CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 376450

1020 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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376
MCQmedium

A technician is building a new PC for a graphic designer who needs to run Windows 11. The technician installs a 2 TB NVMe SSD and 32 GB of RAM. During Windows installation, the installer reports that the drive cannot be used because it uses the MBR partition table. What UEFI setting or action should the technician change?

A.Enable Legacy BIOS mode in the UEFI to support MBR.
B.Disable Secure Boot in the UEFI settings.
C.Convert the drive to GPT using the diskpart utility during installation.
D.Update the UEFI firmware to the latest version.
AnswerC

GPT is required for UEFI boot; converting the drive to GPT using diskpart (clean, convert gpt) allows Windows to install on the drive.

Why this answer

Windows 11 requires UEFI with GPT partition table and Secure Boot. The error indicates the drive is using MBR, which is incompatible with UEFI. The technician should either convert the drive to GPT using diskpart or reinitialize it as GPT during installation.

377
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a fiber optic connection where the ONT (Optical Network Terminal) has a red 'LOS' (Loss of Signal) light. The fiber cable appears intact. What should the technician check next?

A.Replace the ONT immediately.
B.Check the power supply to the ONT.
C.Inspect and clean the fiber connector.
D.Reboot the router connected to the ONT.
AnswerC

Dirty or damaged connectors are a common cause of signal loss in fiber; cleaning often restores the link.

Why this answer

A red LOS (Loss of Signal) light on the ONT indicates that no light is being received from the optical line terminal (OLT) at the central office. Since the fiber cable appears intact, the most likely cause is a dirty or damaged connector at the ONT or the wall jack, which can attenuate the optical signal below the receiver threshold. Cleaning the fiber connector with a proper one-click cleaner or inspection scope is the standard next step before considering hardware replacement.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that a red LOS light means the ONT is faulty or that rebooting the router will fix the fiber link, when in fact the LOS indicator is purely optical and requires cleaning or verifying the physical connection first.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because replacing the ONT immediately is premature; the LOS light indicates a signal issue, not necessarily a hardware failure, and the ONT itself may be functional. Option B is wrong because a power supply issue would typically cause the ONT to have no lights at all or a power LED failure, not a specific red LOS light; the LOS light specifically reports optical signal absence, not electrical power. Option D is wrong because rebooting the router connected to the ONT only affects the local network (LAN) and cannot resolve a loss of optical signal from the OLT; the router is downstream of the ONT and has no role in the fiber link.

378
MCQmedium

A user's laptop cannot connect to any network after a recent OS update. The Wi-Fi adapter shows as enabled in Device Manager with no errors, and other devices on the same network work fine. What should the technician do first?

A.Replace the Wi-Fi adapter.
B.Reset the network switch.
C.Run ipconfig to check the IP address.
D.Disable the Windows Firewall.
AnswerC

Correct. This checks if the adapter received an IP or has an APIPA address, guiding further steps.

Why this answer

This question tests systematic troubleshooting. Since the hardware appears fine and other devices work, the issue is likely software-related. Checking IP configuration with ipconfig is the logical first step to see if the adapter has a valid IP or is stuck with an APIPA address.

379
MCQmedium

A user reports that their USB 3.0 external hard drive is transferring data at very slow speeds, around 30 MB/s, when connected to a front-panel USB port. The same drive works at expected speeds (over 100 MB/s) on a rear USB port. Which connector-related issue is most likely?

A.The front-panel USB port is only USB 2.0, limiting speed.
B.The USB cable is damaged and needs replacement.
C.The external hard drive is not compatible with USB 3.0.
D.The front-panel USB port is not receiving enough power.
AnswerA

USB 2.0 has a maximum speed of 480 Mbps (~60 MB/s), but real-world speeds are lower; USB 3.0 requires a different connector and cable.

Why this answer

The correct answer is A because front-panel USB ports are often connected via internal headers that may only support USB 2.0 speeds, especially in older cases. This tests understanding that USB 3.0 requires a blue port and proper internal cabling for full speed.

380
MCQhard

A user reports that their laptop's built-in webcam is not working in any application. The device manager shows the camera with a yellow exclamation mark. The technician has already updated the driver to the latest version, but the issue persists. What should the technician do next?

A.Uninstall the webcam driver from Device Manager and restart the laptop to let Windows reinstall it automatically.
B.Check the laptop's physical privacy shutter or function key (e.g., Fn+F10) that may disable the camera.
C.Replace the webcam module.
D.Disable and re-enable the webcam in Device Manager.
AnswerB

Many laptops have a hardware or software toggle that disables the camera at the hardware level, causing it to appear as a problem device. This is a common oversight and should be checked before assuming hardware failure.

Why this answer

A yellow exclamation mark in Device Manager indicates a driver problem, but since updating the driver did not help, the issue may be a hardware conflict or a disabled device. The next step is to check if the webcam is physically disabled via a function key (e.g., Fn+F10) or a privacy shutter. Many laptops have a hardware switch or a keyboard shortcut to disable the camera for privacy.

381
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new file server and wants to ensure that when users type \\fileserver in File Explorer, it resolves to the correct IP address. The network uses a Windows domain with Active Directory. Which network service should the technician configure to allow hostname resolution for this server?

A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.WINS
D.NAT
AnswerB

DNS resolves hostnames like 'fileserver' to IP addresses. Adding an A record in the DNS zone will allow users to connect via the hostname.

Why this answer

DNS (Domain Name System) is the correct service because it resolves hostnames (like \\fileserver) to IP addresses in a Windows domain environment. When a user types \\fileserver in File Explorer, the client queries DNS to obtain the server's IP address, enabling SMB file sharing. Active Directory relies on DNS for service location and name resolution, making it the mandatory service for this task.

Exam trap

Candidates may mistakenly choose WINS because they recall it is used for legacy NetBIOS name resolution, but in a modern Active Directory domain, DNS is the required and default service for hostname resolution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to clients, but it does not perform hostname-to-IP resolution; it can only register hostnames in DNS if configured with a DDNS update, but it is not the resolution service itself. Option C is wrong because WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses, not hostnames like 'fileserver'; it is legacy and not required in a modern Windows domain with Active Directory, which uses DNS exclusively. Option D is wrong because NAT (Network Address Translation) translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for internet connectivity and does not provide any hostname resolution functionality.

382
MCQhard

A technician is deploying a fleet of tablets for a retail store that uses a captive portal for guest Wi-Fi. After connecting to the Wi-Fi, the tablets do not automatically open the login page. What is the most likely missing configuration?

A.The tablets have a static IP address configured.
B.The tablets are using a VPN.
C.The Wi-Fi network is hidden.
D.The tablets have Bluetooth disabled.
AnswerA

Static IPs can bypass DHCP, which is often needed for captive portal redirection; the device may not receive the redirect address.

Why this answer

A captive portal intercepts HTTP traffic and redirects the client to a login page, typically by performing a DNS or HTTP redirect. If the tablet has a static IP address configured, it may not receive the DHCP options (e.g., option 114 for captive portal URL) or the proper DNS server settings, preventing the redirect from functioning. Without a valid DHCP lease, the tablet cannot be redirected to the captive portal login page.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a static IP address is always beneficial for reliability, but in captive portal environments, it breaks the DHCP-dependent redirect mechanism that opens the login page.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a VPN would not prevent the captive portal from opening; in fact, the VPN connection would typically fail until the captive portal is authenticated, but the portal page itself would still attempt to load. Option C is wrong because a hidden SSID does not affect the captive portal behavior; the tablet can still connect and should receive the redirect. Option D is wrong because Bluetooth being disabled has no impact on Wi-Fi connectivity or captive portal functionality.

383
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their laptop's touchpad is unresponsive after they spilled a small amount of liquid on the keyboard. The laptop still powers on and the keyboard works. What is the most likely issue?

A.The touchpad driver is corrupted.
B.The touchpad ribbon cable is damaged or disconnected.
C.The battery is swollen and pressing on the touchpad.
D.The touchpad is disabled in the BIOS.
AnswerB

Liquid can corrode or short the touchpad's ribbon cable, causing it to stop working while the keyboard (on a different circuit) still functions.

Why this answer

The most likely issue is that the liquid spill has physically damaged or disconnected the touchpad's ribbon cable, which connects the touchpad to the motherboard. Since the keyboard still works, the spill likely affected only the touchpad's dedicated connection path, not the main keyboard controller or system board. A damaged ribbon cable is a common consequence of liquid ingress, even if the laptop powers on normally.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between software/driver issues and physical hardware damage after a spill, tempting candidates to choose a driver or BIOS setting when the real cause is a broken physical connection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a corrupted touchpad driver would typically cause erratic behavior or complete unresponsiveness without a physical trigger like a spill, and the driver is not affected by liquid on the keyboard. Option C is wrong because a swollen battery pressing on the touchpad would usually cause a visible bulge or physical resistance, and the battery swelling is not triggered by a small liquid spill on the keyboard. Option D is wrong because disabling the touchpad in the BIOS is a deliberate software setting that would not suddenly occur due to a liquid spill, and the laptop still powers on normally, indicating no BIOS corruption.

384
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their external USB hard drive is not recognized when plugged into the front USB ports of their desktop, but it works fine on the back ports. What is the most likely cause?

A.The USB cable is too short.
B.The front USB ports are not connected to the motherboard.
C.The front USB ports do not supply enough power.
D.The hard drive is formatted with the wrong file system.
AnswerC

Front USB ports may share a single header and provide less power than rear ports, which can cause high-power devices to fail.

Why this answer

This question tests knowledge of USB port power delivery and cable length limitations. Front USB ports often share a single internal header and may deliver less power than rear ports directly on the motherboard, causing high-power devices like external hard drives to fail.

385
MCQmedium

A customer says their PC randomly freezes and sometimes displays a blue screen error. You run diagnostics and find that the CPU passes all tests, but the system still crashes. Which component should you check next as a likely cause of CPU-related instability?

A.The hard drive
B.The power supply unit
C.The CPU fan
D.The motherboard BIOS
AnswerC

A failing CPU fan can cause overheating and intermittent crashes, even if the CPU itself is functional.

Why this answer

Even if the CPU itself is functional, instability can arise from other factors. Overheating due to a failing fan can cause intermittent crashes. The CPU fan is critical for maintaining safe temperatures under load.

386
MCQeasy

A user reports that they cannot send emails from their Outlook client, but they can receive emails. The email server is using standard ports. Which port is most likely blocked on the firewall?

A.110
B.143
C.25
D.443
AnswerC

Port 25 is SMTP, the standard port for sending email. Blocking it would prevent outgoing email while allowing incoming.

Why this answer

Port 25 is the default SMTP port used for outgoing email transmission. If a firewall blocks port 25, the Outlook client cannot connect to the SMTP server to send emails, but receiving via POP3 (port 110) or IMAP (port 143) remains unaffected. This matches the user's symptom of being able to receive but not send emails.

Exam trap

This question tests the distinction between incoming and outgoing mail ports. The trap is that candidates confuse port 110 or 143 (both for receiving) with the sending port, or assume port 443 is used for email because of its association with secure web traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 110 is used by POP3 for receiving emails, not sending; blocking it would prevent receiving, not sending. Option B is wrong because port 143 is used by IMAP for receiving emails, not sending; blocking it would affect inbox access, not outbound mail. Option D is wrong because port 443 is used for HTTPS traffic, typically for secure web-based email access (e.g., Outlook Web Access), not for standard SMTP submission.

387
MCQmedium

A user has a laptop with 8 GB of RAM and runs a Type 2 hypervisor to test a Linux VM. The VM is configured with 4 GB of RAM, but the user notices the host OS becomes sluggish whenever the VM is running. The technician checks resource usage and finds the host is using 6 GB of RAM before starting the VM. What should the technician adjust to improve performance?

A.Increase the host's virtual memory page file size
B.Reduce the VM's RAM allocation to 2 GB
C.Enable hyper-threading on the host CPU
D.Switch the VM's network adapter from NAT to bridged
AnswerB

This ensures the host has enough free RAM for itself and the VM, preventing excessive paging and improving responsiveness.

Why this answer

The host only has 2 GB free, but the VM requests 4 GB, causing the host to use swap memory. Reducing the VM's RAM allocation to 2 GB will allow both the host and VM to run within physical memory, avoiding swapping.

388
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a cloud-based virtual machine for a web server. The VM needs to handle traffic spikes automatically without manual intervention. Which cloud characteristic should be enabled?

A.High availability
B.Fault tolerance
C.Elasticity
D.Scalability
AnswerC

Elasticity enables automatic scaling of resources to meet changing demand, perfect for traffic spikes.

Why this answer

This scenario tests the concept of elasticity in cloud computing. Elasticity allows resources to automatically scale up or down based on demand, which is ideal for handling traffic spikes. Scalability is a broader term that can include manual scaling, while high availability and fault tolerance focus on uptime, not automatic adjustment to load changes.

389
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC that displays vertical colored lines across the screen immediately after booting. The lines appear even before the operating system loads. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's refresh rate is set too high in the BIOS.
B.The video cable is not securely connected to the monitor.
C.The graphics card is failing or has defective video memory.
D.The operating system's display driver is corrupted.
AnswerC

Vertical lines at boot are a classic symptom of GPU hardware failure, often due to overheating or memory corruption.

Why this answer

Vertical lines appearing during POST (pre-OS) indicate a hardware-level issue, most commonly a failing graphics card (GPU) or a damaged video memory. Since the problem occurs before Windows loads, it is not a driver or software issue. Testing with a known-good GPU or reseating the existing one is the recommended step.

390
MCQhard

A technician is setting up a multifunction printer for a small business that wants to allow employees to print from their smartphones. The printer does not have Wi-Fi Direct, but it is connected to the company's wired network. Which solution would enable mobile printing?

A.Enable Bluetooth on the printer and pair it with each phone
B.Configure the printer to support AirPrint
C.Use a USB cable to connect each phone to the printer
D.Install Google Cloud Print on the printer
AnswerB

AirPrint works over a wired network if the printer supports it and is on the same subnet as the iOS devices.

Why this answer

This question tests knowledge of mobile printing solutions in a network environment. AirPrint is a built-in iOS feature that discovers printers on the same network via Bonjour. Google Cloud Print is deprecated, and Bluetooth or USB tethering are not suitable for a wired network.

391
MCQmedium

A small business reports that employees can access the internet but cannot reach the internal company website hosted on a local server. The server's IP address is 192.168.1.10, and clients use DHCP. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DHCP server is not assigning the correct subnet mask.
B.The DNS server lacks a host record for the internal website.
C.The switch port connecting the server is administratively down.
D.The firewall is blocking port 443 inbound.
AnswerB

A missing A or host record prevents name resolution for the internal site, while internet DNS works fine.

Why this answer

The internal website is accessed by its hostname, which clients resolve via DNS. Since employees can reach the internet (so general DNS works) but not the local server, the most likely cause is that the DNS server lacks a host record (A or AAAA record) for the internal website's name, preventing name-to-IP resolution for 192.168.1.10. DHCP is functioning correctly because clients receive IP addresses and can access the internet.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ exams often test the distinction between connectivity issues (like a down switch port or firewall block) and name resolution issues, trapping candidates who assume that internet access implies all DNS is working, when in fact internal DNS records may be missing or misconfigured.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the DHCP server were assigning an incorrect subnet mask, clients would likely have connectivity issues to both the internet and the local server, not just the internal website; the subnet mask is typically a /24 (255.255.255.0) for 192.168.1.x, and incorrect masks would cause broader routing failures. Option C is wrong because if the switch port connecting the server were administratively down, the server would be completely unreachable, and clients would not be able to access any services on it, including the internal website; the question states the server is accessible (employees can reach the internet, implying the server's network path is up). Option D is wrong because blocking port 443 (HTTPS) inbound would only affect secure web traffic, but the internal website could be using HTTP (port 80) or another port; additionally, if the firewall were blocking port 443, clients might still reach the site via HTTP, and the symptom would be specific to HTTPS, not a complete inability to reach the internal website.

392
MCQeasy

A user complains that their wired connection drops randomly for a few seconds then reconnects. The technician suspects electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby power cables. Which tool can best confirm the presence of excessive EMI on the network cable?

A.Multimeter
B.Cable tester
C.Loopback plug
D.Spectrum analyzer
AnswerD

A spectrum analyzer can detect and measure electromagnetic interference by analyzing the frequency spectrum of signals. It is the best tool to confirm excessive EMI from nearby power cables.

Why this answer

A spectrum analyzer is the correct tool because it can detect and measure electromagnetic interference (EMI) by analyzing the frequency spectrum of signals radiated from the cable. This allows the technician to identify excessive EMI from nearby power cables. A standard cable tester checks for continuity, wire mapping, and basic crosstalk but does not directly measure external EMI.

A multimeter measures electrical properties like voltage and resistance, not interference. A loopback plug is used to test network ports by sending data back to the device; it does not detect interference.

Exam trap

A common mistake is to think a cable tester can confirm EMI, but standard cable testers do not measure external interference. The spectrum analyzer is the correct tool for detecting EMI on network cables.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a multimeter measures DC/AC voltage, resistance, and continuity, but it cannot detect high-frequency electromagnetic interference on a network cable; it lacks the bandwidth and test patterns needed for EMI analysis. Option C is wrong because a loopback plug is used to test the transmit/receive capability of a network interface by reflecting signals back to the sender; it does not measure external interference or cable quality. Option D is wrong because a spectrum analyzer is designed to measure radio frequency (RF) signals over the air, not conducted interference on a twisted-pair copper cable; while it could detect radiated EMI, it is not the standard tool for testing Ethernet cabling per TIA/EIA standards.

393
MCQmedium

A company has a network with the IP range 172.16.0.0/16. They need to create 8 separate subnets for different departments, each with at least 1000 usable hosts. What subnet mask should be used?

A.255.255.240.0
B.255.255.224.0
C.255.255.248.0
D.255.255.192.0
AnswerB

A /19 mask (255.255.224.0) provides 8 subnets (2^3) with 8190 usable hosts each, meeting both requirements.

Why this answer

To support 8 subnets with at least 1000 usable hosts each, you need to borrow enough bits from the host portion to create 8 subnets (2^3 = 8) while leaving at least 10 host bits (2^10 - 2 = 1022 usable hosts). Starting from /16, borrowing 3 bits gives a /19 prefix, which translates to subnet mask 255.255.224.0. This mask provides exactly 8 subnets and 8190 total hosts per subnet (2^13 - 2 = 8190), well exceeding the 1000-host requirement.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that you need to borrow the minimum number of bits to satisfy the host requirement first, leading candidates to pick a mask that provides exactly 1000 hosts (like /22 or /23) but fails to provide enough subnets, or they mistakenly use the formula 2^n - 2 for subnets instead of 2^n, causing them to borrow an extra bit and select a mask like 255.255.240.0.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (255.255.240.0) is wrong because it uses a /20 prefix, which borrows 4 bits (2^4 = 16 subnets) and leaves only 12 host bits (2^12 - 2 = 4094 usable hosts per subnet); while this meets the host requirement, it creates more subnets than needed (16 vs. 8), but the question asks for the mask that creates exactly 8 subnets, not more. Option C (255.255.248.0) is wrong because it uses a /21 prefix, borrowing 5 bits (2^5 = 32 subnets) and leaving 11 host bits (2^11 - 2 = 2046 usable hosts); this also creates too many subnets (32) and is not the minimal mask that satisfies both constraints. Option D (255.255.192.0) is wrong because it uses a /18 prefix, borrowing only 2 bits (2^2 = 4 subnets), which provides only 4 subnets—insufficient for the required 8 departments.

394
MCQmedium

A user complains that their laptop's Wi-Fi connection drops frequently when a Bluetooth mouse is active. The laptop is a recent model with built-in Wi-Fi and Bluetooth. What is the most likely cause?

A.The Bluetooth mouse is out of range.
B.Interference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi on the 2.4 GHz band.
C.The laptop's Wi-Fi driver is outdated.
D.The Bluetooth mouse uses a proprietary frequency.
AnswerB

Both technologies use the 2.4 GHz ISM band; interference can cause Wi-Fi packet loss and disconnections.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is interference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi on the 2.4 GHz band. Both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi (802.11b/g/n) share the same 2.4 GHz ISM band, and Bluetooth uses adaptive frequency hopping (AFH) to avoid collisions, but when a Bluetooth device is active, it can still cause co-channel interference with Wi-Fi, leading to dropped connections. This is a well-known issue, especially with older or poorly shielded hardware.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume the issue is a driver problem (Option C) because it's a common troubleshooting step, but the CompTIA A+ exam tests the specific technical relationship between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi sharing the 2.4 GHz band, requiring knowledge of RF interference rather than generic software fixes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the user reports the mouse is active and the issue occurs specifically when it is in use, not when it is out of range; out-of-range behavior would cause the mouse to disconnect, not the Wi-Fi. Option C is wrong because while an outdated Wi-Fi driver could cause instability, the problem is specifically correlated with Bluetooth mouse activity, making interference the more precise and likely cause. Option D is wrong because Bluetooth mice operate on the standard 2.4 GHz ISM band using the Bluetooth protocol (IEEE 802.15.1), not a proprietary frequency; proprietary frequencies are rare in consumer devices and would not cause interference with Wi-Fi.

395
MCQhard

A user reports that their smartphone's wireless charging pad stops charging after a few minutes, and the phone gets very hot. The phone supports Qi wireless charging. The technician tests the pad with another phone and it works fine. What is the most likely cause?

A.The phone's battery management system is faulty.
B.The phone's wireless charging coil is misaligned with the pad.
C.The phone case contains metal or magnetic components that interfere with charging.
D.The wireless charging pad is not Qi-certified.
AnswerC

This is correct; metal can cause eddy currents, leading to heat and charging interruption.

Why this answer

Since the charging pad works with another phone, the issue is with the user's phone. A thick case, especially one with metal or magnetic components, can interfere with wireless charging and cause overheating. The correct answer is a case with metal or magnetic parts.

396
MCQeasy

A small office has an inkjet printer that produces prints with horizontal white lines across the page. The lines appear in different positions on each print. Which step should the technician take first?

A.Replace the ink cartridges.
B.Run the printer's printhead cleaning cycle.
C.Update the printer driver.
D.Replace the printer's fuser.
AnswerB

The cleaning cycle forces ink through the nozzles to clear clogs, which is the standard first step.

Why this answer

Horizontal white lines on inkjet output often indicate clogged printhead nozzles. Running the printer's cleaning cycle is the first recommended step to clear dried ink from the nozzles.

397
MCQhard

A user reports that their computer can access the internet but cannot connect to a network printer that is on the same subnet. The technician pings the printer’s IP address from the computer and gets a reply. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer’s IP address has changed.
B.The printer is not set as the default printer.
C.The printer’s print queue is paused or the printer is offline.
D.The network switch port for the printer is disabled.
AnswerC

A printer that is reachable via ping but not printing is often in an offline state or has a paused queue, which stops print jobs from being processed.

Why this answer

Since the ping succeeds, the printer is reachable at the network level. The issue is likely with the printer configuration or the print spooler on the computer. Common causes include the printer being offline, paused, or having a driver issue.

398
MCQmedium

During a deployment, you install a new graphics card into a desktop PC. After powering on, the system boots but the display is blank. The monitor is known to work, and the card's fans spin. What should you check next?

A.Replace the graphics card
B.Update the BIOS
C.Check that the monitor cable is connected to the graphics card, not the motherboard
D.Reseat the RAM
AnswerC

If the cable is plugged into the motherboard, the integrated graphics may be disabled when a discrete card is installed, causing a blank screen.

Why this answer

Fans spinning indicates the card is receiving power, but a blank display often means the monitor is not receiving a signal. The most common oversight is connecting the display cable to the motherboard's video port instead of the new graphics card's ports.

399
MCQeasy

A user wants to connect their laptop to a 4K external monitor using a USB-C port that supports DisplayPort Alt Mode. The monitor has only HDMI input. Which adapter or cable is required?

A.USB-C to USB-A adapter
B.USB-C to HDMI adapter
C.USB-C to DisplayPort cable
D.USB-C to VGA adapter
AnswerB

This adapter converts the DisplayPort signal from USB-C Alt Mode to HDMI, allowing connection to the monitor.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the laptop's USB-C port supports DisplayPort Alt Mode, which can carry a DisplayPort signal over the USB-C connector. Since the monitor only has HDMI input, a USB-C to HDMI adapter converts the DisplayPort signal from Alt Mode into an HDMI-compatible signal, enabling the 4K video output.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that a USB-C to DisplayPort cable would work because the port supports DisplayPort Alt Mode, but the trap is that the monitor's input (HDMI) requires a different signal format, so a direct DisplayPort cable is incompatible without an active converter.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a USB-C to USB-A adapter only provides USB data and power, not video signal conversion, and cannot output to an HDMI monitor. Option C is wrong because a USB-C to DisplayPort cable would output a DisplayPort signal, but the monitor only has HDMI input, so it would be incompatible without an additional active converter. Option D is wrong because a USB-C to VGA adapter outputs an analog VGA signal, which cannot support 4K resolution and is not compatible with HDMI input.

400
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop's 1TB hard drive is making a clicking sound and the system is running very slowly. The technician runs a diagnostic and finds multiple bad sectors. What should the technician do first?

A.Run a surface scan to mark bad sectors and continue using the drive.
B.Replace the hard drive immediately and reinstall the operating system.
C.Back up all important data to an external drive or cloud storage.
D.Update the hard drive firmware to fix the clicking noise.
AnswerC

Given the clicking sound and bad sectors, the drive is likely to fail soon. The first step is to preserve the user's data by backing it up. After that, the drive should be replaced.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of hard drive failure symptoms and proper troubleshooting steps. A clicking sound (often called the 'click of death') and bad sectors indicate imminent mechanical failure. The priority is to back up data immediately before the drive fails completely.

Replacing the drive is necessary, but data backup comes first.

401
MCQeasy

A small business runs a legacy application that requires Windows 7. The company wants to upgrade all desktops to Windows 11 while still running that application. Which virtualization solution would allow the application to run on the new OS without compatibility issues?

A.Install Windows 7 in a dual-boot configuration
B.Use a Type 2 hypervisor such as VirtualBox to run Windows 7 as a virtual machine
C.Deploy Windows 11 and use Windows 7 compatibility mode
D.Replace the legacy application with a cloud-based alternative
AnswerB

A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of the host OS, allowing the legacy application to run in a virtualized Windows 7 environment without compatibility issues.

Why this answer

This scenario tests understanding of application virtualization, where a legacy OS runs as a guest on a modern host. Using a Type 2 hypervisor like VirtualBox allows Windows 7 to run inside Windows 11, solving the compatibility problem without hardware changes.

402
MCQmedium

A technician is installing a thermal printer for a retail point-of-sale system. The printer uses direct thermal paper. What must the technician verify to ensure proper operation?

A.The printer driver is set to color mode
B.The paper is loaded with the coated side facing the print head
C.The printer is connected via Bluetooth
D.The printer has enough memory for graphics
AnswerB

Direct thermal paper has a coated side that reacts to heat; loading it incorrectly prevents printing.

Why this answer

Direct thermal printers use heat to create an image on specially coated paper. The paper has a coated side that reacts to heat. If the paper is loaded with the uncoated side facing the print head, the heat will not reach the coating, and no image will be produced.

Therefore, the technician must verify the paper is oriented with the coated side facing the print head for proper operation.

403
MCQeasy

During a network upgrade, a technician needs to document the physical path a cable takes from a workstation to the patch panel in the server room. Which tool is specifically designed to trace the exact cable route through walls and ceilings?

A.Cable tester
B.Toner and probe
C.Crimper
D.Punch-down tool
AnswerB

The toner injects a signal onto the cable, and the probe detects it, allowing the technician to follow the cable path and identify it at the patch panel.

Why this answer

A toner and probe (often called a fox and hound) is specifically designed to trace the physical path of a cable through walls, ceilings, and conduits. The toner injects an analog audio signal onto the cable, and the inductive probe detects that signal without needing a direct electrical connection, allowing the technician to follow the cable's route even when it is hidden behind building materials.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'testing' and 'tracing' tools, and the trap here is that candidates confuse a cable tester (which verifies electrical integrity) with a toner and probe (which physically locates the cable), leading them to choose the more familiar 'cable tester' option.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a cable tester (e.g., a continuity tester or certification tool) verifies wiring continuity, pinout, and performance metrics like attenuation or crosstalk, but it cannot locate or trace the physical path of a cable through walls. Option C is wrong because a crimper is used to attach connectors (like RJ45 plugs) to the ends of cables, not to trace or identify cable routes. Option D is wrong because a punch-down tool is used to terminate individual wires into insulation-displacement connectors on patch panels or keystone jacks, and it has no capability to trace cable paths.

404
MCQmedium

A network printer in a busy law office is shared by 15 users. Several users report that their print jobs are not being output, but the printer shows no error lights and the print queue appears empty. The printer is connected via Ethernet. Which step should be taken first?

A.Replace the network cable
B.Restart the print spooler service on the print server
C.Power cycle the printer
D.Reinstall the printer driver on all workstations
AnswerB

A hung or corrupted spooler can cause jobs to disappear; restarting it clears the queue and restores normal processing.

Why this answer

When a network printer appears idle but jobs disappear, the issue is often with the print spooler on the server or client. The spooler may be stalled or corrupted, causing jobs to be lost without error. Checking the print queue on the server and restarting the spooler service is the appropriate first step.

405
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a high-performance workstation with 128 GB of RAM using eight 16 GB DDR5 modules. The system boots but only shows 64 GB in the BIOS. The technician has reseated all modules and verified they are in the correct slots. What is the most likely cause?

A.The RAM modules are not all the same speed.
B.The motherboard only supports up to 64 GB of RAM.
C.The CPU does not support 128 GB of RAM.
D.The RAM is not properly seated in the slots.
AnswerC

Many CPUs have a memory limit (e.g., 64 GB for some models), so even with enough slots, the CPU cannot address all modules.

Why this answer

With high-capacity RAM configurations, the CPU's memory controller may have limitations. Some CPUs, especially mainstream models, may not support 128 GB (e.g., 64 GB max per channel). The technician should check the CPU specifications for maximum supported RAM.

Another possibility is a BIOS limitation or incorrect slot population, but the CPU limit is a common oversight.

406
MCQmedium

A user reports that their laptop's built-in display shows distorted colors and horizontal lines, but when they connect an external monitor via VGA, the external display works perfectly. What is the most likely cause?

A.The laptop's GPU is failing
B.The VGA cable is defective
C.The laptop's LCD panel or its video cable is damaged
D.The display driver is corrupt
AnswerC

Since the external display is fine, the internal panel or its connection is the likely culprit.

Why this answer

The correct answer is C because the external monitor works perfectly via VGA, which bypasses the laptop's internal LCD panel and its video cable. Distorted colors and horizontal lines on the built-in display, combined with a flawless external display, isolate the fault to the LCD panel assembly or the LVDS/eDP cable connecting the panel to the motherboard. The GPU and driver are shared between both displays, so they cannot be the cause when the external display functions correctly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume any display issue is caused by a failing GPU or driver, but the key diagnostic clue is that the external monitor works perfectly, which rules out the shared components and points to the internal display path. In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting, always isolate whether the problem is with the internal display assembly or the shared video subsystem by testing an external monitor.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the GPU is responsible for rendering output to both the internal display and the external monitor; if the GPU were failing, the external monitor would also exhibit artifacts or fail to display. Option B is wrong because the VGA cable is only used for the external monitor, which works perfectly, so the cable cannot be defective. Option D is wrong because the display driver controls both displays; if it were corrupt, both the internal and external displays would show issues, not just the built-in LCD.

407
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a workstation that fails to boot. The motherboard has a 24-pin ATX power connector and an 8-pin CPU power connector. The power supply has a 20+4 pin main connector and a 4+4 pin CPU connector. The technician connects the 20+4 pin to the motherboard correctly, but the system still does not power on. What should the technician check next?

A.The 20+4 pin connector is not fully seated
B.The power supply switch is turned off
C.The 4+4 pin CPU connector is only using one 4-pin half
D.The RAM is not properly seated
AnswerC

The motherboard requires an 8-pin CPU connector. If the technician only connected one 4-pin half, the CPU will not receive enough power.

Why this answer

The 4+4 pin CPU connector can be used as either a 4-pin or 8-pin connector. The technician must ensure that both 4-pin halves are connected together to form the 8-pin CPU power connector required by the motherboard. If only one 4-pin half is connected, the CPU may not receive power.

408
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a mobile point-of-sale (POS) system using a tablet and a Bluetooth receipt printer. The printer pairs but prints garbled text. The tablet is running a custom POS app. What is the most likely cause?

A.The printer is out of paper.
B.The Bluetooth signal is weak.
C.The tablet is using the wrong Bluetooth profile or driver for the printer.
D.The printer's battery is low.
AnswerC

The printer expects data in a specific format (e.g., ESC/POS); without the correct driver, the tablet sends raw text that the printer misinterprets.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the tablet is using the wrong Bluetooth profile or driver for the printer. Bluetooth printers typically use the Serial Port Profile (SPP) or Hardcopy Cable Replacement Profile (HCRP) to receive print data. If the tablet's POS app or Bluetooth stack is sending data using a different profile (e.g., A2DP for audio or HID for input), the printer will receive garbled or uninterpretable data, even though the devices are paired.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between pairing success and functional data transfer, trapping candidates who assume a successful Bluetooth connection guarantees correct operation, when in fact the correct profile or driver is required for the device to interpret the data properly.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the printer were out of paper, it would either not print at all or show an error indicator, not produce garbled text. Option B is wrong because a weak Bluetooth signal would cause intermittent disconnections or slow data transfer, not the specific symptom of garbled text; the printer would either receive data correctly or not at all. Option D is wrong because a low battery would typically cause the printer to power off, fail to initialize, or print faintly, but it would not corrupt the data stream into garbled characters.

409
MCQmedium

A technician is upgrading a server that requires ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM. The technician has a box of non-ECC DDR4 modules from a desktop. Can these be used in the server?

A.Yes, as long as the speed and capacity match.
B.Yes, but only if the server's BIOS is set to ignore ECC errors.
C.No, because non-ECC RAM is not compatible with ECC-required systems.
D.No, because DDR4 desktop modules are physically larger than server modules.
AnswerC

ECC RAM has additional chips for error correction, and non-ECC modules lack these, making them incompatible.

Why this answer

ECC and non-ECC RAM are not interchangeable; servers that require ECC will not boot or may operate incorrectly with non-ECC modules. Additionally, mixing ECC and non-ECC is not supported. The technician must use ECC RAM specifically designed for the server.

410
MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a new tablet for a field worker who needs to capture signatures from customers. The tablet has a standard USB-C port. Which accessory is most appropriate for this task?

A.A Bluetooth keyboard for typing notes.
B.A capacitive stylus with a fine tip.
C.A USB-C to HDMI adapter for external display.
D.A screen protector to prevent scratches.
AnswerB

This is correct; a stylus provides the precision needed for signatures.

Why this answer

A capacitive stylus with a fine tip (Option B) is the most appropriate accessory because it allows the field worker to accurately capture signatures on the tablet's touchscreen. Capacitive styluses work by mimicking the electrical properties of a human finger, and a fine tip provides the precision needed for signature capture without relying on a digitizer or active pen protocol.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between passive capacitive styluses (which work on any capacitive touchscreen) and active styluses (which require a digitizer), leading candidates to incorrectly assume a fine-tip stylus is only for resistive screens or that a Bluetooth keyboard could be used for signature input.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Bluetooth keyboard is designed for text input, not for capturing handwritten signatures, and it does not interact with the touchscreen at all. Option C is wrong because a USB-C to HDMI adapter is used to output video to an external display, which is irrelevant to signature capture on the tablet itself. Option D is wrong because a screen protector only protects the screen from scratches and does not enable or improve the ability to capture signatures.

411
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a server that uses a hardware RAID controller with a 1 GB cache. The server experiences periodic write performance drops, and the event log shows 'Cache battery low' warnings. What is the most likely impact of this condition?

A.The controller will switch to read-only mode.
B.The controller will disable write caching to protect data integrity.
C.The controller will increase the stripe size to compensate.
D.The controller will automatically rebuild the array.
AnswerB

Correct. To prevent data loss if power fails, the controller disables write caching, slowing write performance.

Why this answer

RAID controllers use cache batteries to protect data in write cache during power loss. When the battery is low, the controller may disable write caching to prevent data loss, causing write performance to drop. This tests knowledge of RAID controller cache behavior.

412
MCQeasy

A technician is building a new workstation for a video editor who needs to run memory-intensive applications. The motherboard supports DDR4 RAM and has four DIMM slots. The editor wants 32 GB of RAM. Which configuration should the technician choose for optimal performance?

A.One 32 GB stick of RAM.
B.Two 16 GB sticks of RAM.
C.Four 8 GB sticks of RAM.
D.One 16 GB stick and two 8 GB sticks.
AnswerB

Two matched sticks enable dual-channel mode, doubling the memory bandwidth and providing significantly better performance for the video editing workload.

Why this answer

Using dual-channel memory (two matched sticks) provides a performance boost over a single stick because it allows the memory controller to access both modules simultaneously. For 32 GB, two 16 GB sticks are the best balance of performance and capacity.

413
MCQeasy

A user complains that when they scan a double-sided document using the automatic document feeder (ADF) on their multifunction printer, the back sides of the pages are blank. The printer supports duplex scanning. What is the most likely cause?

A.The ADF rollers are worn out
B.The scan resolution is set too low
C.The scan mode is set to simplex instead of duplex
D.The document is too thick for the ADF
AnswerC

Simplex mode scans only one side; duplex mode is required to capture both sides of a document.

Why this answer

This scenario tests knowledge of duplex scanning settings on a multifunction device. The ADF is feeding pages correctly, but the printer is set to simplex scanning, which only scans one side. Changing the scan mode to duplex will resolve the issue.

414
MCQhard

A user reports that their PC emits a continuous series of short beeps and will not display anything on the screen. The system was working fine after a recent RAM upgrade. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The new RAM is incompatible or faulty
B.The CPU is overheating
C.The graphics card is not seated properly
D.The motherboard is shorting against the case
AnswerA

Continuous short beeps often indicate a memory or power issue; since the problem started after a RAM upgrade, incompatible or faulty RAM is the most probable cause.

Why this answer

Continuous short beeps typically indicate a power supply failure or a motherboard power issue. However, given the recent RAM upgrade, it is more likely that the new RAM is incompatible or not seated correctly. The technician should first reseat the RAM and try the original modules to isolate the problem.

415
MCQeasy

A field technician frequently uses a ruggedized tablet outdoors for data collection. They complain that the screen is hard to read in direct sunlight. Which accessory would best improve screen visibility without adding significant bulk?

A.A privacy filter
B.An anti-glare screen protector
C.A portable external monitor
D.An external battery pack
AnswerB

Anti-glare protectors diffuse reflected light, making the screen more readable in sunlight without adding bulk.

Why this answer

An anti-glare screen protector uses a matte finish with microscopic ridges that diffuse reflected light, reducing glare and improving contrast in bright environments. This directly addresses the technician's issue of poor readability in direct sunlight without adding significant bulk to the ruggedized tablet.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between privacy filters and anti-glare protectors, as candidates may confuse their functions since both are screen overlays, but privacy filters reduce viewing angles while anti-glare filters reduce reflections.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a privacy filter narrows the viewing angle to prevent shoulder surfing but does not reduce glare; it often makes the screen dimmer and harder to read in sunlight. Option C is wrong because a portable external monitor adds significant bulk and weight, defeating the requirement of not adding significant bulk, and is impractical for field data collection. Option D is wrong because an external battery pack extends runtime but does not affect screen visibility or glare in direct sunlight.

416
MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new network printer in a corporate environment. The printer supports both USB and Ethernet connectivity. The office requires that all users on the same subnet be able to print without needing a dedicated print server. What configuration method should the technician use?

A.Connect the printer via USB to a user's computer and share it from that computer.
B.Configure the printer with a static IP address and connect it to the network switch via Ethernet.
C.Use a crossover cable to connect the printer directly to a user's computer.
D.Set up a Bluetooth connection for the printer.
AnswerB

A static IP on the network allows all users to add the printer by IP address, meeting the requirement without a dedicated server.

Why this answer

To allow all users on a subnet to print without a dedicated server, the printer should be configured with a static IP address and connected via Ethernet. This makes it a network printer accessible by IP. USB connection would only allow local printing from one computer.

417
MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a new file server and wants to ensure that clients can automatically obtain the server's IP address via a friendly name without manual configuration. Which network service should be configured on the server?

A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.RADIUS
D.NTP
AnswerB

DNS maps hostnames to IP addresses, enabling name-based access.

Why this answer

DNS (Domain Name System) resolves friendly hostnames (e.g., fileserver.company.local) to IP addresses, allowing clients to automatically discover the server without manual IP entry. DHCP assigns IP addresses dynamically, but does not provide name resolution; DNS is the correct service for mapping names to IPs.

Exam trap

This question tests the distinction between DHCP (which provides IP configuration) and DNS (which provides name resolution). Candidates often confuse 'automatic IP assignment' with 'automatic name resolution'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses and other network parameters to clients, but it does not resolve friendly names to IP addresses; name resolution is the function of DNS. Option C is wrong because RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is an AAA protocol used for authentication, authorization, and accounting, not for name-to-IP resolution. Option D is wrong because NTP (Network Time Protocol) synchronizes system clocks over a network, and has no role in hostname resolution.

418
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a small network for a home office. The router's WAN port receives a public IP of 203.0.113.5 from the ISP. The technician configures the LAN with a private IP range. Which of the following is a valid private IP address for the technician to assign to a workstation?

A.172.32.1.10
B.192.168.1.10
C.203.0.113.10
D.169.254.1.10
AnswerB

Correct. 192.168.1.10 is within the private 192.168.0.0/16 range and is commonly used for LANs.

Why this answer

Option B (192.168.1.10) is correct because it falls within the private IPv4 address range defined by RFC 1918 for Class C networks (192.168.0.0/16). Private IP addresses are reserved for internal LAN use and are not routable on the public internet, making them appropriate for a workstation behind a router performing NAT.

Exam trap

A common trap in this question is that 172.32.1.10 appears to be a private address but actually falls outside the 172.16.0.0/12 range, leading candidates to incorrectly select it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 172.32.1.10 is not within the RFC 1918 private range for Class B addresses (172.16.0.0/12); the second octet must be between 16 and 31, but 32 falls outside that range, making it a public address. Option C is wrong because 203.0.113.10 is a public IP address (often used in documentation as per RFC 5737) and would be assigned to the WAN interface, not a private LAN workstation. Option D is wrong because 169.254.1.10 is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address (169.254.0.0/16) used only when a DHCP server is unavailable, not a manually assigned private address for a configured network.

419
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their laptop can connect to the internet at home but not at a coffee shop. The coffee shop uses a /24 subnet with a gateway of 192.168.1.1. The laptop's IP is 192.168.2.10. What is the most likely cause?

A.The DNS server address is incorrect.
B.The laptop's IP address is on a different subnet than the coffee shop's network.
C.The wireless card is faulty.
D.The subnet mask is set to 255.0.0.0.
AnswerB

The laptop's IP (192.168.2.10) is on the 192.168.2.0/24 subnet, while the coffee shop uses 192.168.1.0/24, preventing gateway communication.

Why this answer

The coffee shop's network uses a /24 subnet (255.255.255.0), which means all devices must have an IP address in the 192.168.1.0/24 range to communicate with the gateway at 192.168.1.1. The laptop's IP address of 192.168.2.10 falls in a different subnet (192.168.2.0/24), so the laptop cannot send frames to the gateway or receive a DHCP lease, preventing internet access despite a successful Wi-Fi association.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that a device can associate with a Wi-Fi network (Layer 2) but still fail to communicate at Layer 3 if its IP address is not in the same subnet as the gateway, leading candidates to incorrectly suspect DNS or hardware issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS server address issues would only affect name resolution, not the ability to reach the gateway or obtain an IP; the laptop can still connect to the internet via IP addresses if DNS is misconfigured. Option C is wrong because a faulty wireless card would prevent connection at home as well, not selectively at the coffee shop. Option D is wrong because a subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 would actually expand the subnet to include both 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.2.0, making the laptop's IP valid on the coffee shop's network; the problem is the mask is likely /24, not /8.

420
MCQmedium

A user reports that when they send a print job to the MFP, the job appears in the print queue but never prints. Other users can print without issues. The MFP is connected via Ethernet. What is the most likely cause?

A.The MFP is out of paper.
B.The network cable is unplugged from the MFP.
C.The user's print spooler service is hung or corrupted.
D.The MFP's toner cartridge is empty.
AnswerC

A hung spooler on the user's workstation can cause jobs to queue but not print, while other users remain unaffected.

Why this answer

A print job stuck in the queue but not printing for one user often indicates a driver or spooler issue specific to that user's workstation. Corrupted print spooler files or incorrect driver settings can cause this, while the MFP itself and network are fine.

421
MCQhard

A server in a data center has redundant power supplies (1+1 configuration). One PSU's status LED is amber, and the other is green. The server continues to run normally. What action should be taken?

A.Replace the PSU with the amber LED immediately
B.Do nothing because the server is still running
C.Swap the two PSUs to see if the amber LED follows
D.Reset the PSU by unplugging and replugging it
AnswerA

The amber LED signals a problem; replacing it restores redundancy and prevents potential downtime.

Why this answer

An amber LED on a redundant PSU indicates a fault or warning, but the server remains operational on the other PSU. The faulty unit should be replaced as soon as possible to restore redundancy. Ignoring it risks downtime if the second PSU fails.

422
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new router for a client who has a fiber-optic internet connection. Which type of interface is most likely used to connect the router to the ISP's ONT (Optical Network Terminal)?

A.Coaxial (F-type)
B.RJ11 (phone jack)
C.Ethernet (RJ45)
D.Fiber patch cable (LC connector)
AnswerC

The ONT outputs Ethernet to connect to a router for fiber internet.

Why this answer

The correct interface is Ethernet (RJ45) because the ONT typically converts the fiber-optic signal from the ISP into a standard electrical Ethernet signal, which is then delivered to the customer's router via a copper Ethernet cable. Most residential and small business fiber installations use an RJ45 port on the ONT to connect to the router's WAN interface, supporting speeds up to 1 Gbps or higher using 1000BASE-T.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates see 'fiber-optic internet connection' and immediately assume the router must use a fiber patch cable (LC connector), forgetting that the ONT already converts the signal to Ethernet, so the router connects via a standard RJ45 Ethernet cable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because coaxial (F-type) connectors are used for cable internet (DOCSIS) connections, not for fiber-to-the-premises (FTTP) setups where an ONT is present. Option B is wrong because RJ11 (phone jack) is used for DSL or POTS connections, which carry analog or digital voice signals and cannot handle the high-speed data from a fiber ONT. Option D is wrong because a fiber patch cable (LC connector) would be used to connect the ONT directly to the ISP's optical line terminal (OLT) or to a fiber NIC in a server, not to a standard consumer router; the router's WAN port is almost always an RJ45 Ethernet port, not a fiber port.

423
MCQeasy

A customer brings in a tablet that will not turn on. The technician presses the power button and sees no response. The tablet was working earlier in the day. What is the first step the technician should take to troubleshoot this issue?

A.Replace the battery immediately
B.Perform a hard reset by holding the power and volume buttons
C.Connect the tablet to a charger and wait a few minutes
D.Open the tablet and inspect the motherboard for damage
AnswerC

Connecting to a charger is the first step to rule out a depleted battery; if the battery is completely dead, it may need a few minutes before the device responds.

Why this answer

The most logical first step is to ensure the device has power; a drained battery is a common cause of a device not turning on. Checking the charge level and attempting to charge it is a simple, non-invasive test that can quickly identify the problem.

424
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a RAID array in a server that requires both high performance and fault tolerance. The server has four identical 2TB SATA HDDs. The RAID controller supports RAID 0, 1, 5, and 10. Which RAID level should the technician choose to meet both requirements?

A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 10
AnswerD

RAID 10 combines striping and mirroring, offering both high performance and fault tolerance. With four drives, it creates two mirrored pairs striped together, allowing up to two drive failures (one per mirror) without data loss.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of RAID levels and their trade-offs. RAID 10 (striping + mirroring) provides both performance (striping) and fault tolerance (mirroring), but requires at least 4 drives. RAID 5 offers fault tolerance with parity but has slower write performance.

RAID 0 has no fault tolerance, and RAID 1 only provides fault tolerance with no performance gain.

425
MCQhard

A company uses a public cloud IaaS provider. The security team discovers that a virtual machine's data disk was accidentally deleted by an administrator. They need to recover the data from a snapshot taken 24 hours ago. The snapshot is stored in the same cloud region. What is the most efficient recovery method?

A.Restore the entire VM from the snapshot
B.Create a new data disk from the snapshot and attach it to the VM
C.Download the snapshot to an on-premises server and then upload it
D.Use the snapshot to create a new VM and then copy files via network
AnswerB

This method recovers only the lost data disk without affecting the running VM, minimizing downtime and resource waste.

Why this answer

Most cloud IaaS providers allow creating a new volume from a snapshot, which can then be attached to the existing VM. This is faster than restoring the entire VM from a full image. The technician should create a new disk from the snapshot and attach it, then copy the data to the original disk if needed.

426
MCQmedium

A user reports that their desktop computer's display is very dim, even at maximum brightness settings. The monitor is an older LCD model with a CCFL backlight. What component is most likely failing?

A.The LCD panel itself
B.The inverter board
C.The video cable
D.The power supply unit
AnswerB

The inverter supplies high voltage to the CCFL backlight; when it fails, the backlight dims or goes out entirely.

Why this answer

The inverter board is responsible for converting DC power from the power supply into the high-voltage AC required to drive the CCFL (cold cathode fluorescent lamp) backlight in older LCD monitors. When the inverter fails, the backlight either dims significantly or fails entirely, even though the LCD panel itself may still be receiving a valid video signal and the brightness controls appear to function. This matches the symptom of a very dim display at maximum brightness settings.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that a dim display is always caused by a failing LCD panel or a bad video cable, when in fact the backlight subsystem (inverter or CCFL) is the most likely culprit in older monitors with CCFL technology.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a failing LCD panel typically produces symptoms such as dead pixels, color distortion, or complete loss of image, not a uniform dimness that is adjustable via brightness controls. Option C is wrong because a failing video cable usually causes flickering, no signal, or artifacts, not a consistent dimness that persists across brightness adjustments. Option D is wrong because a failing power supply unit would likely cause the entire monitor to not power on, or exhibit intermittent shutdowns, rather than a dim backlight while the display remains operational.

427
MCQmedium

A user reports that their iPhone cannot send or receive MMS messages, but SMS works fine. They have enabled cellular data. What is the most likely missing configuration?

A.The phone's iMessage is disabled.
B.The MMS APN settings are incorrect or missing.
C.The phone is in Airplane Mode.
D.The recipient's phone does not support MMS.
AnswerB

MMS requires proper APN configuration for the carrier, including MMS proxy and port, which are often separate from data APN.

Why this answer

B is correct because MMS requires a properly configured APN (Access Point Name) to establish the data connection for sending and receiving multimedia content. Since SMS works (which uses the control channel, not data), but MMS fails despite cellular data being enabled, the most likely issue is that the MMS APN settings are incorrect or missing. Without the correct APN, the device cannot route MMS traffic through the carrier's multimedia messaging center.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that MMS relies on iMessage or that enabling cellular data alone is sufficient, when in fact MMS requires a specific APN configuration separate from general data APN settings.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because iMessage is Apple's proprietary messaging service that uses data or Wi-Fi; disabling it does not affect MMS, which is a carrier-based service using the MMSC (Multimedia Messaging Service Center). Option C is wrong because Airplane Mode disables all wireless radios, including cellular data and SMS, so SMS would not work if the phone were in Airplane Mode. Option D is wrong because MMS delivery depends on the sender's device and carrier configuration, not the recipient's phone support; if the recipient's phone lacks MMS support, the message would fail to deliver but the sender's iPhone would still attempt to send it.

428
MCQmedium

A user reports that their PC randomly shuts down after about 30 minutes of use. You suspect a thermal issue. Which motherboard component is most directly responsible for monitoring CPU temperature and initiating a shutdown if it exceeds safe limits?

A.BIOS/UEFI firmware
B.Chipset (PCH)
C.Super I/O chip
D.Voltage regulator module (VRM)
AnswerC

The Super I/O chip integrates thermal sensor inputs and can assert a hardware reset or shutdown signal to protect the CPU from overheating.

Why this answer

The Super I/O chip is responsible for monitoring hardware sensors, including CPU temperature, and can trigger a hardware-level shutdown if thresholds are exceeded. The BIOS/UEFI configures these thresholds, but the actual monitoring is done by the Super I/O. The chipset and voltage regulator module do not perform thermal monitoring.

429
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting an issue where a user's computer can access the internet but cannot connect to a network printer by its IP address. The printer is on the same subnet and is powered on. Pinging the printer's IP from the computer fails. Which network service is most likely causing the problem?

A.DNS
B.DHCP
C.ARP
D.NAT
AnswerC

ARP resolves the printer's IP to its MAC address. If ARP fails, the computer cannot send frames to the printer, causing ping failure.

Why this answer

Since the computer can access the internet but cannot ping the printer on the same subnet, the issue is at Layer 2 (Data Link) rather than Layer 3 (Network). ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is responsible for resolving a known IP address to a MAC address on the local subnet. If the ARP cache is corrupted, missing, or the printer fails to respond to ARP requests, the computer cannot build the correct Ethernet frame to reach the printer, causing the ping to fail even though the printer is powered on and on the same subnet.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that a failed ping to a local IP must be a Layer 3 routing or DNS issue, when in fact the problem is often a missing or incorrect ARP entry at Layer 2.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses, but the technician is already using the printer's IP address directly, so DNS is not involved in this failure. Option B is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses dynamically; the computer already has internet access (indicating a valid IP configuration), and the printer is on the same subnet, so DHCP is not the cause of the failed ping. Option D is wrong because NAT translates private IP addresses to public ones for internet traffic, but the printer and computer are on the same local subnet, so no NAT is required for local communication.

430
MCQeasy

A user complains that their internet is slow in the evenings, especially when streaming video. They have a cable modem and a wireless router. What is the most likely cause?

A.The wireless router is outdated.
B.The ISP is throttling streaming traffic.
C.Network congestion due to many users sharing the same cable node.
D.Interference from other wireless networks.
AnswerC

Cable internet is a shared medium, and evening congestion is a well-known issue.

Why this answer

C is correct because cable internet uses a shared coaxial cable node, and during peak evening hours, many subscribers in the same neighborhood are actively using the connection. This shared bandwidth leads to contention and reduced throughput, especially for high-bandwidth activities like streaming video, which is a classic symptom of node congestion rather than a local issue.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between local wireless issues (interference, outdated hardware) and ISP-level shared medium congestion, and the trap here is that candidates blame the wireless router or interference because the symptom is 'slow internet,' but the evening-specific timing is the key clue that points to cable node oversubscription.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an outdated wireless router would cause slow speeds at all times, not specifically in the evenings, and would affect all devices equally regardless of activity type. Option B is wrong because while ISPs can throttle streaming traffic, this is typically applied consistently across all times of day and is less common than simple congestion; the evening-specific pattern strongly points to shared medium contention rather than a policy-based throttle. Option D is wrong because interference from other wireless networks would cause intermittent connectivity or reduced throughput regardless of time of day, but the evening-specific pattern and the focus on streaming video point to upstream bandwidth saturation at the cable node, not local RF interference.

431
MCQeasy

A customer complains that their laptop battery no longer holds a charge and the laptop only works when plugged in. The technician confirms the battery is removable. What is the most appropriate first step in servicing this issue?

A.Update the battery driver in Device Manager.
B.Run a battery calibration utility from the manufacturer.
C.Power off the laptop and remove the battery.
D.Replace the AC adapter to see if the charging circuit is faulty.
AnswerC

Powering off and removing the battery is the safe first step before replacing it. This prevents electrical hazards and damage.

Why this answer

The correct first step is to power off the laptop and remove the battery. This ensures safety and prevents electrical shorts or damage during replacement. After removal, the technician can install a new battery.

432
MCQeasy

A customer complains that their desktop computer loses network connectivity every time a large file is transferred. The issue does not occur during normal web browsing. What hardware component is most likely at fault?

A.The CPU is overheating.
B.The power supply unit is underpowered.
C.The network interface card (NIC) is failing.
D.The Ethernet cable is too long.
AnswerC

Correct—a failing NIC can handle low traffic but fails under high throughput due to heat or hardware defects.

Why this answer

This is a classic symptom of a failing or overheating network interface card (NIC). High data throughput generates heat, and a marginal NIC may fail under sustained load, while low-bandwidth tasks work fine.

433
MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a wireless network for a home office that requires the fastest possible speeds for streaming 4K video. The router supports 802.11ac and has three antennas. Which configuration will yield the highest throughput?

A.Set the router to 802.11n mode only.
B.Enable 40 MHz channel width on the 2.4 GHz band.
C.Use the 5 GHz band with MIMO enabled and a channel width of 80 MHz.
D.Disable SSID broadcast to reduce overhead.
AnswerC

5 GHz with 80 MHz channels and MIMO leverages 802.11ac's capabilities, providing the highest throughput for streaming.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because 802.11ac operates exclusively on the 5 GHz band, and combining MIMO (multiple-input multiple-output) with an 80 MHz channel width maximizes throughput by increasing spatial streams and spectral bandwidth. This configuration supports the high data rates required for 4K video streaming, typically exceeding 1 Gbps aggregate throughput.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that 802.11ac can use the 2.4 GHz band or that wider channels on 2.4 GHz are beneficial, when in fact 802.11ac is 5 GHz only and 40 MHz on 2.4 GHz is prone to interference and rarely yields throughput gains.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 802.11n mode caps throughput at 600 Mbps (with 40 MHz channels and 4 spatial streams), which is lower than 802.11ac's potential and lacks the wider channel widths and higher modulation (256-QAM) needed for optimal 4K streaming. Option B is wrong because enabling 40 MHz channel width on the 2.4 GHz band is not supported by 802.11ac (which only uses 5 GHz) and on 2.4 GHz it often causes interference with Bluetooth and other devices, reducing actual throughput. Option D is wrong because disabling SSID broadcast does not reduce overhead or improve throughput; it only hides the network name, which can actually increase probe request overhead and does not affect data transmission speed.

434
MCQmedium

A technician is upgrading a server's power supply to support additional drives. The current PSU is a 750W unit with a single +12V rail rated at 62A. The new drives will add 5A to the +12V load. The total calculated +12V load is 58A. Is the current PSU adequate?

A.Yes, because 58A is less than 62A, so it is within specifications.
B.No, because the PSU should not be loaded above 80% of its rating.
C.No, because the total wattage of 750W is insufficient for the new drives.
D.Yes, but only if the PSU is 80 Plus Gold certified or higher.
AnswerA

The PSU can deliver up to 62A on the +12V rail, and the load is 58A, so it meets the requirement. However, running near the limit is not ideal for longevity.

Why this answer

The PSU's +12V rail is rated for 62A, and the total load after adding drives is 58A, which is within the rating. However, it is good practice to leave headroom (typically 10-20%) to avoid running the PSU at maximum capacity, which can reduce efficiency and lifespan. In this case, the PSU is technically adequate but marginal.

435
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop can connect to the corporate Wi-Fi but cannot access the internet. Other devices on the same network work fine. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The wireless router has failed.
B.The laptop's DNS server settings are incorrect.
C.The network cable is unplugged.
D.The ISP is down.
AnswerB

Correct—DNS translates domain names to IP addresses; incorrect settings prevent internet access while local connections work.

Why this answer

This scenario points to a client-specific configuration problem. Since other devices work, the issue is isolated to the user's laptop, and a misconfigured DNS setting is a common cause for internet access failure while local network connectivity remains intact.

436
MCQeasy

A company wants to move a physical server running a legacy application to a virtual machine on a new hypervisor. The application is sensitive to hardware changes and requires the exact same hardware identifiers. Which migration method should the technician recommend?

A.Virtual-to-Virtual (V2V) migration
B.Physical-to-Physical (P2P) migration
C.Physical-to-Virtual (P2V) migration
D.Clone to template
AnswerC

P2V converts a physical server into a VM, preserving hardware IDs and application compatibility.

Why this answer

Physical-to-Virtual (P2V) migration converts a physical machine into a virtual disk image, preserving the OS, applications, and hardware identifiers. This is the standard method for moving legacy systems to virtual environments.

437
MCQmedium

A user reports that their email client can receive messages but cannot send any. The email server settings are correct, and the user can connect to the internet. The firewall is blocking outbound traffic on certain ports. Which protocol and port combination is likely blocked?

A.POP3 on port 110
B.IMAP on port 143
C.SMTP on port 25
D.HTTPS on port 443
AnswerC

SMTP on port 25 is used for sending email; blocking it prevents outgoing messages while receiving works.

Why this answer

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending outgoing email messages. By default, SMTP uses port 25. If the firewall blocks outbound traffic on port 25, the email client can still receive messages (using POP3 or IMAP) but will be unable to send any, perfectly matching the user's symptoms.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between incoming (POP3/IMAP) and outgoing (SMTP) mail protocols, trapping candidates who confuse receiving ports with sending ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) on port 110 is used for receiving email from a mail server, not for sending; blocking it would prevent receiving, not sending. Option B is wrong because IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) on port 143 is also used for receiving and managing email on the server, not for sending; blocking it would affect inbox access, not outbound mail. Option D is wrong because HTTPS on port 443 is used for secure web traffic, not for email sending; blocking it would affect web browsing, not email transmission.

438
MCQeasy

A technician is tasked with enabling hardware-level virtualization on a desktop to run a virtual machine. Which UEFI setting must be enabled?

A.Enable Secure Boot
B.Enable Execute Disable Bit (XD/NX)
C.Enable Intel VT-x or AMD-V
D.Set SATA mode to AHCI
AnswerC

These CPU features allow the hypervisor to run efficiently.

Why this answer

Intel VT-x or AMD-V is the hardware virtualization feature that must be enabled in the CPU configuration section of UEFI. Without it, virtual machines will run slowly or fail to start. This tests knowledge of common UEFI settings for virtualization.

439
MCQhard

A technician is deploying a point-to-point wireless bridge between two buildings 500 meters apart. The link must support at least 1 Gbps throughput. Both buildings have clear line of sight. Which antenna type and frequency combination is most appropriate?

A.Omnidirectional antennas on 2.4 GHz
B.Yagi antennas on 2.4 GHz
C.Parabolic dish antennas on 5 GHz
D.Patch antennas on 5 GHz
AnswerC

Parabolic dishes provide high gain and narrow beamwidth, ideal for long-distance links, and 5 GHz offers higher data rates to achieve 1 Gbps.

Why this answer

A point-to-point bridge over 500 meters requiring 1 Gbps throughput needs high-gain, directional antennas and a frequency band with sufficient bandwidth. Parabolic dish antennas on 5 GHz provide the necessary high gain (typically 20-30 dBi) and utilize the wider 5 GHz channel bandwidth (up to 80 or 160 MHz) to achieve gigabit speeds, while maintaining a narrow beamwidth to focus the signal between the two buildings.

Exam trap

A common trap in CompTIA A+ is assuming that 2.4 GHz is always better for long distances due to lower attenuation, but for high-throughput point-to-point links, 5 GHz with high-gain directional antennas (like parabolic dishes) is required to achieve gigabit speeds. 2.4 GHz lacks sufficient channel bandwidth and is more prone to interference.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because omnidirectional antennas radiate in all directions, causing significant signal loss over distance and interference, and 2.4 GHz has limited channel bandwidth (20/40 MHz) that cannot support 1 Gbps throughput. Option B is wrong because Yagi antennas, while directional, typically have lower gain (10-15 dBi) than parabolic dishes and operate on 2.4 GHz, which lacks the channel width (max 40 MHz) to achieve 1 Gbps. Option D is wrong because patch antennas, though directional, have moderate gain (6-15 dBi) and are designed for shorter-range indoor or outdoor links, not the 500-meter distance required for gigabit throughput.

440
MCQeasy

A user is traveling internationally and complains that their smartphone's cellular data stopped working after landing. They have an international roaming plan activated. What should the technician check first to restore data connectivity?

A.Verify that the SIM card is not locked to the home carrier.
B.Check if the device's date and time are set correctly.
C.Ensure that the device's data roaming setting is enabled.
D.Reset the device's network settings to default.
AnswerC

Data roaming must be turned on to use cellular data on foreign networks; it's often disabled by default to prevent charges.

Why this answer

When traveling internationally, cellular data requires the device's data roaming setting to be enabled to connect to foreign networks. Even with an active international roaming plan, the smartphone will not automatically use data on a visited network unless this setting is turned on. This is a standard requirement across GSM and LTE networks, as data roaming is disabled by default to prevent unexpected charges.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the distinction between having a roaming plan (provisioning) and actually enabling the data roaming setting on the device (configuration), leading candidates to incorrectly assume the plan alone is sufficient.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a SIM locked to the home carrier prevents the device from registering on any foreign network at all, but the user's cellular data stopped working after landing, implying the device likely registered (or at least attempted to) and the issue is specifically with data connectivity, not network registration. Option B is wrong because incorrect date and time can cause SSL/TLS certificate validation failures for secure connections, but it does not prevent the device from establishing a basic data session on the visited network; data roaming is a prerequisite for that. Option D is wrong because resetting network settings is a more drastic troubleshooting step that should be performed after verifying simpler settings like data roaming; it is not the first check and may erase saved Wi-Fi networks and Bluetooth pairings unnecessarily.

441
MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a new file server and needs to ensure that users can access shared folders using a friendly name like \\fileserver\share instead of an IP address. Which protocol must be configured correctly on the network?

A.DNS
B.DHCP
C.SMB
D.HTTP
AnswerA

DNS resolves the hostname 'fileserver' to its IP address, allowing users to use friendly names.

Why this answer

DNS (Domain Name System) resolves the friendly hostname 'fileserver' to the server's IP address, allowing users to use \\fileserver\share instead of an IP address. Without DNS, the SMB client cannot translate the name, and the connection fails. This makes DNS the correct protocol for name resolution in this scenario.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the distinction between the protocol that provides the service (SMB) and the protocol that enables name resolution (DNS), leading candidates to mistakenly select SMB because it is directly involved in file sharing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (DHCP) is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses dynamically but does not resolve hostnames to IPs; it can provide DNS server addresses, but it is not the protocol that performs name resolution. Option C (SMB) is wrong because SMB is the file-sharing protocol used to access the share itself, not the protocol that resolves the server name to an IP address. Option D (HTTP) is wrong because HTTP is used for web traffic and does not handle NetBIOS or DNS name resolution for SMB file shares.

442
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a laser printer that produces pages with a repeating smudge mark every 3 inches down the page. The printer uses a toner cartridge with an integrated drum. What component is most likely causing this defect?

A.The photosensitive drum is scratched.
B.The fuser roller is damaged.
C.The toner cartridge is low on toner.
D.The transfer roller is dirty.
AnswerB

A damaged fuser roller with a circumference of about 3 inches will cause a repeating smudge at that interval.

Why this answer

A repeating defect at a regular interval is often caused by a damaged roller, and the interval helps identify which roller. A 3-inch interval matches the circumference of the fuser roller. The drum's circumference is typically larger, so the interval would be different.

443
MCQhard

A technician is troubleshooting a display that shows a 'ghost' image of a previous screen that fades slowly. The monitor is a 4-year-old IPS panel. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's response time setting is too low.
B.The video cable is causing signal interference.
C.The monitor's refresh rate is set incorrectly.
D.The LCD panel has image retention or burn-in.
AnswerD

Image retention is common in IPS panels when static images are displayed for long periods. It is a physical defect where pixels do not return to their neutral state quickly, causing a ghost image.

Why this answer

Ghosting or image retention on an IPS panel is often due to burn-in or temporary image persistence. This occurs when static images are displayed for long periods, causing the liquid crystals to not fully relax. It is a hardware defect that may be irreversible.

444
MCQeasy

A technician is configuring a new web server that must support both standard and encrypted web traffic. Which two ports should be opened in the firewall?

A.Port 22 and 21
B.Port 80 and 443
C.Port 3389 and 5900
D.Port 53 and 123
AnswerB

Port 80 handles HTTP and port 443 handles HTTPS, covering both standard and encrypted web traffic.

Why this answer

Standard web traffic uses HTTP on port 80, while encrypted web traffic uses HTTPS on port 443. Opening these two ports in the firewall allows the web server to serve both unencrypted and TLS/SSL-encrypted content to clients.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between ports used for web services (80/443) versus ports used for remote administration (22, 3389, 5900) or infrastructure services (53, 123), leading candidates to confuse secure web traffic with SSH or RDP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 22 is used for SSH (secure remote administration) and port 21 is used for FTP (file transfer), neither of which are web traffic protocols. Option C is wrong because port 3389 is used for RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) and port 5900 is used for VNC (remote frame buffer), both for remote desktop access, not web serving. Option D is wrong because port 53 is used for DNS (domain name resolution) and port 123 is used for NTP (Network Time Protocol), neither of which serve web pages.

445
MCQmedium

A technician is setting up a new wireless network for a warehouse. The warehouse has metal shelving and concrete walls. Which wireless standard should the technician choose to maximize range and penetration through obstacles?

A.802.11ac
B.802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6)
C.802.11n
D.802.11a
AnswerC

Correct. 802.11n supports both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz, but the 2.4 GHz band provides superior range and penetration through obstacles, making it ideal for warehouses.

Why this answer

802.11n (Wi-Fi 4) operates in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, but its key advantage for this scenario is the 2.4 GHz band, which offers longer range and better penetration through obstacles like metal shelving and concrete walls due to lower frequency and better diffraction characteristics. It also supports MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) with up to four spatial streams, which can improve signal robustness in multipath environments typical of warehouses.

Exam trap

It is a common misconception that newer standards (like 802.11ac or 802.11ax) always provide better range. In fact, the 2.4 GHz band's physical properties make older standards like 802.11n superior for penetration and range in obstacle-heavy environments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (802.11ac) is wrong because it operates exclusively in the 5 GHz band, which has higher attenuation and poorer penetration through concrete walls and metal shelving compared to 2.4 GHz, making it unsuitable for maximizing range in a dense obstacle environment. Option B (802.11ax, Wi-Fi 6) is wrong because while it can use both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz (and optionally 6 GHz with Wi-Fi 6E), its primary design focus is on high-efficiency and throughput in dense deployments, not specifically on maximizing range and penetration; the 2.4 GHz mode of 802.11ax is backward-compatible with 802.11n but does not inherently offer better range than 802.11n for this use case. Option D (802.11a) is wrong because it operates only in the 5 GHz band and uses OFDM without MIMO, resulting in significantly shorter range and poorer obstacle penetration than 802.11n in the 2.4 GHz band.

446
MCQhard

A company is migrating its fleet of 100 desktops from Windows 10 to Windows 11. The IT department needs to enable TPM 2.0 and Secure Boot on each system via the UEFI. Some older systems have TPM disabled by default. Which UEFI setting must be changed to enable TPM?

A.Enable TPM in the UEFI security settings and set the boot mode to UEFI.
B.Update the UEFI firmware to the latest version from the manufacturer.
C.Disable the integrated graphics to free up resources for TPM.
D.Set the SATA controller to RAID mode.
AnswerA

TPM must be explicitly enabled in UEFI security settings; UEFI boot mode is also required for Secure Boot and Windows 11.

Why this answer

TPM (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI firmware. It must be enabled in the security settings of the UEFI. Additionally, the system must be set to UEFI mode (not Legacy) with Secure Boot enabled for Windows 11 compatibility.

447
MCQeasy

A technician is replacing a cracked screen on a smartphone. After removing the old screen, they notice a small, flat, rectangular component with a metal shield is loose near the battery connector. What should they do?

A.Discard it as it is not needed for the screen replacement.
B.Reattach it using double-sided adhesive tape.
C.Solder it back onto the motherboard.
D.Leave it loose; it will not affect screen operation.
AnswerB

The battery connector bracket is typically held in place with adhesive. Using double-sided tape is appropriate to restore proper mechanical stability without heat damage.

Why this answer

The loose component is a battery connector bracket or grounding clip, which is typically secured with adhesive to prevent the battery connector from dislodging. Reattaching it with double-sided adhesive tape restores mechanical stability without soldering, as these parts are not soldered to the motherboard. This ensures reliable power delivery and prevents intermittent shutdowns or charging issues.

Exam trap

CompTIA A+ often tests the misconception that any loose metal component must be soldered back, when in fact many smartphone components are secured with adhesive to avoid heat damage to sensitive battery circuits.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because discarding the component can lead to loose battery connections, causing power interruptions or device instability. Option C is wrong because these components are not soldered; they are mechanically fastened with adhesive, and soldering could damage the motherboard or short-circuit the battery connector. Option D is wrong because leaving it loose allows the component to shift, potentially shorting nearby contacts or causing the battery connector to detach during use.

448
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their desktop PC emits a series of long, continuous beeps and the screen remains blank. They recently installed a new graphics card. What is the most likely cause?

A.The graphics card is not seated properly.
B.The RAM module is loose or faulty.
C.The power supply unit is failing.
D.The monitor is not connected to the graphics card.
AnswerB

Correct; long continuous beeps are a standard POST code for memory problems, which is the most likely cause given the symptoms.

Why this answer

A series of long, continuous beeps typically indicates a memory (RAM) issue, not a graphics card problem. This is a common POST code that helps isolate hardware faults before the system can boot.

449
MCQmedium

A technician is deploying a cloud-based application that requires a specific operating system and database. The company wants to avoid managing the underlying OS and patches. Which cloud service model should be used?

A.Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B.Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C.Software as a Service (SaaS)
D.Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
AnswerB

PaaS provides a managed platform with OS and database, so the company doesn't need to handle patches.

Why this answer

This question tests the distinction between PaaS and other service models. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides a managed platform including OS, runtime, and database, allowing the customer to focus on deploying their application without patching the OS. IaaS gives full control but requires OS management, SaaS is a finished application, and DaaS is for virtual desktops.

450
MCQhard

A network administrator configures a router to use OSPF for dynamic routing between two branch offices. After configuration, routes from one office are not appearing in the other's routing table. Both offices can ping each other's directly connected interfaces. Which protocol issue is most likely preventing route exchange?

A.The routers are using different OSPF area IDs.
B.The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
C.Multicast is not being forwarded between the routers.
D.The routers have mismatched subnet masks on their interfaces.
AnswerC

OSPF relies on multicast for neighbor discovery and route exchange; blocking multicast prevents this.

Why this answer

OSPF uses multicast address 224.0.0.5 (AllSPFRouters) to exchange hello packets and LSAs. If multicast forwarding is disabled or blocked between the routers (e.g., by an ACL, switchport configuration, or lack of multicast routing), OSPF neighbors will not form, and routes will not be exchanged. Since both offices can ping each other's directly connected interfaces, Layer 3 unicast connectivity exists, but OSPF's multicast-based neighbor discovery is failing.

Exam trap

A common mistake is to think that OSPF process IDs must match between routers, but the trap here is that candidates overlook the multicast dependency and instead focus on area IDs or subnet masks, even though the ping success already eliminates those Layer 3 issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OSPF routers can form neighbors across different area IDs only if the interface belongs to area 0 (backbone) or if a virtual link is configured; mismatched area IDs on the connecting link prevent adjacency, but the question states both offices can ping each other's directly connected interfaces, implying the link is up and OSPF hello packets are not being exchanged due to multicast failure, not area mismatch. Option B is wrong because OSPF process IDs are locally significant and do not need to match between routers; two routers can have different process IDs (e.g., 1 and 100) and still form a neighbor adjacency. Option D is wrong because mismatched subnet masks on the directly connected interfaces would prevent the ping from succeeding (since the routers would consider each other's addresses as not on the same subnet), but the question explicitly states both offices can ping each other's directly connected interfaces, ruling out a subnet mask mismatch.

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