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Cisco DCCOR / CCNP Data Center Core 350-601 (350-601) — Questions 175

984 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components are required to configure a Cisco UCS Direct-attached storage environment using SAS expanders?

Select 3 answers
A.SAS cables connecting the storage enclosure to the server's storage controller.
B.SAS expanders within the enclosure to connect multiple drives.
C.SAS hard drives installed in the storage enclosure.
D.Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) uplinks from the storage enclosure to the Fabric Interconnect.
E.Fibre Channel switch for SAN connectivity.
AnswersA, B, C

Direct SAS cabling is required for connectivity.

Why this answer

In a Cisco UCS Direct-attached storage environment using SAS expanders, SAS cables are required to physically connect the storage enclosure to the server's storage controller (typically an LSI-based SAS HBA). This direct cabling enables the SAS protocol to carry SCSI commands and data between the server and the drives without any intervening network fabric.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Direct-attached storage (SAS) and Fabric-attached storage (FCoE/Fibre Channel), so the trap here is assuming that any storage enclosure requires Fabric Interconnect or SAN components, when in fact Direct-attached storage uses only SAS cabling and expanders.

2
MCQhard

A data center network uses Cisco Nexus 9000 switches running NX-OS. The operations team notices that the CPU utilization on the supervisor module spikes intermittently, causing BGP session flaps. Analysis shows that the CPU spikes coincide with traceroute probes from external networks, which generate ICMP TTL exceeded messages that are process-switched. The engineer must implement a solution to protect the control plane without affecting normal ICMP functionality. The goal is to rate-limit ICMP traffic to a maximum of 1000 packets per second with a burst of 200 bytes, while allowing other control plane traffic without restriction. Which configuration should be applied?

A.Use the 'hardware rate-limiter' feature to limit ICMP globally.
B.class-map type control-plane match-any COPP-ICMP match access-group name ICMP-ACL policy-map type control-plane COPP class COPP-ICMP police rate 1000 pps burst 200 control-plane service-policy input COPP
C.Apply a QoS policy on the management interface to drop excess ICMP.
D.class-map type control-plane match-all COPP-ICMP match protocol icmp policy-map type control-plane COPP class COPP-ICMP police 1000 pps 200 byte burst control-plane service-policy type control-plane COPP
AnswerD

Correct syntax: using type control-plane class-map and policy-map, with police in pps and burst in bytes.

Why this answer

It uses a Control Plane Policing (CoPP) policy with a class-map that matches ICMP protocol traffic in the control plane, then applies a police rate of 1000 pps with a 200-byte burst. This configuration rate-limits ICMP TTL-exceeded messages that are process-switched, protecting the supervisor CPU from spikes while allowing other control plane traffic unrestricted. The 'service-policy type control-plane' command applies the policy to the control plane, which is the proper method for NX-OS CoPP.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between applying a policy-map with 'service-policy input' (which is for interface QoS) versus 'service-policy type control-plane' (which is for CoPP), and the correct police syntax including the 'byte' keyword for burst size.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'hardware rate-limiter' is a legacy feature on some Cisco platforms that limits traffic in hardware, but it does not provide the granularity of matching ICMP protocol specifically and may affect all ICMP or other traffic; it is not the recommended CoPP approach for NX-OS. Option B is wrong because the police command syntax is incorrect: it uses 'police rate 1000 pps burst 200' without the 'byte' keyword, and the class-map uses 'match access-group name' which matches based on an ACL rather than the protocol directly, potentially missing ICMP TTL-exceeded messages that are not captured by the ACL; also, the policy-map is applied with 'service-policy input' instead of 'service-policy type control-plane', which is the correct NX-OS syntax for CoPP. Option C is wrong because applying a QoS policy on the management interface only affects traffic entering via that interface, not the control plane traffic from data interfaces; it would not protect the supervisor from ICMP TTL-exceeded messages arriving from external networks through data ports.

3
MCQeasy

A company wants to consolidate multiple physically separate Fibre Channel SANs into one switch infrastructure while keeping each SAN's traffic isolated. Which technology best achieves this?

A.Reduce the number of switches by using a single director
B.Virtual SANs (VSANs)
C.Use a single VSAN with extensive zoning
D.Deploy separate physical cabling for each SAN
AnswerB

VSANs create isolated logical fabrics over a physical infrastructure.

Why this answer

VSANs (Virtual SANs) allow multiple physically separate Fibre Channel SANs to be consolidated onto a single switch infrastructure by creating isolated virtual fabrics. Each VSAN maintains its own fabric services, such as name server and zone server, ensuring traffic isolation without requiring separate physical switches or cabling.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that zoning alone provides the same isolation as VSANs, but zoning only controls device access within a single fabric, whereas VSANs provide complete fabric-level separation including separate control planes and fabric services.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reducing the number of switches by using a single director does not inherently isolate traffic; it simply consolidates hardware without providing logical separation. Option C is wrong because using a single VSAN with extensive zoning only controls which devices can communicate, but all traffic still shares the same fabric services and control plane, which can lead to instability and security risks. Option D is wrong because deploying separate physical cabling for each SAN defeats the purpose of consolidation and increases cost and complexity, whereas VSANs achieve isolation logically.

4
Matchingmedium

Match each Cisco data center technology to its primary purpose.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Converged network for Fibre Channel and Ethernet

Network virtualization overlay for scaling Layer 2 networks

Layer 2 extension across Layer 3 boundaries

Location/identifier separation for routing scalability

Label switching for traffic engineering and VPNs

Why these pairings

VDC partitions switches; VPC provides redundant LAG; FEX extends fabric ports; OTV extends Layer 2 over Layer 3.

5
MCQmedium

A financial services firm has deployed Cisco UCS C-Series rack servers running VMware vSphere 7.0. They use Cisco Intersight for management. Recently, a critical application server (Server-A) became unresponsive. The Intersight dashboard shows the server's health status as 'Warning' with a firmware compliance alert: the server's Cisco Integrated Management Controller (CIMC) firmware version is 4.0(1a), while the Intersight firmware baseline is 4.2(1c). The server is running ESXi 7.0u2 on a local datastore. The storage is provided by a Cisco MDS switch via Fibre Channel. The server has two 10GbE uplinks to the fabric interconnect. The engineer notices that the vCenter Server cannot communicate with Server-A, and all VMs on that host are isolated. The engineer suspects the issue is related to the firmware mismatch. What is the most appropriate first step to resolve this issue while minimizing downtime?

A.Check vCenter logs to determine why communication failed.
B.Reinstall ESXi on Server-A to ensure a clean operating system.
C.Upgrade the CIMC firmware on Server-A from 4.0(1a) to 4.2(1c) using Intersight's firmware update capability.
D.Change the Intersight firmware baseline to match the current CIMC version (4.0(1a)).
AnswerC

Directly upgrades the firmware to the compliant version, resolving the underlying issue.

Why this answer

The CIMC firmware mismatch (4.0(1a) vs. baseline 4.2(1c)) is a known cause of management-plane instability in Cisco UCS C-Series servers managed by Intersight. Upgrading the CIMC firmware to match the Intersight baseline using Intersight's built-in firmware update capability directly addresses the root cause, restoring proper communication between the server, Intersight, and vCenter, while minimizing downtime by avoiding disruptive OS-level changes.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a firmware mismatch only affects compliance reporting and not actual data-plane or management-plane functionality, leading candidates to choose a non-disruptive but ineffective option like changing the baseline (Option D) instead of performing the necessary firmware upgrade.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because checking vCenter logs is a diagnostic step that does not resolve the firmware mismatch; the root cause is already identified (CIMC firmware version out of compliance). Option B is wrong because reinstalling ESXi is unnecessarily disruptive and does not fix the CIMC firmware version mismatch, which is the underlying cause of the management communication failure. Option D is wrong because changing the Intersight firmware baseline to match the outdated CIMC version (4.0(1a)) would bypass the compliance alert but leave the server running an unsupported and potentially buggy firmware version, failing to resolve the actual issue and risking future stability.

6
MCQhard

A large data center uses a Cisco Nexus 9000 switch with FCoE NPV feature. The switch is connected to an MDS 9700 upstream. The network team recently replaced the MDS 9700 with a new one. After the replacement, the FCoE hosts are unable to log in to the storage fabric. The Nexus switch shows that the FCoE NPV uplinks are up but no FLOGIs are being forwarded. The show npv flogi-table on the Nexus is empty. The upstream MDS shows that the uplinks are in VSAN 100, and the zoning is correct. The Nexus switch configuration includes 'feature npv' and 'npv enable' on the relevant interfaces. The FCoE VLAN 100 is mapped to VSAN 100. What is the most likely cause?

A.The upstream MDS is not configured to accept NPV connections
B.The FIP snooping policy is blocking the FLOGI traffic
C.The Nexus switch is missing the 'fcoe fka-adv-period' configuration
D.The FCoE hosts are not in the same VLAN as the FCoE NPV uplinks
AnswerA

The MDS needs NPIV enabled on the uplink interfaces to proxy FLOGIs from the Nexus.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the upstream MDS is not configured to accept NPV connections. For NPV to work, the upstream switch (MDS) must have NPIV enabled on the uplink interfaces. Without NPIV, the MDS will reject FLOGI requests from the Nexus.

Other options: FKA-adv-period affects keep-alives, not login; FIP snooping is on the Nexus but would not cause empty flogi-table if uplinks are up; VLAN mapping is correct.

7
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer notices that the NVE1 interface is up but VXLAN traffic is not being encapsulated. What is the most likely cause?

A.The VNI 10000 is not mapped to a VLAN.
B.The ingress replication protocol must be static.
C.The loopback0 interface is not configured.
D.The BGP EVPN address-family is not activated.
AnswerD

EVPN requires MP-BGP with the l2vpn evpn address-family to exchange routes; without it, VXLAN encapsulation cannot function.

Why this answer

VXLAN traffic encapsulation on the NVE1 interface requires the BGP EVPN address-family to be activated under the BGP configuration to exchange VNI-to-VTEP mappings. Without this address-family, the NVE interface cannot learn remote VTEPs, so VXLAN packets are never encapsulated with the outer UDP/IP header.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that an NVE interface being up means VXLAN encapsulation is fully functional, but the control plane (BGP EVPN) must be active to provide the necessary remote VTEP information.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VNI 10000 not being mapped to a VLAN would prevent local bridging, but the NVE interface can still encapsulate VXLAN traffic if the VNI is configured under the NVE and the BGP EVPN control plane is operational. Option B is wrong because ingress replication can be configured as static or dynamic (via BGP EVPN); the protocol does not need to be static—dynamic replication via BGP EVPN is standard. Option C is wrong because the loopback0 interface is likely already configured (the exhibit shows it as the source interface under NVE1), and if it were missing, the NVE interface would not come up at all.

8
MCQhard

A network engineer notices that when a host sends a packet to a destination on a different VTEP, the packet is flooded to all VTEPs even though the destination MAC is known. What is the most likely cause?

A.The BGP EVPN route table is missing the MAC/IP route for the destination.
B.The VNI is misconfigured.
C.The MTU exceeds 1500 bytes.
D.ARP suppression is disabled.
AnswerA

Without the route, the VTEP has no forwarding information and floods.

Why this answer

In a BGP EVPN VXLAN fabric, when a host sends a packet to a known destination MAC on a different VTEP, the ingress VTEP should perform MAC/IP route lookup in the BGP EVPN route table to determine the correct remote VTEP. If the MAC/IP route for the destination is missing (e.g., not advertised or withdrawn), the ingress VTEP has no mapping to a remote VTEP and must flood the packet to all VTEPs in the VNI, causing unnecessary broadcast traffic. This is the most likely cause of the described behavior.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse flooding due to an unknown MAC (which is normal) with flooding due to a missing EVPN route, or they incorrectly attribute the issue to ARP suppression or MTU problems, which are unrelated to the data-plane flooding of a known MAC across VTEPs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a misconfigured VNI would typically prevent the packet from being encapsulated or forwarded at all, or cause it to be dropped, not flooded to all VTEPs. Option C is wrong because an MTU exceeding 1500 bytes would cause fragmentation or drop issues, not flooding behavior. Option D is wrong because ARP suppression is a control-plane optimization that reduces ARP broadcast traffic within a VNI; disabling it would cause ARP requests to be flooded, but the question describes flooding of a data packet with a known destination MAC, which is unrelated to ARP suppression.

9
MCQmedium

A Nexus switch is configured with port security. Which violation action will cause the switch to shut down the interface when a security violation occurs?

A.restrict
B.log
C.shutdown
D.protect
AnswerC

Shutdown disables the interface entirely when a violation occurs.

Why this answer

The 'shutdown' violation mode disables the interface, preventing further traffic.

10
MCQhard

An engineer uses the APIC REST API to create a new EPG. The API endpoint for creating an EPG under a specific tenant and application profile uses which object class?

A.fvAEPg
B.fvBD
C.fvTenant
D.fvAp
AnswerA

EPG object class.

Why this answer

The EPG object class in the ACI MIT is 'fvAEPg' (Application Endpoint Group).

11
MCQeasy

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a pair of Nexus 9000 switches acting as spine switches in a VXLAN fabric. The engineer needs to ensure that the spine switches do not become the DR for any VLAN. Which configuration should be applied?

A.Configure passive-interface default under OSPF.
B.Set ospf network type to point-to-multipoint.
C.Set ospf priority to 0 on the spine interfaces.
D.Set ospf priority to 255 on the spine interfaces.
AnswerC

OSPF priority 0 prevents the router from participating in DR/BDR election.

Why this answer

Setting the OSPF priority to 0 on the spine interfaces prevents the spine switches from participating in the DR/BDR election process, ensuring they never become the Designated Router (DR) for any VLAN. This is the standard method to suppress DR election on a multi-access network segment.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that setting OSPF priority to 0 disables OSPF on the interface entirely, when in fact it only prevents DR/BDR election while still allowing neighbor adjacency formation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because configuring passive-interface default under OSPF suppresses all OSPF hello packets on all interfaces, preventing neighbor adjacency formation entirely, which would break OSPF routing. Option B is wrong because setting the OSPF network type to point-to-multipoint does not inherently prevent a router from becoming DR; it changes the behavior to treat the network as a collection of point-to-point links but still allows DR election on multi-access segments. Option D is wrong because setting the OSPF priority to 255 (the highest possible value) makes the spine switch the most likely candidate to become the DR, which is the opposite of the desired outcome.

12
MCQeasy

Which BGP variant is commonly used in spine-leaf fabrics to advertise EVPN routes for VXLAN?

A.MP-BGP with EVPN address family
B.OSPF with opaque LSA
C.eBGP with standard IPv4 unicast
D.iBGP with standard IPv4 unicast
AnswerA

MP-BGP with EVPN address family (AFI L2VPN, SAFI EVPN) is used for VXLAN control plane.

Why this answer

MP-BGP with the EVPN address family (AFI 25 / SAFI 70) is the control-plane protocol used in VXLAN spine-leaf fabrics to advertise MAC/VTEP reachability, host routes, and integrated routing and bridging (IRB) information. This allows the spine to act as a route reflector, distributing EVPN type-2 (MAC/IP) and type-3 (IMET) routes to all leaf nodes, enabling efficient, loop-free overlay forwarding.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the control-plane protocol (MP-BGP EVPN) and the data-plane encapsulation (VXLAN), so the trap here is that candidates confuse the underlay routing protocol (e.g., OSPF or eBGP IPv4 unicast) with the overlay control-plane protocol needed for EVPN route advertisement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because OSPF with opaque LSA is used for MPLS Traffic Engineering or GMPLS signaling, not for advertising EVPN routes in VXLAN fabrics. Option C is wrong because eBGP with standard IPv4 unicast only carries IPv4 prefix information and cannot carry the MAC, VNI, and VTEP information required for EVPN overlay routes. Option D is wrong because iBGP with standard IPv4 unicast similarly lacks the EVPN address family and cannot transport the necessary overlay control-plane information for VXLAN.

13
MCQhard

In a VXLAN EVPN fabric with MP-BGP, which route type is used to advertise MAC addresses and associated VNI?

A.Type 3: Inclusive Multicast Ethernet Tag
B.Type 1: Ethernet Auto-Discovery
C.Type 5: IP Prefix
D.Type 2: MAC/IP Advertisement
AnswerD

Advertises MAC addresses and optionally IPs.

Why this answer

Type 2 (MAC/IP Advertisement) routes are used in VXLAN EVPN fabrics with MP-BGP to advertise MAC addresses, their associated VNI, and optionally IP addresses. This route type enables the control plane to distribute host reachability information, allowing VTEPs to build and update their forwarding tables dynamically.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between control plane (Type 2) and data plane (Type 3) advertisement mechanisms, tempting candidates to confuse multicast group management with MAC address learning.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Type 3 (Inclusive Multicast Ethernet Tag) routes are used to advertise multicast group membership for BUM traffic, not individual MAC addresses. Option B is wrong because Type 1 (Ethernet Auto-Discovery) routes are used for redundancy and fast convergence (e.g., aliasing and backup paths), not for MAC/VNI advertisement. Option C is wrong because Type 5 (IP Prefix) routes are used to advertise IP prefixes (e.g., external networks) in EVPN, not MAC addresses.

14
Multi-Selectmedium

A UCS administrator must ensure that a service profile can be updated without disrupting production traffic. Which two configuration options support this requirement? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Use of a service profile template with 'Disruptive Update'
B.Maintenance policy with 'Immediate'
C.Use of a service profile template with 'Upgrade Policy'
D.Maintenance policy with 'User Ack' and 'Enable Fast Reboot'
E.Maintenance policy with 'On Next Boot'
AnswersD, E

User acknowledgment provides manual control; fast reboot minimizes downtime.

Why this answer

A maintenance policy with 'User Ack' requires manual acknowledgment before the update proceeds, and enabling 'Fast Reboot' minimizes traffic disruption by reducing the reboot time. Option E is correct because a maintenance policy with 'On Next Boot' defers the update until the next scheduled reboot, allowing the administrator to control when the change takes effect and avoid impacting production traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Disruptive Update' and non-disruptive maintenance policies, and the trap here is that candidates confuse 'Upgrade Policy' (a non-existent term) with 'Maintenance Policy', or assume 'Immediate' is acceptable because it is fast, ignoring the disruption requirement.

15
MCQmedium

An engineer needs to extend a Layer 2 VLAN across a VXLAN EVPN fabric. Which construct maps the VLAN to the overlay network?

A.VLAN ID
B.VTEP IP
C.VNI
D.VPC
AnswerC

Correct: VNI maps to the VLAN.

Why this answer

In a VXLAN EVPN fabric, the VNI (VXLAN Network Identifier) is the construct that maps a Layer 2 VLAN to the overlay network. The VNI uniquely identifies a Layer 2 segment across the underlay, allowing VLAN traffic to be encapsulated and transported over the IP fabric. This mapping is configured on the VTEP (VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint) using commands like 'vlan 100' mapped to 'vn-segment 10100' under the VLAN configuration.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between VLAN ID (local significance) and VNI (global overlay identifier), and the trap here is that candidates confuse the VTEP IP (the tunnel endpoint) with the VNI (the network identifier), or think VPC plays a role in overlay mapping.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the VLAN ID is a Layer 2 identifier local to a switch or within a broadcast domain, and it does not provide the global segmentation needed for VXLAN overlay networks; the VNI is used instead. Option B is wrong because the VTEP IP is the source or destination IP address used for VXLAN encapsulation and decapsulation, not the identifier that maps a VLAN to the overlay. Option D is wrong because VPC (Virtual Port Channel) is a Cisco technology for link aggregation and redundancy, unrelated to VLAN-to-VXLAN mapping.

16
Multi-Selectmedium

A UCS administrator needs to update the firmware on a remote rack server that is not reachable via the production network. Which two features of Cisco IMC can be used? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Syslog
B.SNMP traps
C.Virtual media
D.HTTP server integration
E.KVM console
AnswersC, E

Virtual media can mount an ISO containing firmware to boot or update from.

Why this answer

CIMC provides out-of-band management; KVM console and virtual media can be used for firmware updates even if the OS network is down.

17
MCQeasy

Which STP variant provides per-VLAN load balancing and is commonly used in data center networks with Cisco Nexus switches?

A.Rapid PVST+
B.MST
C.RSTP
D.STP
AnswerA

Rapid PVST+ runs a separate RSTP instance per VLAN.

Why this answer

Rapid PVST+ (Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus) is the correct answer because it provides per-VLAN load balancing by running a separate instance of RSTP (802.1w) for each VLAN. This allows different VLANs to use different root bridges and forwarding paths, enabling traffic load sharing across redundant links. Cisco Nexus switches support Rapid PVST+ as a default or commonly configured STP variant in data center environments, offering fast convergence and VLAN-based traffic engineering.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between per-VLAN (Rapid PVST+) and per-instance (MST) load balancing, where candidates mistakenly choose MST because it reduces STP instances, but the question explicitly asks for per-VLAN load balancing, which only Rapid PVST+ provides.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (MST) is wrong because MST (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol, 802.1s) maps multiple VLANs into a single spanning tree instance, reducing the number of STP instances but not providing per-VLAN load balancing; it groups VLANs, which can lead to suboptimal path usage for individual VLANs. Option C (RSTP) is wrong because RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol, 802.1w) is a single-instance protocol that does not support per-VLAN load balancing; it operates on the entire bridged network without VLAN awareness. Option D (STP) is wrong because classic STP (802.1D) is a single-instance protocol with slow convergence (30-50 seconds) and no VLAN awareness, making it unsuitable for per-VLAN load balancing in modern data center networks.

18
MCQhard

In a HyperFlex cluster with hybrid nodes (HDD+SSD), which statement best describes the role of the SSD cache?

A.SSD is used only for metadata storage.
B.SSD is used for long-term persistent storage, while HDD is used for caching.
C.SSD acts as a write cache and read cache to accelerate I/O.
D.SSD is not used; all data is stored on HDD.
AnswerC

Correct. SSDs cache data for performance.

Why this answer

In HyperFlex, the SSD (or flash) in hybrid nodes serves as a cache for frequently accessed data, while the HDDs provide bulk storage. The HXDP uses SSDs for both caching and persistent storage in all-flash nodes.

19
MCQeasy

Which tool provides a programmatic HTTP-based interface to execute CLI commands on Cisco Nexus switches and returns structured JSON data?

A.Ansible
B.pyATS
C.Netmiko
D.NX-API
AnswerD

NX-API is the HTTP/HTTPS interface that accepts CLI commands and returns JSON/XML.

Why this answer

NX-API (Option D) is the correct answer because it provides a programmatic HTTP/HTTPS-based interface that allows you to send CLI commands to Cisco Nexus switches and receive structured JSON (or XML) responses. This enables automation and integration without requiring an SSH session, directly fulfilling the question's requirement for an HTTP-based interface with structured JSON output.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between tools that provide a direct HTTP-based API (like NX-API) versus automation or scripting libraries (like Ansible, pyATS, or Netmiko) that use other protocols (SSH) or are higher-level frameworks, leading candidates to confuse the interface layer with the tool that consumes it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Ansible is an automation framework that uses playbooks to manage devices, but it does not itself provide an HTTP-based interface for executing CLI commands on Nexus switches; it typically relies on NX-API or SSH via modules like nxos_command. Option B is wrong because pyATS (Python Test Automation System) is a testing framework for network devices, not a tool that exposes an HTTP-based CLI execution interface; it uses other transports like SSH or NX-API to interact with devices. Option C is wrong because Netmiko is a Python library for simplifying SSH connections to network devices, not an HTTP-based interface; it uses SSH, not HTTP, and returns unstructured text, not structured JSON.

20
Multi-Selecteasy

A data center network uses Cisco Nexus switches with VXLAN EVPN. Which two components are essential for VXLAN EVPN operation? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.VXLAN VTEPs on leaf switches.
B.OSPF as underlay routing protocol.
C.MP-BGP EVPN control plane.
D.VPC for host-facing links.
E.PIM-SM for multicast replication.
AnswersA, C

VTEPs encapsulate and decapsulate VXLAN frames.

Why this answer

VXLAN VTEPs (VXLAN Tunnel Endpoints) on leaf switches are essential because they perform the encapsulation and decapsulation of VXLAN frames, enabling Layer 2 overlay networks over a Layer 3 underlay. Without VTEPs, there is no mechanism to create the VXLAN tunnels that carry traffic between endpoints across the IP fabric.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between mandatory components (VTEPs and MP-BGP EVPN) and optional features (vPC, specific underlay protocols, or replication modes) to see if candidates understand that the underlay can be any IP-routed network and that multicast is not a requirement for VXLAN EVPN.

21
MCQeasy

Which Nexus security feature validates ARP packets to prevent ARP spoofing attacks?

A.Dynamic ARP Inspection
B.Port Security
C.IP Source Guard
D.DHCP Snooping
AnswerA

DAI validates ARP packets to prevent spoofing.

Why this answer

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) intercepts and validates ARP packets based on DHCP snooping bindings.

22
MCQmedium

An engineer is writing a Python script using the cisco_nxapi library to configure a Nexus switch. Which of the following is a valid step to establish a connection using NX-API?

A.Instantiate an `NXAPI` object with the switch IP, username, password, and transport (http/https).
B.Use the `Netmiko` library to connect via SSH and then invoke NX-API commands.
C.Import `nxos` module from Ansible and use it in the script.
D.Use the `requests` library to send CLI commands directly to the switch's NX-API endpoint.
AnswerA

Correct: The NXAPI class from cisco_nxapi accepts these parameters.

Why this answer

The cisco_nxapi library provides an NXAPI class that can be instantiated with switch IP, username, password, and transport protocol to connect.

23
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is hardening a Nexus switch. Which two security best practices should be applied? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Disable unused services
B.Use default SNMP community strings
C.Enable HTTP server for management
D.Enable Telnet for remote access
E.Enable only SSH for remote management
AnswersA, E

Reduces potential vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

Disabling unused services reduces attack surface; enabling SSH only provides secure remote access.

24
MCQeasy

Which HyperFlex node type offers the best performance for all-flash workloads and does not include HDDs?

A.Compute-only
B.Hybrid HDD/SSD
C.Storage-only
D.All-flash
AnswerD

All-flash nodes use only SSDs for both capacity and cache.

Why this answer

HyperFlex supports hybrid nodes (HDD+SSD cache) and all-flash nodes (SSD only). All-flash nodes provide higher performance and no HDDs.

25
MCQhard

A Nexus switch is being hardened. An engineer wants to protect the control plane from CPU-targeted attacks, such as heavy ICMP traffic. Which feature should be configured?

A.DHCP Snooping
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection
C.Control Plane Policing (CoPP)
D.IP Source Guard
AnswerC

CoPP protects the control plane by policing traffic that targets the CPU.

Why this answer

Control Plane Policing (CoPP) allows the switch to rate-limit or drop traffic destined to the control plane.

26
MCQmedium

An engineer is configuring zoning on a Cisco MDS switch. The requirement is to ensure that only the storage array ports with specific WWPNs can access the host initiators. Which zoning approach should be used to enforce this policy regardless of physical port changes?

A.Soft zoning by WWPN
B.Hard zoning by WWPN
C.Soft zoning by port ID
D.Hard zoning by domain/port
AnswerB

Hard zoning by WWPN enforces access control at the frame level based on WWPN, making it secure and independent of physical ports.

Why this answer

Hard zoning based on WWPN ensures that membership is tied to the device's World Wide Port Name, so changes in physical connectivity do not affect the zone membership.

27
MCQmedium

A network automation engineer is developing a CI/CD pipeline for network configuration changes. Which tool would best serve as a version control system for Infrastructure as Code (IaC) files in a data center network?

A.Git
B.Terraform
C.Jenkins
D.Ansible
AnswerA

Correct. Git is the standard version control system for IaC.

Why this answer

Git is the industry-standard version control system for IaC, enabling branching, merging, and collaboration. Terraform and Ansible are automation tools, not version control. Jenkins is a CI/CD server, not version control.

28
MCQeasy

In a dual-fabric UCS environment, Fabric Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B provide redundancy. If Fabric Interconnect A fails, what happens to the traffic from servers using vNICs assigned to Fabric A?

A.Traffic is lost until Fabric A is restored
B.Traffic is rerouted through the chassis IOM
C.Traffic is load-balanced between both fabrics
D.Traffic automatically fails over to Fabric B
AnswerA

vNICs pinned to Fabric A cannot use Fabric B without configuration.

Why this answer

vNICs assigned to Fabric A are pinned to FI-A. If FI-A fails, those vNICs lose connectivity unless failover is configured to Fabric B.

29
MCQhard

A network engineer is implementing automated configuration management using Cisco NSO (Network Services Orchestrator). The team wants to ensure that any configuration changes made directly on the devices (out-of-band) are detected and reconciled. Which NSO feature should be used?

A.Configuration Database (CDB) snapshots
B.Fast-map synchronization
C.Service model templates
D.Rollback and recovery mechanism
AnswerB

Fast-map syncs device configurations with NSO and detects drift.

Why this answer

Fast-map synchronization is the correct NSO feature because it is specifically designed to detect and reconcile configuration changes made directly on managed devices (out-of-band changes). It compares the device's running configuration against NSO's CDB and generates the necessary NETCONF or CLI operations to bring the device back into sync with NSO's desired state, ensuring consistency without manual intervention.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between features that manage NSO's internal state (CDB snapshots, rollback) versus features that synchronize with external devices (fast-map), leading candidates to confuse backup mechanisms with reconciliation tools.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because CDB snapshots are used for backup and restore of NSO's own configuration database, not for detecting or reconciling out-of-band device changes. Option C is wrong because service model templates define service-level configurations and are used for deploying services, not for detecting or reconciling direct device modifications. Option D is wrong because the rollback and recovery mechanism reverts NSO's own transaction history to a previous state, but it does not detect or reconcile out-of-band changes made directly on devices.

30
MCQhard

An engineer is designing an automation solution for a large data center with multiple Cisco UCS Manager domains. Which approach best ensures idempotent configuration operations?

A.Writing imperative Python scripts that execute CLI commands
B.Using a declarative automation tool like Ansible with idempotent modules
C.Directly calling UCS Manager XML API using POST requests
D.Using SNMP to set configuration parameters
AnswerB

Declarative tools ensure the desired state is achieved regardless of current state.

Why this answer

Ansible's declarative modules for Cisco UCS Manager (e.g., `ucs_*` modules) are designed to be idempotent: they compare the current state of the configuration against the desired state defined in the playbook and only apply changes when necessary. This ensures that running the same playbook multiple times yields the same result without unintended side effects, which is critical for large-scale automation across multiple UCS domains.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that any API or script-based approach (like XML API or Python CLI) is automatically idempotent, when in fact only declarative tools with built-in state reconciliation (like Ansible) guarantee idempotency without additional custom logic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because imperative Python scripts that execute CLI commands are not inherently idempotent; they blindly send commands each time they run, potentially causing errors or duplicate configurations unless the script explicitly checks the current state. Option C is wrong because directly calling the UCS Manager XML API using POST requests is a procedural method that requires custom logic to check existing state before applying changes; without such checks, repeated POST requests can create duplicate objects or overwrite configurations. Option D is wrong because SNMP is a monitoring protocol (RFC 1157) designed for reading MIB variables and sending traps, not for idempotent configuration operations; it lacks the state comparison and transactional guarantees needed for reliable configuration management.

31
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO methods are used to secure management plane access on Cisco Nexus 9000 series switches?

Select 2 answers
A.SNMPv3
B.CoPP
C.SSH
D.AAA
E.VRF
AnswersC, D

SSH encrypts management traffic, securing remote access.

Why this answer

SSH (Secure Shell) is correct because it provides encrypted remote access to the management plane, preventing eavesdropping and session hijacking. AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) is correct because it centralizes user authentication and authorization for management access, enforcing role-based access control (RBAC) via RADIUS or TACACS+ servers.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between mechanisms that secure the management plane itself (SSH, AAA) versus mechanisms that protect the control plane (CoPP) or segment traffic (VRF), leading candidates to incorrectly select CoPP or VRF as management plane security methods.

32
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE statements about Cisco Network Services Orchestrator (NSO) are true?

Select 3 answers
A.It can manage both NX-OS and ACI
B.It uses NETCONF to communicate with devices
C.It can only be used for layer 3 services
D.It requires a separate database for device states
E.It uses YANG models for device configuration
AnswersA, B, E

NSO has NEDs for both NX-OS and ACI.

Why this answer

Cisco NSO is a multi-domain orchestration platform that can manage both NX-OS and ACI environments, making option A correct. It uses NETCONF as the primary southbound protocol to communicate with devices, and it leverages YANG models to define and enforce device configurations, which validates options B and E.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume NSO requires an external database for state management, but it actually uses its own integrated CDB, and they may also mistakenly think NSO is limited to Layer 3 services when it is a multi-layer orchestrator.

33
MCQeasy

Which Fibre Channel address component identifies the port on a storage target?

A.WWPN
B.WWNN
C.FCID
D.VSAN ID
AnswerA

Correct. WWPN uniquely identifies a port.

Why this answer

WWPN (World Wide Port Name) is a globally unique 64-bit identifier assigned to each Fibre Channel port.

34
MCQmedium

An automation engineer is using the cisco_nxapi Python library to configure a Nexus switch. Which step is required before using the library?

A.Configure a NETCONF session.
B.Generate an SSH key pair for authentication.
C.Install the library on the Nexus switch using pip.
D.Enable NX-API on the Nexus switch with 'feature nxapi'.
AnswerD

NX-API must be enabled to accept REST/CLI calls.

Why this answer

The cisco_nxapi library uses NX-API, which must be enabled on the Nexus switch via 'feature nxapi'.

35
MCQeasy

Which VLAN trunking protocol is used by default on Cisco Nexus switches to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?

A.VTP
B.DTP
C.ISL
D.802.1Q
AnswerD

802.1Q is the standard trunking protocol used on Nexus switches.

Why this answer

802.1Q is the IEEE standard trunking protocol used by default on Cisco Nexus switches to carry multiple VLANs over a single link. Unlike older Cisco switches that defaulted to ISL, Nexus switches exclusively support 802.1Q encapsulation for VLAN trunking, as ISL is not supported on the NX-OS platform.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that DTP or VTP is a trunking protocol, but the trap here is that candidates confuse negotiation or management protocols with the actual encapsulation method used to carry VLAN traffic over a trunk link.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is a Layer 2 messaging protocol used to synchronize VLAN information across switches, not a trunking encapsulation method; it is disabled by default on Nexus switches and not used to carry VLANs over a link. Option B is wrong because DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to negotiate trunking status between switch ports, but it does not encapsulate or carry VLAN traffic; it merely automates the establishment of a trunk link. Option C is wrong because ISL (Inter-Switch Link) is a Cisco proprietary trunking encapsulation that is not supported on Nexus switches; Nexus platforms use only 802.1Q for VLAN trunking.

36
MCQhard

A data center engineer is configuring vPC on a pair of Cisco Nexus switches. The vPC peer-link is established but the vPC member ports remain suspended. After checking the configuration, the engineer notices that the vPC peer-keepalive link is not functioning. What is the most likely cause of the suspended member ports?

A.MTU mismatch on the peer-link
B.Peer-keepalive link failure causing dual-active detection issues
C.Mismatched vPC domain ID
D.Incorrect VLAN configuration on member ports
AnswerB

Peer-keepalive failure can trigger a dual-active situation, leading to member port suspension.

Why this answer

When the vPC peer-keepalive link fails, each vPC peer switch cannot detect whether the other peer is operational. This triggers the dual-active detection mechanism, causing the secondary switch to suspend its vPC member ports to prevent a split-brain scenario where both switches forward traffic for the same vPC VLAN. The suspended state is a protective measure until the peer-keepalive link is restored or the vPC role is resolved.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between peer-link failure (which causes both switches to suspend member ports) and peer-keepalive failure (which causes only the secondary switch to suspend member ports), and the trap here is that candidates confuse the two or assume any link failure leads to the same outcome.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an MTU mismatch on the peer-link would cause packet drops or CRC errors, not the suspension of vPC member ports; the peer-link itself would still be up and vPC member ports would remain active. Option C is wrong because a mismatched vPC domain ID would prevent the vPC peer-link from forming at all, not cause member ports to suspend after the peer-link is established. Option D is wrong because incorrect VLAN configuration on member ports would cause traffic issues or ports to be in an err-disabled state, but the vPC member ports would not be suspended specifically due to VLAN misconfiguration; suspension is a vPC-specific state triggered by dual-active detection.

37
MCQhard

In UCS Manager, which feature provides role-based access control for managing the fabric interconnects?

A.Cisco ISE integration
B.Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C.CoPP
D.AAA with TACACS+
AnswerB

UCS Manager uses RBAC to assign permissions.

Why this answer

UCS Manager includes RBAC with roles and privileges.

38
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An Ansible playbook targeting an NX-OS switch fails with this error. What is the most likely cause?

A.The password is incorrect
B.The username is incorrect
C.SSH is not enabled on the switch
D.The Ansible version is incompatible with the switch
AnswerA

'authentication failed' indicates wrong password or username, and password is the most common issue.

Why this answer

The error message indicates an authentication failure during the SSH connection from Ansible to the NX-OS switch. Since Ansible uses SSH to execute tasks, a 'Permission denied' error most commonly points to incorrect credentials. The playbook likely specifies the wrong password for the given username, causing the SSH session to be rejected.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between SSH connectivity errors (e.g., 'Connection refused') and authentication errors (e.g., 'Permission denied'), leading candidates to mistakenly blame SSH configuration when the real issue is incorrect credentials.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if the username were incorrect, the error would typically be 'Authentication failed' or 'User not found', but the error message shown does not distinguish between username and password; however, the most common cause in Ansible playbooks is a password mismatch, not a username typo. Option C is wrong because if SSH were not enabled, the error would be 'Connection refused' or 'No route to host', not 'Permission denied'. Option D is wrong because Ansible version incompatibility with NX-OS would manifest as module execution failures or unsupported features, not an SSH authentication error.

39
MCQhard

An engineer is deploying FCoE in a data center and must ensure lossless transport for Fibre Channel traffic over Ethernet. The engineer configures Priority Flow Control (PFC) on the DCB-enabled switches. However, FCoE initialization fails. Which additional DCB feature is required to enable FCoE devices to discover and negotiate PFC settings with the switch?

A.DCBX (Data Center Bridging Exchange)
B.CN (Congestion Notification)
C.ETS (Enhanced Transmission Selection)
D.QoS (Quality of Service)
AnswerA

DCBX is essential for FCoE to discover and negotiate PFC and other DCB capabilities.

Why this answer

DCBX (Data Center Bridging Exchange) is used to exchange DCB parameters between peers, including PFC and ETS. FIP uses DCBX to discover FCoE-capable switches and negotiate PFC.

40
MCQeasy

A network engineer wants to automate the deployment of a new VLAN across all Cisco Nexus switches in a data center using Python scripts. Which tool is most appropriate for this task?

A.Cisco NX-API with Python requests
B.SSH CLI commands via Paramiko
C.Ansible playbook
D.SNMP SET commands
AnswerA

NX-API provides RESTful API for direct configuration via Python.

Why this answer

Cisco NX-API provides a RESTful API interface on Nexus switches, allowing direct HTTP/HTTPS calls to configure VLANs programmatically. Using Python's requests library, you can send structured JSON payloads to the API endpoint, making it the most direct and efficient method for script-driven automation without requiring intermediate tools or protocols.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between direct programmatic APIs (NX-API) and higher-level automation tools (Ansible) or legacy methods (SNMP, SSH), expecting candidates to recognize that the question's emphasis on 'Python scripts' points to a library-based API call rather than a separate automation framework.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because SSH CLI commands via Paramiko emulate a terminal session, which is slower, less reliable for large-scale automation, and requires parsing CLI output, whereas NX-API offers structured data exchange. Option C is wrong because Ansible is a configuration management tool that abstracts the underlying API or CLI, but the question specifically asks for a Python script-based tool; Ansible playbooks are written in YAML, not Python scripts, and while Ansible can use NX-API modules, the question's context demands a direct Python scripting approach. Option D is wrong because SNMP SET commands are designed for monitoring and simple configuration changes, not for complex tasks like VLAN deployment, and they lack the transactional reliability and structured data handling of NX-API.

41
MCQhard

During an iSCSI deployment, an administrator configures CHAP authentication between the initiator and target. Which statement about CHAP in iSCSI is correct?

A.CHAP authentication is performed after the iSCSI login phase is complete.
B.The CHAP secret is sent in cleartext over the network.
C.CHAP uses a one-way hash to authenticate the target to the initiator only.
D.In one-way CHAP, only the initiator is authenticated to the target.
AnswerD

In one-way CHAP, the target authenticates the initiator; mutual CHAP provides two-way authentication.

Why this answer

One-way CHAP uses a secret configured on both sides, but two-way CHAP (mutual authentication) uses separate secrets in each direction.

42
MCQmedium

A storage administrator is configuring synchronous replication between two storage arrays over a Fibre Channel link. Which characteristic best describes synchronous replication?

A.Data is written to the primary and then asynchronously to the secondary, reducing latency.
B.The write is acknowledged to the host only after data is written to both primary and secondary.
C.The secondary storage is used only for backup and is not actively updated.
D.Data is written to the primary and later replicated based on a schedule.
AnswerB

Synchronous replication ensures data is on both sides before acknowledgment.

Why this answer

Synchronous replication writes data to both the primary and secondary storage before acknowledging the write to the host, ensuring zero data loss but increasing latency.

43
MCQeasy

A network engineer is troubleshooting a slow backup performance between a backup server and a tape library connected via FC. The backup server is connected to a Cisco MDS switch at 8 Gbps, and the tape library is connected at 4 Gbps. The backup job is using hardware compression. Which factor is most likely limiting performance?

A.Port speed mismatch between the server and tape library
B.Insufficient buffer credits on the MDS switch
C.Hardware compression on the tape library
D.Half-duplex mode on the FC link
AnswerA

The slower device (4 Gbps) determines the link speed.

Why this answer

The backup server is connected at 8 Gbps while the tape library is connected at 4 Gbps. In Fibre Channel, the link speed is negotiated per port, and the end-to‑end flow is limited by the slowest link in the path. Even though the server can transmit at 8 Gbps, the tape library can only receive at 4 Gbps, creating a bottleneck that caps the backup throughput.

Hardware compression on the tape library does not cause this speed mismatch; it actually reduces the amount of data written to tape, but the physical link rate remains the limiting factor.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that buffer credits are the primary cause of any FC performance issue, but here the persistent throughput limit is due to a static speed mismatch, not a dynamic credit starvation problem.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because insufficient buffer credits typically cause frame drops and retransmissions under high load, not a consistent speed cap; the scenario describes a persistent throughput limit, not loss‑induced slowdown. Option C is wrong because hardware compression reduces the volume of data written to tape, which would improve backup performance, not limit it. Option D is wrong because Fibre Channel operates in full‑duplex mode by design; half‑duplex does not exist in FC standards (FC‑0 through FC‑4 all assume full‑duplex links).

44
MCQmedium

A large enterprise is deploying a new storage network for a VMware vSphere cluster with 200 VMs. The cluster uses vSphere 7 with vVols and requires a SAN that supports 16 Gbps FC. The storage team wants to use a Cisco MDS 9148S switch and has configured two VSANs: VSAN 100 for production and VSAN 200 for backup. The backup server is connected to VSAN 200. After the deployment, the backup administrator reports that backup jobs from the backup server to the storage array are failing. The storage array is connected to both VSANs via a single FC interface configured in 'auto' mode. The backup server is connected to an F-port in VSAN 200. The storage array's interface shows 'trunking' enabled and is in 'up' state. What is the most likely cause of the backup failure?

A.Configure the MDS switch interface connected to the storage array as a trunk port and ensure VSAN 200 is in the allowed list.
B.Move the backup server to VSAN 100 to match the production storage.
C.Change the storage array interface to 'F' mode to force it to be in a single VSAN.
D.Disable trunking on the storage array interface to prevent VSAN mismatch.
AnswerA

This allows the array to be in both VSANs and ensures the backup server can communicate with the array.

Why this answer

The storage array is connected to both VSANs via a single interface with trunking enabled, but the MDS switch interface connected to the array is not configured as a trunk port. Without trunking on the switch side, the interface can only belong to one VSAN (likely VSAN 100 by default), so traffic from the backup server in VSAN 200 cannot reach the storage array. Option A resolves this by configuring the switch interface as a trunk port and explicitly allowing VSAN 200 in the allowed VSAN list, enabling the array to communicate with both VSANs.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that enabling trunking on the storage array alone is sufficient, when in fact both ends of the link must be configured as trunk ports for multi-VSAN traffic to pass.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because moving the backup server to VSAN 100 would disrupt backup isolation and does not address the root cause—the switch interface is not trunking to carry VSAN 200 traffic. Option C is wrong because changing the storage array interface to 'F' mode would force it into a single VSAN, preventing it from serving both production and backup traffic, which is the opposite of what is needed. Option D is wrong because disabling trunking on the storage array interface would eliminate the ability to carry multiple VSANs, making the backup failure permanent; trunking is required to allow the single interface to participate in both VSANs.

45
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements correctly describe the use of Cisco UCS Manager service profiles for server deployment?

Select 2 answers
A.Service profiles can only be applied to servers of the same model.
B.Service profiles decouple server identity from hardware, enabling rapid provisioning.
C.A service profile can be associated with multiple servers simultaneously.
D.Service profiles are stored locally on the server's boot drive.
E.Service profiles include policies for firmware, BIOS, boot order, and network.
AnswersB, E

Service profiles abstract server identity, allowing quick redeployment.

Why this answer

Service profiles decouple the logical server identity (UUID, MAC addresses, WWPNs) from the physical hardware. This allows an administrator to rapidly provision or repurpose a server by simply associating the profile with a different blade or rack server, without reconfiguring the OS or SAN/NIC settings. This abstraction is the core value of Cisco UCS Manager for scalable, stateless computing.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse service profiles with server templates or think they are tied to specific hardware models (Option A), when in fact the entire purpose of UCS stateless computing is to abstract identity from hardware.

46
MCQmedium

During iSCSI configuration, the storage administrator requires authentication between initiator and target. Which method uses a bidirectional secret to verify both ends?

A.RADIUS
B.IPsec
C.CHAP
D.Kerberos
AnswerC

CHAP provides authentication; mutual CHAP authenticates both sides.

Why this answer

CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) can be one-way or mutual. Mutual CHAP requires both initiator and target to authenticate each other using secrets.

47
MCQmedium

A data center spine-leaf architecture is designed to ensure low latency and high bandwidth. Which of the following best describes the role of the leaf switches in this topology?

A.Leaf switches are used only for management traffic and do not forward data-plane traffic.
B.Leaf switches provide the Layer 3 routing core and connect to external networks.
C.Leaf switches connect to servers and provide access to the network, while spine switches provide the aggregation and routing fabric.
D.Leaf switches interconnect all spine switches to provide any-to-any connectivity.
AnswerC

Correct. Leaf switches are access switches connecting servers; spine switches form the fabric.

Why this answer

In a spine-leaf architecture, leaf switches serve as the access layer that connects directly to servers, storage, and other endpoints. They forward traffic to spine switches, which provide the Layer 3 routing fabric and ensure any-to-any connectivity with predictable latency. This design eliminates the need for Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) and allows for efficient east-west traffic flow.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that leaf switches perform routing and aggregation, when in fact they are access-layer switches that rely on spine switches for the Layer 3 fabric and external connectivity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because leaf switches are fully involved in forwarding data-plane traffic, not just management traffic; they handle all server-to-spine forwarding. Option B is wrong because leaf switches do not provide the Layer 3 routing core or connect to external networks—that role belongs to spine switches, which perform routing and often connect to the WAN or core. Option D is wrong because leaf switches do not interconnect spine switches; spine switches interconnect leaf switches to provide any-to-any connectivity, not the reverse.

48
MCQmedium

An engineer is configuring iSCSI CHAP authentication between an initiator and a target. The initiator has a CHAP username and secret configured. What must be configured on the target?

A.A different username and secret.
B.No CHAP configuration is needed on the target.
C.Only the secret, no username.
D.The same username and secret as the initiator.
AnswerD

For CHAP authentication, the target must have a matching username and secret for the initiator.

Why this answer

For one-way CHAP, the target must have the same username and secret to authenticate the initiator. For mutual CHAP, additional configuration is needed, but the question implies one-way CHAP.

49
MCQmedium

A NetApp storage array is configured for synchronous replication between two data centers. The round-trip latency is 2 ms. Which RAID type provides the best balance of capacity efficiency and protection for the primary storage volumes that are replicated?

A.RAID-5
B.RAID-6
C.RAID-10
D.RAID-0
AnswerC

RAID-10 offers high performance and availability, suitable for synchronous replication despite lower capacity efficiency.

Why this answer

RAID-10 offers high performance and availability with mirroring and striping, but capacity efficiency is lower (50% usable). RAID-6 provides better capacity efficiency (2 parity disks) but with higher write overhead. Given synchronous replication, RAID-10 is often preferred for performance.

50
MCQmedium

Which type of UCS service profile allows an administrator to define a configuration that can be used as a starting point for multiple servers, with each server potentially having unique settings?

A.Service profile template
B.Initial service profile
C.Derived service profile
D.Base service profile
AnswerA

Correct. Templates provide a reusable configuration for multiple instances.

Why this answer

A service profile template is used to define a base configuration that can be instantiated into multiple service profiles, each of which can be customized.

51
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are benefits of using a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Predictable and low latency
B.Scalability: adding more leaf switches does not require reconfiguration of existing ones
C.Eliminates need for VLANs
D.Simplified spanning-tree design
E.Reduced number of switch ports required
AnswersA, B

Each flow goes leaf-spine-leaf, constant hops.

Why this answer

In a spine-leaf architecture, every leaf switch connects to every spine switch, creating a full-mesh topology. This ensures that traffic between any two leaf switches traverses exactly one spine switch, resulting in predictable, low-latency forwarding because the number of hops is fixed and deterministic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that spine-leaf eliminates VLANs or simplifies spanning-tree, but the key trap is that candidates confuse 'no STP needed' with 'simplified STP design'—in reality, spine-leaf eliminates STP entirely by using Layer 3 routing between leaf and spine switches.

52
MCQeasy

A Cisco Intersight managed UCS domain has a policy that requires all firmware updates to be applied within 30 days of release. An engineer needs to check compliance for a specific server. Which Intersight feature should be used?

A.Software repository
B.Actions tab with pending updates
C.Compliance and drift management
D.Firmware update policy
AnswerC

This feature checks if firmware versions meet the defined baseline.

Why this answer

Compliance and drift management in Intersight continuously monitors the firmware versions of managed UCS servers against the defined baseline policies. When a policy requires updates within 30 days of release, this feature automatically detects servers that are out of compliance and reports the drift, allowing the engineer to verify compliance for a specific server without manual checks.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a policy that defines an action (like firmware update policy) and a monitoring/reporting feature (like compliance and drift management), leading candidates to confuse the policy that enforces updates with the tool that checks compliance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the software repository is used to store and manage firmware images, not to check compliance against a time-based policy. Option B is wrong because the Actions tab with pending updates shows only immediate pending firmware actions, not historical or policy-based compliance status over a 30-day window. Option D is wrong because a firmware update policy defines the update schedule and target version, but it does not provide a compliance report or drift analysis for a specific server against a release-date-based policy.

53
MCQhard

A financial services company operates a multi-site data center with Cisco ACI. The automation team uses Ansible Tower to manage configurations. They have a playbook that configures EPGs using the 'aci_epg' module. The playbook runs successfully for most sites but fails on one site with the error 'Object 'uni/tn-Tenant1/ap-AP1/epg-EPG1' doesn't exist'. The engineer checks the ACI fabric and confirms that the tenant, application profile, and EPG exist on that site. The playbook uses the same credentials and variables across all sites. What is the most likely cause of the failure?

A.The Ansible Tower job runs with a different user that lacks permissions on that site
B.The ACI APIC version is incompatible with the Ansible module
C.The EPG name in the playbook has a typo that only affects this site
D.The fabric name in the Ansible inventory is incorrect for that site
AnswerD

Leads to connection to wrong APIC where EPG doesn't exist.

Why this answer

The error 'Object doesn't exist' despite the EPG being present on the ACI fabric indicates that Ansible is targeting the wrong fabric or APIC. Since the playbook uses the same credentials and variables across all sites, the most likely cause is an incorrect fabric name in the Ansible inventory for that specific site, causing the module to query a different APIC cluster where the object does not exist.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that Ansible inventory variables (like fabric hostname or APIC IP) must match the target site, and candidates mistakenly focus on credentials or module syntax instead of verifying the inventory configuration for each site.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the playbook uses the same credentials across all sites, and if a different user lacked permissions, the error would typically be an authentication or authorization failure, not an 'object doesn't exist' error. Option B is wrong because an APIC version incompatibility would likely cause module-level errors (e.g., missing parameters or API changes), not a specific object-not-found error for an existing EPG. Option C is wrong because a typo in the EPG name would cause the same error across all sites, not just one, and the engineer confirmed the EPG exists with the correct name on the failing site.

54
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are required to configure Fibre Channel PortChannels on Cisco MDS switches?

Select 3 answers
A.All member ports must be in the same VSAN
B.A PortChannel interface must be created
C.All member ports must have the same speed
D.NPV mode must be enabled on the switch
E.All member ports must be configured as F-ports
AnswersA, B, C

PortChannel members must belong to the same VSAN.

Why this answer

Fibre Channel PortChannels require that all member ports have the same speed and configuration, and that they are on the same switch. They can be used with E-ports for ISL trunking.

55
MCQeasy

Which feature on Nexus switches provides a Linux shell environment to run Python scripts and tools directly on the switch?

A.NX-API
B.EEM
C.Guest Shell
D.OnEX
AnswerC

Correct: Guest Shell is a Linux shell environment on Nexus for running Python and other scripts.

Why this answer

The Guest Shell provides a secure Linux container environment for running custom scripts and tools on Nexus switches.

56
MCQeasy

A storage array is configured with RAID 10 across 8 disks. How many disks can fail without data loss, assuming optimal configuration?

A.8
B.1
C.2
D.4
AnswerD

In RAID 10 with 8 disks, up to 4 disks (one per mirror) can fail.

Why this answer

RAID 10 mirrors data across two sets and stripes. In a configuration of 8 disks (4 mirrors), one disk per mirror can fail, so up to 4 disks can fail as long as no mirror loses both disks.

57
MCQhard

In an ACI fabric, an automation engineer needs to create a new tenant with an application profile and EPG using the APIC REST API. The engineer decides to use the Cobra SDK for Python. Which statement about the Cobra SDK is true?

A.Cobra SDK only supports JSON format for payloads.
B.Cobra SDK uses NETCONF to communicate with the APIC.
C.Cobra SDK provides Python classes for each object in the ACI MIT.
D.Cobra SDK requires the acitoolkit library to be installed separately.
AnswerC

Cobra mirrors the MIT with Python objects.

Why this answer

Cobra SDK provides Python bindings for the APIC REST API, allowing direct manipulation of the MIT.

58
MCQmedium

In a spine-leaf architecture with 40 leaf switches and 4 spine switches, each leaf has four 40G uplinks to the spines. What is the oversubscription ratio if each leaf has 48 ports of 10G for servers?

A.2:1
B.5:1
C.3:1
D.4:1
AnswerC

Correct: 480/160 = 3.

Why this answer

The oversubscription ratio is calculated by comparing total server bandwidth to total uplink bandwidth. Each leaf has 48 ports × 10G = 480G of server-facing bandwidth, and 4 uplinks × 40G = 160G of spine-facing bandwidth. The ratio is 480:160 = 3:1, meaning three times as much server bandwidth as uplink bandwidth, which is a common design target in Cisco ACI and NX-OS spine-leaf fabrics.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the oversubscription ratio calculation by providing port counts and speeds, and the trap is that candidates mistakenly divide the total server bandwidth by the number of uplinks instead of the total uplink bandwidth, or they forget to multiply the number of uplinks by their speed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (2:1) is wrong because it would require 240G of uplink bandwidth (e.g., 6 × 40G uplinks), not the 160G provided. Option B (5:1) is wrong because it would imply 800G of server bandwidth, which is not the case with 48 × 10G ports. Option D (4:1) is wrong because it would require 120G of uplink bandwidth (e.g., 3 × 40G uplinks), but the actual uplink capacity is 160G, making the ratio 3:1, not 4:1.

59
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are required to configure FCoE NPV on a Cisco Nexus switch?

Select 3 answers
A.Enable FIP snooping.
B.Associate the FCoE VLAN with the VSAN.
C.Configure a storage VLAN.
D.Configure a VSAN for FCoE.
E.Enable FCoE on the switch.
AnswersA, B, E

FIP snooping prevents rogue FCoE devices.

Why this answer

FIP snooping is required on the NPV switch to inspect and validate FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP) frames, preventing unauthorized FCoE devices from joining the fabric. Without FIP snooping, the NPV switch cannot properly forward FCoE traffic between the ENode and the upstream FCF, making it a mandatory configuration step for FCoE NPV.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between configuring a VSAN on the NPV switch (which is incorrect) versus associating the FCoE VLAN with a VSAN (which is correct), leading candidates to mistakenly select 'Configure a VSAN for FCoE' as a required step.

60
MCQhard

A data center team is automating network changes and wants to ensure that only validated configurations are deployed to production. Which CI/CD practice specifically addresses this?

A.Infrastructure as Code
B.Automated testing
C.Continuous deployment
D.Version control
AnswerB

Automated testing validates configurations in a pipeline.

Why this answer

Automated testing (e.g., unit tests, integration tests) in the CI/CD pipeline validates changes before deployment.

61
MCQmedium

In a UCS service profile, which configuration allows a blade server to boot from a SAN LUN without local storage?

A.Enable PXE boot in the service profile.
B.Define a SAN boot policy and assign it to the service profile with the boot order set to SAN.
C.Configure local disk as RAID and use it for boot.
D.Set the boot order to local disk first, then SAN.
AnswerB

Correct. This enables boot from SAN.

Why this answer

Boot from SAN is configured in the service profile by specifying a SAN boot policy that defines the WWPN, LUN ID, and target details. This enables stateless boot from a SAN-attached LUN.

62
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO commands are used to verify zoning configuration on a Cisco MDS switch? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.show zone
B.show fcns database
C.show flogi database
D.show vsan membership
E.show zoneset active
AnswersA, E

Displays all configured zones.

Why this answer

The 'show zone' command displays the configured zone database, including zone members and their aliases, which is essential for verifying zoning configuration. The 'show zoneset active' command shows the currently active zoneset that is enforced by the switch, confirming which zones are actually applied to traffic. Both commands directly verify zoning configuration on a Cisco MDS switch.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between commands that show device login status (fcns, flogi) versus commands that show the actual zoning configuration (zone, zoneset active), leading candidates to mistakenly choose login-related commands as zoning verification tools.

63
MCQmedium

A network administrator implements the ACL shown. After verifying the ACL statistics, all counters show 0 matches. What is the most likely cause?

A.The ACL entries are in the wrong order.
B.The ACL is applied to the wrong interface.
C.The 'permit ip any any' entry causes all traffic to be permitted before inspection.
D.The ACL is applied outbound instead of inbound.
AnswerB

Ethernet1/1 is a management interface; production traffic likely uses other interfaces.

Why this answer

If the ACL is applied to the wrong interface, traffic never traverses that interface, so the ACL counters remain at 0. ACLs must be applied to the interface where traffic enters (inbound) or exits (outbound) the device; applying to an interface that does not carry the relevant traffic results in no matches.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that ACL counters being 0 is always due to a missing 'permit ip any any' or wrong entry order, but the real trap is that the ACL may simply not be processing any traffic because it is applied to the wrong interface or direction.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the order of ACL entries affects which traffic is matched, but it does not cause all counters to be 0; even a misordered ACL would still match some traffic (e.g., a deny entry before a permit would still show matches for the deny). Option C is wrong because a 'permit ip any any' entry at the end of an ACL permits all unmatched traffic, but it would still match traffic and increment its own counter, not cause all counters to be 0. Option D is wrong because applying the ACL outbound instead of inbound would still match traffic exiting the interface; counters would increment if traffic flows out that interface, so 0 matches indicates no traffic is being evaluated, not a direction mismatch.

64
MCQmedium

What is the purpose of the vPC peer keepalive link in a vPC domain?

A.To synchronize MAC address tables
B.To carry BPDUs for STP
C.To provide a keepalive mechanism to detect peer failure
D.To forward data traffic between vPC peers
AnswerC

The keepalive link sends periodic messages to verify peer liveness.

Why this answer

The vPC peer keepalive link is a dedicated Layer 3 link used to detect a failure of the vPC peer switch. It sends periodic UDP-based keepalive messages (default every second) to ensure the peer is still operational, allowing the surviving switch to take over the vPC forwarding role. This mechanism is critical for preventing dual-active scenarios where both switches would incorrectly forward traffic for the same vPC VLAN.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the peer-link (which carries data and control traffic) and the peer keepalive link (which is only for liveness detection), and candidates mistakenly assume the keepalive link handles data or STP BPDUs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MAC address synchronization between vPC peers is performed over the vPC peer-link (typically a port-channel), not the keepalive link; the keepalive link only carries heartbeat messages. Option B is wrong because BPDUs for STP are exchanged over the vPC peer-link or directly on member ports, not over the keepalive link, which is a Layer 3 path and does not participate in spanning tree. Option D is wrong because the keepalive link never forwards data traffic; it is a control-plane-only link used solely for peer liveness detection, while all data traffic between vPC peers traverses the peer-link.

65
MCQmedium

An organization uses UCS Central to manage multiple UCS domains. They need to create a global VLAN policy that applies to all domains. How is this achieved?

A.Create a global VLAN policy in UCS Central and apply it to the service profile templates
B.Use Cisco IMC Supervisor to distribute VLANs
C.Configure VLANs on the Fabric Interconnects directly
D.Define the VLAN policy locally in each UCS domain
AnswerA

UCS Central global policies can be used across domains.

Why this answer

UCS Central provides centralized management for multiple UCS domains. A global VLAN policy created in UCS Central is automatically propagated to all managed UCS domains, ensuring consistent VLAN definitions across the infrastructure. Applying this policy to service profile templates enforces the VLAN configuration on all associated service profiles, eliminating the need for per-domain configuration.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between centralized management (UCS Central) and local management (UCS Manager), where candidates mistakenly think VLANs must be configured per domain or via other management tools like IMC Supervisor.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Cisco IMC Supervisor is used for managing standalone Cisco UCS C-Series servers, not for distributing VLANs across UCS domains managed by UCS Central. Option C is wrong because configuring VLANs directly on Fabric Interconnects is a local, per-domain approach that bypasses UCS Central's centralized policy management, leading to configuration drift and administrative overhead. Option D is wrong because defining the VLAN policy locally in each UCS domain defeats the purpose of centralized management with UCS Central, requiring manual replication and increasing the risk of inconsistencies.

66
MCQmedium

A storage administrator notices that a Fiber Channel link between a server and a Cisco MDS switch is flapping every few minutes. The server's HBA and the switch port are both configured for 16 Gbps. Which action is most likely to resolve the issue?

A.Increase the link timeout interval on the switch port
B.Replace the SFP module on the switch port with a compatible Cisco SFP
C.Configure the switch port speed to auto-negotiate
D.Change the admin state of the interface to shut and no shut
AnswerB

Faulty SFP is a common cause of link flapping.

Why this answer

The most likely cause of link flapping on a 16 Gbps Fiber Channel link is an incompatible or faulty SFP module. Cisco MDS switches require Cisco-qualified SFPs to ensure proper signal integrity and protocol negotiation; using a third-party or mismatched SFP can cause intermittent link drops. Replacing the SFP with a compatible Cisco SFP directly addresses the hardware compatibility issue that leads to flapping.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume link flapping is always a configuration or timeout issue (options A or C), when in fact Cisco MDS switches enforce strict SFP compatibility and will flap with non-Cisco optics even if speed and other settings are correct.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing the link timeout interval only masks the symptom by making the switch wait longer before declaring a link down, but it does not fix the underlying cause of the flapping (e.g., signal loss or SFP incompatibility). Option C is wrong because Fiber Channel ports do not support auto-negotiation for speed; speed is statically configured on both ends, and mismatched or unsupported SFPs cause flapping regardless of speed settings. Option D is wrong because performing a shut and no shut only temporarily resets the interface and does not address the root cause; the flapping will recur if the SFP is faulty or incompatible.

67
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO options are correct regarding Cisco UCS server profiles? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Service profiles can be updated while the server is in OS configuration.
B.Resource pools, such as UUID pools, can be shared across service profile templates.
C.A vHBA in a service profile inherits the boot policy automatically.
D.A service profile can be associated with multiple servers simultaneously to provide load balancing.
E.A service profile becomes operational only after it is associated with a physical server.
AnswersB, E

Pools are defined globally and can be used by multiple templates.

Why this answer

Resource pools like UUID pools, MAC pools, and WWN pools are global objects in Cisco UCS Manager that can be shared across multiple service profile templates. This allows administrators to define a pool once and reference it from any template, ensuring consistent allocation and avoiding conflicts.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the one-to-one binding of service profiles to servers with load-balancing concepts, or assume that boot policies are automatically inherited by vHBAs, when in fact they must be explicitly linked via the service profile's boot policy configuration.

68
MCQhard

An engineer is configuring FCoE on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. The network requires lossless Ethernet to support FCoE traffic. Which Data Center Bridging (DCB) feature must be enabled first to ensure no frames are dropped due to congestion?

A.ETS
B.DCBX
C.FIP
D.PFC
AnswerD

Priority Flow Control (PFC), a DCB mechanism, must be enabled first because it creates lossless Ethernet by pausing individual traffic classes (e.g., FCoE) at the link layer when congestion occurs, preventing frame drops. This satisfies the stem’s explicit requirement for lossless transport, whereas other DCB features like ETS only manage bandwidth allocation without guaranteeing zero frame loss.

Why this answer

PFC (Priority Flow Control) is the DCB mechanism that provides lossless Ethernet for FCoE.

69
MCQmedium

A Python script using NX-API returns HTTP 401. What is the most likely cause?

A.Wrong NX-API version in URL
B.Firewall blocking port 443
C.NX-API not enabled on the switch
D.Invalid credentials
AnswerD

Invalid credentials cause 401, but more specifically, missing or wrong username/password.

Why this answer

HTTP 401 Unauthorized indicates that the server understood the request but authentication is required and has failed or has not been provided. In the context of NX-API, this error is most directly caused by providing invalid or missing credentials (Option D). If NX-API is not enabled on the switch, the endpoint is unavailable and typically results in an HTTP 404 Not Found or a connection error, not a 401.

Exam trap

Cisco may attempt to mislead candidates into thinking that a 401 error is due to the API not being enabled, exploiting the common confusion between service unavailability and authentication failures. However, standard HTTP semantics dictate that 401 is specifically tied to failed authentication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an incorrect NX-API version in the URL would typically result in a 404 Not Found or a different HTTP error, not a 401 Unauthorized, as the request would reach a non-existent endpoint. Option B is wrong because a firewall blocking port 443 would cause a connection timeout or a TCP reset, not an HTTP 401 response, which requires the TCP handshake to complete and the HTTP server to respond. Option D is wrong because invalid credentials would indeed produce a 401 error, but the question asks for the 'most likely' cause; in practice, NX-API being disabled is a more common initial misconfiguration than entering wrong credentials, and the 401 in that case is a generic response from the switch's HTTP server when the API feature is off.

70
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured a VXLAN tunnel endpoint (VTEP) but the VXLAN tunnel is not operational. The underlay OSPF adjacency is established. What is the missing configuration?

A.The NVE interface must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
B.The multicast group must be reachable via the underlay.
C.The loopback0 interface is not included in the OSPF process.
D.The VNI must be mapped to a VLAN.
AnswerC

The loopback0 interface, used as the NVE source, is not advertised via OSPF, so its IP is unreachable from other VTEPs.

Why this answer

The loopback0 interface is not included in the OSPF process. For VXLAN underlay routing, the VTEP source interface (typically loopback0) must be advertised via the underlay IGP (OSPF) so that remote VTEPs can reach it. Without this, the NVE interface cannot form a VXLAN tunnel even though OSPF adjacency is established, as the source IP is unreachable.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between underlay routing adjacency and reachability of the VTEP source IP, leading candidates to overlook the need to advertise the loopback in OSPF.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the NVE interface is a virtual interface that does not require a 'no shutdown' command; it is automatically enabled when configured. Option B is wrong because the question does not mention multicast; VXLAN can use unicast (e.g., static or EVPN) for BUM traffic, and the underlay OSPF adjacency is already established, so multicast reachability is not the missing piece. Option D is wrong because VNI-to-VLAN mapping is only required for bridging traffic to local VLANs, not for the VXLAN tunnel itself to become operational.

71
MCQmedium

A data center team is troubleshooting an automation script that uses REST API to configure a Cisco Nexus 9000 switch. The script fails with a '401 Unauthorized' error. What is the most likely cause?

A.API rate limiting has been exceeded
B.Network connectivity issue between the script and the switch
C.The user account does not have admin privileges
D.Invalid or expired authentication token
AnswerD

401 Unauthorized indicates authentication failure.

Why this answer

A 401 Unauthorized error in REST API communication indicates that the request lacks valid authentication credentials. For Cisco Nexus 9000 switches, REST API access typically requires a token-based authentication (e.g., using HTTP Basic Auth to obtain a session token or cookie). If the token is invalid or expired, the API server rejects the request with a 401 status code, as the script cannot prove its identity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 401 Unauthorized (authentication failure) and 403 Forbidden (authorization failure), and candidates mistakenly choose 'insufficient privileges' (Option C) because they confuse authentication with authorization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because API rate limiting (e.g., exceeding requests per second) typically returns a 429 Too Many Requests error, not 401 Unauthorized. Option B is wrong because a network connectivity issue would result in a timeout or connection refused error (e.g., HTTP 0 or socket error), not a 401 HTTP status code. Option C is wrong because insufficient privileges (e.g., non-admin role) would cause a 403 Forbidden error after successful authentication, not a 401 Unauthorized error.

72
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is designing a HyperFlex cluster with strict fault tolerance requirements. Which three considerations should be taken into account? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A minimum of 5 nodes is required for RF3.
B.A cluster witness VM is necessary to maintain quorum.
C.Node count should be odd to avoid split-brain without witness.
D.Hybrid nodes (HDD+SSD) offer better performance than all-flash.
E.Replication factor of 3 (RF3) provides higher fault tolerance than RF2.
AnswersB, C, E

Correct. Witness prevents split-brain.

Why this answer

Replication factor (RF2 or RF3) determines data redundancy. The witness VM ensures quorum. Node count affects failure tolerance: with RF3, a 4-node cluster can tolerate two node failures; with RF2, a 3-node cluster can tolerate one failure.

73
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two methods can be used to boot a UCS C-Series rack server in a UCS Manager managed environment? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Boot from CD/DVD via KVM virtual media
B.Boot from SAN
C.Boot from NFS volume
D.Boot from USB flash drive inserted in the server
E.Boot from local disk
AnswersB, E

Correct. SAN boot is supported.

Why this answer

In UCS Manager, a C-series server can boot from SAN via a SAN boot policy, or from local disk. PXE boot is also possible if configured in the service profile.

74
MCQmedium

An engineer configures an ISL between two MDS switches using E_ports. To utilize all available bandwidth, the engineer wants to bundle four physical links into a single logical link. Which technology should be used?

A.Fibre Channel PortChannel
B.NPV mode
C.FCoE trunking
D.EISL trunking
AnswerA

PortChannel bundles physical links into one logical link.

Why this answer

Fibre Channel PortChannels aggregate multiple physical links into one logical link, providing increased bandwidth and redundancy. This is similar to Ethernet port channels.

75
MCQeasy

In ACI, which object defines the logical separation of traffic within a tenant, analogous to a VLAN in traditional networking, and is associated with a VRF?

A.VRF
B.Application Profile
C.EPG
D.Bridge Domain
AnswerD

BD defines L2 domain, analogous to VLAN.

Why this answer

In Cisco ACI, a Bridge Domain (BD) defines the Layer 2 boundary and provides logical separation of traffic within a tenant, analogous to a VLAN in traditional networking. Each BD is associated with a VRF (Layer 3 context) to enable IP forwarding, and it encapsulates traffic using VXLAN (VNID) rather than 802.1Q VLAN tags.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between EPG and Bridge Domain, trapping candidates who confuse the EPG's policy-group role with the BD's Layer 2 segmentation function.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a VRF is a Layer 3 construct that provides routing table separation, not Layer 2 segmentation; it is associated with a Bridge Domain, not the other way around. Option B is wrong because an Application Profile is a container for EPGs and their relationships, not a Layer 2 boundary; it does not define traffic separation at the data plane level. Option C is wrong because an EPG is a logical grouping of endpoints with common policy requirements, but it does not define the Layer 2 broadcast domain or VLAN-like separation; EPGs reside within a Bridge Domain.

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