Courseiva

ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 301375

1175 questions total · 16pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
MCQmedium

Consider the following Python script that uses the requests library to delete a VLAN via RESTCONF on a Cisco IOS-XE device: ```python import requests from requests.auth import HTTPBasicAuth url = 'https://192.168.1.1/restconf/data/Cisco-IOS-XE-native:native/vlan=10' headers = { 'Accept': 'application/yang-data+json', 'Content-Type': 'application/yang-data+json' } auth = HTTPBasicAuth('admin', 'cisco') response = requests.delete(url, headers=headers, auth=auth, verify=False) print(response.status_code) ``` What is the expected outcome if the VLAN 10 exists?

A.It will retrieve the configuration of VLAN 10.
B.It will create VLAN 10 if it does not exist.
C.It will delete VLAN 10 from the device configuration.
D.It will return an error because the payload is missing.
AnswerC

The DELETE method removes the specified resource.

Why this answer

The `requests.delete()` method sends an HTTP DELETE request to the RESTCONF API endpoint for VLAN 10. When the VLAN exists, the device processes the DELETE operation and removes the VLAN configuration from the running config, returning a 204 No Content status code upon success.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse HTTP methods, thinking DELETE requires a payload like PUT/POST, or mistakenly believe DELETE can retrieve or create resources, when in fact each HTTP method has a distinct CRUD mapping in RESTCONF.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an HTTP DELETE request does not retrieve data; retrieving data requires an HTTP GET request. Option B is wrong because creating a resource uses an HTTP POST or PUT request, not DELETE. Option D is wrong because RESTCONF DELETE operations do not require a payload; the resource is identified by the URL path alone, and a missing payload does not cause an error for DELETE.

302
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring model-driven telemetry with gRPC on a Cisco IOS-XE device into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, enable telemetry and define the destination. Then, create a subscription with a sensor path. Next, set the update policy.

Finally, verify the telemetry data is being sent.

303
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IKEv2 fragmentation and DPD keepalive process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

During IKEv2, if the IKE packet exceeds the MTU, the sender fragments it into smaller pieces. The receiver reassembles the fragments into the original packet. After the IKE SA is established, the peers send Dead Peer Detection (DPD) keepalives to verify connectivity.

If no response is received, the peer retransmits the DPD. After multiple failures, the peer declares the SA dead and deletes it.

304
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco IOS-XE mdt subscription via CLI configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The CLI configuration begins by entering global config, defining the receiver, setting the subscription parameters, applying the subscription, and verifying it.

305
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about RESTCONF are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.RESTCONF uses SSH for transport security.
B.RESTCONF uses HTTP methods such as GET, PUT, POST, DELETE, and PATCH.
C.RESTCONF is designed to replace NETCONF entirely.
D.RESTCONF supports both JSON and XML encoding for data representation.
E.RESTCONF uses remote procedure calls (RPCs) for all operations.
AnswersB, D

Correct because RESTCONF maps to standard HTTP methods.

Why this answer

The correct answers are B and D. B is correct because RESTCONF uses HTTP methods like GET, PUT, POST, DELETE, and PATCH. D is correct because RESTCONF supports both JSON and XML encoding.

A is incorrect because RESTCONF uses HTTP, not SSH. C is incorrect because RESTCONF is not a replacement for NETCONF; they are different protocols. E is incorrect because RESTCONF does not use remote procedure calls (RPCs) in the same way as NETCONF; it uses RESTful operations.

306
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about IPsec IKEv2 are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.IKEv2 uses UDP port 500 for initial negotiation and can switch to UDP 4500 for NAT traversal.
B.IKEv2 supports EAP authentication for remote access VPNs.
C.IKEv2 uses TCP port 500 for control plane messages.
D.IKEv2 requires a separate IPsec SA for each direction of traffic.
E.IKEv2 is not compatible with certificate-based authentication.
AnswersA, B

Correct because IKEv2 uses UDP 500 and 4500 for NAT-T.

Why this answer

IKEv2 uses UDP port 500 and 4500, supports EAP authentication, and is more robust than IKEv1. It does not use TCP, and it supports multiple simultaneous SAs.

307
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Type 1 hypervisors have direct access to physical hardware resources.
B.Type 2 hypervisors run directly on the physical server without a host operating system.
C.Type 1 hypervisors require a host operating system for resource management.
D.Type 2 hypervisors rely on the host operating system for device drivers and resource scheduling.
E.Type 1 hypervisors can only support a single virtual machine per physical host.
AnswersA, D

Correct because Type 1 hypervisors run directly on the hardware, allowing direct resource access.

Why this answer

Type 1 hypervisors run directly on hardware and are commonly used in data centers; Type 2 hypervisors run on a host OS and are often used for testing or desktop virtualization. Option A is correct because Type 1 hypervisors have direct access to hardware resources, which improves performance. Option D is correct because Type 2 hypervisors rely on the host OS for resource management, adding overhead.

Option B is incorrect because Type 2 hypervisors do not run directly on hardware. Option C is incorrect because Type 1 hypervisors do not require a host OS. Option E is incorrect because Type 1 hypervisors can support multiple VMs, not just one.

308
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each telemetry model on the left to its matching push type (dial-in or dial-out) on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Collector initiates connection to the device

Device initiates connection to the collector

Device streams data to collector

Device sends data to collector

Device sends unsolicited data to collector

Why these pairings

Dial-in models require the collector to initiate the connection (e.g., gRPC dial-in). Dial-out models let the network device push data to the collector (e.g., gRPC dial-out, NETCONF YANG-push).

309
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Ansible Vault encryption and decryption steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Ansible Vault encryption starts with creating a password file; then, encrypting a plaintext file with ansible-vault encrypt; next, viewing the encrypted content with ansible-vault view; after that, decrypting the file for editing with ansible-vault decrypt; finally, re-encrypting after modifications.

310
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SD-WAN controller on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Centralized management, monitoring, and GUI dashboard

Control plane policy distribution and OMP route propagation

First point of contact for device authentication and NAT discovery

WAN edge router running Viptela OS

WAN edge router running IOS-XE with SD-WAN features

Why these pairings

vManage provides centralized management and monitoring; vSmart distributes control plane policies and OMP routes; vBond authenticates and orchestrates initial device onboarding and NAT traversal.

311
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each EtherChannel port state on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Port is actively forwarding traffic in the EtherChannel

Port is active but not part of any EtherChannel

Port is administratively down or error-disabled in the channel

Why these pairings

In EtherChannel, ports can be in one of three states: bundled, stand-alone, or suspended. A bundled port actively forwards traffic in the channel. A stand-alone port is active but not part of any EtherChannel.

A suspended port is administratively down or error-disabled. The remaining options are distractors that do not match any of these states.

312
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Netmiko device type on the left to its matching OS on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Cisco IOS

Cisco NX-OS

Cisco IOS-XR

Cisco IOS-XE

Cisco ASA

Why these pairings

cisco_ios maps to IOS, cisco_nxos to NX-OS, cisco_xr to IOS-XR, and cisco_xe to IOS-XE. The fifth pair cisco_asa maps to ASA.

313
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of VLAN pruning on trunks using VTP into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

To configure VTP pruning on trunks, first set the VTP domain name and version (C). Then enable VTP pruning globally on the VTP server (A). Next, configure the trunk interface with switchport mode trunk (B).

Then allow VTP pruning on the trunk with the switchport trunk pruning vlan command (D). Finally, verify pruning with show vtp status and show interfaces trunk (E).

314
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each STP variant on the left to its matching IEEE standard on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

IEEE 802.1D

IEEE 802.1w

IEEE 802.1s

Cisco proprietary per-VLAN spanning tree

Why these pairings

STP is 802.1D; RSTP is 802.1w; MSTP is 802.1s; PVST+ is a Cisco proprietary extension of 802.1D.

315
Multi-Selecthard

Which two statements about BGP route selection are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A route with a higher LOCAL_PREF is preferred over a route with a lower LOCAL_PREF.
B.A route learned via eBGP is preferred over a route learned via iBGP, all else being equal.
C.A route with a longer AS_PATH is preferred over a route with a shorter AS_PATH.
D.The MED attribute is always compared regardless of the AS of the neighbor.
E.The IGP metric to the next hop is the first criterion in BGP path selection.
AnswersA, B

Correct because BGP prefers higher local preference.

Why this answer

BGP prefers a route with a higher LOCAL_PREF (local preference) over a lower one. A route learned via eBGP is preferred over iBGP because eBGP routes have a lower administrative distance in the BGP decision process (step 7: prefer eBGP over iBGP). The MED is compared only if the routes are from the same neighboring AS.

The shortest AS_PATH is preferred, not the longest. The IGP metric to the next hop is compared only after many other steps.

316
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about EIGRP stub routing are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A stub router does not send Query packets to its neighbors.
B.A hub router will send queries to a stub router when a route is lost.
C.The 'eigrp stub' command can be configured with the 'connected' keyword to advertise only connected routes.
D.Stub routing is used to reduce the size of the routing table on the hub router.
E.A stub router can be configured as 'receive-only' to not advertise any routes.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct because stub routers are not allowed to originate queries; they rely on the hub for routing information.

Why this answer

EIGRP stub routing is used to limit the query scope and improve convergence. A stub router is typically a spoke in a hub-and-spoke topology. It advertises its directly connected and summary routes to the hub, but does not query its neighbors.

The hub router does not send queries to the stub router. The stub router can be configured with different options: connected, static, summary, receive-only, or redistributed. The 'eigrp stub' command enables this feature.

317
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of PAgP EtherChannel negotiation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

PAgP negotiation begins with ports in auto mode sending PAgP packets, then desirable mode ports reply with PAgP messages, followed by negotiation of parameters, agreement on bundle membership, and finally ports are bundled into EtherChannel.

318
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about NFV MANO (Management and Orchestration) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The NFV Orchestrator (NFVO) is responsible for network service orchestration and resource orchestration across multiple VIMs.
B.The VNF Manager (VNFM) handles lifecycle management of VNF instances, including instantiation, scaling, and termination.
C.The Virtualized Infrastructure Manager (VIM) controls and manages the NFVI compute, storage, and network resources.
D.OSS/BSS systems are part of the NFV MANO framework and directly manage VNF instances.
E.The NFVO directly manages the hypervisor layer to allocate virtual resources to VNFs.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because the NFVO coordinates the lifecycle of network services and manages resource allocation across multiple VIMs and WIMs.

Why this answer

NFV MANO is the architectural framework for managing and orchestrating NFV resources. The NFV Orchestrator (NFVO) coordinates network services across VIMs and WIMs. The VNF Manager (VNFM) handles VNF lifecycle.

The VIM manages NFVI resources. Option A is correct because NFVO handles network service orchestration. Option B is correct because VNFM manages VNF instances.

Option C is correct because VIM controls NFVI compute, storage, and network. Option D is incorrect because OSS/BSS are separate from MANO, though they interact. Option E is incorrect because the NFVO does not directly manage hypervisors; that is the VIM's role.

319
MCQhard

Your company has deployed a Cisco Catalyst 9300 switch stack as the distribution layer for a campus network. The network uses VLANs 10 (data), 20 (voice), and 30 (management). The switch stack is configured with DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI), and IP Source Guard (IPSG) on access ports. Recently, users in VLAN 10 report intermittent connectivity issues. You notice that some users receive duplicate IP addresses from the DHCP server. The DHCP server is connected to a trunk port on the switch stack. After reviewing logs, you see that DHCPACK messages are being dropped on the trunk port. The DHCP snooping binding table shows entries for legitimate clients, but also some entries with MAC addresses from a different vendor. Which action should you take to resolve the issue?

A.Manually shut down the access ports that have unknown MAC addresses in the binding table.
B.Disable Dynamic ARP Inspection on VLAN 10.
C.Configure the trunk port connecting to the DHCP server as a trusted port for DHCP snooping.
D.Disable IP Source Guard on all access ports in VLAN 10.
AnswerC

DHCP snooping drops DHCP server responses on untrusted ports.

Why this answer

The DHCP snooping feature treats all ports as untrusted by default, which means DHCP server messages (DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK) are dropped on untrusted ports. Since the DHCP server is connected to a trunk port and DHCPACK messages are being dropped, that trunk port must be explicitly configured as a trusted port for DHCP snooping using the 'ip dhcp snooping trust' interface command. This allows legitimate DHCP server responses to reach clients, resolving the duplicate IP address issue caused by clients not receiving their assigned addresses.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the default untrusted behavior of DHCP snooping on all ports, tricking candidates into thinking that only access ports need trust configuration, when in fact the port facing the DHCP server (even a trunk) must be explicitly trusted to allow server messages through.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because manually shutting down access ports with unknown MAC addresses in the binding table does not address the root cause—DHCPACK messages being dropped on the trunk port—and would cause unnecessary outages for potentially legitimate clients. Option B is wrong because disabling Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on VLAN 10 would remove ARP validation, which could allow ARP spoofing attacks, and it does not fix the DHCP server message filtering issue. Option D is wrong because disabling IP Source Guard (IPSG) on all access ports in VLAN 10 would remove IP spoofing protection on those ports, and it does not address the DHCP snooping trust configuration on the trunk port where the DHCP server is connected.

320
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about telemetry subscription types in model-driven telemetry are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.In a dial-in subscription, the network device initiates the connection to the telemetry collector.
B.In a dial-out subscription, the network device pushes telemetry data to a configured collector.
C.On-change subscriptions stream data at a regular, user-defined cadence.
D.Periodic subscriptions stream data at a fixed interval, which is defined by the sample-interval parameter.
E.Dial-out subscriptions are less scalable than dial-in subscriptions because each device must manage its own connections.
AnswersB, D

Correct because dial-out subscriptions are device-initiated; the device connects to the collector and streams data.

Why this answer

Dial-in subscriptions are initiated by the collector connecting to the device, while dial-out subscriptions are initiated by the device pushing data to the collector. Periodic subscriptions stream data at fixed intervals, and on-change subscriptions stream data only when a value changes. Cadence is a property of periodic subscriptions, not on-change.

Dial-out is more scalable for many devices because the device manages connections.

321
MCQmedium

Given this configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE router: crypto ikev2 keyring KEYRING peer SPOKE1 address 192.168.2.1 pre-shared-key cisco123 ! crypto ikev2 profile IKEV2_PROF match identity remote address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.255 authentication remote pre-share authentication local pre-share keyring KEYRING ! What is missing from this configuration for a successful IKEv2 tunnel to the peer at 192.168.2.1?

A.The configuration is complete; no additional commands are needed.
B.The profile is missing the 'set transform-set' command to specify the IPsec transform set.
C.The IKEv2 proposal and policy are not defined and must be referenced by the profile or the IPsec profile.
D.The keyring must use a different name to match the profile.
AnswerC

IKEv2 requires a proposal (encryption, integrity, DH group) and a policy to associate the proposal with the profile. Without these, the IKEv2 negotiation will fail.

Why this answer

The configuration is missing an IKEv2 proposal and an IKEv2 policy, which define the encryption, integrity, and DH group parameters for the IKEv2 SA. The profile must reference these via the 'proposal' command under the IKEv2 proposal or the 'match proposal' command under the IKEv2 policy; without them, the router has no agreed-upon parameters to negotiate with the peer, so the tunnel cannot be established.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between IKEv1 and IKEv2 configuration requirements, and the trap here is that candidates assume an IKEv2 profile alone is sufficient, forgetting that IKEv2 still requires explicit proposal and policy definitions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the configuration lacks the mandatory IKEv2 proposal and policy definitions, which are required for IKEv2 SA negotiation. Option B is wrong because the 'set transform-set' command belongs to an IPsec profile (crypto ipsec profile), not an IKEv2 profile; the IKEv2 profile handles authentication and key exchange, not IPsec transforms. Option D is wrong because the keyring name must match the one referenced in the profile (KEYRING), and it does; there is no requirement for a different name.

322
MCQhard

A network engineer is configuring model-driven telemetry on a Cisco IOS-XE device that is part of a DNA Center managed fabric. The telemetry subscription configuration is: telemetry ietf subscription 101 encoding encode-kvgpb filter xpath /process-cpu-ios-xe-oper:cpu-usage/cpu-utilization stream yang-push update-policy periodic 500 receiver ip address 10.10.10.10 port 5555 protocol grpc-tcp What is the purpose of the 'encoding encode-kvgpb' line?

A.It sets the encoding to JSON format for the telemetry data.
B.It specifies that the data should be encoded using Google Protocol Buffers (protobuf) with key-value pairs.
C.It enables encryption of the telemetry data.
D.It defines the compression algorithm for the telemetry stream.
AnswerB

Correct. KVGPB is a protobuf-based encoding optimized for telemetry.

Why this answer

The 'encoding encode-kvgpb' specifies that the telemetry data should be encoded using KVGPB (Key-Value Google Protocol Buffers), which is a compact binary encoding used for efficient data transmission.

323
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DNA Center site hierarchy creation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with defining the top-level site (e.g., continent or country), then adds the area, then the building, then the floor, and finally assigns the floor plan. This hierarchical structure is required for proper network segmentation and assurance in Cisco DNA Center.

324
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Cisco DNA Center software image management are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Cisco DNA Center allows administrators to define a golden image for each device family to enforce consistent software versions.
B.Cisco DNA Center can perform distributed software upgrades using a staging area on the device itself.
C.Cisco DNA Center automatically reboots devices after an image upgrade without any administrator confirmation.
D.Cisco DNA Center can compare the running image on a device against the golden image and report compliance status.
E.Cisco DNA Center uses the device's configuration file to determine the required image version.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because golden images are a core feature to standardize OS versions across the network.

Why this answer

DNA Center provides centralized image management with golden images, distributed upgrades, and compliance checks. The correct answers cover these key features. The incorrect options confuse image management with configuration backup or misstate the upgrade process (no automatic reboot without approval).

325
Multi-Selecthard

Which two statements about Cisco SD-WAN overlay routing and OMP are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.OMP (Overlay Management Protocol) is used to exchange routing, policy, and service information between vSmart controllers and vEdge routers.
B.OMP supports both IPv4 and IPv6 prefix advertisements within the SD-WAN overlay.
C.OMP runs directly between vEdge routers to establish a full mesh of routing adjacencies.
D.OMP routes are automatically redistributed into the local BGP process on the vEdge router.
E.OMP uses UDP port 12346 for communication between vSmart and vEdge devices.
AnswersA, B

Correct because OMP is the protocol that carries routes, TLOCs, and service chaining information between the control plane (vSmart) and data plane (vEdge).

Why this answer

OMP is the protocol used to exchange routing and service information between vSmart and vEdge devices. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 prefixes. OMP does not run between vEdge routers directly; it is a client-server protocol with vSmart as the server.

OMP routes are not redistributed into BGP by default; redistribution must be configured. OMP uses TCP port 12346, not UDP.

326
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of EtherChannel load-balancing hash configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Configuration begins with selecting hash algorithm, then applying it globally, verifying on interfaces, checking load distribution, and finally adjusting if needed.

327
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each NAPALM getter on the left to its matching returned data on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Device hostname, vendor, model, OS version, serial number

Interface name, description, IP address, status, speed

BGP neighbor IP, remote AS, state, uptime

LLDP neighbor device ID, port ID, platform

Power supply, fan, temperature status

Why these pairings

get_facts returns device facts like hostname and OS version, get_interfaces returns interface details, get_bgp_neighbors returns BGP neighbor information, get_lldp_neighbors returns LLDP neighbor data, and get_environment returns power and fan status.

328
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about EIGRP named mode configuration are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Named mode uses the 'router eigrp <name>' command to enter configuration mode.
B.In named mode, the network statement is replaced by the 'af-interface' configuration under the address family.
C.Named mode supports both IPv4 and IPv6 address families within the same EIGRP process.
D.The 'address-family ipv4' command is used to enter IPv4 configuration under named mode.
E.Named mode requires the 'no shutdown' command under the address family to enable EIGRP.
AnswersA, C, D

Correct because named mode starts with 'router eigrp <name>', where <name> is a case-sensitive tag.

Why this answer

EIGRP named mode uses a hierarchical configuration under a single router process, supporting address families (IPv4, IPv6) and VRFs. It simplifies configuration and allows per-interface settings.

329
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each TrustSec component on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

16-bit security group tag assigned to traffic

Access control list based on SGTs

Protocol to propagate SGTs across non-TrustSec devices

Layer 2 encryption for point-to-point links

Cisco TrustSec architecture framework

Why these pairings

SGT is the tag, SGACL is the policy, SXP propagates tags, MACsec encrypts the link.

330
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Ansible modules and idempotency are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Idempotency means that running a playbook multiple times will always result in the same final state on the managed node.
B.The 'command' module is idempotent by default because it always runs the given command.
C.The 'copy' module is idempotent because it checks the checksum of the destination file before copying.
D.All Ansible modules are inherently idempotent regardless of how they are implemented.
E.Idempotency only applies to network modules, not to Linux system modules.
AnswersA, C

Correct because idempotency ensures that repeated application of the same configuration does not change the system beyond the desired state.

Why this answer

Ansible modules are designed to be idempotent, meaning repeated runs produce the same state. The 'command' and 'shell' modules are not idempotent by default. Modules like 'copy' and 'template' check current state before making changes.

331
Matchingmedium

Match each routing protocol to its administrative distance.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

110

90

120

20

115

Why these pairings

Administrative distances are used to select the best route when multiple routing protocols provide routes to the same destination.

332
MCQeasy

What is the maximum hop count for EIGRP?

A.255
B.15
C.224
D.Unlimited
AnswerA

EIGRP's maximum hop count is 255, inherited from IGRP.

Why this answer

EIGRP uses a maximum hop count of 255 to prevent routing loops, as defined in RFC 7868. This is a hard-coded limit in the protocol, and routes with a hop count exceeding 255 are considered unreachable.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the EIGRP hop count limit to confuse candidates who associate hop counts with RIP (15) or confuse the value with the EIGRP multicast address (224.0.0.10).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 15 is the maximum hop count for RIP (Routing Information Protocol), not EIGRP. Option C is wrong because 224 is the multicast address (224.0.0.10) used by EIGRP for hello packets, not a hop count limit. Option D is wrong because EIGRP does have a finite hop count limit of 255, not an unlimited value, to ensure loop prevention and route convergence.

333
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about VRF-aware services are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.VRF-lite allows multiple routing instances on a single router using separate routing tables.
B.VRF-aware services such as DHCP and NAT can be configured independently per VRF.
C.VRF instances are only supported on routers running MPLS VPN.
D.Route leaking between VRFs is not supported in Cisco IOS.
E.All VRFs on a router must share the same global routing table.
AnswersA, B

Correct because VRF-lite creates separate virtual routing and forwarding tables on a single device, enabling path isolation without MPLS.

Why this answer

VRF-aware services allow network functions to operate within the context of a specific VRF, enabling per-VRF routing and forwarding. Option A is correct because VRF-lite provides multiple routing instances on a single router by maintaining separate routing tables for each VRF, using either static or dynamic routing. Option B is correct because services like DHCP and NAT can be configured independently per VRF, allowing address translation and address assignment to be isolated per VRF.

Option C is incorrect because VRF instances are not limited to MPLS VPN environments; they can be used in VRF-lite deployments without MPLS. Option D is incorrect because route leaking between VRFs is supported in Cisco IOS through manual configuration (e.g., route import/export) or using VRF-lite with route replication. Option E is incorrect because each VRF has its own routing table, separate from the global routing table; VRFs do not share a common global routing table.

334
MCQmedium

A network engineer is deploying model-driven telemetry on a Cisco Nexus 9000 switch to monitor BGP prefix changes. The engineer wants to use YANG data models and prefers a transport protocol that is lightweight and uses UDP. Which transport protocol should the engineer select for the telemetry stream?

A.gRPC
B.NETCONF
C.RESTCONF
D.SNMP
AnswerD

SNMP uses UDP as its transport protocol, making it lightweight and meeting the engineer's preference. Although SNMP is not based on YANG models, it is the only option that uses UDP.

Why this answer

The engineer explicitly prefers a lightweight transport protocol using UDP. Among the options, only SNMP uses UDP as its transport. Although SNMP is not a model-driven telemetry protocol (it uses MIBs instead of YANG models), the question's requirement for UDP overrides this. gRPC, NETCONF, and RESTCONF all use TCP, so they do not satisfy the UDP requirement.

Therefore, SNMP is the correct answer in this scenario.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates often associate model-driven telemetry with gRPC and ignore the UDP requirement. They may choose gRPC because it is the standard for YANG-based telemetry, but the question explicitly requires a UDP transport.

335
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IP Source Guard binding and enforcement into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

IP Source Guard first builds the binding from DHCP snooping, then installs a per-port ACL to permit only the bound IP, applies the ACL to the access port, checks all incoming IP traffic against the ACL, and drops any traffic with a source IP not in the binding.

336
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NFV MANO (VNFM/NFVO/VIM) interaction flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The interaction flow begins with the NFVO receiving a service request from OSS/BSS. The NFVO then requests resource allocation from the VIM. The VIM allocates resources and reports back.

Next, the NFVO instructs the VNFM to instantiate the VNF. Finally, the VNFM configures and starts the VNF on the allocated resources.

337
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MP-BGP VPNv4 route advertisement between PE routers into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with the PE learning the customer route via IGP or static, then redistributing it into MP-BGP as a VPNv4 route with a route distinguisher, advertising it to the other PE via MP-BGP update, the receiving PE importing the route based on matching route targets, and finally installing the route into the appropriate VRF.

338
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each OSPF area type on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Must connect all other areas and cannot be a stub

Blocks Type 5 LSAs; uses a default route for external destinations

Blocks Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs; uses a default route for all inter-area and external destinations

Allows Type 7 LSAs for external routes; ABR translates them to Type 5

Permits all LSA types including Type 3, 4, and 5

Why these pairings

The backbone area (Area 0) connects all other areas. A stub area blocks Type 5 LSAs and uses a default route. A totally stubby area blocks both Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs, using only a default route.

An NSSA (Not-So-Stubby Area) allows Type 7 LSAs for external routes and converts them to Type 5 at the ABR.

339
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO features are part of Cisco TrustSec for providing role-based access control?

Select 2 answers
A.Security Group Access Control Lists (SGACLs)
B.Change of Authorization (CoA)
C.802.1X authentication
D.Security Group Tags (SGTs)
E.MACsec encryption
AnswersA, D

SGACLs enforce policies based on SGTs.

Why this answer

Security Group Access Control Lists (SGACLs) are a core component of Cisco TrustSec, enforcing role-based access control by applying policies based on Security Group Tags (SGTs). SGACLs replace traditional IP-based ACLs, allowing dynamic, identity-aware traffic filtering that scales across the network.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the authentication mechanism (802.1X) and the authorization/enforcement components (SGTs and SGACLs), leading candidates to mistakenly select 802.1X as a TrustSec RBAC feature.

340
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) high availability (SSO) are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.In an SSO pair, the standby WLC maintains synchronized client and AP state information via a dedicated link.
B.SSO requires both WLCs to be connected to the same Layer 2 network for the redundant management interface.
C.During a failover event, all client sessions are dropped and must re-associate with the new active WLC.
D.SSO can be configured between any two WLC models regardless of hardware platform.
E.SSO supports only a single AP per WLC pair.
AnswersA, B

Correct because SSO uses a dedicated redundancy link to keep the standby WLC fully synchronized with the active WLC.

Why this answer

SSO uses a pair of WLCs in active/standby mode with stateful failover. The standby maintains synchronized client and AP state. A Layer 2 link is required between the two WLCs for the redundant management interface.

SSO does not require identical hardware models, but they must be from the same platform family.

341
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about DHCP snooping are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.DHCP snooping builds a binding database by examining DHCPACK messages received on trusted ports.
B.Ports connected to DHCP servers should be configured as trusted ports to allow server messages.
C.The ip dhcp snooping limit rate command is used to restrict the number of DHCP packets per second on trusted ports.
D.DHCP snooping can insert Option 82 information into DHCP requests received on untrusted ports.
E.DHCP snooping prevents rogue DHCP server attacks by blocking all DHCP server messages on trusted ports.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because the switch populates the DHCP snooping binding table using the client information from DHCPACK packets.

Why this answer

DHCP snooping is a security feature that filters untrusted DHCP messages. It builds a binding database from DHCPACK messages. Trusted ports are typically uplinks to DHCP servers.

The rate limit is applied on untrusted ports to prevent DHCP starvation. Option 82 (relay agent information) is inserted by the switch on untrusted ports. DHCP snooping does not prevent rogue DHCP servers on trusted ports, as those are allowed by default.

342
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Cisco DNA Center integration with Cisco SD-Access are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco DNA Center is used to design and provision the SD-Access fabric, including defining virtual networks and host pools.
B.Cisco DNA Center automatically configures OSPF as the control plane protocol for SD-Access.
C.Cisco DNA Center can enforce group-based policies using Scalable Group Tags (SGTs) in the SD-Access fabric.
D.Cisco DNA Center requires a separate WAN controller to manage SD-Access border nodes.
E.Cisco DNA Center configures SD-Access edge nodes as the core routers of the network.
AnswersA, C

Correct because DNA Center provides the GUI and API to create fabric domains, IP pools, and virtual networks (VRFs).

Why this answer

DNA Center is the management and automation platform for SD-Access. The correct answers describe its role in fabric design and policy enforcement. The incorrect options misrepresent the control plane (LISP, not OSPF), the border role (fabric exit, not WAN), and the device role (edge, not core).

343
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SD-Access fabric node onboarding into DNA Center into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order begins with physical connectivity and discovery, followed by adding the device to inventory, assigning it to a site, configuring the network profile and fabric role, and finally provisioning the node. This sequence ensures the device is discovered, recognized, and properly configured within the SD-Access fabric.

344
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NetFlow v9 cache export process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

NetFlow v9 export starts with packet arrival, then flow creation and cache update. When export conditions are met, the template is sent first, followed by data records. Finally, the flow is aged out.

345
MCQeasy

A network engineer is designing a disaster recovery solution using VMware vSphere. The engineer needs to replicate virtual machines from the primary site to a secondary site with minimal downtime. The application VMs are running on NFS datastores. The engineer plans to use vSphere Replication. What prerequisite must be met for vSphere Replication to work with NFS datastores?

A.The NFS datastores must be mounted on both the source and target ESXi hosts.
B.The NFS datastores must be backed by a storage array that supports snapshot offloading.
C.The VMs must be configured with thick provisioning eager zeroed disks.
D.The NFS datastores must be part of a vSAN cluster.
AnswerA

Correct because vSphere Replication needs access to the source datastore to read data and the target datastore to write replicas.

Why this answer

vSphere Replication operates at the hypervisor level, replicating VM data from the source ESXi host to the target ESXi host. For NFS datastores, the source and target hosts must each have the NFS datastore mounted because vSphere Replication reads the VM files from the source NFS mount and writes them to the target NFS mount. Without both mounts, the replication engine cannot access the source data or place the replica on the target storage.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that NFS datastores require array-level features (like snapshot offloading) or special disk provisioning for replication, when in fact vSphere Replication only needs both source and target hosts to have the NFS datastore mounted to read and write VM data.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because snapshot offloading is a feature of storage array-based replication (e.g., VAAI for array snapshots), not a requirement for vSphere Replication, which uses host-based replication and does not depend on storage array capabilities. Option C is wrong because vSphere Replication supports thin and thick provisioned disks; thick provisioning eager zeroed is not a prerequisite, and using it would unnecessarily consume storage space without enabling replication. Option D is wrong because vSAN is a separate hyper-converged storage solution; vSphere Replication works independently of vSAN and does not require NFS datastores to be part of a vSAN cluster.

346
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SD-WAN edge device (vEdge/cEdge) bring-up sequence into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order follows the Cisco SD-WAN device bootstrapping process: first the device obtains an IP address via DHCP, then it discovers the vManage using DNS or a redirect server, establishes a DTLS/TLS control connection to vManage, downloads its configuration, and finally establishes OMP sessions with vSmart controllers.

347
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each NAT terminology on the left to its matching definition on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

The IP address of a host as seen from the internal network

The translated public IP address of an internal host

The IP address of a remote host as seen from the inside network

The actual public IP address of a remote host

The device behind the NAT that initiates traffic

Why these pairings

Inside global is the translated public IP address of an internal host. Inside local is the private IP address of a host as seen from the internal network. Outside local is the IP address of a remote host as seen from the inside network.

Outside global is the actual public IP address of a remote host. Inside host is the device behind the NAT that initiates traffic.

348
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of using a REST API to retrieve interface statistics from a Cisco device into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The process starts with authenticating to the device's REST API, then constructing the GET request for the interface statistics endpoint. The device processes the request, retrieves the data, and sends a JSON response. The client then parses the JSON to extract the statistics.

349
Multi-Selecteasy

Which two statements about network design for high availability are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.HSRP allows two or more routers to share a virtual IP address, providing default gateway redundancy.
B.HSRP automatically load-balances traffic across all routers in the group.
C.StackWise Virtual allows two physical switches to operate as a single logical switch for redundancy.
D.A single uplink from an access switch to the distribution layer is sufficient for high availability.
E.Redundant links between switches do not require Spanning Tree Protocol to prevent loops.
AnswersA, C

Correct because HSRP enables a group of routers to present a single virtual gateway, with one active and one standby.

Why this answer

High availability design aims to minimize downtime through redundancy and fast convergence. First Hop Redundancy Protocols (FHRP) like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP provide default gateway redundancy. StackWise Virtual allows switches to operate as a single logical device, improving redundancy and simplifying management.

Option A is correct because HSRP provides active/standby gateway redundancy. Option C is correct because StackWise Virtual virtualizes two switches into one, reducing complexity and improving resilience. Option B is incorrect because HSRP does not provide load balancing by default (GLBP does).

Option D is incorrect because a single uplink is a single point of failure; high availability requires redundant links. Option E is incorrect because redundant links without STP or loop prevention would cause broadcast storms; STP is essential.

350
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Cisco SD-WAN control plane components are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.vSmart controllers are responsible for distributing OMP routes and policies to vEdge routers.
B.vBond orchestrators authenticate and onboard vEdge routers into the SD-WAN fabric.
C.vEdge routers function as the control plane devices that maintain the routing table for the entire SD-WAN domain.
D.vManage is the control plane component that distributes BGP routes to all WAN Edge routers.
E.TLOCs are used by vSmart controllers to redistribute routes between different OMP instances.
AnswersA, B

Correct because vSmart controllers act as the central control plane, disseminating Overlay Management Protocol (OMP) information and policy to all WAN Edge devices.

Why this answer

The Cisco SD-WAN control plane consists of vSmart controllers that distribute OMP routes and vBond orchestrators that authenticate and onboard devices. vEdge routers are data plane devices, not control plane. vManage is a management plane component. TLOCs are used for transport location identification, not for route redistribution.

351
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about STP topology changes and convergence are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A switch that detects a topology change sends a TCN BPDU toward the root bridge.
B.The root bridge sets the Topology Change (TC) flag in its BPDUs after receiving a TCN.
C.When the TC flag is set, switches reduce the MAC address aging timer to the forward delay time.
D.The Max Age timer is used to flush MAC address entries during a topology change.
E.The forward delay timer determines how long a switch waits before transitioning from listening to learning state.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because the TCN (Topology Change Notification) is sent to inform the root bridge of a change.

Why this answer

When a topology change occurs in 802.1D STP, the switch that detects the change sends a TCN BPDU toward the root bridge. The root bridge then sets the TC flag in its BPDUs, causing all switches to shorten their MAC address aging timers to flush stale entries. This process ensures rapid convergence of the forwarding database.

The Max Age timer is used to age out BPDU information, not to flush MAC addresses. The forward delay timer is used during listening and learning states, not directly for MAC aging.

352
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.NetFlow records are unidirectional by default.
B.Sampled NetFlow reduces CPU impact by analyzing only a subset of packets.
C.Flexible NetFlow can export user-defined flow keys using NetFlow v5 format.
D.NetFlow can be used as a replacement for SNMP polling for interface utilization.
E.NetFlow v9 supports only IPv4 traffic.
AnswersA, B

Correct because NetFlow aggregates packets based on flow keys (e.g., source/destination IP, ports) and records traffic in one direction only.

Why this answer

NetFlow is a Cisco technology that collects IP traffic statistics. Traditional NetFlow (v5/v9) is unidirectional and sampled flow is used to reduce CPU load. Flexible NetFlow allows user-defined keys but still exports in NetFlow v9 or IPFIX format.

NetFlow does not replace SNMP; they serve different purposes.

353
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each ACL type on the left to its matching capability on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Filters based on source IP address only

Filters based on source/destination IP, protocol, and port numbers

Allows identification by alphanumeric name instead of number

Applies a time range to restrict access during specific periods

Authenticates a user and then opens a temporary hole in the firewall

Why these pairings

Standard ACLs filter only source IP; Extended ACLs filter source/dest IP, protocol, and ports; Named ACLs allow identification by name; Time-based ACLs use time ranges; Dynamic ACLs authenticate per-user.

354
MCQeasy

A network engineer uses the following Python script with Netmiko to send a command to a Cisco IOS-XE device: ```python from netmiko import ConnectHandler device = { 'device_type': 'cisco_ios', 'ip': '10.1.1.1', 'username': 'admin', 'password': 'password', 'secret': 'enable_secret' } connection = ConnectHandler(**device) output = connection.send_command('show ip interface brief') print(output) connection.disconnect() ``` What is the purpose of the 'secret' parameter in the device dictionary?

A.It is used for SSH key-based authentication.
B.It is used to enter enable mode after connecting to the device.
C.It is used to encrypt the session.
D.It is used to set the SNMP community string.
AnswerB

The 'secret' parameter provides the enable password to enter privileged EXEC mode.

Why this answer

The 'secret' parameter is used to enter enable mode (privileged EXEC mode) on Cisco devices. Netmiko will automatically use this password to elevate privileges after connecting.

355
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SNMPv3 security level on the left to its matching protection description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

No authentication and no encryption

Authentication with MD5 or SHA, no encryption

Authentication and encryption (e.g., DES, AES)

Uses SHA for authentication only

Uses SHA for authentication and AES for encryption

Why these pairings

noAuthNoPriv provides no authentication or encryption; authNoPriv provides authentication only; authPriv provides both authentication and encryption.

356
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of service function chaining (SFC) path setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

SFC path setup starts with the classifier identifying traffic to be steered, then the classifier adds an NSH encapsulation to the packet. The first SFF receives the packet and forwards it to the first SF. After processing, the SF returns the packet to the SFF, which then forwards it to the next SFF in the chain.

This repeats until the packet reaches the last SFF, which removes the NSH and forwards the packet.

357
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each VLAN type on the left to its matching purpose on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Carries user data traffic

Carries VoIP traffic, typically uses QoS

Used for out-of-band management access

Carries untagged frames on a trunk port

VLAN 1 by default on all Cisco switches

Why these pairings

Data VLAN carries user traffic; voice VLAN carries VoIP; management VLAN for device access; native VLAN for untagged frames on trunk; default VLAN is VLAN 1.

358
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about syslog configuration on Cisco IOS devices are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The command 'logging host 192.168.1.100' configures the device to send syslog messages to the server at that IP address.
B.The command 'logging trap 4' configures the device to send syslog messages with severity 4 (warnings) and higher (0-4) to the syslog server.
C.The command 'logging source-interface Loopback0' ensures that syslog messages use the Loopback0 IP address as the source.
D.The default logging trap level on Cisco IOS is level 7 (debugging).
E.The command 'logging console 3' limits syslog messages displayed on the console to severity 3 (errors) and lower (0-3).
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because 'logging host' specifies the destination syslog server IP address.

Why this answer

The logging host command specifies the syslog server IP. The logging trap level sets the severity for messages sent to the syslog server; default is level 6 (informational). The logging source-interface sets the source IP of syslog packets.

The logging buffered command stores messages in RAM. The logging console command affects messages sent to the console port, not to the syslog server.

359
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO are benefits of using a spine-leaf architecture in a data center? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Predictable latency between any two devices
B.Increased number of single points of failure
C.Increased broadcast domain size
D.Reduced need for VLANs
E.Higher bandwidth utilization through multiple equal-cost paths
AnswersA, E

Traffic always traverses one spine hop, resulting in consistent latency.

Why this answer

A is correct because spine-leaf architecture ensures that every leaf switch is connected to every spine switch, creating a full-mesh topology. This design guarantees that traffic between any two leaf switches traverses at most one spine hop, resulting in predictable, consistent latency regardless of which devices are communicating.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that spine-leaf eliminates VLANs or reduces broadcast domains, but the architecture actually uses Layer 3 routing to contain broadcast domains while still requiring VLANs for Layer 2 segmentation at the leaf level.

360
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of WPA3 client authentication process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

WPA3 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) handshake. The client first sends an SAE commit to the AP, the AP responds with its own SAE commit, then both compute a shared key. Next, the client sends an SAE confirm message, and finally the AP sends its SAE confirm to complete authentication.

361
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of WPA3 client authentication process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

WPA3 uses SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) handshake. First, the AP announces WPA3 capability in beacons. The client then initiates the SAE commit exchange, followed by the SAE confirm exchange.

After SAE completes, the 4-Way Handshake occurs, and finally group key is installed.

362
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MST region configuration and operation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

MST configuration begins with entering MST mode and defining the region name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping. After configuration, the switch computes an MD5 digest of the MST configuration to identify region membership. Switches in the same region then run IST (Internal Spanning Tree) and CIST (Common and Internal Spanning Tree) to elect a root bridge for the region.

Finally, per-instance spanning trees are calculated within the region.

363
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Control Plane Policing (CoPP) rate-limit evaluation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

CoPP first classifies traffic using an access list, then matches it to a class map, then applies a policy map with a police action (rate-limit), activates the policy on the control plane, and finally the hardware performs policing.

364
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of sFlow agent sampling and forwarding steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

sFlow begins with the agent sampling packets at a configured rate, then extracts header and counter information, encapsulates the sample into an sFlow datagram, sends the datagram to the collector via UDP, and finally the collector analyzes the samples for monitoring.

365
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each flow record field on the left to its matching category (key or non-key) on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Key field

Key field

Key field

Non-key field

Non-key field

Why these pairings

Key fields define the flow identity (e.g., IP addresses, ports, protocol). Non-key fields provide additional information about the flow (e.g., packet counts, timestamps, TCP flags).

366
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Cisco DNA Center automation workflows are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco DNA Center supports Plug and Play (PnP) for zero-touch device onboarding.
B.Cisco DNA Center uses template-based provisioning to apply consistent configurations across devices.
C.Cisco DNA Center only supports GUI-based configuration; CLI access is not available.
D.Cisco DNA Center automates configuration of all network devices, including third-party switches.
E.Cisco DNA Center uses SNMP to push configuration changes to devices.
AnswersA, B

Correct because PnP is a built-in feature of DNA Center that automates the initial deployment of new devices without manual intervention.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center uses intent-based APIs and templates to automate network provisioning. The correct answers highlight key automation capabilities: PnP for zero-touch deployment and template-based provisioning for consistent configuration. The incorrect options misrepresent the GUI-only nature (CLI is also available via templates), the role of Assurance (monitoring, not configuration), the scope of SD-Access (fabric, not all devices), and the integration method (REST APIs, not SNMP).

367
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about NAT traversal and translation are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.IPsec NAT traversal uses UDP encapsulation on port 4500 to allow ESP traffic to pass through a NAT device.
B.The ip nat outside source command translates the source IP address of packets arriving on the outside interface.
C.NAT can translate both source and destination IP addresses in the same packet for different translation rules.
D.NAT automatically translates IP addresses embedded in application-layer payloads such as FTP or SIP.
E.The ip nat inside destination command translates the destination MAC address of packets entering the inside interface.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because NAT-T encapsulates ESP in UDP port 4500 to avoid issues with NAT modifying the IP header.

Why this answer

NAT traversal for IPsec uses UDP encapsulation (4500) to allow ESP through NAT devices. NAT can translate both source and destination addresses simultaneously in different scenarios. The ip nat outside source command translates source addresses of packets entering the outside interface.

NAT can cause issues with applications that embed IP addresses in payload (e.g., FTP, SIP). NAT does not translate MAC addresses, only IP and port information. The ip nat inside destination command translates destination addresses of packets entering the inside interface.

368
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Netmiko multi-threaded device polling workflow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The workflow begins by importing required modules (threading and Netmiko), defining a function for device connection and command execution, creating a list of devices, then using threading.Thread to spawn threads for each device, and finally joining threads to wait for completion.

369
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Ansible Tower (AWX) job template execution steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In Ansible Tower/AWX, a job template execution starts with creating the template, launching it, which triggers inventory and credential resolution, then the playbook runs, and finally the job output is displayed for review.

370
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of syslog message generation and storage into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

A process or kernel generates a syslog message with a facility and severity, the syslogd daemon compares the severity to the configured logging level, then writes the message to the local buffer, optionally forwards it to a remote syslog server, and finally the message is stored or displayed.

371
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MPLS L2VPN (AToM) pseudowire setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

AToM pseudowire setup starts with configuring the attachment circuit on both PE routers. Then a pseudowire class is defined, specifying encapsulation and control word. The VC label is signaled via LDP, and the pseudowire is bound to the attachment circuit.

Finally, the pseudowire becomes operational and forwards L2 frames.

372
Drag & Drophard

Drag and drop the steps of DMVPN phase 2 spoke-to-spoke tunnel establishment into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In DMVPN phase 2, each spoke first registers with the hub via mGRE and NHRP. When a spoke wants to reach another spoke, it sends an NHRP Resolution Request to the hub. The hub forwards the request to the destination spoke, which replies with its real (non-NBMA) address.

The source spoke then initiates a direct mGRE tunnel to the destination spoke, and finally the spokes exchange routing information over the direct tunnel.

373
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each Ansible variable precedence level on the left to its matching scope on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Highest precedence, passed via --extra-vars on command line

Lowest precedence, defined in defaults/main.yml of a role

Variables specific to a single host, defined in host_vars/

Variables applied to all hosts in a group, defined in group_vars/

Variables defined in the vars: section of a play

Why these pairings

Extra-vars override all others, role defaults have lowest precedence, host vars apply per host, group vars apply per group, and play vars apply to the entire play.

374
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Netconf/Yang-based device monitoring subscription into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First establish NETCONF session, then subscribe to YANG data, then receive periodic updates, and finally unsubscribe.

375
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each WAN technology on the left to its matching layer on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Layer 2.5

Layer 2

Layer 3 and above

Layer 3

Layer 3

Why these pairings

MPLS operates at Layer 2.5 (shim header between Layer 2 and Layer 3). Metro Ethernet is a Layer 2 technology. SD-WAN abstracts the underlay and operates at Layer 3 and above.

DMVPN is a Layer 3 VPN overlay.

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