support. If the USB 3.0 driver is missing or the controller is disabled in BIOS, the ports will fall back to USB 2.0 speeds. This is a common issue after a fresh OS install or BIOS reset.

Full explanation →

227

MCQeasy

A company wants to allow employees to securely access the corporate network from home using their laptops. Which network service should be deployed to provide encrypted remote access?

A.DHCP

B.DNS

C.VPN

D.Port forwarding

AnswerC

VPN establishes an encrypted connection over the internet, enabling secure remote access to the corporate network.

Why this answer

C is correct because a Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted tunnel between the employee's laptop and the corporate network, typically using protocols such as IPsec or TLS. This ensures that all data transmitted over the public internet is confidential and integrity-protected, meeting the requirement for secure remote access.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that port forwarding alone provides secure remote access, but candidates must remember that port forwarding lacks encryption and authentication, making it insecure for remote connectivity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices, not to provide encryption or secure remote access. Option B is wrong because DNS (Domain Name System) translates domain names to IP addresses and does not offer any encryption or secure tunneling capabilities. Option D is wrong because port forwarding is a NAT technique that maps external ports to internal IP addresses and ports; it does not encrypt traffic and exposes internal services directly to the internet without security.

Full explanation →

228

MCQeasy

A technician is configuring a new web server that must support both standard HTTP and HTTPS traffic. Which two ports should be opened in the firewall?

A.80 and 443

B.21 and 22

C.8080 and 8443

D.25 and 110

AnswerA

Port 80 (HTTP) and port 443 (HTTPS) are the standard ports for web traffic.

Why this answer

Standard HTTP traffic uses TCP port 80, and HTTPS (HTTP over TLS/SSL) uses TCP port 443. A web server must have both ports open in the firewall to serve unencrypted and encrypted web content respectively, as defined in RFC 7230 and RFC 2818.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ exams often test the distinction between default well-known ports (80/443) and alternative ports (8080/8443) to catch candidates who confuse common development proxies with standard service ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because ports 21 and 22 are used for FTP and SSH respectively, not for web traffic. Option C is wrong because ports 8080 and 8443 are alternative (non-standard) ports often used for proxy or development servers, not the default ports for HTTP and HTTPS. Option D is wrong because ports 25 and 110 are used for SMTP (email sending) and POP3 (email retrieval), not for web serving.

Full explanation →

229

MCQhard

A user reports that their LCD monitor intermittently goes black for 2-3 seconds, then returns to normal. This happens randomly, not during any specific activity. The monitor's power LED stays green during the blackouts. Which component is most likely failing?

A.The video cable is loose

B.The graphics card is overheating

C.The monitor's backlight or inverter is failing

D.The monitor's power supply is failing

AnswerC

Intermittent backlight failure causes the screen to go dark while power remains on, as the LCD panel itself still receives signal.

Why this answer

A green power LED during blackouts indicates the monitor is receiving power and signal, but the backlight is failing. Intermittent backlight failure is a common issue in aging CCFL or LED-backlit LCDs, often due to failing capacitors or inverter. The correct answer identifies the backlight or inverter as the culprit, as the display logic is still working.

Full explanation →

230

MCQhard

A technician is installing a power supply in a new build. The case has a bottom-mounted PSU bay with a dust filter. The technician notices that the PSU fan faces downward. Is this correct?

A.No, the fan should face upward to exhaust hot air from inside the case.

B.Yes, the fan should face downward to draw cool air from outside the case.

C.No, the PSU should be mounted fan-up to prevent dust from entering.

D.The orientation does not matter as long as the PSU is securely mounted.

AnswerB

This is the correct orientation for a bottom-mounted PSU with a dust filter; it ensures the PSU gets cool, filtered air.

Why this answer

In a bottom-mounted PSU configuration, the fan should face downward to draw cool air from outside the case through the dust filter. This improves cooling efficiency and reduces dust buildup inside the case.

Full explanation →

231

MCQhard

A customer brings in a PC that was working fine until they moved it to a new desk. Now it powers on but immediately shuts off after 2 seconds. The technician notes that the CPU fan does not spin at all. What is the most likely cause?

A.The power supply is failing under load.

B.The CPU fan header is disconnected from the motherboard.

C.The CPU is not seated properly.

D.The case power button is stuck in the pressed position.

AnswerB

Correct; if the CPU fan header is unplugged, the motherboard detects no fan and shuts down to prevent overheating, even if the CPU is cool.

Why this answer

Immediate shutdown after power-on is often a protection mechanism triggered by a missing CPU fan signal. The CPU fan not spinning at all suggests the fan connector is loose or unplugged, which is common after moving a PC.

Full explanation →

232

MCQhard

A user reports that their smartphone's mobile hotspot works for a few minutes, then the connected laptop loses internet access, but the smartphone still shows a cellular data connection. The hotspot remains enabled. What is the most likely cause?

A.The smartphone's battery saver mode is limiting hotspot performance.

B.The carrier is throttling the hotspot data after a usage threshold.

C.The laptop's Wi-Fi adapter is overheating.

D.The smartphone is switching to a different cellular band.

AnswerB

Many carriers throttle hotspot data after a certain amount of usage, causing the connection to become too slow to load pages, even though the hotspot is still enabled.

Why this answer

Carrier throttling can reduce data speeds after a certain amount of data is used, making the connection too slow for practical use. This is common on unlimited plans that throttle after a threshold, and the hotspot may still appear active but with severely limited throughput.

Full explanation →

233

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new web server that must be accessible from the internet using HTTPS. The server is behind a firewall that performs port forwarding. After configuration, external users cannot reach the server, but internal users can. Which protocol and port combination must be forwarded to the server?

A.TCP 80

B.UDP 443

C.TCP 443

D.TCP 3389

AnswerC

HTTPS uses TCP port 443, so forwarding this port allows secure web access from the internet.

Why this answer

HTTPS uses TCP port 443 by default. Since the server must be accessible from the internet via HTTPS, the firewall must forward TCP port 443 to the server's internal IP address. Internal users can reach the server because they are on the same local network and bypass the firewall's port forwarding rule, but external traffic on port 443 is blocked unless the rule is correctly configured.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistakenly choose UDP 443 due to confusion with QUIC or DNS, but the CompTIA A+ exam expects TCP 443 as the standard for HTTPS traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because TCP port 80 is used for HTTP, not HTTPS; forwarding port 80 would only allow unencrypted web traffic. Option B is wrong because UDP 443 is not the standard transport for HTTPS; HTTPS relies on TCP for reliable, ordered delivery, and while QUIC uses UDP 443, the question specifies HTTPS (which traditionally uses TCP). Option D is wrong because TCP 3389 is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), not for web server traffic.

Full explanation →

234

MCQeasy

A small office uses a wireless printer that supports Wi-Fi Direct. Several employees want to print from their smartphones without connecting to the company's wireless network. What is the simplest way to achieve this?

A.Connect the printer to the office router via Ethernet.

B.Enable the printer's Bluetooth and pair each phone.

C.Use the printer's Wi-Fi Direct feature to connect each phone directly.

D.Install a USB hub and connect all phones to the printer.

AnswerC

Wi-Fi Direct creates a peer-to-peer connection, allowing phones to print without a network.

Why this answer

Wi-Fi Direct allows devices to connect peer-to-peer without a traditional wireless access point. Since the printer supports Wi-Fi Direct, each smartphone can connect directly to the printer's own Wi-Fi Direct network, enabling printing without joining the company's wireless network. This is the simplest method because it requires no additional hardware or network configuration.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse Wi-Fi Direct and Bluetooth as peer-to-peer wireless methods; the trap here is that they may overlook Wi-Fi Direct's superior speed and range for printing tasks, which is a common CompTIA A+ exam point.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because connecting the printer to the office router via Ethernet would require the smartphones to be on the same network as the printer, which contradicts the requirement of not connecting to the company's wireless network. Option B is wrong because the printer supports Wi-Fi Direct, not Bluetooth; Bluetooth printing would require the printer to have Bluetooth hardware and would typically offer slower speeds and shorter range than Wi-Fi Direct. Option D is wrong because USB hubs are designed for connecting multiple USB devices to a single host, not for connecting multiple phones to a printer; smartphones do not typically support USB host mode for printing, and this would be impractical and unsupported.

Full explanation →

235

MCQeasy

A technician is replacing a power supply in an office desktop. The new PSU has a 24-pin main connector, but the motherboard has a 20-pin socket. What should the technician do?

A.Use a 24-pin to 20-pin adapter.

B.Force the 24-pin connector into the 20-pin socket.

C.Separate the detachable 4-pin section from the 24-pin connector and use the remaining 20-pin part.

D.Return the PSU and buy one with a 20-pin connector.

AnswerC

Most 24-pin connectors have a detachable 4-pin section, allowing them to fit 20-pin motherboards. This is the standard procedure.

Why this answer

Modern ATX power supplies often have a 24-pin connector that is backward compatible with 20-pin motherboards; the extra 4 pins can be slid or snapped off. This allows the PSU to work without modification. Forcing the 24-pin into a 20-pin socket could damage the board.

Full explanation →

236

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a system that randomly restarts under load. The CPU temperature never exceeds 75°C, and the power supply is rated at 750W. Which of the following should the technician check next?

A.Replace the CPU cooler

B.Check the CPU voltage settings in BIOS

C.Update the network driver

D.Replace the RAM

AnswerB

Insufficient Vcore voltage can cause random restarts under load even if temperatures are fine, as the CPU may not receive stable power.

Why this answer

When thermal and power supply are ruled out, voltage regulation becomes a suspect. The CPU's Vcore voltage may be set too low in BIOS, causing instability under load.

Full explanation →

237

MCQeasy

A user wants to boot their laptop from a USB flash drive to run a diagnostic tool. They have already inserted the USB drive and restarted the system. What is the most efficient way to temporarily change the boot order to boot from the USB drive?

A.Enter the UEFI setup and change the boot order permanently.

B.Press the appropriate key to open the one-time boot menu and select the USB drive.

C.Disable Secure Boot in the UEFI settings.

D.Remove all other bootable drives from the system.

AnswerB

The one-time boot menu is designed for temporary boot device selection; it's the quickest method for a single boot from a different device.

Why this answer

Most modern UEFI systems allow you to press a key (like F12, F2, Esc) during startup to access a one-time boot menu. This lets you select the boot device for that session without permanently changing the boot order.

Full explanation →

238

MCQeasy

A customer brings in a laptop that will not charge. The technician checks the AC adapter with a multimeter and gets 19V output. When the adapter is plugged into the laptop, the charging LED does not illuminate. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the laptop's battery

B.Test the DC jack for continuity

C.Update the laptop's BIOS

D.Replace the AC adapter with a universal one

AnswerB

A broken DC jack or loose connection can interrupt power delivery even if the adapter is good. Checking continuity verifies the path from jack to motherboard.

Why this answer

Since the AC adapter is outputting correct voltage, the issue is likely in the power delivery path. The DC jack is a common failure point due to mechanical stress or broken solder joints. Testing continuity at the jack is a logical next step.

Full explanation →

239

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop computer randomly shuts down after a few minutes of gaming, but it runs fine during light tasks. You suspect the power supply is failing. Which tool should you use to confirm the power supply's output voltages are within ATX specification?

A.A power supply tester

B.A multimeter

C.A loopback plug

D.An ESD strap

AnswerB

A multimeter can measure DC voltage on each rail (e.g., +12V, +5V, +3.3V) while the system is running, confirming if voltages are within ATX tolerances.

Why this answer

A multimeter is the correct tool for measuring DC voltages from a power supply. The ATX specification defines acceptable voltage ranges (e.g., +12V ±5%), and a multimeter can verify these under load. Other tools like a PSU tester or loopback plug may indicate basic function but don't measure actual voltage levels accurately.

Full explanation →

240

MCQhard

A user’s laptop connects to the corporate Wi-Fi but cannot access the internet. Other devices on the same SSID work fine. The technician checks the laptop’s IP configuration and sees an IPv4 address of 169.254.12.34. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The laptop is connected to the wrong SSID

B.The DHCP server is out of addresses

C.The laptop’s wireless adapter is faulty

D.The laptop’s DHCP client is disabled or malfunctioning

AnswerD

A disabled or broken DHCP client prevents the laptop from requesting an IP, causing it to self-assign an APIPA address.

Why this answer

The 169.254.x.x address is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned by Windows when the DHCP client fails to obtain a lease from a DHCP server. Since other devices on the same SSID work fine, the DHCP server is functional and has available addresses, isolating the issue to the laptop's DHCP client service being disabled or malfunctioning, which prevents it from requesting or renewing an IP address.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that a 169.254.x.x address always indicates a DHCP server problem, but the key detail here is that other devices work, which shifts the fault to the client's DHCP client service rather than the server.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the laptop is already connected to the corporate Wi-Fi (same SSID as working devices), so being on the wrong SSID would not yield a 169.254.x.x address—it would either get a valid IP from that SSID's DHCP or fail to connect entirely. Option B is wrong because if the DHCP server were out of addresses, other devices on the same SSID would also fail to obtain an IP and would likely show APIPA addresses, but they work fine, indicating the server has available leases. Option C is wrong because a faulty wireless adapter would typically prevent association or cause intermittent connectivity, not result in a specific APIPA address; the adapter is functioning enough to connect and receive an IP configuration, just not from DHCP.

Full explanation →

241

MCQhard

A company is migrating a critical application from a physical server to a virtual machine. The application requires a static MAC address tied to its license. The technician performs a P2V migration and starts the VM, but the application fails to activate. The technician verifies that the VM has the same MAC address as the original physical server. What is the most likely cause of the activation failure?

A.The virtual switch is set to NAT, blocking the license server

B.The VM's BIOS UUID has changed from the physical server

C.The VM has insufficient RAM allocated

D.The hypervisor does not support the application's OS

AnswerB

License activation often ties to the system's unique identifiers like BIOS UUID; virtualization changes these, causing activation failure despite the same MAC.

Why this answer

Even with the same MAC address, the hypervisor presents a different hardware abstraction layer (e.g., motherboard chipset, BIOS) than the physical server. Many license activation mechanisms check multiple hardware identifiers, not just the MAC address.

Full explanation →

242

MCQmedium

A user reports that they can access internal resources using IP addresses but cannot access them using hostnames. Other users on the same network have no issues. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DHCP server is out of addresses

B.The DNS server is down

C.The user's DNS settings are incorrect

D.The router's NAT is misconfigured

AnswerC

Incorrect DNS settings on the user's device prevent hostname resolution while IP-based access still works.

Why this answer

The ability to use IP addresses but not hostnames points to a DNS resolution problem on the user's device. This could be due to a misconfigured DNS server address in the network settings or a local hosts file issue. Other users working normally suggests the problem is client-specific.

Full explanation →

243

MCQhard

A network administrator needs to allow secure remote administration of a router using SSH. The router is configured to use the default SSH port. Which port must be opened on the firewall?

A.22

B.23

C.161

D.443

AnswerA

Port 22 is the default SSH port, used for secure remote administration.

Why this answer

SSH (Secure Shell) operates on TCP port 22 by default. To allow secure remote administration of the router, the firewall must permit inbound TCP traffic on port 22. This enables encrypted management sessions, unlike Telnet which uses unencrypted port 23.

Exam trap

In the CompTIA A+ exam, candidates often confuse SSH (port 22) with Telnet (port 23). Since the question specifies 'secure' remote administration, the correct answer is SSH port 22, not Telnet's unencrypted port 23.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because port 23 is used by Telnet, which transmits data in plaintext and is not secure for remote administration. Option C is wrong because port 161 is used by SNMP for network management polling, not for remote shell access. Option D is wrong because port 443 is used by HTTPS for secure web traffic, not for SSH remote administration.

Full explanation →

244

MCQeasy

A customer wants to connect two switches in different buildings about 150 meters apart. The link must support at least 1 Gbps. Which cabling solution is most appropriate?

A.Cat6a copper cable.

B.Cat5e copper cable with a repeater.

C.Single-mode fiber optic cable.

D.Coaxial cable with a balun.

AnswerC

Single-mode fiber supports Gigabit speeds over distances well beyond 150 meters.

Why this answer

Single-mode fiber optic cable is the most appropriate solution because it supports 1 Gbps over distances far exceeding 150 meters, with typical reach up to 10 km or more. Unlike copper cabling, single-mode fiber is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and signal degradation over longer runs, making it ideal for inter-building connections where electrical isolation and distance are critical factors.

Exam trap

The 100-meter distance limitation for copper Ethernet cabling (Cat5e, Cat6, Cat6a) is a common testing point; any run beyond 100 meters requires fiber or a repeater, but the most appropriate and scalable solution for inter-building links is fiber, not copper with repeaters.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cat6a copper cable is limited to a maximum distance of 100 meters for 10GBASE-T (and 1 Gbps over 100 meters), so it cannot reliably span 150 meters without signal loss or the need for a repeater. Option B is wrong because Cat5e copper cable with a repeater introduces an active component that adds cost, complexity, and potential points of failure, and Cat5e itself is only rated for 1 Gbps up to 100 meters; using a repeater for a 150-meter link is less efficient and less reliable than fiber. Option D is wrong because coaxial cable with a balun is typically used for legacy video or RF applications, not for modern 1 Gbps Ethernet, and it lacks the bandwidth and standardized support for Gigabit Ethernet over such distances.

Full explanation →

245

MCQmedium

A user complains that their laptop frequently disconnects from the Wi-Fi when they move from their desk to a conference room 30 meters away. The office uses a single wireless access point (AP). Which network type is being used, and what is the most likely cause of the disconnection?

A.Ad hoc network; the laptop is trying to connect directly to other devices.

B.Infrastructure mode WLAN; the AP's signal strength is insufficient at that distance.

C.Mesh network; the laptop is roaming between mesh nodes.

D.PAN network; the laptop is using Bluetooth, which has limited range.

AnswerB

Infrastructure mode uses an AP; 30 meters can exceed the effective range, especially with obstacles, causing disconnections.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B because the scenario describes an infrastructure mode WLAN, where devices connect through a single access point. The disconnection at 30 meters is most likely due to insufficient signal strength from that AP, as typical consumer-grade Wi-Fi (e.g., 2.4 GHz) has an effective indoor range of about 30–40 meters, and obstacles or interference can further reduce it.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between infrastructure mode and ad hoc or mesh networks, trapping candidates who confuse a single-AP setup with a mesh or who incorrectly attribute disconnections to roaming rather than signal strength.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an ad hoc network involves direct device-to-device connections without an AP, but the user is connecting through a single AP, which is infrastructure mode. Option C is wrong because a mesh network uses multiple interconnected APs to extend coverage, but the office has only a single AP, so roaming between mesh nodes is not possible. Option D is wrong because a PAN (Personal Area Network) typically uses Bluetooth, which has a range of about 10 meters, but the user is connecting to Wi-Fi, not Bluetooth, and the distance is 30 meters, far exceeding Bluetooth's range.

Full explanation →

246

MCQmedium

A user needs to transfer files securely between two Linux servers over the internet. Which port should be allowed through the firewall for this purpose?

A.21

B.22

C.20

D.443

AnswerB

Port 22 is SSH, which SFTP uses for secure file transfers.

Why this answer

Secure file transfer between Linux servers typically uses SCP (Secure Copy) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol), both of which operate over SSH. SSH uses TCP port 22 by default, so allowing port 22 through the firewall enables encrypted authentication and data transfer. This is the correct choice because it provides confidentiality and integrity for the file transfer over the internet.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse FTP (ports 20/21) with secure file transfer, forgetting that FTP lacks encryption, or they mistakenly think HTTPS (port 443) is the standard for server-to-server file transfers, when SSH on port 22 is the correct protocol for secure Linux-to-Linux transfers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 21 is used for FTP control, which transmits credentials and data in cleartext, making it insecure for transfers over the internet. Option C is wrong because port 20 is used for FTP data transfer in active mode, but like port 21, it lacks encryption and is not suitable for secure transfers. Option D is wrong because port 443 is used for HTTPS (HTTP over TLS), which is designed for web traffic, not for direct file transfer between Linux servers via SCP or SFTP.

Full explanation →

247

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a dual-monitor setup for a stock trader. One monitor is a 24-inch 1080p display, and the other is a 27-inch 4K display. The user wants the mouse to move seamlessly between them. What setting must the technician configure in the OS display settings?

A.Set both monitors to the same resolution.

B.Adjust the scaling settings on the 4K monitor.

C.Arrange the displays in the OS to match their physical positions.

D.Set the 4K monitor as the primary display.

AnswerC

Properly arranging the displays in the OS ensures the mouse cursor moves seamlessly from one screen to the other.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the OS display arrangement settings (e.g., in Windows Display Settings or macOS Displays) allow the technician to drag and position the virtual representations of the monitors to match their physical placement. This ensures that the cursor moves seamlessly across the bezel edge from one screen to the other, preventing it from getting 'stuck' at an invisible boundary. Without this alignment, the mouse may jump to an unexpected location or fail to cross between displays smoothly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse display arrangement (spatial alignment) with resolution, scaling, or primary display settings, mistakenly thinking that matching resolutions or adjusting scaling is required for seamless cursor movement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because forcing both monitors to the same resolution (e.g., 1080p on the 4K display) would degrade the 4K monitor's native resolution, defeating its purpose for a stock trader who needs high-density detail. Option B is wrong because adjusting scaling on the 4K monitor (e.g., 150% or 200%) changes the size of UI elements but does not affect the cursor's ability to move between displays; scaling is unrelated to display arrangement. Option D is wrong because setting the 4K monitor as the primary display only determines where the taskbar and default windows appear, not the spatial relationship that enables seamless cursor movement.

Full explanation →

248

MCQeasy

A customer reports that their new Gigabit Ethernet connection is only achieving 100 Mbps speeds. The cable run is 75 meters through a drop ceiling and uses a Cat5e cable. What is the most likely cause of the speed limitation?

A.The cable is too long for Cat5e.

B.The cable is actually Cat5, not Cat5e.

C.The cable is shielded and causing interference.

D.The network switch port is faulty.

AnswerB

Cat5 only supports 100 Mbps, while Cat5e supports 1000 Mbps. This is the most common cause of speed limitations in older installations.

Why this answer

Cat5e is rated for Gigabit Ethernet (1000BASE-T) up to 100 meters. However, if the cable is actually Cat5 (not Cat5e), it is only certified for 100 Mbps (100BASE-TX) at that distance. The 75-meter run is within spec for Cat5e, so the most likely cause is that the installed cable is Cat5, which cannot reliably support 1000BASE-T.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that cable length is the primary limiting factor for Gigabit Ethernet, when in fact Cat5e supports up to 100 meters, and the real issue is often the cable category or a fallback negotiation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cat5e supports Gigabit Ethernet up to 100 meters, and 75 meters is well within that limit. Option C is wrong because shielded cable (STP) does not inherently cause interference; in fact, it reduces electromagnetic interference, and proper termination would not limit speed to 100 Mbps. Option D is wrong because a faulty switch port would typically cause link drops, errors, or no link at all, rather than a consistent 100 Mbps speed cap.

Full explanation →

249

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a user's laptop that cannot obtain an IP address via DHCP. The laptop shows an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address of 169.254.x.x. Other devices on the same network obtain IPs correctly. Which protocol should the technician verify is functioning on the laptop?

A.DNS

B.ARP

C.DHCP

D.ICMP

AnswerC

DHCP is responsible for assigning IP addresses; its failure results in an APIPA address.

Why this answer

The laptop has an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), which is assigned when a DHCP client fails to receive a DHCPOFFER from any DHCP server. Since other devices on the same network obtain IPs correctly, the DHCP server and network infrastructure are functional, so the issue is isolated to the laptop's DHCP client service or its ability to send and receive DHCP messages (UDP ports 67/68). The technician must verify that the DHCP protocol is functioning correctly on the laptop, including checking that the DHCP client service is running and that no firewall is blocking DHCP traffic.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that an APIPA address indicates a network-wide DHCP server failure. However, since other devices obtain IPs correctly, the issue is client-side. The technician must verify that the DHCP protocol is functioning on the laptop, not DNS, ARP, or ICMP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (DNS) is wrong because DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses and is not involved in the initial IP address assignment process; a device must have an IP address before it can use DNS. Option B (ARP) is wrong because ARP resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network and is used after an IP address is obtained, not for obtaining an IP address via DHCP. Option D (ICMP) is wrong because ICMP is used for network diagnostics (e.g., ping) and error reporting, not for dynamic IP address assignment.

Full explanation →

250

MCQmedium

A customer reports that their new Gigabit Ethernet connection is only achieving 100 Mbps speeds. The cable run is about 75 meters through a drop ceiling. The technician checks the patch panel and wall jack terminations, which appear correct. What is the most likely cause of the speed issue?

A.The cable run exceeds the maximum length for Gigabit Ethernet.

B.The cable is Cat5e or lower, which cannot support Gigabit Ethernet at that distance.

C.The wall jack is wired for T568B but the patch panel uses T568A.

D.The cable is shielded (STP) and the connectors are unshielded (UTP).

AnswerD

Correct. Using STP cable with UTP connectors prevents proper grounding, causing interference and speed downgrade to 100 Mbps.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the cable is shielded (STP) but the connectors are unshielded (UTP). When STP cable is used with UTP connectors, the shielding is not properly grounded, leading to signal interference and degradation. This often results in the link falling back to 100 Mbps.

The 75-meter run is within the 100-meter limit for Gigabit, and terminations appear correct, so the shield mismatch is the primary suspect.

Exam trap

Do not assume that a speed downgrade is always due to cable category; shielding mismatches and faulty pairs are common causes.

Full explanation →

251

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a PC that randomly freezes during boot. The technician notices that the motherboard has a 24-pin ATX power connector and an 8-pin EPS12V connector. The power supply only has a 4+4 pin CPU power cable. What should the technician do?

A.Connect only the 4-pin portion of the cable to the 8-pin header

B.Combine the two 4-pin halves to form an 8-pin connector and attach it

C.Use a 6-pin PCIe power cable in the 8-pin CPU header

D.Leave the 8-pin header unconnected and rely on the 24-pin connector

AnswerB

The 4+4 pin cable is specifically designed to be combined into an 8-pin EPS12V connector, providing full power to the CPU.

Why this answer

The 4+4 pin CPU power cable is designed to be used as an 8-pin EPS12V connector by combining the two halves. This is standard for modern power supplies. Using only a 4-pin connector may cause instability under load, but the 4+4 pin cable is fully compatible.

The 24-pin main connector is separate and already connected.

Full explanation →

252

MCQmedium

A user reports intermittent network drops. You suspect the issue might be with the network interface card (NIC) itself. You need to test the NIC's ability to send and receive data without connecting it to the network. Which tool should you use?

A.Cable tester

B.Toner probe

C.Loopback plug

D.Multimeter

AnswerC

A loopback plug creates a loop that allows the NIC to transmit and receive its own signal, confirming the adapter is working.

Why this answer

A loopback plug (or loopback adapter) is the correct tool because it connects the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) pins of the NIC, allowing it to send data to itself. This tests the NIC's ability to transmit and receive frames without requiring a network connection, isolating the NIC as the potential fault point.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between testing the NIC itself (loopback plug) versus testing the cable (cable tester), leading candidates to confuse a cable tester as a valid NIC diagnostic tool.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a cable tester is used to verify the integrity and wiring of Ethernet cables (e.g., checking for opens, shorts, or miswires), not to test a NIC's internal send/receive capability. Option B is wrong because a toner probe is used to trace and identify specific cables within a bundle by injecting an analog tone, not to test NIC functionality. Option D is wrong because a multimeter measures electrical properties like voltage, resistance, and continuity, which cannot validate Layer 2 data transmission or NIC operation.

Full explanation →

253

MCQeasy

During a network upgrade, a technician needs to ensure that all devices on a small office LAN receive IP addresses automatically from a central server. Which protocol must be running on that server?

A.DNS

B.HTTP

C.DHCP

D.FTP

AnswerC

DHCP is the protocol used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network settings to clients.

Why this answer

The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to automatically assign IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration parameters to devices on a LAN. A DHCP server listens on UDP port 67 and responds to client requests on UDP port 68, enabling zero-touch IP configuration for all devices on the network.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between DHCP and DNS, as candidates may confuse name resolution with IP address assignment, especially when both services are commonly run on the same server.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS (Domain Name System) resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not assign IP addresses to devices. Option B is wrong because HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring web content between clients and servers, not for automatic IP address assignment. Option D is wrong because FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between a client and a server on a network, and it has no role in IP address allocation.

Full explanation →

254

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a RAID 10 array for a database server using four 500 GB SSDs. After setup, the array shows a total capacity of 1 TB instead of 2 TB. What is the most likely reason for this discrepancy?

A.The RAID controller is faulty.

B.The array was accidentally configured as RAID 1.

C.The drives are not all the same size.

D.RAID 10 uses half the total capacity for mirroring.

AnswerD

RAID 10 mirrors data across pairs, so only half the raw capacity (2 TB) is available for storage (1 TB). This is expected behavior.

Why this answer

RAID 10 combines mirroring (RAID 1) and striping (RAID 0). With four drives, two mirrored pairs are created, so half the capacity is used for redundancy. The total usable capacity is (number of drives / 2) * drive size, which is 1 TB in this case.

Full explanation →

255

MCQmedium

A company's web server is accessible from the internet, but users report that the website loads slowly. The server's public IP is 203.0.113.10, and the internal IP is 192.168.1.10. The network administrator notices that the router's port forwarding rule is set to forward port 80 to 192.168.1.10:8080. What is the likely cause of the slow performance?

A.The DNS server is misconfigured

B.The NAT table is full

C.The port forwarding rule uses the wrong internal port

D.The DHCP scope is exhausted

AnswerC

If the web server listens on port 80 but the rule forwards to 8080, traffic is sent to a closed port, causing timeouts or slowness.

Why this answer

Port forwarding should map external port 80 to the server's internal port 80, not 8080 unless the server listens on 8080. If the server listens on port 80, the mismatch causes connection delays or errors as the router forwards to a closed port. Correcting the internal port resolves the issue.

Full explanation →

256

MCQmedium

A user reports that their iPad will not rotate the screen when the device is turned sideways, even though rotation lock is off. The issue started after a recent iOS update. What is the most likely cause?

A.The accelerometer sensor is damaged.

B.The app being used does not support landscape mode.

C.The rotation lock is enabled in the Control Center.

D.The iOS update corrupted the display driver.

AnswerC

Correct. The rotation lock icon in Control Center overrides the app setting and is often toggled accidentally.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the most common cause of screen rotation failure after an iOS update is that the update resets or changes Control Center settings, re-enabling the rotation lock. The user may have rotation lock off in Settings but it can be toggled on in Control Center without their knowledge, as iOS updates can alter Control Center configurations. The accelerometer and display driver are unlikely to be affected by a standard iOS update, and the issue is system-wide, not app-specific.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that hardware failures are the primary cause of post-update issues, but the trap here is that candidates overlook the simple software toggle in Control Center, assuming the user's statement 'rotation lock is off' refers only to the Settings app, not the Control Center override.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a damaged accelerometer would cause rotation issues regardless of rotation lock status and would not be triggered by a software update; hardware damage is not a typical consequence of an iOS update. Option B is wrong because the user reports the issue started after an iOS update and affects the device system-wide, not just a single app; if only one app lacked landscape support, other apps would still rotate. Option D is wrong because iOS updates do not corrupt display drivers; display drivers are part of the iOS kernel and are updated atomically, and a corrupted driver would cause display artifacts or a black screen, not just rotation failure.

Full explanation →

257

MCQeasy

A user complains that they cannot access a website by its domain name, but they can access it by typing the IP address directly. The user's computer is configured to obtain DNS automatically. What is the most likely issue?

A.The user's computer has a static IP address that conflicts with another device.

B.The DNS server is not responding or is misconfigured.

C.The user's browser cache is corrupted.

D.The website's IP address has changed.

AnswerB

Since the user can reach the site by IP, the network connection is fine. The problem is with DNS, which translates domain names to IP addresses.

Why this answer

The user can access the website by IP address but not by domain name, which indicates that DNS resolution is failing. Since the computer is configured to obtain DNS automatically, the most likely cause is that the DNS server assigned by DHCP is not responding or is misconfigured, preventing the translation of the domain name to an IP address.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse a DNS server problem with a browser cache issue or an IP address change, but the key clue is that direct IP access works while domain name access does not.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a static IP address conflict would cause network connectivity issues in general, not specifically prevent DNS resolution while allowing access by IP address. Option C is wrong because a corrupted browser cache might cause display or performance issues, but it would not prevent DNS resolution, which occurs at the OS level before the browser sends the request. Option D is wrong because if the website's IP address had changed, the user would still be able to access it by the new IP address directly, but the domain name would resolve to the old IP address, not fail entirely; the symptom of being unable to access by domain name at all points to a DNS server issue, not a changed IP.

Full explanation →

258

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that has a blinking battery light and will not power on, even when plugged into AC power. The technician has already verified the AC adapter is working on another laptop. Which component is most likely faulty?

A.The CPU

B.The RAM

C.The battery

D.The hard drive

AnswerC

A failed or deeply discharged battery can cause a blinking light and prevent the laptop from powering on, even with AC power connected.

Why this answer

A blinking battery light often indicates a battery or charging circuit error. Since the AC adapter is known to be good, the issue is likely with the laptop's internal battery, the DC jack, or the charging circuit on the motherboard. The battery is the most common failure point.

Full explanation →

259

MCQeasy

A user complains that their cloud-hosted virtual desktop is slow to open applications and frequently disconnects. They are using a satellite internet connection. Which cloud characteristic is most likely being impacted?

A.High availability

B.Elasticity

C.Latency

D.Scalability

AnswerC

Latency is the delay in data transmission, which is increased by satellite connections and causes slow performance.

Why this answer

This scenario tests understanding of cloud computing characteristics, specifically latency. Slow application opening and disconnections are classic symptoms of high latency, which is often caused by the physical distance data must travel over a satellite connection. The other options (elasticity, scalability, high availability) are cloud features that do not directly address network delay.

Full explanation →

260

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a wireless network for a small office that experiences heavy interference from neighboring businesses. The office uses many Bluetooth devices and cordless phones. Which 802.11 standard and frequency combination would minimize interference and provide the best performance?

A.802.11b/g on 2.4 GHz

B.802.11n on 2.4 GHz

C.802.11ac on 5 GHz

D.802.11ax on 2.4 GHz

AnswerC

802.11ac operates exclusively on 5 GHz, which is far less crowded and avoids the interference from 2.4 GHz devices.

Why this answer

802.11ac operates exclusively on the 5 GHz frequency band, which is far less congested than 2.4 GHz. This avoids interference from Bluetooth devices and cordless phones (which predominantly use 2.4 GHz), providing cleaner channels and better performance in a dense interference environment.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that newer standards like 802.11ax automatically solve interference problems, but the trap is that the frequency band choice (2.4 GHz vs. 5 GHz) is the primary factor in avoiding interference from common office devices like Bluetooth and cordless phones.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 802.11b/g operates only on the 2.4 GHz band, which is heavily shared with Bluetooth and cordless phones, leading to severe co-channel interference and poor performance. Option B is wrong because 802.11n on 2.4 GHz still uses the same crowded band, and while it offers better throughput than b/g, it does not avoid the interference sources. Option D is wrong because 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) on 2.4 GHz, despite its advanced OFDMA and BSS coloring features, still operates in the congested 2.4 GHz spectrum and will experience interference from Bluetooth and cordless phones; the question asks for the combination that minimizes interference, and 5 GHz is inherently less crowded.

Full explanation →

261

MCQmedium

A user reports that their laser printer prints a blank page after every print job. The document itself prints correctly, but an extra blank sheet follows. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer has a low toner cartridge

B.The printer driver is set to print a separator page

C.The fuser is malfunctioning

D.The paper size setting is wrong

AnswerB

Separator pages are intentionally blank or contain printer info; this setting causes an extra page.

Why this answer

An extra blank page after a print job is often caused by a setting in the printer driver or application that adds a separator page. This is common when 'Print separator page' is enabled. Checking the driver settings and disabling any separator page option usually resolves it.

Full explanation →

262

MCQmedium

A customer complains that their computer will not turn on. The power supply fan does not spin, and the motherboard LED is off. The technician tests the power supply with a multimeter and gets 0V on all pins. What should the technician do next?

A.Replace the motherboard.

B.Reseat the 24-pin power connector.

C.Replace the power supply with a known-good unit.

D.Check the wall outlet with a voltage tester.

AnswerD

Correct. A voltage tester on the wall outlet will confirm whether the PSU is receiving AC power. If the outlet works, then the PSU is the likely culprit.

Why this answer

A multimeter reading of 0V on all PSU pins indicates no power output, but this could be due to a dead PSU or lack of AC input. The most logical next step is to verify the wall outlet is supplying power using a voltage tester. If the outlet is good, then the PSU is faulty and should be replaced.

Replacing the PSU without checking the outlet first may not resolve the issue if the outlet is dead.

Exam trap

Technicians often jump to replacing the PSU without verifying the power source first. A simple outlet check can save time and avoid unnecessary part replacement.

Full explanation →

263

MCQhard

A user's iPhone 14 cannot make or receive calls, but can send iMessages and use the internet. The user has not changed any settings recently. What is the most likely cause?

A.The phone is in Airplane Mode.

B.The SIM card is damaged.

C.The carrier settings need to be updated.

D.The phone's microphone is broken.

AnswerC

Correct. Carrier settings control voice network parameters; an update can fix call issues without affecting data.

Why this answer

The ability to send iMessages and use the internet indicates that the device has a working data connection (cellular or Wi-Fi), but the inability to make or receive calls points to a problem with the carrier-specific settings that control voice services. Carrier settings updates are pushed by the carrier to configure network parameters such as APN, MMS, and voice-over-LTE (VoLTE) settings; if these are outdated or corrupted, voice calls may fail while data services remain functional. Since the user has not changed any settings, an automatic or pending carrier settings update is the most likely cause, as it can resolve mismatches between the device and the carrier's network.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between data and voice services to see if candidates understand that iMessages and internet use IP-based connectivity (cellular data or Wi-Fi), while traditional voice calls rely on carrier-specific circuit-switched or VoLTE configurations that are independent of the data APN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Airplane Mode disables all wireless radios (cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth), which would prevent both iMessages and internet usage, not just calls. Option B is wrong because a damaged SIM card would typically cause a complete loss of cellular connectivity, including data services, and the phone would show 'No SIM' or 'Invalid SIM' errors; it would not selectively break only voice calls while leaving iMessages and internet working. Option D is wrong because a broken microphone would affect the ability to transmit audio during calls, but it would not prevent the phone from making or receiving calls entirely; the call would still connect, and the other party would simply not hear the user.

Full explanation →

264

MCQmedium

A user reports that they can only access the internet intermittently. The technician runs ipconfig and sees an IPv4 address of 192.168.1.105 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. The technician pings the gateway successfully, but pings to 8.8.8.8 fail. What is the most likely issue?

A.The user's computer has a duplicate IP address.

B.The DNS server is not resolving addresses.

C.The router's WAN connection is down or misconfigured.

D.The user's firewall is blocking ICMP traffic.

AnswerC

Since the local network works but external IPs are unreachable, the problem is likely with the router's connection to the ISP or its WAN settings.

Why this answer

The technician can ping the local gateway (192.168.1.1) successfully, which confirms that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity within the local subnet is working and that the user's IP configuration is valid. However, pings to the public DNS server 8.8.8.8 fail, indicating that traffic cannot reach the internet. Since the gateway is reachable but external IPs are not, the most likely cause is that the router's WAN connection is down or misconfigured, preventing traffic from being routed beyond the local network.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between local and remote connectivity; the trap here is that candidates assume a successful ping to the gateway implies full internet access, but they overlook that the router's WAN link is a separate point of failure that does not affect LAN-side reachability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a duplicate IP address would cause intermittent connectivity and ARP conflicts, but the technician successfully pings the gateway, which would not be consistently possible if another device had the same IP. Option B is wrong because the ping test used the IP address 8.8.8.8, not a hostname, so DNS resolution is not involved in this failure. Option D is wrong because the user's firewall blocking ICMP would only affect the ping replies from the user's own machine, but the technician is pinging from the user's computer to 8.8.8.8; if the firewall were blocking outbound ICMP, the ping to the gateway would also fail, which it did not.

Full explanation →

265

MCQeasy

A technician is deploying a new virtual machine on a Type 2 hypervisor (hosted) for software testing. The host machine runs Windows 10 Pro with 16 GB RAM and a quad-core CPU. The test application requires 4 GB RAM and two virtual CPUs. After creating the VM with those settings, the technician notices the host becomes extremely sluggish even when the VM is idle. What is the most likely reason for this?

A.The hypervisor does not support hardware acceleration for the guest OS.

B.The host machine’s CPU does not support Intel VT-x or AMD-V.

C.The technician allocated too much RAM to the VM, leaving insufficient memory for the host OS.

D.The virtual switch is misconfigured, causing network loops.

AnswerB

Lack of Intel VT-x or AMD-V forces the hypervisor to use software emulation, causing continuous CPU overhead that degrades host performance even when the VM is idle. This is the most likely reason.

Why this answer

Type 2 hypervisors rely on hardware virtualization extensions (Intel VT-x or AMD-V) to run virtual machines efficiently. If the host CPU does not support these extensions (or they are disabled in the BIOS), the hypervisor falls back to software emulation, which imposes heavy overhead on the host CPU. This overhead is present even when the VM is idle because the hypervisor must constantly manage emulated instructions.

With the host running Windows 10 Pro and a quad-core CPU, the software emulation can cause the host to become sluggish. Allocating only 4 GB RAM to the VM leaves 12 GB for the host, which is sufficient for Windows 10 Pro and typical background processes, so option C is unlikely to be the cause.

Exam trap

Many candidates assume that host sluggishness is always due to RAM overallocation, but on a Type 2 hypervisor, the absence of hardware virtualization extensions can cause performance degradation even with modest VM resources.

Full explanation →

266

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a wireless network where users report intermittent connectivity and slow speeds. A spectrum analyzer shows high noise levels on the 2.4 GHz band from non-Wi-Fi sources. Which of the following is the MOST effective long-term solution?

A.Reduce the 2.4 GHz channel width to 20 MHz.

B.Implement DFS channels on the 5 GHz band.

C.Move all critical devices to the 5 GHz band.

D.Increase the transmit power on the 2.4 GHz radio.

AnswerC

5 GHz is less congested and has less non-Wi-Fi interference, providing a more stable connection.

Why this answer

The 5 GHz band has significantly more non-overlapping channels and is far less congested by non-Wi-Fi interference (e.g., microwaves, Bluetooth, cordless phones) than the 2.4 GHz band. Moving critical devices to 5 GHz avoids the interference source entirely, providing a stable long-term solution without compromising throughput or reliability.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that reducing channel width or increasing power can overcome interference, when in fact the most effective long-term solution is to move clients to a less congested frequency band.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reducing the 2.4 GHz channel width to 20 MHz may slightly improve noise immunity but does not eliminate the root cause—non-Wi-Fi interference—and reduces peak data rates. Option B is wrong because DFS channels on 5 GHz are designed to avoid radar interference, not to mitigate non-Wi-Fi interference on the 2.4 GHz band; they do not address the reported problem. Option D is wrong because increasing transmit power on 2.4 GHz can amplify the interference signal as well, potentially worsening co-channel interference and violating regulatory limits without solving the underlying noise issue.

Full explanation →

267

MCQmedium

A company uses a PaaS provider to deploy a custom web application. After an update, the application fails to start. The developer checks the code and finds no errors. What is the most likely cause of the failure?

A.The developer's local machine has a different operating system

B.The PaaS provider updated the runtime environment, breaking compatibility

C.The application's database connection string is incorrect

D.The cloud provider's physical server has a hardware fault

AnswerB

PaaS providers manage the runtime; an update can change versions or dependencies, causing the application to fail if not compatible.

Why this answer

In PaaS, the provider manages the runtime environment, including dependencies and configuration. An update may have changed the underlying platform (e.g., runtime version, library) that the application relies on, causing incompatibility. The developer's code is fine, so the issue is environmental.

Full explanation →

268

MCQhard

A user reports that their external monitor connected via USB-C (DisplayPort Alt Mode) works intermittently. When it does work, the resolution is limited to 1920x1080 even though the monitor supports 4K. The laptop supports USB-C with DisplayPort Alt Mode. What is the most likely cause?

A.The laptop's USB-C port is damaged.

B.The monitor's USB-C input is set to a lower resolution in its OSD.

C.The USB-C cable is not rated for video or high-speed data.

D.The graphics driver needs to be updated to support 4K over USB-C.

AnswerC

Using a cable that supports USB 2.0 only will cap video at 1080p and cause dropouts.

Why this answer

USB-C cables vary widely in capability; many only support USB 2.0 data speeds and lack the high-speed lanes needed for 4K video. For 4K over USB-C, the cable must be rated for DisplayPort Alt Mode and high bandwidth (e.g., USB 3.1 Gen 2 or Thunderbolt 3). A cable that only supports USB 2.0 will limit resolution and cause intermittent connectivity.

Full explanation →

269

MCQeasy

A technician is installing a new M.2 NVMe SSD in a desktop computer. After installation, the drive is not listed in the operating system's disk management tool, but it appears in the UEFI firmware interface. What should the technician do first?

A.Update the UEFI firmware to the latest version.

B.Initialize the disk in Disk Management and create a volume.

C.Change the SATA mode from AHCI to IDE in UEFI.

D.Reseat the M.2 drive in the slot.

AnswerB

A new drive needs to be initialized with a partition style (MBR or GPT) and formatted before the OS can use it; this is done in Disk Management.

Why this answer

When a drive is recognized in UEFI but not in the OS, it often means the drive is not initialized or formatted. Disk Management can initialize the drive and assign a file system, making it usable by the OS.

Full explanation →

270

MCQeasy

A user reports that their computer emits a loud, high-pitched whine when under load, but is silent at idle. The system is stable. What is the most likely cause?

A.The power supply fan bearing is failing, causing noise only when spinning faster.

B.The CPU cooler fan is unbalanced and vibrating against the case.

C.The power supply or GPU is experiencing coil whine due to electrical resonance.

D.The hard drive is making noise as it reads data during gaming.

AnswerC

Coil whine occurs when inductors vibrate under load, producing a high-pitched sound. It is normal and not harmful.

Why this answer

Coil whine is a common phenomenon in power supplies and graphics cards when current flow causes inductor coils to vibrate at a frequency within human hearing. It is not a sign of failure unless accompanied by other symptoms.

Full explanation →

271

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new Android tablet for a warehouse employee. The employee will use the tablet to scan barcodes and access a web-based inventory system. The tablet needs to stay connected to the Wi-Fi network even when the screen is off to receive updates. Which setting should the technician configure?

A.Set the screen timeout to 30 minutes

B.Enable 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' and set it to 'Always'

C.Disable Bluetooth

D.Install a third-party app to keep the screen on

AnswerB

This setting ensures the Wi-Fi radio remains active even when the device enters sleep mode, allowing continuous connectivity.

Why this answer

Android devices have a power-saving feature that disconnects Wi-Fi when the screen is off to save battery. To ensure the tablet stays connected, the technician must change the 'Keep Wi-Fi on during sleep' setting to 'Always'.

Full explanation →

272

MCQmedium

A user's laptop frequently disconnects from a 5 GHz Wi-Fi network when they move to a room two walls away from the access point. The 2.4 GHz network remains stable throughout the office. Which of the following best explains this behavior?

A.The 5 GHz network is overloaded with users.

B.The laptop's Wi-Fi adapter is faulty.

C.The 5 GHz signal has weaker penetration through walls.

D.The access point is configured to prioritize 2.4 GHz traffic.

AnswerC

5 GHz signals attenuate more quickly through obstacles like walls, causing disconnections at a distance.

Why this answer

The 5 GHz band uses higher frequency radio waves that attenuate more rapidly when passing through solid obstacles like walls, resulting in weaker signal penetration compared to the 2.4 GHz band. This physical property causes the laptop to disconnect from the 5 GHz network when moving two walls away, while the 2.4 GHz signal remains stable due to its longer wavelength and better ability to diffract around obstacles.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the misconception that 5 GHz is 'better' in all scenarios, trapping candidates who overlook the fundamental physics of signal propagation and attenuation at higher frequencies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because network congestion (overloaded users) would cause throughput degradation or latency, not a disconnect triggered specifically by moving through walls; the 5 GHz band actually offers more non-overlapping channels and typically handles congestion better than 2.4 GHz. Option B is wrong because a faulty Wi-Fi adapter would cause disconnections on both bands, not selectively on 5 GHz only, and the 2.4 GHz network remains stable, ruling out a hardware defect. Option D is wrong because access point traffic prioritization affects bandwidth allocation and QoS, not the physical ability of the signal to penetrate walls; prioritization settings do not cause a client to disconnect when moving to a different room.

Full explanation →

273

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network issue where a user's computer can access local resources but cannot reach the internet. The user's cable is connected to a wall jack that leads to a patch panel in the server room. The technician tests the cable and finds it is wired as a crossover cable. What is the most likely impact?

A.The crossover cable will prevent any network connectivity.

B.The crossover cable will cause intermittent connectivity.

C.The crossover cable is not the cause of the internet issue.

D.The crossover cable will only work at 100 Mbps.

AnswerC

Since the user has local access, the crossover cable is functioning, and the internet issue is likely elsewhere (e.g., router, DNS).

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of crossover cables and modern networking. The correct answer is that most modern switches have Auto-MDIX, so a crossover cable may still work, but if the switch is older, it could cause connectivity issues. However, the symptom of local access but no internet suggests a different problem, so the crossover cable is likely not the issue.

Full explanation →

274

MCQmedium

A network printer in a school is shared by multiple users. They report that print jobs are frequently stuck in the queue and never print, but the printer itself is powered on and shows no errors. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer driver is outdated

B.The print spooler service is stopped on the print server

C.The printer has a faulty network cable or incorrect IP configuration

D.The printer's fuser is worn out

AnswerC

A faulty cable or IP misconfiguration can cause the printer to be unreachable, so jobs queue but never print. The printer appears on but cannot communicate.

Why this answer

Print jobs stuck in the queue often indicate a communication issue between the printer and the network. A bad network cable or incorrect IP configuration can cause the printer to appear online but not receive data. Checking the network connection and printer IP settings is the first step.

Full explanation →

275

MCQmedium

A client in a dense urban apartment building wants internet service but cannot install a satellite dish due to HOA rules. They have a phone line but no cable TV outlet. Which connection type is most practical and cost-effective?

A.Cable broadband

B.DSL

C.Satellite

D.Fiber-optic

AnswerB

DSL works over existing phone lines and is commonly available in urban areas.

Why this answer

DSL uses existing phone lines and is widely available in urban areas, making it a practical choice. Cable requires a coaxial outlet, satellite is prohibited, and fiber may not be available in all apartment buildings. DSL offers a balance of availability and cost.

Full explanation →

276

MCQeasy

A user reports that they cannot access any websites, but they can ping the IP address of a public DNS server (8.8.8.8). What is the most likely misconfigured network service?

A.DHCP

B.DNS

C.NAT

D.Proxy

AnswerB

DNS resolves domain names; without it, domain-based access fails even though IP-based connectivity works.

Why this answer

The user can ping 8.8.8.8, confirming that IP connectivity and routing are working, but cannot access websites by name. This indicates that the system cannot resolve domain names to IP addresses, which is the function of DNS. A misconfigured DNS server address (e.g., pointing to a non-existent or unreachable DNS server) would cause this exact symptom.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between IP connectivity (Layer 3) and name resolution (Application Layer), tricking candidates into thinking a DHCP or NAT issue is at fault when the ping test clearly rules out those layers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP is responsible for assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses; if DHCP were misconfigured, the user would likely have no IP address or a wrong gateway, making even pings fail. Option C is wrong because NAT translates private IP addresses to public ones for internet access; since the user can ping an external IP, NAT is functioning correctly. Option D is wrong because a proxy server sits between the client and the internet, intercepting web requests; if a proxy were misconfigured, the user might still be able to ping external IPs directly (bypassing the proxy), but web browsers would fail due to proxy settings, not DNS resolution.

Full explanation →

277

MCQmedium

A customer complains that their VoIP phone intermittently drops calls and has poor audio quality. The phone is connected to a switch port that also carries data traffic for a nearby workstation. What is the most likely cause?

A.The switch port is set to half-duplex.

B.The network cable is too long.

C.Quality of Service (QoS) is not configured on the switch port.

D.The phone’s firmware is outdated.

AnswerC

Without QoS, data traffic can overwhelm the port, causing VoIP packets to be delayed or dropped, leading to call quality issues.

Why this answer

VoIP is sensitive to latency and packet loss. When a switch port carries both voice and data without proper QoS, data traffic can congest the link, causing dropped packets and poor audio. QoS prioritizes voice traffic to prevent this.

Full explanation →

278

MCQeasy

A user complains that their computer shuts down unexpectedly after a few minutes of gaming. You check the CPU temperature and find it is 105°C. What is the most likely cause?

A.Insufficient RAM

B.Failing power supply

C.Degraded thermal paste

D.Outdated BIOS

AnswerC

Degraded thermal paste reduces heat transfer, causing the CPU to overheat under load and trigger shutdowns.

Why this answer

High CPU temperature under load indicates a cooling problem. The most common cause is dried or improperly applied thermal paste between the CPU and heatsink. This prevents efficient heat transfer, leading to thermal throttling or shutdown.

Full explanation →

279

MCQmedium

A user receives an error when trying to access a cloud application: 'This application is not available in your region.' The user is traveling abroad. Which cloud concept is most likely causing this restriction?

A.High availability

B.Geolocation

C.Multi-tenancy

D.Resource pooling

AnswerB

Geolocation is used to determine the user's region and enforce access policies based on location.

Why this answer

This scenario tests understanding of geolocation restrictions in cloud services. Many cloud applications use geolocation to enforce licensing, compliance, or content restrictions based on the user's physical location. High availability, multi-tenancy, and resource pooling are unrelated to region-based access controls.

Full explanation →

280

MCQmedium

During a repair, you accidentally dislodged a small ribbon cable connecting the volume button flex to the mainboard of a smartphone. Now the volume buttons don't work. What is the most likely result of this mistake?

A.The phone won't power on.

B.The touchscreen becomes unresponsive.

C.The volume buttons become unresponsive.

D.The speaker stops producing sound.

AnswerC

The dislodged flex cable directly controls volume; without connection, buttons don't work.

Why this answer

The volume button flex cable directly connects the physical volume buttons to the mainboard. Dislodging this cable interrupts the electrical circuit that carries the button press signal, so the buttons become unresponsive. This is a direct physical disconnection, not a software or power issue.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a single ribbon cable controls multiple unrelated functions, leading candidates to incorrectly assume a dislodged volume button cable would affect the speaker or power-on sequence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the volume button flex cable is not part of the power-on circuit; the power button has its own separate flex cable or is integrated into the mainboard. Option B is wrong because the touchscreen uses a separate digitizer cable that connects to the mainboard, not the volume button flex. Option D is wrong because the speaker is driven by an audio amplifier and connected via a separate flex cable or solder points; the volume button flex only carries button input signals.

Full explanation →

281

MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a user's computer that cannot access a web server at 10.10.10.50. The user's IP is 10.10.20.15 with subnet mask 255.255.0.0. The technician can ping 10.10.10.50 from the user's computer. What should the technician check next?

A.The default gateway setting on the user's computer.

B.The web server's firewall settings.

C.The user's IP address for a conflict.

D.The subnet mask on the user's computer.

AnswerB

Since ICMP (ping) works but HTTP does not, a firewall on the server may be blocking the web traffic.

Why this answer

Since the technician can successfully ping the web server (10.10.10.50) from the user's computer, Layer 3 connectivity is verified. This rules out issues with the user's IP configuration, subnet mask, and default gateway. The problem is therefore specific to the web server's firewall blocking HTTP/HTTPS traffic (port 80/443) while allowing ICMP (ping).

Checking the web server's firewall settings is the logical next step.

Exam trap

This question tests the distinction between Layer 3 reachability (ping) and Layer 4/7 application access (HTTP). It is common to assume a client-side issue when the server's firewall is actually blocking the specific traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a successful ping to a remote host confirms that the default gateway is correctly routing traffic; if the gateway were misconfigured, the ping would fail. Option C is wrong because an IP conflict would cause intermittent connectivity or complete network failure, but a successful ping proves the user's IP is unique and reachable. Option D is wrong because the subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is correct for the 10.10.0.0/16 network, and a mask mismatch would prevent ping from working at all.

Full explanation →

282

MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a small branch office network with 30 devices. The network uses a single router with DHCP enabled. To conserve IP addresses, the technician decides to use a subnet that provides exactly enough usable addresses for the devices, with minimal waste. Which subnet mask should the technician choose?

A.255.255.255.0

B.255.255.255.224

C.255.255.255.240

D.255.255.255.192

AnswerB

Correct. A /27 provides 30 usable addresses, exactly enough for 30 devices with minimal waste.

Why this answer

The network requires exactly 30 usable IP addresses. A /27 subnet (mask 255.255.255.224) provides 32 total addresses, with 30 usable (2^5 - 2 = 30), matching the requirement with minimal waste. This is the most efficient choice because it supplies the exact number of hosts needed without leaving a large pool of unused addresses.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the concept that the subnet mask must provide at least the required number of usable hosts, but candidates mistakenly choose a mask that gives exactly the total addresses (e.g., 32) without subtracting the network and broadcast addresses, or they pick a larger subnet (like /26) thinking it is safer, ignoring the 'minimal waste' constraint.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (255.255.255.0) is wrong because it provides 254 usable addresses (2^8 - 2), which is far more than the 30 needed, resulting in significant waste. Option C (255.255.255.240) is wrong because it provides only 14 usable addresses (2^4 - 2), which is insufficient for 30 devices. Option D (255.255.255.192) is wrong because it provides 62 usable addresses (2^6 - 2), which is more than required but not the minimal waste option; the /27 mask is a better fit.

Full explanation →

283

MCQhard

A large corporation needs to connect its headquarters in New York to a regional office in Los Angeles, as well as to a data center in Chicago, using dedicated leased lines. The network must support high bandwidth for video conferencing and data transfers. Which network topology best describes this setup?

A.Local Area Network (LAN)

B.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

C.Wide Area Network (WAN)

D.Personal Area Network (PAN)

AnswerC

A WAN is designed to connect multiple sites over large geographic distances, such as across the country, and can use leased lines for high bandwidth.

Why this answer

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is the correct topology because it connects geographically dispersed locations—New York, Los Angeles, and Chicago—over a large geographical area using dedicated leased lines (e.g., T1/E1, T3, or MPLS circuits). WANs are specifically designed to provide high-bandwidth, reliable connectivity for applications like video conferencing and data transfers across cities or countries, which matches the requirement for dedicated leased lines spanning multiple states.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a MAN with a WAN because both cover multiple locations, but a MAN is limited to a single metropolitan area (e.g., connecting buildings in Los Angeles), whereas the question explicitly involves three cities across the U.S., which requires a WAN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Local Area Network (LAN) covers a small physical area like a single building or campus, not inter-city connections, and uses technologies like Ethernet and Wi-Fi rather than dedicated leased lines. Option B is wrong because a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) typically spans a single city or metropolitan region (e.g., within New York or Los Angeles), not multiple cities across the country, and would not use dedicated leased lines for cross-country links. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) covers a very short range (e.g., Bluetooth or USB connections around a single person) and cannot support high-bandwidth video conferencing or data transfers over hundreds of miles.

Full explanation →

284

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new 32-inch 4K monitor for a graphic designer. After connecting it via HDMI, the display shows a 'Signal Out of Range' error. The PC has an integrated Intel GPU. What is the most likely cause?

A.The HDMI cable is defective.

B.The monitor's native resolution is set too high for the GPU's capabilities.

C.The monitor's firmware is outdated.

D.The PC's BIOS has disabled the HDMI port.

AnswerB

The integrated GPU may not support 4K at 60Hz over HDMI; lowering the resolution or refresh rate resolves it.

Why this answer

'Signal Out of Range' means the monitor cannot display the resolution or refresh rate being sent by the GPU. Many integrated Intel GPUs have a maximum resolution of 4096x2160 at 30Hz over HDMI, but if the PC is set to 60Hz, the monitor may reject it. Booting into Safe Mode or using a lower resolution to adjust settings is the standard fix.

Full explanation →

285

MCQmedium

A user reports that their PC sometimes fails to boot, and when it does, they see a message saying 'Memory Management Error.' They have two 4 GB sticks of DDR3 RAM installed. A technician runs Windows Memory Diagnostic and finds errors on one stick. What should the technician do next?

A.Run a full system restore to fix the memory management error.

B.Update the motherboard BIOS to improve memory compatibility.

C.Replace the faulty RAM stick with a new one of the same specifications.

D.Remove both sticks and clean the contacts with a pencil eraser.

AnswerC

Since the diagnostic identified a hardware fault, replacing the defective module is the appropriate corrective action.

Why this answer

Once a memory diagnostic confirms errors on a specific module, the correct next step is to replace the faulty stick. Running the system with faulty RAM can lead to data corruption and crashes. The technician should identify the bad module (often by testing one at a time) and replace it with a compatible module.

Full explanation →

286

MCQmedium

A user is trying to connect their smartphone to a car's infotainment system using Bluetooth for hands-free calling. The phone pairs successfully, but audio only plays through the phone's speaker, not the car's speakers. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?

A.The car's Bluetooth system does not support the phone's Bluetooth version.

B.The phone is only connected for phone calls (HFP) and not for media audio (A2DP).

C.The car's speakers are defective.

D.The phone's audio output is set to 'Speaker' in the call app.

AnswerB

Many Bluetooth connections separate call audio and media audio; if only HFP is active, media audio remains on the phone.

Why this answer

The phone pairs successfully but only plays call audio through the phone speaker, which indicates a profile mismatch. Bluetooth Hands-Free Profile (HFP) handles phone call audio, while Advanced Audio Distribution Profile (A2DP) is required for streaming media audio to the car speakers. If the phone is connected only for HFP (often the default for call-only connections), media audio will not route to the car, even though pairing succeeded.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between Bluetooth pairing (which succeeds) and profile-specific connection (which may fail), leading candidates to incorrectly blame hardware or version incompatibility instead of recognizing the missing A2DP profile.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Bluetooth is backward compatible; a phone with a newer version (e.g., 5.x) can still connect to an older car system (e.g., 4.0) using the supported profiles, and version mismatch does not cause selective audio routing failure. Option C is wrong because the car's speakers are not defective; the phone pairs and calls work (just through the phone speaker), and a speaker defect would affect all audio or cause no sound at all. Option D is wrong because the phone's call app 'Speaker' setting only toggles the phone's internal speaker during a call, not the Bluetooth audio routing; if the phone were connected for media audio (A2DP), the car speakers would still be used regardless of that setting.

Full explanation →

287

MCQeasy

A user reports that they cannot access the internet, but they can ping other devices on the local network. The technician checks the IP configuration and sees: IP: 192.168.1.25, Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0, Default Gateway: 192.168.2.1. What is the issue?

A.The subnet mask is incorrect.

B.The default gateway is on a different subnet.

C.The IP address is a broadcast address.

D.The DNS server is misconfigured.

AnswerB

The gateway 192.168.2.1 is on a different subnet than the device's IP 192.168.1.25, so the device cannot send packets to it.

Why this answer

The default gateway 192.168.2.1 is not on the same subnet as the host IP 192.168.1.25 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. For a /24 network, the host's subnet is 192.168.1.0/24, while the gateway belongs to 192.168.2.0/24. The host will ARP for the gateway but never receive a reply because the gateway is on a different Layer 2 broadcast domain, making internet access impossible despite local connectivity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that a host can only communicate directly with devices on its own subnet; the trap here is that candidates see a valid IP and gateway and assume the issue is DNS or the subnet mask, overlooking the subnet mismatch between the host and gateway.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 is correct for a /24 network and does not cause the mismatch; the issue is the gateway's IP address, not the mask. Option C is wrong because 192.168.1.25 is a valid host address within the 192.168.1.0/24 range (broadcast address would be 192.168.1.255). Option D is wrong because DNS misconfiguration would prevent name resolution but not block all internet traffic; the user can't reach any external IP, indicating a routing/gateway problem, not DNS.

Full explanation →

288

MCQmedium

A user's Android phone is running slowly and frequently shows 'App not responding' messages. The user has not installed any new apps recently. What should a technician do first?

A.Perform a factory reset.

B.Check for available OS and app updates.

C.Uninstall all recently used apps.

D.Replace the phone's battery.

AnswerB

Correct. Updates often include bug fixes that can resolve performance and app crashing issues.

Why this answer

This scenario requires systematic troubleshooting. Checking for OS and app updates is a safe, non-destructive first step, as updates often fix performance bugs. Clearing cache is also valid but less likely to address underlying issues.

Full explanation →

289

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a projector that displays a faint, ghost-like image even when no input source is connected. The projector has been in use for several years. What is the most likely cause?

A.The projector bulb is nearing the end of its life

B.The LCD panel has image burn-in

C.The input cable is picking up interference

D.The projector's lens is dirty

AnswerB

Prolonged display of static images can cause permanent burn-in on LCD panels, resulting in a ghost image.

Why this answer

When a projector displays a faint, ghost-like image with no input source connected, the most likely cause is image burn-in on the LCD panel. This occurs because the liquid crystal material or polarizing layers have been permanently damaged by prolonged static image display, causing residual ghosting even when no signal is present. The fact that the projector is several years old further supports this, as burn-in is a cumulative effect over time.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a failing bulb (dimming) with image persistence, but the key clue is the ghost image appearing even when no input source is connected, which isolates the issue to the display panel itself rather than the light source or signal path.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a bulb nearing end of life typically causes dimming, discoloration, or flickering, not a persistent ghost image with no input source. Option C is wrong because input cable interference only affects the signal path when a source is connected; with no input, there is no signal to interfere with. Option D is wrong because a dirty lens would cause blurriness, reduced brightness, or spots, not a structured ghost image that persists without input.

Full explanation →

290

MCQhard

A technician is replacing the display assembly on a laptop. After installing the new display, the laptop powers on but the screen remains black. The technician has verified the display cable is fully seated at both ends. What should the technician check next to diagnose the issue?

A.Replace the LCD panel again, assuming the new one is defective.

B.Check the backlight voltage or inverter board (if applicable).

C.Update the graphics driver from the Windows Recovery Environment.

D.Reseat the RAM modules to ensure proper boot.

AnswerB

A black screen with power on suggests the backlight is not working. Checking the inverter or backlight circuit can identify the faulty component.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B because a black screen with power but no display often indicates a backlight failure, not a complete display failure. The technician should check the backlight voltage or inverter board (if the display uses CCFL backlighting) to ensure the backlight is receiving power. Since the display cable is verified as seated, the next logical step is to isolate whether the issue is with the backlight circuit or the LCD panel itself.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a black screen always means a dead LCD panel, leading candidates to immediately replace the panel instead of checking the backlight power supply or inverter board.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the LCD panel again without first checking the backlight circuit is premature and wastes time; a defective panel is less likely than a backlight power issue, especially when the system powers on. Option C is wrong because updating the graphics driver from the Windows Recovery Environment would not resolve a hardware-level backlight failure; the screen remains black regardless of driver state if the backlight is not powered. Option D is wrong because reseating RAM modules addresses boot failures or POST issues, not a black screen with power; the laptop powers on, indicating RAM is likely functioning.

Full explanation →

291

MCQhard

A technician is asked to run a new network cable from a patch panel to a cubicle 80 meters away. The cable must support at least 1 Gbps. The technician has Cat6 cable on hand. What is the maximum distance this cable will support for 1 Gbps?

A.55 meters

B.100 meters

C.150 meters

D.200 meters

AnswerB

Cat6 supports 1 Gbps up to 100 meters, so 80 meters is within spec.

Why this answer

Cat6 cable is rated to support 1 Gbps Ethernet (1000BASE-T) up to a maximum distance of 100 meters per the TIA/EIA-568 standard. Since the required distance is 80 meters, which is within this limit, the cable will support 1 Gbps. The 100-meter limit includes the combined length of the horizontal cable from the patch panel to the cubicle, plus any patch cords at both ends.

Exam trap

In CompTIA A+ 220-1201, candidates often confuse the maximum distance for 1 Gbps (100 meters) with the distance for 10 Gbps over Cat6 (55 meters), mistakenly applying the shorter limit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 55 meters is the maximum distance for Cat6 at 10 Gbps (10GBASE-T), not for 1 Gbps. Option C is wrong because 150 meters exceeds the 100-meter limit for any twisted-pair copper Ethernet standard (1000BASE-T, 100BASE-TX, etc.) without a repeater or switch. Option D is wrong because 200 meters is far beyond the 100-meter limit and would require fiber optic cabling or active signal regeneration.

Full explanation →

292

MCQhard

A company deploys a new file server that uses SMB protocol for file sharing. Users on Windows 10 can connect to the server, but users on older Windows 7 machines cannot. The server is configured to require SMB 3.0 encryption. Which protocol version mismatch is causing the issue?

A.The server requires SMB 1.0, which Windows 7 does not support by default.

B.The server requires SMB 2.0, which Windows 7 does not support.

C.The server requires SMB 3.0, which Windows 7 does not support.

D.The server requires SMB 3.1.1, which Windows 10 also does not support.

AnswerC

SMB 3.0 is not supported on Windows 7, so the client cannot meet the server's encryption requirement.

Why this answer

The server requires SMB 3.0 encryption, but Windows 7 natively supports only up to SMB 2.1. Since SMB 3.0 introduced mandatory encryption and other features not present in SMB 2.1, the Windows 7 client cannot negotiate the required protocol version, causing the connection to fail. Windows 10 supports SMB 3.0 and later, so it connects successfully.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that Windows 7 supports SMB 3.0 because it can connect to modern file shares, but in reality Windows 7 caps at SMB 2.1 and requires additional configuration or third-party tools to use SMB 3.0 features.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the server requires SMB 3.0, not SMB 1.0, and Windows 7 actually does support SMB 1.0 by default (though it is often disabled for security). Option B is wrong because Windows 7 does support SMB 2.0 (and SMB 2.1), so that would not cause a mismatch. Option D is wrong because SMB 3.1.1 is supported by Windows 10 (starting with version 1511), and the server is configured for SMB 3.0, not 3.1.1.

Full explanation →

293

MCQeasy

A technician is deploying a new SSD in a desktop PC. After installing the drive and connecting the SATA data and power cables, the system does not recognize the drive in the BIOS. All other drives are detected. What should the technician check first?

A.Update the motherboard BIOS

B.Check if the drive needs to be initialized in Disk Management

C.Reseat the SATA data and power cables

D.Replace the SATA controller

AnswerC

Loose or improperly seated cables are the most frequent cause of a new drive not being detected.

Why this answer

When a new drive is not detected, the most common cause is a loose or improper connection. The technician should reseat both the SATA data cable at the drive and motherboard, and the power cable from the PSU. If that fails, testing the drive in another port or with another cable is the next step.

Full explanation →

294

MCQhard

A user reports that their PC randomly freezes for a few seconds and then resumes. This happens most often when opening large files or running multiple applications. Event Viewer shows no critical errors. Which component is most likely causing the issue?

A.Insufficient RAM

B.Failing hard drive or SSD

C.Overheating CPU

D.Outdated network driver

AnswerB

A failing drive can cause temporary hangs as the system waits for I/O operations to complete; checking S.M.A.R.T. data can confirm.

Why this answer

Intermittent freezing under load without errors often points to a failing storage drive. Hard drives with bad sectors or a failing controller can cause the system to pause while retrying reads or writes. SSDs can also cause stuttering if their controller is failing or if TRIM is not functioning.

Full explanation →

295

MCQhard

A multinational corporation has offices in New York, London, and Tokyo. They need a private, dedicated network to connect all offices with high reliability and low latency. Which network type should be implemented?

A.Local Area Network (LAN)

B.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

C.Wide Area Network (WAN)

D.Personal Area Network (PAN)

AnswerC

A WAN is specifically designed to connect geographically dispersed locations, such as offices on different continents.

Why this answer

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is the correct choice because it is designed to connect geographically dispersed locations, such as offices in different cities or countries, over a large area. WANs provide private, dedicated circuits (e.g., MPLS, leased lines) that offer high reliability and low latency, meeting the multinational corporation's requirements for interconnecting New York, London, and Tokyo.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a WAN with a MAN, mistakenly thinking a MAN can cover intercontinental distances, but a MAN is strictly limited to a metropolitan area (e.g., a city), not global connectivity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Local Area Network (LAN) is confined to a single building or campus and cannot span the thousands of kilometers between New York, London, and Tokyo. Option B is wrong because a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) typically covers a city or metropolitan region (e.g., within a 50 km range) and is insufficient for intercontinental connectivity. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) is limited to a very short range (e.g., Bluetooth, USB, typically under 10 meters) and is designed for personal devices, not enterprise-level office interconnections.

Full explanation →

296

MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a PC that fails to POST. The CPU fan spins, but there is no display output. The motherboard has a diagnostic LED that shows a CPU error. Which step should the technician take first to resolve the issue?

A.Replace the power supply

B.Update the BIOS using a USB flashback

C.Reseat the CPU

D.Replace the CPU

AnswerC

Reseating the CPU can correct misalignment or poor contact, which is a common cause of CPU error LEDs.

Why this answer

A CPU error LED indicates a problem with the processor or its installation. The most common cause is improper seating or bent pins. Reseating the CPU is a logical first step before replacing components.

This tests systematic troubleshooting methodology.

Full explanation →

297

MCQeasy

A customer wants to connect a Bluetooth keyboard and mouse to their tablet for a presentation. They ask which accessory is needed to ensure both devices work reliably from across the room. What should you recommend?

A.A USB-C hub with Bluetooth functionality to extend range.

B.A Bluetooth adapter plugged into the tablet's charging port.

C.A Bluetooth extender or repeater to boost signal strength.

D.A wireless dongle that connects both keyboard and mouse via a single receiver.

AnswerC

This is correct; a Bluetooth extender can increase the effective range, ensuring reliable connection from across the room.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because Bluetooth range is typically limited to about 10 meters (33 feet) under ideal conditions, and obstacles like walls or furniture can reduce this further. A Bluetooth extender or repeater captures the signal from the tablet and retransmits it, effectively boosting the signal strength and extending the reliable operating distance across a room. This ensures both the keyboard and mouse maintain a stable connection without dropouts.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse adding Bluetooth functionality (via a hub or adapter) with extending range, but the exam tests the understanding that Bluetooth range is limited by radio power and that a repeater is specifically designed to overcome distance limitations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB-C hub with Bluetooth functionality does not inherently extend range; it merely adds Bluetooth capability if the tablet lacks it, but the Bluetooth radio still operates at standard Class 2 power (about 2.5 mW) with a typical range of 10 meters. Option B is wrong because a Bluetooth adapter plugged into the tablet's charging port (e.g., a USB-C to Bluetooth dongle) provides Bluetooth connectivity but does not boost signal strength or extend range beyond the standard Class 2 limit. Option D is wrong because a wireless dongle that connects both keyboard and mouse via a single receiver typically uses a proprietary RF protocol (e.g., Logitech Unifying), not standard Bluetooth, and its range is also limited to about 10 meters; it does not extend range across a room.

Full explanation →

298

MCQmedium

A user reports that their iPhone's Maps app shows incorrect GPS location, often placing them several blocks away. Other location-based apps like Uber work correctly. What is the most likely cause?

A.The iPhone's GPS antenna is damaged.

B.The Maps app has been denied location access in Settings.

C.The iPhone is in Airplane Mode.

D.The Maps app needs to be reinstalled from the App Store.

AnswerB

If the Maps app lacks 'While Using' or 'Always' location permission, it may use less accurate methods like Wi-Fi triangulation, causing incorrect positioning.

Why this answer

This scenario distinguishes between device-wide GPS issues and app-specific problems. Since other apps use location correctly, the issue is likely with the Maps app's configuration, such as incorrect location permissions or a software glitch within the app.

Full explanation →

299

MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new office with 20 workstations. The cabling is Cat6, and all runs are under 90 meters. After terminating the cables at the patch panel and wall jacks, the technician tests each run with a cable certifier. One run fails the test for near-end crosstalk (NEXT). What is the most likely cause?

A.The cable is too long for Cat6 specifications.

B.The cable is not properly shielded.

C.The cable pairs are untwisted too much at the termination point.

D.The cable is damaged from being pulled too hard during installation.

AnswerC

Excessive untwisting of pairs can cause crosstalk, leading to NEXT failures.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of cable termination quality and crosstalk. The correct answer is that the untwisting of pairs at the termination point is too long, which can cause NEXT failures.

Full explanation →

300

MCQeasy

A user's SATA SSD is not detected by the BIOS after a power surge. The motherboard has four SATA ports, and the SSD was previously working on port 0. What is the most likely cause?

A.The SATA cable is loose.

B.The SSD has been corrupted by the surge.

C.The SATA port is disabled in BIOS.

D.The motherboard's SATA controller is damaged.

AnswerB

Power surges can fry the controller or memory chips on an SSD, making it undetectable.

Why this answer

Power surges can damage electronic components. The SSD not being detected in BIOS after a surge points to hardware failure, most likely the SSD itself. Other SATA ports and cables are less likely to be the sole issue.

Full explanation →

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