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PK0-005 Practice Question: A project manager identifies a risk that a…

A project manager identifies a risk that a critical vendor may not deliver on time. The project manager decides to document the risk and monitor it closely, but does not take any proactive action. This is an example of which risk response?

⚠ Common exam trap

Watch out — candidates often confuse 'Accept' with 'Mitigate' because they think monitoring the risk is a form of mitigation, but monitoring is part of the 'Accept' response, not a proactive reduction of probability or impact.

Answer choices

Why each option matters

Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.

Correct answer & explanation

✓

Accept

The project manager has identified a risk (vendor may not deliver on time) and decided to document it and monitor it without taking any proactive action. This is the definition of an 'Accept' risk response, where the risk is acknowledged and a contingency plan may be in place, but no active steps are taken to reduce the probability or impact beforehand. In the context of the PK0-005 exam, this is a passive acceptance strategy, often used when the cost of mitigation exceeds the potential impact or when the risk is low enough to be tolerated.

Answer analysis

Option-by-option breakdown

For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.

  • ✗

    Avoid

    Why it's wrong here

    Avoidance eliminates the risk by removing its cause, for example changing vendor or scope; documenting and monitoring without action is acceptance. It tempts because avoidance is a genuine proactive response, and would be correct if the project manager had replaced the unreliable vendor entirely.

  • ✗

    Mitigate

    Why it's wrong here

    Incorrect. Mitigation involves reducing the probability or impact, which would require proactive action.

  • ✓

    Accept

    Why this is correct

    Acceptance acknowledges the risk and its potential consequences without changing the plan, reserving contingency for it. Documenting the vendor delay risk and monitoring it closely, with no proactive action, matches this response exactly, unlike mitigate, transfer or avoid.

  • ✗

    Transfer

    Why it's wrong here

    Transfer shifts the risk's financial impact to a third party, typically via insurance or contractual penalty clauses; here nothing is shifted, only monitored. It tempts because vendor contracts can carry penalties, and transfer would be correct if the project manager had purchased cover or negotiated liability terms.

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Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security

Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva

This PK0-005 practice question is part of Courseiva's free CompTIA certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PK0-005 exam.