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Cisco DCCOR / CCNP Data Center Core 350-601 (350-601) — Questions 76150

984 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are required for a successful FCoE deployment on a Cisco MDS switch?

Select 3 answers
A.Enable the FCoE feature globally
B.Configure DCB with Priority Flow Control on the FCoE VLAN interfaces
C.Enable FIP snooping on the FCoE VLAN
D.Set the MTU to 9216 bytes on all FCoE interfaces
E.Create a VSAN and map to the FCoE VLAN
AnswersA, B, E

Required to run FCoE.

Why this answer

The FCoE feature must be enabled globally on the Cisco MDS switch using the 'feature fcoe' command. This activates the FCoE protocol stack and allows the switch to process FCoE frames, which is a prerequisite for any FCoE deployment.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that FIP snooping is mandatory for FCoE on MDS switches, but it is only needed on non-MDS switches (e.g., Nexus) where FCoE is not natively supported, and the trap here is confusing the MTU requirement—candidates may incorrectly assume 9216 bytes is needed for FCoE, but the standard mandates 2500 bytes.

77
MCQhard

A storage engineer is planning a disaster recovery solution that requires zero data loss in the event of a site failure. The storage arrays support both synchronous and asynchronous replication. Which replication type should be chosen to meet the requirement?

A.Asynchronous replication
B.Snapshot-based replication
C.Synchronous replication
D.Thin provisioning
AnswerC

Synchronous replication ensures zero data loss by committing writes to both sites before acknowledgement.

Why this answer

Synchronous replication writes data to both local and remote storage before acknowledging the write, ensuring zero data loss (RPO=0). Asynchronous replication may have some data loss depending on the lag.

78
MCQhard

In a VXLAN EVPN fabric, BUM traffic can be handled by ingress replication or multicast. Which statement about ingress replication is accurate?

A.It requires PIM in the underlay to replicate packets.
B.The ingress VTEP replicates the BUM packet and sends unicast copies to each remote VTEP.
C.It reduces replication overhead on the ingress VTEP compared to multicast.
D.It uses IGMP snooping to optimize replication.
AnswerB

Correct: ingress replication creates unicast copies.

Why this answer

In ingress replication, the ingress VTEP (VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint) receives a BUM (Broadcast, Unknown unicast, Multicast) packet and creates multiple unicast-encapsulated copies, sending one copy to each remote VTEP in the same VXLAN network identifier (VNI) segment. This method does not rely on any multicast protocol in the underlay; instead, it leverages the VTEP's knowledge of all remote VTEPs (typically learned via the EVPN control plane, such as Type 3 Inclusive Multicast Ethernet Tag routes) to replicate traffic. Option B correctly describes this behavior.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that ingress replication requires an underlay multicast protocol like PIM or IGMP, when in fact it is a unicast-based replication method that avoids any multicast dependency in the underlay.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ingress replication does not require Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the underlay; PIM is only needed when using multicast-based replication in the underlay to distribute BUM traffic. Option C is wrong because ingress replication actually increases replication overhead on the ingress VTEP, as it must generate and send individual unicast copies to each remote VTEP, whereas multicast offloads replication to the underlay network devices. Option D is wrong because IGMP snooping is used to optimize multicast group membership in Layer 2 networks, not to optimize ingress replication; ingress replication relies on the EVPN control plane to discover remote VTEPs, not on IGMP snooping.

79
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring BGP EVPN on spine switches functioning as route reflectors, which two address families must be configured? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.address-family link-state
B.address-family l2vpn evpn
C.address-family ipv6 unicast
D.address-family vpnv4
E.address-family ipv4 unicast
AnswersB, E

Required for EVPN route exchange.

Why this answer

B is correct because BGP EVPN (Ethernet VPN) uses the L2VPN address family (l2vpn evpn) to carry MAC/VXLAN routing information between spine and leaf switches. This address family is mandatory for EVPN control plane operation in a VXLAN fabric, enabling MAC address learning and advertisement via MP-BGP.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that only the EVPN address family is needed, but the ipv4 unicast family is also required on the route reflector to advertise the underlay loopback routes that serve as VXLAN tunnel endpoints.

80
MCQhard

After adding a new spine switch to a VXLAN EVPN fabric with OSPF underlay, some leaf switches experience routing instability. Which action could resolve the instability?

A.Increase the OSPF cost on the leaf-to-spine links.
B.Configure OSPF neighbor authentication.
C.Decrease the OSPF hello timer.
D.Enable OSPF route summarization on the leaves.
AnswerA

Higher cost makes the new spine less preferred, stabilizing routing.

Why this answer

When a new spine switch is added to a VXLAN EVPN fabric with an OSPF underlay, the leaf switches may experience routing instability because the new spine advertises routes with a lower cost, causing traffic to shift abruptly. Increasing the OSPF cost on the leaf-to-spine links makes those paths less preferred, stabilizing the routing table by preventing flapping and ensuring a more gradual convergence.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that routing instability is caused by security or timer issues, when in fact it is typically due to unequal cost paths causing SPF thrashing after a new device is added.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because OSPF neighbor authentication secures routing updates but does not address routing instability caused by cost-based path selection changes. Option C is wrong because decreasing the OSPF hello timer would increase the frequency of hello packets, potentially exacerbating instability by causing faster neighbor state changes and more frequent SPF calculations. Option D is wrong because enabling OSPF route summarization on the leaves reduces the size of the routing table but does not prevent the instability from a new spine advertising lower-cost routes; summarization affects route propagation, not path preference.

81
MCQeasy

Which RAID level provides striping with parity and can tolerate a single disk failure while offering higher storage efficiency than RAID 1?

A.RAID 0
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 6
D.RAID 1
AnswerB

RAID 5 offers striping with parity and single disk fault tolerance.

Why this answer

RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity, allowing recovery from a single disk failure with good storage efficiency (one disk worth of parity).

82
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is deploying UCS C-series rack servers in standalone mode. Which two management capabilities are available through Cisco IMC? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.UCS Manager integration
B.KVM console access
C.HyperFlex cluster management
D.Virtual media mounting
E.Fibre Channel zoning
AnswersB, D

CIMC provides remote KVM.

Why this answer

Cisco IMC provides KVM console and virtual media mounting, as well as remote firmware upgrade. These are common out-of-band management features.

83
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. Which VLANs are allowed on the VPC peer-link?

A.VLANs 1-100 and native VLAN
B.Only VLAN 1
C.VLANs 1-100 only
D.All VLANs (1-4094)
AnswerC

The allowed VLAN range is 1-100.

Why this answer

In a vPC domain, the peer-link carries only specific VLANs that are allowed on the trunk. By default, the peer-link is configured as a trunk allowing VLANs 1-100, and the native VLAN is not included in this allowed list because the peer-link uses a dedicated VLAN for control traffic (typically VLAN 4094) and does not forward native VLAN traffic. Option C is correct because the default allowed VLAN list on a vPC peer-link is VLANs 1-100, as shown in the exhibit.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the vPC peer-link allows all VLANs or includes the native VLAN, when in fact it defaults to VLANs 1-100 and explicitly excludes the native VLAN to maintain control plane isolation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the native VLAN is not allowed on the vPC peer-link; the peer-link uses a separate VLAN (often 4094) for control traffic and does not forward native VLAN frames. Option B is wrong because the peer-link allows more than just VLAN 1; it permits VLANs 1-100 by default. Option D is wrong because the peer-link does not allow all VLANs (1-4094); it is restricted to VLANs 1-100 by default to prevent unnecessary traffic and loops.

84
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is implementing VXLAN with a centralized routing gateway. Which TWO statements are correct about BUM traffic handling?

Select 2 answers
A.Multicast in the underlay is always required for BUM traffic
B.Ingress replication sends a copy of the BUM packet to each remote VTEP via unicast
C.Ingress replication consumes more bandwidth on the source VTEP uplinks than multicast
D.Only the ingress VTEP handles BUM traffic
E.BUM traffic is never flooded to all VTEPs
AnswersB, C

Ingress replication encapsulates each copy as unicast.

Why this answer

In a VXLAN centralized routing gateway deployment, ingress replication is a valid method for handling BUM traffic where the ingress VTEP sends a unicast copy of the BUM packet to each remote VTEP. This is correct because it eliminates the need for multicast in the underlay, making option B accurate. Ingress replication consumes more bandwidth on the source VTEP uplinks than multicast because it generates multiple unicast copies, whereas multicast sends a single stream that is replicated by the network, making option C correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that multicast is mandatory for VXLAN BUM traffic, but the trap here is that ingress replication is a valid alternative that avoids multicast complexity, and candidates may incorrectly assume multicast is always required.

85
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO statements about NPV configuration on a Cisco MDS switch are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The core switch must have NPV enabled as well.
B.NPV mode is enabled globally with the 'npv enable' command.
C.All downstream interfaces must be F ports.
D.Interfaces connecting to the core switch must be configured as NP ports.
E.NPV mode is configured per VSAN.
AnswersB, D

Yes, 'npv enable' in global config.

Why this answer

NPV (N-Port Virtualization) mode is enabled globally on a Cisco MDS switch using the 'npv enable' command. This command places the entire switch into NPV mode, allowing it to function as an NPV proxy that forwards FLOGI requests from downstream F ports to the core Fibre Channel switch. NPV mode is not a per-VSAN configuration; it is a global switch-level setting.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse NPV with NPIV, mistakenly thinking the core switch needs NPV enabled, or they assume NPV can be configured per VSAN rather than globally.

86
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A VXLAN VNI (10030) is operationally down. What is the most likely cause?

A.The source interface loopback0 is not up
B.The NVE mode should be L2VPN instead of L3VPN
C.The VLAN associated with VNI 10030 is not configured or mapped
D.The multicast group 239.1.1.1 is not reachable
AnswerC

The VNI must be mapped to a VLAN using 'vn-segment vlan-id' under the VLAN configuration; missing mapping causes operational down.

Why this answer

VXLAN VNI 10030 is operationally down because the VLAN that maps to this VNI is either not created or not associated with the VNI under the NVE interface. In Cisco NX-OS, a VNI becomes operationally up only when the corresponding VLAN exists and is properly mapped via the `member vni 10030 associate-vrf` or `member vni 10030` command under the NVE interface. Without this mapping, the NVE cannot forward traffic for that VNI, leaving it in a down state.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a VNI goes down due to multicast reachability or source interface issues, but the actual cause is the missing VLAN-to-VNI mapping, which is a common misconfiguration in VXLAN deployments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the source interface loopback0 were not up, the NVE interface itself would be down or the VXLAN tunnel would fail, but the VNI operational state would show as 'down' due to the source interface issue, not specifically because of a missing VLAN mapping. Option B is wrong because the NVE mode can be either L2VPN or L3VPN depending on the deployment; VXLAN VNI 10030 being operationally down is unrelated to the NVE mode, and L3VPN mode is correct for VXLAN EVPN with Layer 3 VNI. Option D is wrong because the multicast group 239.1.1.1 is used for BUM traffic replication; if it were unreachable, the VNI might still be operationally up but unable to forward broadcast traffic, so it would not cause the VNI to be operationally down.

87
MCQeasy

Which NX-OS command is used to display the current OSPF neighbor states?

A.show ip route ospf
B.show ospf database
C.show ip ospf neighbors
D.show ip ospf interface
AnswerC

This command displays OSPF neighbor states and adjacency details.

Why this answer

The 'show ip ospf neighbors' command is the correct NX-OS command to display the current OSPF neighbor states, including the neighbor ID, interface, state (e.g., FULL, 2WAY, DOWN), and adjacency details. This command directly queries the OSPF process for the neighbor state machine, which is essential for verifying OSPF adjacency formation and troubleshooting Layer 3 connectivity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between commands that show neighbor states versus those that show routing tables or database contents, so candidates may confuse 'show ip route ospf' or 'show ospf database' with the neighbor-specific command.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'show ip route ospf' displays the OSPF-learned routes in the routing table, not the neighbor states or adjacency information. Option B is wrong because 'show ospf database' shows the contents of the OSPF link-state database (LSDB), including LSAs, but does not provide neighbor state or adjacency details. Option D is wrong because 'show ip ospf interface' displays OSPF parameters and operational status for each interface (e.g., area, cost, timers), but does not show the neighbor state table.

88
MCQeasy

Which feature allows a single Fibre Channel port to log in with multiple N-port IDs, enabling a host to connect to multiple targets through one port?

A.FCoE
B.VSAN
C.NPIV
D.NPV
AnswerC

NPIV enables multiple N-port IDs per physical port.

Why this answer

NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) allows a single Fibre Channel N_Port to register multiple N_Port IDs (FCIDs) with the fabric. This enables a host with one physical port to appear as multiple virtual initiators, each connecting to different targets, which is essential for virtualized environments like VMware ESXi with multiple VMs requiring separate FC connections.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests NPIV vs. NPV, and the trap here is confusing NPIV (which virtualizes N-port IDs on a host) with NPV (which virtualizes N-port IDs on a switch to reduce domain IDs in a fabric).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) is a protocol that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet networks, not a feature for multiple N-port IDs per physical port. Option B is wrong because VSAN (Virtual SAN) is a logical partition of a Fibre Channel fabric that isolates traffic, not a mechanism for multiple logins on a single port. Option D is wrong because NPV (N_Port Virtualization) is a switch mode that allows a Fibre Channel switch to proxy logins to an upstream switch, reducing domain IDs, but it does not enable a single host port to log in with multiple N-port IDs.

89
MCQhard

A storage team is implementing zoning in a Fibre Channel fabric. They want a method where zone members are identified by their World Wide Port Name (WWPN) and the fabric enforces access based on that, without relying on switch port information. Which type is this?

A.Soft zoning using domain/port
B.Hard zoning using WWPN
C.Hard zoning using port WWN
D.Soft zoning using WWPN
AnswerD

Soft zoning filters by WWPN via name server.

Why this answer

Soft zoning using WWPN is correct because it identifies zone members by their World Wide Port Name (WWPN) and enforces access through name server queries rather than switch port information. In soft zoning, the fabric does not actively block traffic; instead, it relies on the initiator to query the name server and only communicate with allowed WWPNs, making it a software-enforced access control method.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between soft and hard zoning by describing a method that uses WWPN identification but omits the hardware enforcement detail, leading candidates to incorrectly choose hard zoning when the key clue is that the fabric 'enforces access based on that' through name server queries, not frame-level blocking.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because soft zoning using domain/port identifies members by switch domain and port number, not by WWPN, and would rely on physical port information, which the question explicitly states is not used. Option B is wrong because hard zoning using WWPN is a hardware-enforced method that actively blocks unauthorized traffic at the frame level, but the question describes a method where the fabric enforces access without relying on switch port information and does not specify hardware-level blocking, making soft zoning the correct fit. Option C is wrong because hard zoning using port WWN is essentially the same as hard zoning using WWPN (both use the port's WWN for hardware enforcement), and the question's description of a method that does not rely on switch port information and enforces access via name server queries aligns with soft zoning, not hard zoning.

90
Multi-Selecthard

A network team is troubleshooting a vPC issue where one of the member ports is not coming up. Which TWO conditions can cause a vPC member port to fail consistency checks? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Different STP port type (edge vs network)
B.Spanning-tree guard root configured on one peer
C.Mismatched allowed VLANs on the port channel
D.Incorrect peer keepalive IP
E.Different MTU settings on the peer-link
AnswersA, C

STP port type must match on both peers for the same port.

Why this answer

VPC performs consistency checks on member ports to ensure both peers have identical configurations for certain parameters. A mismatch in STP port type (e.g., one peer configured as 'edge' and the other as 'network') will cause the vPC member port to fail the consistency check and remain down, as STP port type affects BPDU handling and loop prevention.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between parameters that are checked for vPC consistency (like STP port type and allowed VLANs) versus those that are not (like root guard or peer keepalive), leading candidates to select options that sound plausible but are not part of the consistency check list.

91
Multi-Selecthard

A UCS domain is configured with two fabric interconnects in end-host mode. The engineer needs to ensure that traffic from a specific VLAN is load-balanced across both uplinks to the upstream network. Which THREE of the following are valid methods to achieve load balancing on the uplink ports?

Select 3 answers
A.VLAN load balancing using the pin-groups
B.Configure SPAN on the uplink ports
C.Fabric port channel with LACP
D.MAC pinning to assign source-destination pairs to uplinks
E.vPC-host mode on the fabric interconnects
AnswersC, D, E

A fabric port channel aggregates multiple uplinks into a single logical link, load balancing traffic.

Why this answer

A Fabric Port Channel with LACP allows multiple uplink ports to be aggregated into a single logical link, providing load balancing across the physical links based on a hash algorithm (e.g., source/destination MAC or IP). This is a standard method for distributing traffic from a specific VLAN across both uplinks to the upstream network in a UCS domain configured with two fabric interconnects in end-host mode.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Ethernet load-balancing methods (like Fabric Port Channel with LACP and MAC pinning) and Fibre Channel-specific features (like pin-groups), leading candidates to mistakenly select pin-groups for Ethernet traffic.

92
MCQmedium

An engineer is designing a UCS environment for a virtualized workload that requires high availability. Two Fabric Interconnects are deployed in an active-active configuration. Which statement about the role of the Fabric Interconnects is accurate?

A.The FIs are used only for management traffic and not for data traffic.
B.Both FIs are active and can forward traffic, but only one manages the chassis at a time.
C.One FI acts as primary and the other as secondary, forwarding traffic only if the primary fails.
D.The FIs operate in a standalone mode and must be configured independently.
AnswerB

Both FIs are active for data traffic, but the chassis management is handled by a single FI (primary) elected via the management protocol.

Why this answer

In a UCS system with two Fabric Interconnects in active-active mode, both FIs forward data traffic simultaneously. However, for management functions such as chassis discovery and firmware management, only one FI acts as the primary management controller at a time, while the other is standby. This ensures consistency and avoids conflicts in managing the chassis and blades.

93
Multi-Selectmedium

A storage network engineer is planning an FC SAN upgrade. Which two benefits does Fibre Channel PortChannel provide over a single ISL? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Lower latency
B.Simplified zoning configuration
C.Increased aggregate bandwidth
D.Support for different port types in the same channel
E.Redundancy and load balancing
AnswersC, E

Multiple links combine to provide higher throughput.

Why this answer

PortChannels in FC provide increased aggregate bandwidth by combining multiple links, and they offer redundancy: if one link fails, traffic is distributed among the remaining links.

94
MCQeasy

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco MDS 9148 switch to connect to an existing Fibre Channel fabric. The switch will be used at the edge of the SAN and must not participate in fabric services. Which port mode should be used for the ports connecting to the core switches?

A.NP-port
B.F-port
C.E-port
D.N-port
AnswerA

NP-port is the uplink port in NPV mode that connects to an F-port on the core switch.

Why this answer

NPV mode allows an edge switch to forward traffic to the core without participating in fabric services, reducing domain IDs and simplifying management.

95
MCQeasy

Which Fibre Channel address component identifies a specific port on a node?

A.WWNN
B.FCID
C.WWPN
D.WWN
AnswerC

WWPN uniquely identifies a Fibre Channel port.

Why this answer

The WWPN (World Wide Port Name) is a unique 64-bit identifier assigned to each Fibre Channel port. The WWNN identifies the node.

96
Matchingmedium

Match each Cisco data center security feature to its purpose.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Packet filtering based on IP/port criteria

Limits MAC addresses per switchport

Prevents rogue DHCP server attacks

Validates ARP packets to prevent spoofing

Filters traffic based on IP/MAC binding

Why these pairings

Port Security limits MAC addresses per port; DHCP Snooping filters DHCP messages and builds a binding database; Dynamic ARP Inspection validates ARP packets; IP Source Guard filters traffic based on binding table. Common confusions include mixing DHCP Snooping with DAI and Port Security with DHCP Snooping.

97
MCQeasy

A small business SAN consists of a single Cisco MDS 9148S switch with 16 Gb Fibre Channel ports. The storage array has four active paths to the switch, and four servers each have two HBAs. The administrator wants to ensure that all paths are utilized and that no single point of failure exists. Currently, all devices are in a single VSAN and zoning is permissive (default deny). After powering on all devices, the administrator notices that the storage array only logs in on two of its four ports. The other two ports show 'no light'. The switch has not been configured with any port settings. What is the most likely cause?

A.The switch ports need to have their speed manually configured to match the array.
B.The unused ports are in a different VSAN.
C.The zoning configuration prevents the array from logging in on those ports.
D.The storage array's other two ports are not physically connected or are disabled on the array end.
AnswerD

No light indicates the link is down; likely the cables are missing or ports disabled.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the storage array's other two ports are not physically connected or are disabled on the array end. Since the switch is unconfigured and all ports are in the same VSAN with default configuration, the switch does not disable ports. Port speed auto-negotiation is standard.

Zoning affects traffic, not link state. Therefore, option D is correct.

98
Multi-Selecthard

In an ACI fabric, a tenant is configured with multiple bridge domains (BDs) and EPGs. Which three statements correctly describe the ACI model? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Contracts are applied between EPGs to allow communication.
B.A VRF is equivalent to a Layer 3 domain within a tenant.
C.EPGs can communicate with each other without any contract.
D.An EPG belongs to a single bridge domain.
E.L3Out is used to connect the ACI fabric to external Layer 2 networks.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct. Contracts define allowed traffic directions and filters.

Why this answer

In ACI, contracts are the mechanism used to enable communication between EPGs. By default, all traffic is denied, and a contract must be explicitly applied to allow traffic flow between EPGs, enforcing a zero-trust model.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that EPGs can communicate freely without contracts, but the correct ACI model requires contracts for any inter-EPG traffic, even within the same bridge domain.

99
MCQmedium

Which NX-OS command displays the VPC status, including peer-link and consistency parameters?

A.show vpc brief
B.show vpc peer-link
C.show vpc consistency
D.show vpc
AnswerD

This command gives comprehensive VPC status.

Why this answer

The 'show vpc' command (without any keyword) displays the overall Virtual Port Channel (vPC) status, including peer-link status, consistency parameters, and per-VLAN/vPC operational state. This is the most comprehensive single command for verifying vPC health and configuration consistency between peer switches.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that 'show vpc brief' or 'show vpc peer-link' alone provide full vPC health details, when in fact only the base 'show vpc' command reveals all critical consistency and peer-link parameters in one view.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'show vpc brief' provides a summary of vPC member ports and their status, but does not include peer-link or consistency parameters. Option B is wrong because 'show vpc peer-link' only shows the status of the peer-link itself (e.g., port-channel, keepalive), not the broader consistency parameters. Option C is wrong because 'show vpc consistency' is not a valid NX-OS command; consistency parameters are displayed as part of 'show vpc' output, not via a separate command.

100
MCQhard

A data center architect is designing a spine-leaf network with 40 leaf switches and 8 spine switches. Each leaf has 40x25G downlinks to servers and 8x100G uplinks to spines. The oversubscription ratio from server to spine is calculated as (total downlink bandwidth) / (total uplink bandwidth). What is the oversubscription ratio for each leaf?

A.1.5:1
B.2:1
C.0.8:1
D.1.25:1
AnswerD

1000/800 = 1.25:1.

Why this answer

The oversubscription ratio for each leaf is calculated by dividing the total downlink bandwidth by the total uplink bandwidth. Each leaf has 40 downlinks at 25 Gbps each, totaling 1000 Gbps, and 8 uplinks at 100 Gbps each, totaling 800 Gbps. Thus, 1000 / 800 = 1.25, giving a 1.25:1 ratio.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the oversubscription calculation by providing link counts and speeds, and the trap here is that candidates may forget to multiply the number of links by their respective speeds before dividing, or they may invert the numerator and denominator.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (1.5:1) is wrong because it might result from incorrectly using 40 downlinks at 25 Gbps (1000 Gbps) versus 8 uplinks at 100 Gbps (800 Gbps) but miscalculating the division as 1200/800 or similar. Option B (2:1) is wrong because it could stem from confusing the number of links (e.g., 40 downlinks vs. 20 uplinks) or misapplying a common 2:1 oversubscription ratio used in other designs. Option C (0.8:1) is wrong because it inverts the calculation (800/1000) or assumes the uplink bandwidth exceeds the downlink bandwidth, which is not the case here.

101
Multi-Selectmedium

An ACI administrator is configuring external connectivity using L3Out. Which THREE components must be defined for a successful L3Out deployment? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.External routed network (L3Out)
B.VMM domain
C.Service graph
D.Contract between external EPG and internal EPG
E.Context (VRF) and Bridge Domain (BD) for the external network
AnswersA, D, E

This defines the external connectivity.

Why this answer

The external routed network (L3Out) is the fundamental construct that defines the Layer 3 connectivity from the ACI fabric to an external router or network. It specifies the routing protocol (e.g., OSPF, BGP, or static), the external interfaces, and the protocol policies required for the ACI spine switches to exchange routes with external devices. Without defining the L3Out object, the fabric has no configured path or policy to reach external destinations.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a VMM domain or service graph is mandatory for L3Out, when in fact only the L3Out object, the contract between external and internal EPGs, and the VRF/BD for the external network are strictly required.

102
MCQhard

In a Cisco UCS environment, which component provides the Fibre Channel connectivity to the SAN switches when using FCoE?

A.IOM (I/O Module)
B.Cisco VIC adapter
C.UCS Manager
D.UCS Fabric Interconnect
AnswerD

FI provides FCoE uplinks.

Why this answer

In a Cisco UCS environment, the Fabric Interconnect (FI) is the component that provides Fibre Channel connectivity to SAN switches when using FCoE. The FI integrates both Ethernet and Fibre Channel traffic, performing FCoE encapsulation and forwarding the Fibre Channel frames to the SAN via its native Fibre Channel uplink ports. This allows the UCS domain to connect directly to Fibre Channel SAN fabrics without requiring external FCoE-capable switches.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the IOM or VIC adapter directly provides Fibre Channel connectivity, when in fact the Fabric Interconnect is the central aggregation and conversion point for FCoE-to-FC traffic in a UCS domain.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the IOM (I/O Module) is a passive midplane or fabric extender that only aggregates traffic from the chassis to the Fabric Interconnects; it does not perform FCoE termination or provide native Fibre Channel uplinks to SAN switches. Option B is wrong because the Cisco VIC adapter is a server-side adapter that handles FCoE initialization and encapsulation at the host level, but it does not provide the final Fibre Channel connectivity to the SAN; that connectivity is provided upstream by the Fabric Interconnect. Option C is wrong because UCS Manager is the management plane software that configures and monitors the UCS domain, not a data-plane component that handles Fibre Channel connectivity.

103
MCQhard

A network engineer is designing an NPV environment with Cisco MDS switches. The edge switch is configured in NPV mode. Which port type does the edge switch present to the core switch when connecting upstream?

A.N-port
B.E-port
C.NP-port
D.F-port
AnswerC

NP-port is the uplink port in NPV mode that connects to the core F-port.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, the edge switch presents an NP-port (N-port proxy) to the core switch's F-port. The NP-port behaves like an N-port but aggregates traffic from multiple downstream N-ports.

104
MCQeasy

A network engineer needs to create a consistent QoS policy for all servers in a UCS service profile template. Which policy must be attached to the template to ensure uniform traffic management?

A.QoS Policy
B.Network Control Policy
C.LAN Connectivity Policy
D.Flow Control Policy
AnswerA

QoS policy defines traffic prioritization and is attached to vNICs.

Why this answer

A QoS Policy is the correct attachment because it defines traffic classification, marking, and queuing behavior at the interface level within a UCS service profile template. By applying a QoS Policy, the engineer ensures uniform traffic management across all servers by controlling bandwidth allocation, priority, and drop preferences consistently. This policy directly maps to the system class definitions in UCS Manager, enabling per-interface QoS settings that are inherited by all service profiles using the template.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between QoS Policy (which controls traffic prioritization and queuing) and Flow Control Policy (which only manages Ethernet pause frames), leading candidates to confuse link-level flow control with end-to-end quality of service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Network Control Policy manages MAC address mode, VLAN port configuration, and CDP/LLDP settings, not traffic prioritization or bandwidth management. Option C is wrong because a LAN Connectivity Policy defines the number and order of vNICs and their failover relationships, but does not include QoS parameters like classification or scheduling. Option D is wrong because a Flow Control Policy controls Ethernet pause frames (IEEE 802.3x) for link-level congestion, not the classification, marking, or queuing required for consistent QoS across servers.

105
MCQmedium

In a HyperFlex cluster with replication factor 2 (RF2), what is the minimum number of nodes required to sustain a single node failure?

A.3
B.4
C.2
D.5
AnswerA

3 nodes allow one failure while still having two replicas available.

Why this answer

In a HyperFlex cluster with replication factor 2 (RF2), each data block is stored on two different nodes. To survive a single node failure, the cluster must have at least three nodes: two nodes to hold the two replicas of the data, and a third node to provide a witness (or tie-breaker) for cluster quorum and to ensure data availability during the failure. With only two nodes, a single failure would leave only one replica, violating the RF2 requirement and potentially causing data loss or cluster unavailability.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that RF2 requires only two nodes to survive a failure, but the trap is that without a third node for quorum and replica redundancy, a single node failure in a 2-node cluster would leave only one copy of the data, violating the replication factor and causing data loss.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because four nodes are more than necessary; while a 4-node cluster can survive a single node failure, the minimum required is three nodes, not four. Option C is wrong because a 2-node cluster with RF2 cannot sustain any node failure; if one node fails, only one replica remains, which violates the replication factor and the cluster would lose data or become unavailable. Option D is wrong because five nodes are excessive; the minimum requirement for RF2 with single node failure tolerance is three nodes, not five.

106
MCQhard

In a VXLAN EVPN fabric, a new server is connected to a leaf switch and requires Layer 2 connectivity to an existing VM on a different leaf. The engineer notes that the VTEP on the new leaf does not have a Type-2 route for the VM's MAC address. Which EVPN route type is used to advertise MAC addresses?

A.Type-5 (IP Prefix)
B.Type-1 (Ethernet Auto-discovery)
C.Type-2 (MAC/IP Advertisement)
D.Type-3 (Inclusive Multicast Ethernet Tag)
AnswerC

Type-2 advertises MAC and optionally IP addresses.

Why this answer

In VXLAN EVPN fabrics, Type-2 (MAC/IP Advertisement) routes are specifically used to advertise MAC addresses and their associated IP addresses between VTEPs. When a new leaf switch needs Layer 2 connectivity to a VM on a different leaf, it must learn the VM's MAC address via a Type-2 route from the remote VTEP. Without this route, the new leaf cannot populate its MAC table for that VM, preventing Layer 2 communication.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Type-2 (MAC/IP) and Type-3 (IMET) routes, and the trap here is that candidates confuse the route used for BUM flooding (Type-3) with the route used for unicast MAC advertisement (Type-2), leading them to incorrectly select Type-3.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Type-5 (IP Prefix) routes are used to advertise external IP prefixes (e.g., from a WAN or data center interconnect) and do not carry MAC address information; they are for Layer 3 VPN-like prefix distribution. Option B is wrong because Type-1 (Ethernet Auto-discovery) routes are used for redundancy group membership and split-horizon filtering (e.g., ESI label distribution), not for advertising individual MAC addresses. Option D is wrong because Type-3 (Inclusive Multicast Ethernet Tag) routes are used to build the BUM (Broadcast, Unknown unicast, Multicast) tunnel overlay for flooding traffic, not to advertise specific MAC-to-VTEP mappings.

107
MCQhard

In ACI, a tenant requires that all traffic between two EPGs is denied except for specific HTTP traffic. Which policy elements must be configured?

A.Create a contract with a subject that includes a filter for HTTP only
B.Use an external firewall for filtering
C.Create a taboo contract to deny all traffic and a separate contract to allow HTTP
D.Create a filter for HTTP and apply it directly to the EPGs
AnswerA

Contracts allow traffic; only the HTTP filter is applied, implicitly denying others.

Why this answer

ACI uses a whitelist model. To allow only HTTP, a contract with a subject and filter for HTTP is applied, and no other filters are included.

108
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is deploying an ACI fabric with VMM integration for VMware vSphere. Which THREE components must be configured to enable dynamic EPG assignment based on VM attributes? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.APIC cluster IP
B.VMM domain
C.vCenter credentials
D.Port group mapping to EPG
E.L3Out configuration
AnswersB, C, D

Defines the integration with vCenter.

Why this answer

The VMM domain (Option B) is the core integration object that defines the VMware vCenter connection and policy enforcement boundary. It must be configured to enable the APIC to discover VMs and their attributes, which is the prerequisite for dynamic EPG assignment based on VM properties such as VM name, OS type, or custom tags.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the APIC cluster IP (Option A) is required for VMM integration, but it is only needed for initial fabric discovery; the VMM domain, vCenter credentials, and port group mapping are the three mandatory components for dynamic EPG assignment.

109
MCQmedium

An engineer is writing a Python script to interact with a Nexus 9000 switch using the NX-API REST interface. Which Python library is designed for this purpose?

A.ncclient
B.cisco_nxapi
C.requests
D.acitoolkit
AnswerB

Specifically built for NX-API REST.

Why this answer

The cisco_nxapi library provides methods to call NX-API REST endpoints from Python.

110
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer wants to use Ansible to automate the configuration of Nexus switches. Which two statements about the cisco.nxos Ansible collection are correct? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.It is part of the Ansible Core collection.
B.It can only manage VLANs.
C.It is used exclusively for ACI automation.
D.It includes the nxos_config module for applying CLI commands.
E.It requires the NX-API to be enabled on the switch.
AnswersD, E

nxos_config sends arbitrary NX-OS commands.

Why this answer

The collection includes modules like nxos_config and nxos_vlan, and it is supported on NX-OS platforms.

111
MCQeasy

What is the purpose of NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) in a Fibre Channel SAN?

A.Provide encryption on Fibre Channel links.
B.Allow a single physical port to register multiple N_port IDs.
C.Enable multiple paths between initiator and target.
D.Allow a switch to act as an NPV device.
AnswerB

Enables virtualization.

Why this answer

NPIV allows a single physical Fibre Channel N_Port to register multiple unique N_Port IDs (FCIDs) with the fabric. This is essential for virtualizing Fibre Channel connectivity, enabling multiple virtual machines or logical partitions to share one physical HBA port while each appearing as a distinct initiator to the SAN.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests NPIV by confusing it with NPV (N_Port Virtualization) — the trap is that candidates mix up the port-level virtualization (NPIV) with the switch-level proxy mode (NPV), or assume NPIV is about multipathing or security.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because encryption on Fibre Channel links is provided by FC-SP (Fibre Channel Security Protocol) or hardware-level encryption, not by NPIV. Option C is wrong because enabling multiple paths between initiator and target is the function of multipathing software (e.g., EMC PowerPath, native MPIO), not NPIV. Option D is wrong because a switch acting as an NPV device is the definition of N_Port Virtualization (NPV), which is a different technology that uses NPIV to proxy multiple N_Port IDs upstream, but the switch itself is not an NPV device; NPV is a mode for edge switches to reduce FCIDs.

112
Multi-Selectmedium

A team is configuring FCoE on a Cisco Nexus switch. Which TWO steps are mandatory to establish a lossless FCoE link?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable FCoE on the interface using the 'fcoe' command
B.Enable Priority Flow Control (PFC) as a separate CLI
C.Create a VSAN and map it to an FCoE VLAN
D.Configure DCBX to advertise and negotiate FCoE capabilities
E.Set the MTU to 9216 bytes to accommodate FCoE frames
AnswersA, C

Correct. The 'fcoe' interface command is mandatory to enable FCoE processing on the interface.

Why this answer

The 'fcoe' interface command is mandatory to enable FCoE processing on a specific interface. Without this command, the interface will not participate in FCoE traffic. Option C is correct because a VSAN must be created and mapped to an FCoE VLAN for the Fibre Channel fabric to recognize the FCoE link.

This mapping allows the switch to associate the Ethernet VLAN with a VSAN for FC forwarding. Options B and D are not mandatory because Priority Flow Control (PFC) and Data Center Bridging eXchange (DCBX) are automatically enabled when FCoE is configured on the interface. Option E is not mandatory because although FCoE requires jumbo frames, the MTU can be set globally or is often already set to support FCoE, and it is not a separate mandatory step for link establishment.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that PFC must be manually configured as a separate step, when in fact it is automatically enabled by the 'fcoe' command, and that VSAN mapping is required for link establishment rather than for Fibre Channel forwarding.

113
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO conditions require the use of NPIV in a Fibre Channel SAN? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Connecting a tape library that uses multiple LUNs to a single host.
B.Connecting an NPV switch to an upstream switch.
C.Enabling FCoE transit over a lossless Ethernet network.
D.Connecting two switches over an ISL.
E.Virtualizing a server with multiple virtual machines each needing a separate WWPN.
AnswersA, E

NPIV can present multiple identities for LUN masking.

Why this answer

NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) allows a single physical Fibre Channel N_Port to register multiple unique WWPNs (World Wide Port Names), enabling a tape library with multiple LUNs to present each LUN as a separate target to the host. Without NPIV, the host would see only one WWPN for the tape library, limiting LUN access and management flexibility.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse NPIV with NPV (N_Port Virtualization) or assume NPIV is required for any multi-LUN device, but NPIV is specifically for virtualizing N_Port identities, not for general multi-LUN access or switch-to-switch links.

114
MCQmedium

A storage administrator reports that an FC initiator cannot log in to the SAN. The FC switch shows the following on the interface connected to the initiator: 'VSAN 100, State: Offline'. Which action should be taken to resolve the issue?

A.Create a zone including the initiator and target
B.Change the interface VSAN to match the initiator
C.Increase the number of buffer credits on the interface
D.Configure port speed manually on the switch interface
AnswerD

Forcing the port speed can stop flapping and bring the link online.

Why this answer

The interface state 'Offline' in VSAN 100 indicates a Layer 1 or Layer 2 issue, often caused by a speed mismatch between the FC initiator and the switch interface. Configuring the port speed manually on the switch interface forces the link to negotiate at a specific speed, resolving the mismatch and bringing the interface online. This is a common fix when auto-negotiation fails or the initiator does not support the default speed settings.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between link-level issues (offline state) and fabric-level issues (zoning, VSAN membership), leading candidates to incorrectly choose zoning or VSAN changes when the root cause is a physical or speed mismatch.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because zoning controls which devices can communicate (security/fabric login), but the interface is offline, meaning the physical or link-level parameters are not established yet; zoning cannot fix a down interface. Option B is wrong because the interface is already in VSAN 100 (as shown in the output), so changing the VSAN would not address the offline state; the issue is at the physical or link layer, not the VSAN membership. Option C is wrong because buffer credits manage flow control and buffer-to-buffer credit starvation, but they do not cause an interface to be offline; an offline state indicates a link-level problem (e.g., speed/negotiation), not a credit exhaustion issue.

115
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components are required to implement Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) in a data center?

Select 3 answers
A.Fibre Channel switch with E-port
B.Converged Network Adapter (CNA)
C.iSCSI initiator software
D.FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP)
E.Data Center Bridging (DCB)-capable switches
AnswersB, D, E

CNA provides both Ethernet and FCoE functionality on the host.

Why this answer

FCoE requires a Converged Network Adapter (CNA) that supports both Ethernet and FCoE, DCB-enabled switches to provide lossless Ethernet (PFC, DCBX, ETS), and FCoE initialisation (FIP) to establish virtual links.

116
MCQhard

An FCoE link between a Nexus switch and a storage array fails to come up. The switch is configured as an FCF. The administrator runs 'show interface ethernet 1/1' and sees the interface is up/up. Which command will most likely reveal the root cause?

A.show vlan id 100
B.show lldp neighbors interface ethernet 1/1
C.show fcoe database
D.show spanning-tree interface ethernet 1/1
AnswerC

Correct: Shows FCoE session and VLAN status.

Why this answer

The FCoE link failing to come up despite the interface being up/up indicates a Layer 2 or FCoE-specific issue, not a physical or basic connectivity problem. The 'show fcoe database' command displays the FCoE login information and the state of virtual links (VFCs) mapped to the physical interface, which is essential for diagnosing why the FCF-to-storage array FCoE session is not established.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between physical interface status (up/up) and FCoE virtual link status, leading candidates to incorrectly focus on Layer 1 or Layer 2 issues rather than the FCoE control plane (FIP/FLOGI).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'show vlan id 100' only verifies VLAN existence and membership, but FCoE uses a dedicated VLAN (typically VLAN 1002-1005 or custom) and the issue is not about VLAN presence but about FCoE initialization. Option B is wrong because LLDP is used for general neighbor discovery and not specifically for FCoE; FCoE uses FIP (FCoE Initialization Protocol) for discovery and login, not LLDP. Option D is wrong because spanning-tree issues would cause the interface to be blocked or in a non-forwarding state, but the interface is up/up, indicating STP is not the root cause for an FCoE-specific failure.

117
MCQmedium

A UCS C-series server is deployed in standalone mode and managed via CIMC. The administrator needs to mount an ISO image for OS installation. Which CIMC feature should be used to remotely attach the ISO?

A.Virtual media
B.KVM console
C.Serial over LAN
D.Remote firmware update
AnswerA

Virtual media allows mounting ISO images remotely.

Why this answer

CIMC provides virtual media functionality, allowing mounting ISO images as virtual CD/DVD drives over the network.

118
MCQhard

A Cisco MDS switch has the above configuration on two 16 Gbps FC interfaces. An engineer connects an initiator to fc1/2 and a target to fc1/1. The initiator cannot discover the target. What is the most likely cause?

A.The fc1/2 interface is configured as an F-port but the initiator requires an FL-port.
B.The fc1/1 interface is configured as dedicated rate-mode but the target expects shared.
C.The fc1/2 interface is configured as shared rate-mode which prevents F-port operation.
D.The fc1/1 interface is configured as an E-port but is connected to a storage target.
AnswerD

An E-port is for inter-switch links; the target should be connected to an F-port.

Why this answer

The configuration shows interface fc1/1 with the command 'switchport mode E', which explicitly configures it as an E-port (expansion port). E-ports are used to interconnect two Fibre Channel switches, not to connect a storage target. When a target is connected to an E-port, the link will not come up properly because the target expects to be connected to an F-port (fabric port) or FL-port, preventing discovery by the initiator.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between port types (E-port vs. F-port) and their allowed connections, trapping candidates who overlook that an E-port is strictly for switch-to-switch links, not for attaching end devices like targets or initiators.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the fc1/2 interface is configured as an F-port (via 'switchport mode F'), which is the correct port type for connecting an initiator; an FL-port is only needed if the initiator is an NL_Port (loop device), and there is no indication of an arbitrated loop. Option B is wrong because rate-mode (dedicated or shared) affects bandwidth allocation, not port type or device discovery; a target can operate with either rate-mode setting. Option C is wrong because shared rate-mode does not prevent F-port operation; F-ports can operate in shared rate-mode, and the initiator's failure to discover the target is unrelated to rate-mode.

119
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of NX-API on Cisco Nexus switches in a data center automation context?

A.To replace SNMP for monitoring and alerting.
B.To enable direct configuration from a web browser without CLI.
C.To create a web-based GUI for manual switch configuration.
D.To provide a RESTful API that allows programmatic access to CLI commands and structured data output.
AnswerD

NX-API translates CLI commands into JSON/REST calls, returning structured data for automation.

Why this answer

NX-API provides a RESTful API interface on Cisco Nexus switches, enabling programmatic access to CLI commands and returning structured data in formats like JSON or XML. This is essential for data center automation because it allows external tools (e.g., Ansible, Python scripts) to configure and retrieve state from the switch without requiring interactive CLI sessions, directly supporting infrastructure-as-code workflows.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a programmatic API (NX-API) and a web-based GUI, leading candidates to confuse NX-API with the Device Manager web interface, which is a separate feature for manual browser-based management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NX-API is not designed to replace SNMP for monitoring and alerting; SNMP remains the standard for trap-based alerts and performance monitoring, while NX-API focuses on configuration and operational data retrieval via REST. Option B is wrong because NX-API does not enable direct configuration from a web browser without CLI; it is an API endpoint consumed by programs, not a browser-based GUI. Option C is wrong because NX-API is not a web-based GUI for manual switch configuration; Cisco Nexus switches offer a separate web GUI (e.g., Device Manager), but NX-API is strictly a programmatic interface.

120
MCQhard

A network team is planning to automate configuration management of a brownfield Nexus 9000 fabric using YANG data models and NETCONF. Which consideration is critical when implementing this solution?

A.The operational state must be modeled against the device-specific YANG model to avoid configuration drift.
B.NETCONF replaces CLI entirely; no fallback necessary.
C.Using NETCONF for configuration ensures zero touch provisioning.
D.All NX-OS versions support the same YANG models; no compatibility check needed.
AnswerA

In brownfield, understanding the current state via YANG is needed to plan incremental changes and avoid drift.

Why this answer

In a brownfield Nexus 9000 fabric, the operational state (e.g., interface status, routing table) must be modeled against the device-specific YANG model to detect and correct configuration drift. NETCONF uses YANG models to define both configuration and operational data, but only the device-specific native model accurately reflects the actual running state. Without this alignment, automated remediation may push incorrect configurations, leading to network instability.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that NETCONF is a complete CLI replacement, but the trap here is that operational state modeling against device-specific YANG is critical for drift detection in brownfield environments, not just configuration push.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because NETCONF does not replace the CLI entirely; CLI remains a fallback for troubleshooting, emergency access, and operations not covered by YANG models. Option C is wrong because NETCONF is a configuration protocol that can be used for initial provisioning, but zero-touch provisioning (ZTP) typically relies on DHCP, TFTP, and scripts, not NETCONF alone. Option D is wrong because NX-OS versions support different YANG models (e.g., OpenConfig vs.

Cisco native), and compatibility must be verified; assuming uniform support can cause schema mismatches and failed operations.

121
Multi-Selecthard

A HyperFlex cluster with 6 nodes using RF3 experiences a node failure. After the failed node is replaced, the administrator notices degraded performance. Which THREE factors could contribute to the performance degradation?

Select 3 answers
A.The cluster is rebalancing data across all nodes.
B.The witness VM is offline.
C.The replication factor changed from RF3 to RF2.
D.Data re-replication to the replacement node consumes I/O bandwidth.
E.The replacement node has a different SSD model with lower performance.
AnswersA, D, E

Rebalancing increases load.

Why this answer

During re-replication, there is increased I/O and CPU load. Additionally, if the replacement node is slower (e.g., fewer SSDs) or if the cluster is rebalancing, performance can suffer.

122
Multi-Selecthard

A storage administrator is implementing synchronous replication between two storage arrays over a Fibre Channel link. Which three characteristics are true of synchronous replication? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.It is suitable for long-distance replication over hundreds of kilometers.
B.It requires a high-bandwidth, low-latency link between the arrays.
C.The write is acknowledged to the host only after it is committed on both the primary and secondary arrays.
D.It provides the lowest possible recovery point objective (RPO).
E.It uses less bandwidth than asynchronous replication.
AnswersB, C, D

Latency directly impacts performance.

Why this answer

Synchronous replication writes data to both arrays before acknowledging the write, ensuring zero data loss but adding latency and requiring high bandwidth.

123
MCQmedium

An organization is deploying Cisco ISE for 802.1X authentication on Cisco Nexus switches. Some endpoints fail authentication and fall back to the MAB. The security policy requires that endpoints failing both 802.1X and MAB be placed in a restricted VLAN. Which configuration is needed on the switch port?

A.authentication order dot1x mab
B.dot1x timeout tx-period 30
C.authentication failed action authorize vlan 999
D.authentication event server dead action authorize vlan 999
AnswerC

This command places the port into the specified VLAN (restricted) after authentication failure.

Why this answer

The 'authentication failed action authorize vlan 999' command configures the switch port to place endpoints that fail both 802.1X and MAB into a restricted VLAN (VLAN 999). This directly meets the security policy requirement for endpoints that cannot authenticate via either method.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'authentication failed action' (which handles authentication failure) with 'authentication event server dead action' (which handles server unavailability), leading candidates to pick Option D when the scenario explicitly describes endpoints failing authentication, not a server outage.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'authentication order dot1x mab' only sets the sequence of authentication methods (802.1X first, then MAB), but does not define what happens when both fail. Option B is wrong because 'dot1x timeout tx-period 30' adjusts the interval between EAP-Request/Identity retransmissions, which affects authentication timing but not the fallback action for failed authentication. Option D is wrong because 'authentication event server dead action authorize vlan 999' handles the scenario when the RADIUS server is unreachable, not when authentication itself fails; this would place endpoints in VLAN 999 even if they could authenticate successfully, violating the policy.

124
MCQhard

An attacker attempts to spoof a legitimate client's IP address to intercept traffic. DHCP snooping is enabled. Which feature prevents this spoofing by validating source IP in data packets?

A.Port security
B.IP Source Guard
C.Dynamic ARP Inspection
D.DHCP Snooping binding database
AnswerB

IPSG validates source IP in data packets using the DHCP snooping binding table.

Why this answer

IP Source Guard (IPSG) uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate the source IP address in data packets received on untrusted ports. If a packet's source IP does not match an entry in the binding table, IPSG drops the packet, preventing IP spoofing attacks.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between features that validate IP addresses (IPSG) versus those that validate ARP (DAI) or MAC addresses (port security), leading candidates to confuse DAI as the answer for IP spoofing prevention.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port security limits MAC addresses on a switch port but does not inspect or validate the source IP address in Layer 3 packets. Option C is wrong because Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) validates ARP packets (IP-to-MAC bindings), not the source IP in data packets. Option D is wrong because the DHCP snooping binding database is a table of legitimate DHCP leases; it is not a feature that actively validates source IPs in data packets—IPSG uses this database to perform that validation.

125
MCQeasy

Which of the following best describes stateless computing in Cisco UCS?

A.VLANs and VSANs are not configured on the Fabric Interconnects.
B.Server state is saved to a local disk for recovery.
C.The server has no operating system installed.
D.All server configuration is stored in the service profile, allowing any physical blade to assume the identity.
AnswerD

Correct. The service profile holds all config.

Why this answer

Stateless computing means that all configuration (BIOS, firmware, network, storage settings) is stored in the service profile on UCS Manager, not on the server. Thus, a failed blade can be replaced without reconfiguration.

126
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is implementing storage virtualization with thin provisioning on a Pure Storage array. Which three benefits does thin provisioning provide? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Ability to over-allocate storage
B.Reduced upfront capacity cost
C.Simplified snapshot management
D.Increased storage utilization
E.Guaranteed performance isolation
AnswersA, B, D

Thin provisioning allows presenting more logical capacity than physical.

Why this answer

Thin provisioning allows over-allocation, reduces upfront capacity costs, and improves storage utilization by allocating space on demand.

127
Multi-Selecteasy

An engineer is deploying a new application in an ACI fabric. Which two objects must be created to define a network policy? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.VRF
B.External routed network
C.Bridge Domain
D.Tenant
E.VMM domain
AnswersC, D

BD defines Layer 2 boundary.

Why this answer

In Cisco ACI, a network policy is defined by the combination of a Tenant and a Bridge Domain. The Tenant is the top-level container that isolates policies and configurations, while the Bridge Domain defines the Layer 2 forwarding boundary and associates the subnet, enabling communication within the fabric. Without these two objects, a network policy cannot be fully realized.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a VRF alone defines the network policy, but the VRF is only the routing context; the Bridge Domain and Tenant are the mandatory objects for the Layer 2 and administrative boundaries.

128
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are valid methods to recover from buffer credit loss on a Fibre Channel link?

Select 2 answers
A.Reduce the link speed.
B.Increase the BB_Credit value.
C.Enable WRED on the switch.
D.Use port channel to aggregate links.
E.Credit recovery using RDMA.
AnswersA, B

Lower speed reduces the number of credits needed to maintain the link.

Why this answer

Reducing the link speed is a valid method to recover from buffer credit loss because it decreases the number of frames transmitted per unit time, allowing the receiver's buffer credits to replenish and preventing further overrun. This is a temporary workaround that reduces the effective bandwidth but can stabilize the link when buffer credit starvation occurs due to distance or congestion.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that increasing link speed or aggregating links (port channels) can solve buffer credit issues, but the correct approach is to either reduce speed or increase BB_Credits, as credit loss is a flow-control problem, not a bandwidth problem.

129
MCQmedium

A storage administrator is configuring zoning on a Cisco MDS switch. They need to ensure that only the specified WWPNs can communicate, even if a device is moved to a different physical port. Which zoning method should be used?

A.Broadcast zoning
B.LUN zoning
C.Hard zoning by WWPN
D.Soft zoning by port ID
AnswerC

Hard zoning by WWPN ensures that only devices with the specified WWPNs can communicate, regardless of physical port.

Why this answer

Hard zoning based on WWPN is persistent across port changes, while soft zoning based on port ID is less secure and changes if the device moves.

130
MCQmedium

A UCS B-series blade has two vHBAs configured for Fibre Channel SAN connectivity. The engineer wants to ensure that if one vHBA fails, the other can take over. What must be configured in the service profile?

A.vHBA failover policy
B.FC zone configuration
C.Boot policy
D.vNIC failover policy
AnswerA

vHBA failover provides redundancy for SAN connectivity.

Why this answer

vHBA failover policy allows a secondary vHBA to assume the WWPN of the primary if it fails.

131
MCQmedium

A UCS C-Series rack server with a boot from SAN policy fails to discover the LUN during POST. The HBA is correctly zoned with the storage array. Which step should be taken to troubleshoot the issue?

A.Verify VSAN membership on the fabric interconnect
B.Update the server firmware to the latest version
C.Review the SAN boot target configuration in Cisco IMC
D.Check the service profile association in UCS Manager
AnswerC

CIMC stores the SAN boot settings for C-Series servers

Why this answer

When a UCS C-Series rack server with a boot-from-SAN policy fails to discover the LUN during POST, the most direct troubleshooting step is to review the SAN boot target configuration in Cisco IMC. The HBA is already correctly zoned, so the issue likely lies in the boot target parameters (e.g., WWPN, LUN ID, or target name) configured in the IMC's SAN boot settings, which the HBA uses during the BIOS-level boot process. Verifying these settings ensures the HBA can properly address and log into the storage target.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between UCS B-Series (managed via UCS Manager with service profiles) and C-Series (standalone with Cisco IMC) to trap candidates who apply B-Series troubleshooting steps to a C-Series scenario.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VSAN membership on the fabric interconnect applies to UCS B-Series blade servers and Fabric Interconnects, not to C-Series rack servers, which use Cisco IMC for direct SAN boot configuration. Option B is wrong because updating server firmware is a generic troubleshooting step that does not address the specific boot-from-SAN discovery failure; the issue is configuration-related, not a firmware bug. Option D is wrong because service profile association in UCS Manager is relevant for UCS B-Series blades managed by UCS Manager, not for standalone C-Series rack servers, which are managed independently via Cisco IMC.

132
MCQmedium

In VXLAN, what is the role of the VNI in the overlay network?

A.Identifies the VTEP
B.Encapsulation type
C.Identifies the overlay network segment
D.Specifies the underlay VRF
AnswerC

VNI maps to a Layer 2 segment.

Why this answer

The VNI (VXLAN Network Identifier) is a 24-bit field in the VXLAN header that uniquely identifies a Layer 2 overlay network segment, analogous to a VLAN ID in traditional networking. It allows multiple tenants or broadcast domains to coexist over a shared underlay network by isolating traffic at the overlay level.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the VNI with the VLAN ID or think it identifies the VTEP, but Cisco tests that the VNI specifically identifies the overlay network segment, not the endpoint or encapsulation method.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the VTEP (VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint) is identified by its IP address, not the VNI; the VNI identifies the network segment, not the tunnel endpoint. Option B is wrong because the encapsulation type is VXLAN itself (UDP-based), and the VNI is a field within the encapsulation header, not the type. Option D is wrong because the underlay VRF is a routing/forwarding instance in the underlay network, while the VNI operates at the overlay layer and does not specify any underlay VRF.

133
MCQmedium

A data center engineer is troubleshooting intermittent connectivity between two servers in different VLANs. The servers are connected to different leaf switches in a VXLAN EVPN fabric. When checking the fabric, the engineer notices that the NVE interface on one leaf is up/up but the VNI for the server VLAN is not listed in 'show nve vni'. What is the most likely cause?

A.MTU mismatch on the underlay network
B.Anycast gateway is not configured on the leaf
C.BGP EVPN peers are not established
D.The VLAN-to-VNI mapping is missing under the VLAN configuration
AnswerD

The VNI must be mapped to a VLAN using 'vn-segment vlan-id' under the VLAN configuration; without it, the VNI does not appear in the NVE interface.

Why this answer

The NVE interface being up/up indicates the overlay tunnel is operational, but the absence of the VNI in 'show nve vni' means the VNI is not instantiated on the NVE. This typically occurs when the VLAN-to-VNI mapping is missing under the VLAN configuration (e.g., 'vlan 100' then 'vn-segment 10100'), which prevents the VNI from being associated with the NVE interface and advertised via BGP EVPN.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the NVE interface being operational (up/up) and the VNI being properly instantiated via VLAN-to-VNI mapping, leading candidates to incorrectly suspect BGP or underlay issues when the real problem is a missing local configuration step.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an MTU mismatch on the underlay network would cause packet drops or fragmentation, not the absence of a VNI from the NVE VNI list. Option B is wrong because anycast gateway configuration (e.g., 'ip virtual-router address' or 'fabric forwarding anycast-gateway-mac') is used for first-hop redundancy and does not affect whether a VNI appears in 'show nve vni'. Option C is wrong because BGP EVPN peers not being established would prevent route exchange but would not prevent the VNI from being locally instantiated on the NVE; the VNI would still appear in 'show nve vni' even if peers are down.

134
MCQmedium

An organization requires disk encryption for data at rest in their UCS environment. Which technology should be used?

A.AES-256 software encryption
B.FC-SP-2
C.SED
D.SAN encryption
AnswerC

SEDs encrypt data at rest on the drive.

Why this answer

Self-encrypting drives (SEDs) provide hardware-based encryption for data at rest.

135
MCQeasy

An engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco UCS B-Series blade that fails to boot. The service profile is associated and the boot policy is set to 'SAN Boot'. The storage administrator confirms the LUN is properly mapped to the WWPN. Which check should the engineer perform first?

A.Verify that the UCS Fabric Interconnect is connected to the SAN switches
B.Reboot the chassis to reinitialize the IOM
C.Check that the vHBA has a dynamic WWPN assigned
D.Ensure the local disk is set as primary boot device
AnswerA

Without fabric connectivity, the server cannot reach the storage.

Why this answer

Since the service profile is associated, the boot policy is set to SAN Boot, and the LUN is properly mapped to the WWPN, the most likely cause is a physical or Layer 2 connectivity issue between the UCS Fabric Interconnect and the SAN switches. Without this link, the fabric interconnect cannot forward FCP frames to the storage array, preventing the blade from discovering the boot LUN. Verifying this connection is the logical first step before investigating other configuration or zoning issues.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a properly mapped LUN and associated service profile guarantee SAN boot success, leading candidates to overlook the physical or Layer 2 connectivity between the Fabric Interconnect and the SAN switches.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because rebooting the chassis or reinitializing the IOM would disrupt all blades and is unnecessary when the issue is isolated to a single blade failing to boot from SAN; it also does not address the connectivity between the Fabric Interconnect and SAN switches. Option C is wrong because a dynamic WWPN is the default and recommended assignment for vHBAs in UCS, and changing it would not resolve a missing SAN path; the storage administrator has already confirmed the LUN is mapped to the correct WWPN. Option D is wrong because the boot policy is explicitly set to 'SAN Boot', meaning the local disk should not be the primary boot device; forcing local disk boot would bypass the intended SAN boot process and is not a troubleshooting step for SAN boot failures.

136
MCQhard

During a maintenance window, a network engineer plans to upgrade the NX-OS software on a pair of Nexus 9000 switches configured as vPC peers. The engineer wants to minimize traffic disruption. Which upgrade sequence is recommended?

A.Upgrade both switches simultaneously using ISSU
B.Reload both switches to a previous version, then upgrade
C.Upgrade the primary vPC peer first, then the secondary
D.Upgrade the secondary vPC peer first, then the primary
AnswerD

Upgrading secondary first ensures the primary remains operational; after secondary upgrade, it can take over if needed during primary upgrade.

Why this answer

In a vPC pair, the secondary peer is upgraded first to preserve the primary's role as the forwarding anchor. Upgrading the secondary peer allows it to reboot and rejoin the vPC domain without disrupting the data plane because the primary peer continues to forward traffic. Once the secondary is stable, the primary is upgraded, ensuring minimal traffic loss.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that upgrading the primary first is safer because it is the 'leader,' but the correct sequence is to upgrade the secondary first to avoid a disruptive role transition.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ISSU (In-Service Software Upgrade) is not supported on Nexus 9000 switches in vPC mode; it requires non-disruptive upgrades which are not available for vPC peer links. Option B is wrong because reloading both switches to a previous version would cause a complete traffic outage, defeating the goal of minimizing disruption. Option C is wrong because upgrading the primary vPC peer first would cause the primary to reboot, leading to a vPC role change and potential traffic black-holing until the secondary takes over, increasing disruption.

137
MCQmedium

An engineer is deploying UCS B-series blades in a 5108 chassis connected to a pair of Fabric Interconnects. To ensure high availability, each blade's vNICs must be pinned to both FIs. Which configuration method should be used in the service profile to achieve this?

A.Configure each vNIC with fabric failover enabled, then assign the vNICs to the same fabric.
B.Use the default vNIC template which automatically assigns vNICs to both fabrics.
C.Enable fabric failover on the uplink ports of the Fabric Interconnects.
D.Create a vNIC placement policy that assigns one vNIC to Fabric A and another vNIC to Fabric B, both without failover.
AnswerD

This provides active-active redundancy across both fabrics.

Why this answer

In UCS Manager, the vNIC placement policy determines how vNICs are assigned to fabric interconnects. Selecting 'fabric failover' allows a vNIC to fail over to the other FI, but for active-active use, multiple vNICs are needed. The correct approach is to use a vNIC placement policy that assigns each vNIC to a specific fabric without failover, combined with proper fabric pinning in the LAN connectivity policy.

138
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are features of the Embedded Event Manager (EEM) with Python applets on Cisco NX-OS? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.EEM Python applets require an external Python server.
B.EEM Python applets can execute CLI commands on the Nexus switch.
C.EEM Python applets cannot use external libraries.
D.EEM Python applets can only run as root.
E.EEM Python applets can be triggered by syslog messages.
AnswersB, E

Correct. EEM applets can issue CLI commands.

Why this answer

EEM with Python applets allows event-driven automation on-box. Python applets can run without external scripting, and they can react to events like syslog messages. EEM applets do not require an external server; they run on the switch.

Python applets support libraries like cisco_nxapi, but EEM itself does not require a separate Python environment.

139
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO UCS components are part of the unified fabric architecture?

Select 2 answers
A.Fabric Interconnect
B.Storage Array
C.I/O Module (IOM)
D.Control Plane
E.Blade Server
AnswersA, C

Central switching component

Why this answer

The Fabric Interconnect (A) is the core switching component in Cisco UCS, providing both network and storage connectivity over a unified fabric, typically using Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) to consolidate LAN and SAN traffic. The I/O Module (IOM) (C) connects blade servers to the Fabric Interconnects, extending the unified fabric by aggregating traffic from the chassis and forwarding it to the Fabric Interconnects, thereby eliminating the need for separate network and storage switches.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between components that are part of the unified fabric (Fabric Interconnect and IOM) versus components that connect to or use the fabric (storage arrays, blade servers), leading candidates to mistakenly include endpoints or external devices as fabric components.

140
MCQeasy

Which protocol is used by NETCONF to transport YANG-defined configuration data between a controller and a network device?

A.XML over HTTP
B.CLI over Telnet
C.JSON over HTTPS
D.XML over SSH
AnswerD

NETCONF uses SSH as transport with XML encoding.

Why this answer

NETCONF uses XML over SSH (RFC 6241) for secure transport.

141
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO troubleshooting steps should be taken when a UCS blade server fails to discover during the initial discovery process?

Select 2 answers
A.Verify the physical cabling between the IOM and fabric interconnect
B.Immediately replace the blade server
C.Power cycle the chassis
D.Reset the fabric interconnect to factory defaults
E.Check firmware compatibility between FI and chassis
AnswersA, E

Physical connectivity is essential

Why this answer

The initial discovery process relies on the IOM (Fabric Interconnect) establishing a link to the blade server through the chassis midplane. If the physical cabling between the IOM and the fabric interconnect is faulty, loose, or using incorrect transceivers, the discovery will fail. Verifying this cabling is a fundamental first step in troubleshooting discovery failures.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a blade server discovery failure is always a hardware fault, leading candidates to choose 'replace the blade' or 'power cycle the chassis' instead of checking the physical and logical connectivity between the IOM and the FI.

142
MCQmedium

In a VXLAN overlay, which encapsulation is used to transport Ethernet frames over the IP network?

A.IPsec
B.TCP
C.GRE
D.UDP
AnswerD

VXLAN uses UDP (port 4789).

Why this answer

VXLAN uses UDP encapsulation (destination port 4789 by default) to transport Layer 2 Ethernet frames over a Layer 3 IP network. This allows the overlay to leverage existing IP routing infrastructure while preserving the original MAC addresses and VLAN information, enabling network virtualization and scalability beyond traditional VLAN limits.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that VXLAN uses GRE or TCP encapsulation because of its tunneling nature, but the key is that VXLAN specifically uses UDP to allow stateless, scalable overlay transport and to leverage existing IP routing without TCP's connection overhead.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IPsec is a security protocol used for encrypting and authenticating IP packets, not for encapsulating Ethernet frames in a VXLAN overlay. Option B is wrong because TCP is a connection-oriented transport protocol that would introduce unnecessary overhead and retransmission delays, whereas VXLAN relies on UDP for stateless, low-latency encapsulation. Option C is wrong because GRE is a tunneling protocol that can encapsulate various protocols, but VXLAN specifically uses UDP as its transport mechanism to leverage ECMP load balancing and avoid the overhead of GRE headers.

143
MCQmedium

A DevOps team uses Ansible to automate the configuration of Cisco Nexus switches. After running a playbook, some switches have the correct configuration but others do not. The playbook uses the 'nxos_config' module. Which action should be taken to ensure consistent configuration?

A.Set 'ignore_errors' to true in the playbook
B.Use the 'backup' option to save the running config before changes
C.Use 'serial' directive to run the playbook on one switch at a time
D.Enable check mode to verify changes before applying
AnswerB

Backup provides a restore point for rollback.

Why this answer

The 'nxos_config' module's 'backup' option saves the running configuration to a file before applying changes. This ensures that if a switch fails to apply the configuration correctly, the original configuration is preserved for rollback, enabling consistent recovery across all switches. Without this, some switches may have partial or incorrect configurations that cannot be easily reverted.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'backup' with a simple logging feature, when in fact it is a critical rollback mechanism that directly addresses configuration drift and failed deployments in network automation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'ignore_errors: true' would cause Ansible to continue executing tasks even if the 'nxos_config' module fails on a switch, masking configuration errors and leading to inconsistent states without any indication of failure. Option C is wrong because the 'serial' directive controls the number of hosts processed in parallel but does not address configuration consistency or rollback; it only affects execution order and can actually slow down deployment without solving the core issue. Option D is wrong because check mode (--check) only simulates changes without applying them, so it cannot ensure consistent configuration across switches; it is useful for validation but does not provide a mechanism to recover from failed applications.

144
MCQmedium

An engineer is deploying a VXLAN overlay network in a data center using Cisco Nexus 9000 series switches. The network must handle BUM traffic efficiently across the fabric. Which method for BUM traffic handling requires the VTEP to maintain a list of all remote VTEPs and replicate packets individually?

A.Multicast-based replication
B.Suppression of BUM traffic
C.Head-end replication
D.Ingress replication
AnswerD

Ingress replication requires the source VTEP to replicate packets to each remote VTEP individually.

Why this answer

Ingress replication (Option D) is the correct method because it requires the ingress VTEP to maintain a list of all remote VTEPs in the VXLAN segment and replicate each BUM packet individually to each remote VTEP. This is a unicast-based replication approach that does not rely on multicast in the underlay, making it suitable for networks where multicast is not enabled or desired.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'ingress replication' and 'multicast-based replication' by describing the behavior of the ingress VTEP maintaining a list and replicating individually, which directly maps to ingress replication, not multicast.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because multicast-based replication uses an underlay multicast group (e.g., PIM-SM) to distribute BUM traffic to all VTEPs that have joined the group, without requiring the ingress VTEP to maintain a list of remote VTEPs or replicate packets individually. Option B is wrong because suppression of BUM traffic (e.g., ARP suppression) reduces the amount of BUM traffic by caching known MAC-to-IP mappings, but it does not define the replication method for traffic that is not suppressed. Option C is wrong because head-end replication is a generic term sometimes used interchangeably with ingress replication, but in Cisco VXLAN documentation, the specific term for the VTEP maintaining a list and replicating individually is 'ingress replication'.

145
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is troubleshooting a UCS B-Series blade that fails to boot from SAN. Which TWO actions should be verified first? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Verify that the vHBA WWPN is correctly zoned on the SAN switches.
B.Confirm the boot policy includes the SAN target LUN.
C.Check the MAC address assigned to the vNIC.
D.Ensure the QoS policy for FC traffic is set to Platinum.
E.Verify the server's boot order lists local disk first.
AnswersA, B

Common issue: incorrect zoning.

Why this answer

The vHBA WWPN must be properly zoned on the SAN switches to allow the blade to discover and connect to the storage target. Without correct zoning, the Fibre Channel initiator cannot communicate with the target, preventing SAN boot. This is a fundamental prerequisite for any Fibre Channel-based boot.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between SAN boot prerequisites (WWPN zoning and boot policy LUN) versus performance or Ethernet-related settings, leading candidates to mistakenly select MAC address or QoS options.

146
MCQeasy

A network engineer wants to send NX-OS CLI commands via HTTP/HTTPS to a Nexus switch programmatically. Which API should be used?

A.NETCONF
B.NX-API CLI
C.NX-API REST
D.RESTCONF
AnswerB

Correct: NX-API CLI is designed to send NX-OS CLI commands via API calls.

Why this answer

NX-API CLI allows sending NX-OS CLI commands via HTTP/HTTPS using XML or JSON.

147
MCQeasy

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco MDS switch to connect to an existing Fibre Channel fabric. The switch will be deployed in NPV mode to scale the number of edge ports. Which port type should be used on the upstream switch to connect to this NPV switch?

A.E-port
B.N-port
C.NP-port
D.F-port
AnswerD

The upstream switch must configure the port as an F-port to accept NPIV login from the NPV switch.

Why this answer

In NPV mode, the edge switch registers with the core switch using NPIV. The core switch sees the NPV switch as a host and the port connecting to it must be an F-port.

148
MCQhard

In a Cisco HyperFlex cluster, the management plane uses vCenter, but the data plane uses which protocol to replicate data across nodes?

A.Fibre Channel
B.HX Data Platform
C.NFS
D.iSCSI
AnswerB

HyperFlex uses its own HX Data Platform protocol for data replication and distribution.

Why this answer

In a Cisco HyperFlex cluster, the data plane replication across nodes is handled by the HX Data Platform, which is a distributed, log-structured file system that synchronously replicates data at the hypervisor level. This platform manages all I/O operations and ensures data consistency across the cluster without relying on external storage protocols like Fibre Channel or iSCSI.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the management plane (vCenter) and the data plane (HX Data Platform), and the trap here is that candidates may confuse the data replication protocol with common storage protocols like NFS or iSCSI, which are used for external storage access but not for HyperFlex's internal replication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Fibre Channel is a block-level storage protocol used in SAN environments, not for HyperFlex's distributed data replication which uses the HX Data Platform's own replication mechanism. Option C is wrong because NFS is a network file system protocol for accessing files over a network, not a replication protocol for HyperFlex's data plane. Option D is wrong because iSCSI is a block-level storage protocol that encapsulates SCSI commands over IP networks, but HyperFlex does not use iSCSI for its internal data replication; it relies on the HX Data Platform's proprietary replication.

149
MCQeasy

A UCS domain has two Fabric Interconnects in end-host mode. Which statement about server-side traffic is true?

A.Fabric Interconnects run IEEE 802.1D STP on the server-facing ports.
B.The Fabric Interconnect learns server MAC addresses on the server-facing ports.
C.The Fabric Interconnect performs VLAN-based load balancing to the upstream network.
D.Each Fabric Interconnect independently forwards frames to the upstream switches using the same uplink.
AnswerB

Yes, it learns host MAC addresses.

Why this answer

In end-host mode, the Fabric Interconnect (FI) acts as a Layer-2 forwarding device that learns server MAC addresses on the server-facing ports to build its forwarding table. This is required because the FI does not run Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on those ports; instead, it relies on MAC learning to forward traffic correctly between servers and the upstream network.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse end-host mode with switching mode, assuming STP is required on server ports, when in fact end-host mode disables STP and relies on MAC learning to maintain a loop-free topology.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Fabric Interconnects in end-host mode do not run IEEE 802.1D STP on server-facing ports; they use a pinning or forwarding mode that disables STP to avoid blocking server links. Option C is wrong because VLAN-based load balancing to the upstream network is not performed by the FI in end-host mode; instead, uplink load balancing is typically based on source/destination MAC or IP hashing, not VLAN. Option D is wrong because each Fabric Interconnect does not independently forward frames using the same uplink; in end-host mode, each FI uses its own dedicated uplinks and does not share forwarding paths with the other FI for the same frame.

150
MCQmedium

A storage administrator needs to configure zoning while minimizing administrative overhead and allowing multiple initiators to access multiple targets without having to change zones when new members are added. Which zoning approach is best?

A.Zoning by naming using a zone alias for initiators and another for targets
B.Multiple initiator-multiple target zoning (all devices in one zone)
C.Single initiator-single target zoning
D.Single initiator-multiple target zoning (initiator-based)
AnswerA

Using zone aliases groups initiators and targets; adding new members to the alias automatically includes them in the zone, reducing overhead.

Why this answer

Zoning by name using zone aliases decouples the zone configuration from the physical port or WWN, allowing administrators to group initiators and targets into separate aliases. When new members are added to an alias, the zone automatically includes them without manual zone reconfiguration, minimizing administrative overhead while supporting multiple initiators and multiple targets.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between zoning by WWN (hard zoning) versus zoning by alias (soft zoning), and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly choose 'multiple initiator-multiple target zoning' (Option B) thinking it is the simplest, but they overlook that it eliminates all isolation and violates Fibre Channel security best practices, whereas alias-based zoning provides both scalability and proper segmentation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because placing all devices in a single zone violates Fibre Channel best practices by creating a flat, non-segmented fabric that increases the risk of RSCN storms and reduces security, and it does not minimize overhead when adding members (the zone still exists but offers no isolation). Option C is wrong because single initiator-single target zoning creates a one-to-one mapping, which requires creating and managing many zones for multiple initiators and targets, increasing administrative overhead and not allowing multiple initiators to access multiple targets without zone changes. Option D is wrong because single initiator-multiple target zoning (initiator-based) requires a separate zone for each initiator, so adding a new initiator still requires creating a new zone, and it does not allow multiple initiators to access the same targets without additional zone modifications.

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