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ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 10511125

1175 questions total · 16pages · All types, answers revealed

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1051
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.MSTP allows multiple VLANs to be grouped into a single spanning-tree instance, reducing CPU and memory usage.
B.In MSTP, the Internal Spanning Tree (IST) instance is instance 0 and is always present in every MST region.
C.MSTP requires that all switches in the same MST region have the same VLAN-to-instance mapping, revision number, and region name.
D.MSTP automatically load-balances traffic across all available uplinks without any configuration.
E.MSTP requires a separate root bridge to be elected for each VLAN in the network.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct. This is the primary benefit of MSTP: mapping many VLANs to fewer STP instances.

Why this answer

MSTP (IEEE 802.1s) allows multiple VLANs to be mapped to a single spanning-tree instance (MST instance), reducing the number of STP instances needed. It uses an Internal Spanning Tree (IST) instance (instance 0) that always runs and carries BPDUs for the region. Switches in the same MST region must have identical VLAN-to-instance mappings, revision number, and region name.

MSTP interoperates with Rapid PVST+ at region boundaries by using PVST simulation mode. MSTP does not require a separate root bridge for each VLAN; instead, each MST instance has its own root bridge.

1052
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each PIM message type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Discovers PIM neighbors and maintains adjacency

Requests to receive multicast traffic for a specific group (or S,G)

Requests to stop receiving multicast traffic for a specific group (or S,G)

Resolves which PIM router forwards multicast traffic on a multi-access network

Distributes RP information in PIM Sparse Mode

Why these pairings

PIM Hello discovers neighbors and maintains adjacency; Join is used to join a multicast tree; Prune is used to leave a tree; Assert resolves duplicate forwarding on a multi-access network; Bootstrap messages are used in PIM SM to distribute RP information.

1053
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of uRPF (Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding) verification into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

uRPF verification involves checking CEF tables, interface configuration, and packet statistics. The order ensures systematic troubleshooting: start with global CEF, then interface config, then verification commands.

1054
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW1: SW1# show dtp interface gi0/1 DTP information on GigabitEthernet0/1: DTP: Enabled DTP mode: Desirable DTP negotiate: TRUE DTP status: Trunk DTP trunk status: Trunking DTP timer: 30 DTP max-age: 2 DTP encapsulation: 802.1q DTP refresh rate: Both DTP requests: 10 DTP errors: 0 Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.The interface is in access mode.
B.The interface will not form a trunk unless the neighbor is set to trunk or desirable.
C.The interface is using ISL encapsulation.
D.DTP is disabled on this interface.
AnswerB

DTP mode desirable actively sends DTP frames to form a trunk; it can form a trunk with a neighbor set to trunk, desirable, or auto.

Why this answer

The output shows DTP is enabled, mode is 'Desirable', and the interface is already trunking with 802.1q encapsulation. Option A is incorrect because the interface is trunking, not in access mode. Option B is incorrect because dynamic desirable can form a trunk with dynamic auto as well as trunk or desirable modes; the statement that it 'will not form a trunk unless the neighbor is set to trunk or desirable' is false.

Option C is incorrect because encapsulation is 802.1q, not ISL. Option D is incorrect because DTP is enabled. Since all provided options are incorrect, no correct conclusion can be selected from the given choices.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that dynamic desirable only forms a trunk with trunk or other desirable interfaces, but it can also form a trunk with dynamic auto. Additionally, the output indicates the link is already trunking, so statements about future trunk formation are not directly concluded.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the interface is in trunking state (DTP status: Trunking), not access mode. Option C is wrong because the output explicitly shows 'DTP encapsulation: 802.1q', not ISL. Option D is wrong because the output shows 'DTP: Enabled', so DTP is clearly enabled on this interface.

1055
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of RADIUS CoA (Change of Authorization) message flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

RADIUS CoA allows a server to dynamically change a session's authorization. The server sends a CoA-Request to the network access server (NAS). The NAS acknowledges with CoA-ACK and applies the new policy.

If the session is affected, the NAS may send a disconnect or re-authenticate.

1056
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Flexible NetFlow are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Flexible NetFlow allows administrators to define custom flow records with specific match and collect fields.
B.Flexible NetFlow can only export data in NetFlow v5 format.
C.A single flow monitor can be attached to multiple interfaces in both directions.
D.Flexible NetFlow requires the use of a dedicated hardware module for flow processing.
E.Flexible NetFlow cannot be used with MPLS traffic.
AnswersA, C

FNF lets you create custom records specifying key (match) and non-key (collect) fields.

Why this answer

Flexible NetFlow (FNF) extends traditional NetFlow by allowing user-defined flow records, keys, and non-key fields. It supports multiple flow exporters and can aggregate data using flow caches. FNF is configured using the 'flow record' and 'flow monitor' CLI commands.

1057
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MPLS traffic engineering (MPLS-TE) tunnel setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, IGP must be configured with TE extensions (e.g., OSPF TE) to flood link attributes. Then MPLS-TE is enabled on interfaces. The headend router computes a path using CSPF based on constraints.

The tunnel interface is configured with the destination and constraints. Finally, RSVP-TE signals the LSP and reserves bandwidth along the path.

1058
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring an IP SLA UDP jitter operation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for configuring an IP SLA UDP jitter operation is: first enter global configuration mode (A), then define the IP SLA operation with type udp-jitter (B), then specify the destination IP address and UDP port (C), then schedule the operation using a start-time (D), and finally verify the operation with 'show ip sla statistics' (E).

Exam trap

A common trap is to think verification comes first; but you must configure before you can verify.

1059
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each IP SLA tracking object on the left to its application on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Install or remove a static route

Adjust HSRP priority

Change policy routing

Adjust VRRP priority

Adjust GLBP weighting

Why these pairings

Static route uses tracking to install or remove a route; HSRP uses tracking to adjust priority; PBR uses tracking to change policy routing; VRRP uses tracking for priority; GLBP uses tracking for weighting.

1060
Multi-Selecteasy

Which three statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.SSL VPNs use the TLS protocol to encrypt traffic between client and server.
B.SSL VPNs require a pre-shared key for authentication.
C.Clientless SSL VPN access allows users to access web applications using only a browser.
D.SSL VPNs can only operate over TCP port 443.
E.SSL VPNs support port forwarding for non-web applications.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct because SSL VPNs are based on TLS (formerly SSL).

Why this answer

SSL VPNs use TLS for encryption, can provide clientless access via web browser, and support port forwarding for legacy applications. They do not require IPsec and can use any port (typically 443).

1061
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each traffic shaping or policing characteristic on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Buffers excess packets to send later, smoothing traffic rate

Drops or re-marks packets exceeding the configured rate

Uses a token bucket plus a queue to hold excess packets

Uses a token bucket without a queue; excess is dropped or re-marked

Typically applied inbound to enforce ingress rate limits

Why these pairings

Shaping buffers excess traffic to smooth bursts; policing drops or re-marks excess traffic; shaping uses a token bucket with a queue; policing typically uses a single or dual token bucket without queuing; policing can be applied inbound or outbound.

1062
Multi-Selecthard

Which four statements about VXLAN encapsulation in Cisco SD-Access are true? (Choose four.)

Select 4 answers
A.VXLAN encapsulation uses a 24-bit VNI to identify the virtual network segment.
B.The VXLAN header in SD-Access includes a Group Policy ID field to carry the SGT.
C.VXLAN encapsulation in SD-Access is an IP-in-IP tunneling mechanism.
D.The outer IP destination address in the VXLAN packet is the IP address of the destination fabric node.
E.The VNI is mapped to a VLAN at the fabric edge to provide Layer 2 connectivity for endpoints.
AnswersA, B, D, E

Correct because the VNI (Virtual Network Identifier) is 24 bits, allowing up to 16 million segments.

Why this answer

In Cisco SD-Access, VXLAN uses a 24-bit VNI to identify virtual network segments (A). The VXLAN header includes a Group Policy ID field to carry the SGT (B). The outer IP destination address is the IP address of the destination fabric node, as the packet is routed over the underlay (D).

VXLAN is MAC-in-UDP encapsulation, not IP-in-IP (C is false). The VNI is mapped to a VLAN at the fabric edge to provide Layer 2 connectivity for endpoints (E is true).

1063
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each QoS model on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses RSVP to signal per-flow reservations; Requires per-flow state in every router

Classifies traffic using DSCP markings; Scales well for large enterprise networks

No guarantees for delivery or delay

Why these pairings

IntServ uses RSVP for per-flow signaling, DiffServ uses DSCP marking for per-hop behavior, Best Effort provides no guarantees, IntServ requires state in routers, and DiffServ scales well for large networks.

1064
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DNA Center template deployment to a device into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Template deployment starts with creating the template, then associating it with a site, committing the changes, deploying to the target device, and verifying the deployment.

1065
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SR-IOV configuration for VM network bypass into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

SR-IOV configuration starts with enabling SR-IOV in the BIOS. Then, virtual functions (VFs) are created on the physical NIC. Next, the hypervisor is configured to pass a VF to the VM.

After that, the VM is assigned the VF as a PCI device. Finally, the VM boots and uses the VF directly.

1066
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each 802.11 standard on the left to its matching frequency band and maximum data rate on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

2.4 GHz, up to 11 Mbps

5 GHz, up to 54 Mbps

2.4 GHz, up to 54 Mbps

2.4/5 GHz, up to 600 Mbps

5 GHz, up to 6.9 Gbps

Why these pairings

802.11b operates at 2.4 GHz with 11 Mbps; 802.11a operates at 5 GHz with 54 Mbps; 802.11g operates at 2.4 GHz with 54 Mbps; 802.11n operates at both 2.4 and 5 GHz with 600 Mbps; 802.11ac operates at 5 GHz with up to 6.9 Gbps.

1067
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each IKEv2 exchange on the left to its matching phase on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Phase 1 - establish IKE SA

Phase 2 - authenticate and establish first child SA

Why these pairings

IKEv2 consists of only two phases: Phase 1 (IKE_SA_INIT) and Phase 2 (IKE_AUTH). CREATE_CHILD_SA, INFORMATIONAL, and rekey are exchanges that occur within the established IKE SA, not separate phases.

Exam trap

IKEv2 simplifies the process to two phases, eliminating the separate Phase 1.5 and Phase 2 of IKEv1.

1068
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Docker container networking with bridge mode into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Bridge networking starts with creating a Docker bridge network. Then, a container is run attached to that bridge. Next, the container gets an IP from the bridge subnet.

After that, port mapping is configured for external access. Finally, the container communicates with others via the bridge.

1069
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of FlexVPN IKEv2 spoke registration to hub into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

FlexVPN uses IKEv2 for authentication and tunnel setup. The spoke initiates IKEv2 SA negotiation with the hub. After authentication, the hub assigns an IP address to the spoke via configuration payload.

The spoke then registers its identity with the hub using IKEv2 notify messages. Finally, the spoke installs the tunnel route and can communicate.

1070
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Ansible playbooks and roles are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Roles in Ansible use a standardized directory structure that includes 'tasks', 'handlers', 'vars', 'defaults', and 'meta'.
B.The 'import_role' module includes a role dynamically during play execution.
C.Handlers are special tasks that run only when notified by other tasks, and they run only once even if notified multiple times.
D.Variables defined in the 'defaults' directory of a role have the highest precedence.
E.The 'meta' directory in a role is used to define role dependencies.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct: This is the standard role directory layout used by Ansible.

Why this answer

Roles use a predefined directory structure with tasks, handlers, vars, defaults, and meta. The 'import_role' statically includes a role at playbook parse time, while 'include_role' dynamically includes it at runtime. Handlers are triggered by 'notify' and run once even if notified multiple times.

The 'vars' directory holds high-precedence variables, while 'defaults' holds low-precedence defaults. The 'meta' directory contains role dependencies.

1071
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MQC command on the left to its configuration level on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Defines traffic classification criteria

Associates class-maps with QoS actions

Applies a policy-map to an interface

References a class-map for actions

Specifies classification criteria

Why these pairings

class-map defines traffic classes. policy-map associates class-maps with QoS actions. service-policy applies the policy-map to an interface. class (within policy-map) references a class-map. match (within class-map) specifies classification criteria.

1072
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R1: R1# show bgp ipv4 unicast 10.10.10.0 BGP routing table entry for 10.10.10.0/24, version 20 Paths: (2 available, best #1, table default) Advertised to update-groups: 1 Refresh Epoch 1 65050 65100 10.0.1.2 from 10.0.1.2 (10.0.0.2) Origin IGP, metric 0, localpref 100, weight 0, valid, external, best rx pathid: 0, tx pathid: 0x0 65050 65100 65200 10.0.1.3 from 10.0.1.3 (10.0.0.3) Origin IGP, metric 0, localpref 100, weight 0, valid, external rx pathid: 0, tx pathid: 0x0 Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.Path #2 is the best path because it has a longer AS_PATH, indicating more specific routing.
B.Path #1 is the best path because it has a shorter AS_PATH length.
C.Both paths are equally preferred, and BGP uses tie-breaking rules like router ID.
D.Path #1 is the best path because it is received from a higher IP address.
AnswerB

Path #1 has AS_PATH length 2 (65050 65100) while path #2 has length 3 (65050 65100 65200). Shorter AS_PATH is preferred.

Why this answer

B is correct because BGP selects the best path based on the shortest AS_PATH length when all other attributes (weight, local preference, origin) are equal. In the output, Path #1 has an AS_PATH of '65050 65100' (2 AS numbers) while Path #2 has '65050 65100 65200' (3 AS numbers), making Path #1 the best path. The 'best #1' annotation confirms this selection.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the AS_PATH length comparison by presenting two paths with different AS_PATH lengths but identical other attributes, expecting candidates to know that shorter AS_PATH is preferred, not longer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a longer AS_PATH does not indicate more specific routing; BGP prefers shorter AS_PATH lengths, not longer ones. Option C is wrong because the paths are not equally preferred; Path #1 is explicitly marked as best due to shorter AS_PATH, so tie-breaking rules like router ID are not invoked. Option D is wrong because BGP does not use the IP address of the next-hop or neighbor as a tie-breaker for best path selection; the decision is based on AS_PATH length in this case.

1073
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about gRPC and gNMI in the context of model-driven telemetry are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.gRPC uses HTTP/2 as its transport protocol and Protocol Buffers as its interface definition language.
B.gNMI (gRPC Network Management Interface) is a gRPC-based protocol that can be used for both telemetry and configuration operations.
C.gNMI telemetry subscriptions can only use YANG paths from OpenConfig models.
D.gNMI relies on NETCONF for session establishment and data encoding.
E.gNMI supports both periodic and on-change telemetry subscriptions.
AnswersA, B, E

Correct because gRPC is built on HTTP/2 for multiplexed, low-latency communication and uses Protocol Buffers for serialization and service definition.

Why this answer

gRPC uses HTTP/2 for transport and Protocol Buffers for serialization. gNMI is a gRPC-based protocol specifically for network management and telemetry. gNMI supports both telemetry subscriptions (Subscribe RPC) and configuration operations (Set, Get). It uses YANG models to define data paths. gNMI does not require NETCONF; it operates independently over gRPC.

1074
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each hypervisor product on the left to its matching vendor on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

VMware

Red Hat

Microsoft

Citrix

Oracle

Why these pairings

All pairs are correctly matched. Note: OpenVZ is not associated with Proxmox VE; Proxmox VE uses LXC containers. The correct mapping for OpenVZ would be to a different vendor, but it is not part of this matching.

1075
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about DHCP snooping are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.DHCP snooping is configured on a per-VLAN basis.
B.DHCP snooping prevents all types of ARP spoofing attacks.
C.The DHCP snooping binding database includes the client MAC address, IP address, lease time, VLAN, and port.
D.Ports connected to DHCP servers should be configured as trusted ports.
E.DHCP snooping encrypts all DHCP traffic between the client and server.
AnswersA, C, D

Correct because DHCP snooping is enabled on specific VLANs using the 'ip dhcp snooping vlan' command.

Why this answer

DHCP snooping is a security feature that filters untrusted DHCP messages. It builds a DHCP snooping binding database from trusted sources. Option A is correct because DHCP snooping is typically enabled on VLANs, not globally on the switch.

Option C is correct because the binding database contains the client MAC address, IP address, lease time, VLAN, and port. Option D is correct because ports connected to DHCP servers are configured as trusted to allow DHCP server messages. Option B is incorrect because DHCP snooping does not prevent all ARP spoofing; that is the role of Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI).

Option E is incorrect because DHCP snooping does not encrypt DHCP traffic; it only filters messages based on trust.

1076
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about telemetry protocols and data collection are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.gNMI is a gRPC-based network management protocol that supports telemetry streaming.
B.In dial-out telemetry, the network device initiates the connection to the collector.
C.Telemetry can provide higher granularity and lower latency compared to SNMP polling.
D.SNMP is the only protocol supported for telemetry data collection on Cisco IOS XE devices.
E.gNMI requires the device to be configured with a CLI-based telemetry profile.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because gNMI (gRPC Network Management Interface) is designed for streaming telemetry and configuration management.

Why this answer

gNMI is a gRPC-based protocol for streaming telemetry and managing network devices. Dial-out telemetry pushes data from the device to a collector. Telemetry can provide more granular data than SNMP.

SNMP is still widely used for legacy monitoring. gNMI does not require CLI configuration for telemetry.

1077
MCQmedium

A network engineer uses the Cisco DNA Center REST API to retrieve the list of devices. The API returns the following JSON: ```json { "response": [ { "id": "12345678-1234-1234-1234-123456789abc", "managementIpAddress": "192.168.1.1", "hostname": "Router1", "platformId": "ISR4331", "role": "ACCESS", "series": "ISR4300 Series" } ], "version": "1.0" } ``` The engineer writes the following Python code to extract the hostname of the first device: ```python import requests url = 'https://dna-center.local/dna/intent/api/v1/network-device' headers = {'X-Auth-Token': 'valid_token', 'Accept': 'application/json'} response = requests.get(url, headers=headers, verify=False) data = response.json() hostname = data['response'][0]['hostname'] print(hostname) ``` What is a potential issue with this code?

A.The URL is missing the '/v1' version segment.
B.The code does not check if the HTTP response status is 200 before parsing JSON, which could lead to errors if the token is invalid.
C.The 'Accept' header should be 'application/yang-data+json' for DNA Center.
D.The 'X-Auth-Token' header is not the correct authentication method; DNA Center uses Basic Auth.
AnswerB

Without status check, a 401 or 500 error would cause the script to fail unpredictably.

Why this answer

The code assumes the API call succeeds and the 'response' list is non-empty. If the token is expired or the API returns an error, response.json() may not have the expected structure, causing a KeyError or IndexError. The code lacks error handling for HTTP status codes and empty responses.

1078
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Ansible inventory grouping and variable inheritance into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Ansible inventory grouping and variable inheritance follows a hierarchy: first, group variables are defined in group_vars files; then, host variables are defined in host_vars files; next, the inventory parser resolves group parent-child relationships; after that, variables are merged with child groups overriding parent groups; finally, host-specific variables take highest precedence.

1079
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco Flex (FlexConnect) AP mode operation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In FlexConnect mode, the AP first discovers the WLC and forms a CAPWAP tunnel. The WLC then pushes the local switching and authentication configuration to the AP. When a client associates, the AP performs local authentication (if configured) or forwards to WLC.

The AP then locally switches the client data traffic. Finally, the AP maintains connectivity with the WLC for management and monitoring.

1080
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of OpenConfig interface counters subscription and decode into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The process starts with subscribing to OpenConfig paths, receiving encoded data, decoding it, extracting counters, and finally analyzing the values.

1081
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each AAA service on the left to its matching protocol on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

RADIUS

TACACS+

RADIUS

TACACS+

RADIUS

Why these pairings

Authentication uses RADIUS; authorization uses TACACS+; accounting uses RADIUS; command authorization uses TACACS+; dot1x authentication uses RADIUS.

1082
MCQmedium

What is the purpose of the 'source-interface' command under a telemetry receiver configuration?

A.It specifies the interface from which the telemetry data is collected.
B.It sets the source IP address for telemetry packets sent to the receiver.
C.It limits telemetry data to only that interface's statistics.
D.It enables telemetry on that interface for incoming data.
AnswerB

This is the correct function of the source-interface command.

Why this answer

The source-interface command ensures that telemetry packets use a consistent source IP address, which helps with firewall rules and receiver identification.

1083
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Layer 2 attack on the left to its matching mitigation feature on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Port security

DHCP snooping

Dynamic ARP Inspection

BPDU guard

Disable Dynamic Trunking Protocol

Why these pairings

MAC flooding is mitigated by port security, DHCP starvation by DHCP snooping, ARP spoofing by DAI, STP manipulation by BPDU guard, and VLAN hopping by disabling DTP.

1084
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of RESTCONF GET with depth and field query parameters into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with constructing the RESTCONF URI, appending the depth parameter, adding the field parameter, sending the GET request, and finally parsing the filtered JSON/XML response.

1085
MCQmedium

Examine the following EIGRP configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE device: router eigrp 100 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 passive-interface default no passive-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 10.2.2.1 255.255.255.0 Which statement is true?

A.EIGRP will form adjacencies on both GigabitEthernet0/0 and GigabitEthernet0/1.
B.EIGRP will form an adjacency only on GigabitEthernet0/0.
C.EIGRP will not form any adjacencies because the network command does not match the interface subnets.
D.EIGRP will form adjacencies on all interfaces except those with 'passive-interface' configured.
AnswerB

Correct. GigabitEthernet0/0 is not passive, so it will send and receive hellos. GigabitEthernet0/1 is passive by default.

Why this answer

The 'passive-interface default' command sets all interfaces as passive, meaning they do not send or receive EIGRP hellos. The 'no passive-interface' command overrides this for specific interfaces.

1086
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of LISP EID-to-RLOC mapping resolution process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The process begins when the ingress tunnel router (ITR) receives a packet for a destination EID. The ITR sends a Map-Request to the Map-Server, which looks up the mapping and replies with a Map-Reply containing the RLOC. The ITR then caches the mapping and encapsulates the packet to the egress tunnel router (ETR).

1087
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO statements about virtual switching in a hypervisor environment are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.A virtual switch can be connected to a physical network through uplink ports.
B.A virtual switch does not support VLAN tagging.
C.A virtual switch performs routing between different subnets.
D.A virtual switch forwards frames between virtual machines based on MAC addresses.
E.A virtual switch is a physical device installed in the hypervisor host.
AnswersA, D

Correct. Uplink ports map to physical NICs to provide connectivity to the physical network.

Why this answer

A virtual switch connects to the physical network through uplink ports, which are typically mapped to physical NICs on the hypervisor host. This allows VMs on the virtual switch to communicate with external networks, making option A correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that virtual switches are physical devices or that they perform Layer 3 functions, when in fact they are software-based Layer 2 forwarding engines that support VLANs and uplink connectivity.

1088
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Cisco campus design model component on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Provides port density and PoE for end devices

Aggregates access switches and provides routing

Provides high-speed, non-blocking backbone

Provides Layer 3 gateway for VLANs

Combines two physical switches into one logical switch

Why these pairings

The campus design uses a hierarchical model with access, distribution, core layers; SVI provides Layer 3 gateway; VSS virtualizes switches; StackWise combines physical switches; PoE powers endpoints.

1089
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of a VM live migration process in vSphere into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for vMotion live migration begins with initiating the migration from the source host (A). Then, initial memory pages are copied to the destination (B). While the VM continues running, dirty memory pages are tracked and iteratively copied (C).

Next, the VM is quiesced and the final state is copied (D). Finally, the VM is resumed on the destination host (E).

Exam trap

A common mistake is to think that the VM must be quiesced before copying final state, but quiescing happens after iterative copying to ensure consistency. Also, resuming the VM on the destination is the last step, not the first.

1090
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about 802.1X port-based authentication on a Cisco switch are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The switch acts as the authenticator in the 802.1X framework.
B.The RADIUS server acts as the authenticator in the 802.1X framework.
C.802.1X can only be configured on router interfaces, not on switch ports.
D.EAP over LAN (EAPoL) is used between the supplicant and the authenticator.
E.802.1X authentication is only applicable to wireless networks.
AnswersA, D

Correct because in 802.1X, the switch (or wireless controller) is the authenticator that controls access to the network.

Why this answer

802.1X uses EAP over LAN (EAPoL) to authenticate devices at the port level. The switch acts as an authenticator and can use a RADIUS server for authentication. Option A is correct because the switch is the authenticator.

Option D is correct because EAPoL is the protocol used between the supplicant and the authenticator. Option B is incorrect because the RADIUS server is the authentication server, not the authenticator. Option C is incorrect because 802.1X can be configured on Layer 2 switch ports, not just routers.

Option E is incorrect because 802.1X is not limited to wireless; it is commonly used on wired switch ports.

1091
MCQhard

An engineer is using the Cisco SD-WAN vManage REST API to retrieve the list of WAN edge devices. The engineer sends a GET request to 'https://vmanage/dataservice/device' and receives a 401 Unauthorized error. The engineer has already obtained a JSESSIONID cookie by authenticating with the API. What is the most likely cause of the error?

A.The JSESSIONID cookie must be included in the request headers for authentication.
B.The engineer must use a different authentication method, such as OAuth2, instead of cookies.
C.The URI is incorrect; the correct URI should be 'https://vmanage/dataservice/device/wanedge'.
D.The engineer must include a CSRF token in the request header for GET requests.
AnswerA

Correct because the session cookie must be sent with each request to maintain authentication.

Why this answer

A 401 error indicates that authentication is required or has failed. Even with a JSESSIONID cookie, the engineer must include it in the request headers. Additionally, vManage APIs often require a CSRF token for state-changing operations, but for GET requests, the JSESSIONID should suffice.

The most likely cause is that the cookie is not being sent with the request, or the session has expired.

1092
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MPLS VPN role on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Connects directly to the provider edge and advertises customer routes

Attaches MPLS labels to customer packets and maintains VRFs

Core router that switches MPLS labels without holding VPN routes

Distributes VPNv4 routes within the MPLS VPN core

Connects different MPLS VPN domains

Why these pairings

The CE device connects directly to the PE and advertises customer routes; the PE device attaches labels and maintains VRFs; the P device is a core router that switches MPLS labels without holding VPN routes; the RR (Route Reflector) distributes VPNv4 routes within the MPLS VPN core; the ASBR connects different MPLS VPN domains.

1093
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Netmiko device type on the left to its matching operating system on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Cisco IOS (classic)

Cisco NX-OS

Cisco IOS-XR

Cisco IOS-XE

Arista EOS

Why these pairings

cisco_ios is for classic IOS; cisco_nxos is for NX-OS; cisco_xr is for IOS-XR; cisco_xe is for IOS-XE.

1094
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of network documentation and change management workflow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Change management begins with a request and impact assessment, followed by approval. After implementation, verification ensures success, and finally the documentation is updated to reflect the change.

1095
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco IBNS 2.0 policy configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

IBNS 2.0 uses a modular policy framework. First, define the authentication template to specify the method (e.g., dot1x, MAB). Second, create the policy map that references the template and defines the behavior.

Third, apply the policy map to the interface. Fourth, enable authentication on the interface. Finally, verify the configuration using show commands.

1096
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of EIGRP redistribution from OSPF with metric seeding into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, the EIGRP routing process must be entered. Then, the redistribute command is used with the OSPF process and a metric. Optionally, route-map filtering can be applied.

Finally, verification ensures routes appear in the EIGRP topology table.

1097
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IPv6 ACL configuration and application into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order is: create the ACL with deny/permit entries, apply it inbound on an interface, then verify with show commands. This follows standard Cisco IOS ACL configuration workflow.

1098
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each hypervisor type on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Runs directly on physical hardware without a host OS

Runs on top of an existing operating system

Example of a Type 1 hypervisor

Example of a Type 2 hypervisor

Type 1 hypervisor (Linux kernel-based)

Why these pairings

Type 1 hypervisors run directly on hardware (bare-metal), while Type 2 run on a host OS.

1099
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware without a host operating system.
B.A Type 2 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware without a host operating system.
C.VMware ESXi is an example of a Type 2 hypervisor.
D.VMware Workstation is an example of a Type 2 hypervisor.
E.Type 1 hypervisors are typically used for desktop virtualization in enterprise environments.
AnswersA, D

Correct because Type 1 hypervisors (bare-metal) install directly on the server hardware.

Why this answer

Type 1 hypervisors run directly on hardware and are used in data centers. Type 2 hypervisors run on a host OS and are common in labs. VMware ESXi is a Type 1 hypervisor.

VMware Workstation is Type 2.

1100
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about SPAN and RSPAN limitations are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.SPAN can cause increased CPU utilization on the switch if many packets are mirrored.
B.SPAN can monitor control plane traffic such as routing protocol updates by default.
C.RSPAN requires that the RSPAN VLAN be pruned from all trunks to avoid loops.
D.A SPAN destination port cannot be used for normal network traffic.
E.RSPAN can be used to monitor traffic on a Layer 3 routed interface.
AnswersA, D

Correct. Mirroring many packets can increase CPU utilization on the switch because the CPU handles the replication process.

Why this answer

Only statements A and D are true. SPAN can increase CPU utilization when many packets are mirrored, and the destination port becomes a dedicated monitoring port that cannot carry normal traffic. Statement C is false because the RSPAN VLAN must be allowed on trunks that carry the mirrored traffic; pruning it from all trunks would break RSPAN.

Statements B and E are also false: SPAN cannot monitor control plane traffic by default, and RSPAN does not support Layer 3 routed interfaces as sources.

Exam trap

A common trap is thinking the RSPAN VLAN should be pruned from all trunks. In reality, it must be allowed on trunks between source and destination switches to carry the mirrored traffic.

1101
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about the Cisco SD-Access fabric roles are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The fabric edge node is responsible for connecting end devices and enforcing SGT-based policies.
B.The fabric border node is responsible for connecting the SD-Access fabric to external Layer 3 networks.
C.The control plane node is responsible for encapsulating and forwarding user traffic across the fabric.
D.The intermediate node is responsible for policy enforcement and traffic segmentation within the fabric.
E.The wireless controller in SD-Access acts as a dedicated fabric border node for wireless traffic.
AnswersA, B

Correct because the fabric edge is the access-layer switch that applies security group tags (SGTs) and forwards traffic within the fabric.

Why this answer

In SD-Access, the fabric edge node is the switch that connects to end devices and enforces policy, while the fabric border node connects the fabric to external networks (e.g., WAN, data center). The control plane node hosts the LISP map server/map resolver, not the edge. The intermediate node is a simple transit switch that does not perform encapsulation or policy enforcement.

The wireless controller in SD-Access is integrated as a fabric WLC, not a separate fabric role.

1102
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each BGP community on the left to its standard behavior on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Do not advertise to eBGP peers (except within confederation)

Do not advertise to any peer

Do not advertise to external peers (confederation boundary)

Do not advertise to any BGP peer

Advertise to all BGP peers (default behavior)

Why these pairings

NO_EXPORT prevents advertisement outside confederation; NO_ADVERTISE prevents any advertisement; LOCAL_AS prevents advertisement to external peers; INTERNET advertises to all BGP peers.

1103
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SNMP operation on the left to its matching direction on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Manager to agent

Manager to agent

Manager to agent

Manager to agent

Agent to manager

Why these pairings

GET, GETNEXT, GETBULK, and SET are manager-to-agent requests; TRAP and INFORM are agent-to-manager notifications.

1104
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each VRF-Lite vs MPLS VPN characteristic on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses only VRFs without MPLS labels for path isolation; Limited to path isolation within a single router; Does not require MP-BGP for route exchange

Uses MPLS labels to isolate traffic across the provider core; Scales path isolation across multiple routers in the core

Why these pairings

VRF-Lite uses only VRFs without MPLS labels; MPLS VPN uses labels for isolation; VRF-Lite is limited to a single router; MPLS VPN scales across the core; VRF-Lite does not require MP-BGP; MPLS VPN uses MP-BGP for VPNv4 route exchange.

1105
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring AAA on a Cisco IOS device into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

AAA configuration requires first enabling AAA globally, then defining the authentication method list, applying it to login, and optionally specifying a fallback method like local. Finally, verify with debug commands.

1106
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of OSPF summarization at ABR configuration steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Summarization on an ABR uses the area range command to aggregate prefixes. The order is: identify prefixes, configure range, verify, and optionally suppress more specific routes.

1107
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of Cisco TrustSec (CTS) security architecture?

Select 3 answers
A.It uses IPsec to encrypt traffic between network devices.
B.It uses VLANs to segment traffic based on security roles.
C.It uses Security Group Tags (SGTs) to classify traffic.
D.It provides data confidentiality using IEEE 802.1AE (MACsec) encryption.
E.It uses Security Group Access Control Lists (SGACLs) to enforce policies.
AnswersC, D, E

SGTs are used for classification.

Why this answer

C is correct because Cisco TrustSec uses Security Group Tags (SGTs) to classify traffic based on user, device, or role, rather than IP addresses. SGTs are 16-bit values (0–65535) assigned dynamically via authentication (e.g., 802.1X) or static mapping, enabling scalable policy enforcement.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that TrustSec uses VLANs or IPsec for segmentation and encryption, when in fact it uses SGTs for classification and MACsec for Layer 2 encryption.

1108
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each multicast address range on the left to its matching use on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Reserved for link-local multicast (e.g., routing protocols)

Used for Source-Specific Multicast (SSM)

Administratively scoped (private) multicast

All hosts on this subnet (link-local all-hosts group)

All routers on this subnet (link-local all-routers group)

Why these pairings

224.0.0.0/24 is reserved for link-local multicast; 232.0.0.0/8 is for Source-Specific Multicast; 239.0.0.0/8 is for administratively scoped (private) multicast.

1109
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Python data structure on the left to its matching network config use on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Store interface configuration as key-value pairs

Maintain ordered list of VLANs to apply

Define immutable routing table entry

Collect unique OSPF router IDs

Represent immutable set of allowed protocols

Why these pairings

dict maps parameter to value; list stores ordered items; tuple is immutable; set holds unique elements.

1110
MCQmedium

A network engineer is configuring EtherChannel between two Cisco Catalyst switches. The ports are configured as access ports in VLAN 10. After configuring the port-channel interface and adding the physical ports, the engineer notices that the EtherChannel does not come up. The show etherchannel summary command shows the port-channel in a down state. What is the most likely cause?

A.The physical ports are configured as access ports in VLAN 10, but the port-channel interface is not configured with the same VLAN.
B.The physical ports have different duplex settings.
C.The switch is using PAgP and the neighbor is using LACP.
D.The physical ports are in different VLANs.
AnswerA

Correct because the port-channel interface must have the same access VLAN as the physical ports, or the channel will not form.

Why this answer

When configuring an EtherChannel, the port-channel interface must have the same VLAN configuration as the physical member ports. In this scenario, the physical ports are access ports in VLAN 10, but the port-channel interface was not explicitly configured with the same VLAN. Cisco switches require the port-channel interface to be configured with the same switchport mode and VLAN assignment as the member ports; otherwise, the EtherChannel will remain down because the logical interface does not match the operational state of the physical ports.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the requirement that the port-channel interface must be explicitly configured with the same VLAN as the member ports, even when the physical ports are already set, because candidates assume the port-channel inherits the VLAN from the physical ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because mismatched duplex settings would cause individual port errors or flapping, but the show etherchannel summary would typically show the port-channel as up (if the duplex mismatch is on one side) or the ports would be in a different state (e.g., err-disabled), not simply down. Option C is wrong because PAgP and LACP are incompatible protocols; if one side uses PAgP and the other uses LACP, the EtherChannel will not form, but the show etherchannel summary would show the channel in a 'down' state due to protocol mismatch, not because of VLAN configuration. Option D is wrong because the physical ports are already configured as access ports in VLAN 10, so they are in the same VLAN; if they were in different VLANs, the ports would not be bundled into the EtherChannel, but the question states they are all in VLAN 10.

1111
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MPLS L2VPN (AToM) pseudowire setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

AToM pseudowire setup begins with configuring the attachment circuit and VC ID on PE routers, then establishing an LDP targeted session between PEs, then exchanging Label Mapping messages for the pseudowire, then pseudowire status notification, and finally pseudowire operation.

1112
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MPLS label field on the left to its matching bit size on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

20 bits

3 bits

1 bit

8 bits

32 bits

Why these pairings

The MPLS label has 4 fields: Label (20 bits), TC (3 bits), S (1 bit), and TTL (8 bits).

1113
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R7: R7# show mpls ldp capabilities LDP Capabilities: Dynamic Capability: advertised Typed Wildcard FEC: advertised MTU Signaling: advertised P2MP: not advertised MPLS OAM: advertised LDP Graceful Restart: advertised Helper mode: enabled Restart mode: enabled Reconnect time: 120 sec Recovery time: 180 sec Based on this output, which capability is NOT supported by this router?

A.LDP Graceful Restart
B.MTU Signaling
C.P2MP (Point-to-Multipoint)
D.Dynamic Capability
AnswerC

It is listed as 'not advertised'.

Why this answer

The output shows 'P2MP: not advertised', which explicitly indicates that Point-to-Multipoint (P2MP) capability is not supported on this router. All other listed capabilities, including LDP Graceful Restart, MTU Signaling, and Dynamic Capability, are shown as 'advertised' and therefore supported.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the ability to read the 'show mpls ldp capabilities' output literally, where the trap is that candidates assume all capabilities are supported by default or confuse 'not advertised' with a misconfiguration rather than a lack of feature support.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the output clearly shows 'LDP Graceful Restart: advertised' with both helper and restart modes enabled, so it is supported. Option B is wrong because 'MTU Signaling: advertised' appears in the output, confirming support. Option D is wrong because 'Dynamic Capability: advertised' is listed, indicating the router supports dynamic capability advertisement.

1114
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of uRPF (Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding) verification into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

uRPF verification involves checking if it is enabled, verifying the routing table, testing with ping, checking counters, and interpreting results. The order follows a logical troubleshooting sequence.

1115
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each First Hop Redundancy Protocol on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Cisco-proprietary active/standby gateway redundancy with one virtual IP

Open standard with master/backup election and one virtual IP

Cisco-proprietary load-balancing across multiple gateways using AVF/AVG

Adds support for IPv6 and increased group numbers

Supports IPv4 and IPv6 with improved timers

Why these pairings

HSRP uses an active/standby model with one virtual MAC; VRRP uses an election process with a single virtual MAC; GLBP load-balances across multiple gateways.

1116
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each service chaining element on the left to its matching position in the chain on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Entry point that identifies and steers traffic into a service chain

Node that forwards traffic to the next service function in the chain

Individual VNF that processes traffic (e.g., firewall, load balancer)

Ordered list of service functions that traffic must traverse

Encapsulation header that carries chain context between SFFs

Why these pairings

Service chaining steers traffic through a sequence of VNFs; classifiers identify traffic; SFC encapsulation maintains chain context.

1117
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN on Cisco IOS into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for configuring a site-to-site IPsec VPN is: first define the IKE policy (Phase 1 parameters), then define the IPsec transform set (Phase 2 parameters), then create the crypto ACL to match interesting traffic, then configure the crypto map to bind all parameters, and finally apply the crypto map to the outgoing interface.

1118
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Python library on the left to its matching network use case on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Simplifies SSH connections to network devices

Provides a unified API for configuration and state retrieval

Enables parallel task execution across inventory

Supports asynchronous network device communication

Offers raw SSH protocol implementation

Why these pairings

Netmiko simplifies SSH to network devices; NAPALM provides multi-vendor abstraction; Nornir is task-based and parallel; Scrapli is async-focused; Paramiko is low-level SSH.

1119
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each LISP message type on the left to its matching purpose on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Queries the LISP mapping system for an EID-to-RLOC mapping

Returns the requested EID-to-RLOC mapping to the requesting ITR

Registers an EID-to-RLOC mapping with the map-server

Acknowledges successful registration of an EID-to-RLOC mapping

Requests the map-server to send a Map-Request on behalf of a requesting device

Why these pairings

Map-Request queries the location of an EID, Map-Reply provides the mapping, Map-Register registers EID-to-RLOC mappings, Map-Notify confirms registration, and Map-Solicit triggers a Map-Request from the map-server.

1120
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MPLS label field on the left to its matching bit size on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

20 bits

3 bits

1 bit

8 bits

32 bits

Why these pairings

The MPLS label is 20 bits, Traffic Class (TC) is 3 bits, Bottom of Stack (S) is 1 bit, and TTL is 8 bits, totaling 32 bits per label entry.

1121
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about SNMPv3 security features are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The authNoPriv security level provides authentication using MD5 or SHA, but no encryption.
B.The noAuthNoPriv security level provides both authentication and encryption.
C.The authPriv security level provides authentication using MD5 or SHA, and encryption using DES or AES.
D.SNMPv3 users are identified solely by the community string, similar to SNMPv2c.
E.The SNMP engine ID is optional and only used for debugging purposes.
AnswersA, C

Correct because authNoPriv uses a hash algorithm for authentication but does not encrypt the SNMP payload.

Why this answer

SNMPv3 provides both authentication and encryption. The authNoPriv level uses MD5 or SHA for authentication without encryption; noAuthNoPriv uses no security; authPriv provides both authentication and encryption. The engine ID is required for SNMPv3 user configuration and is used to generate the localized key.

1122
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of CoPP class-map match criteria and rate-limit application into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

CoPP configuration requires defining match criteria in a class-map, then creating a policy-map with police commands, and finally applying the policy to the control plane. The order follows standard MQC (Modular QoS CLI) process.

1123
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco NSO service provisioning workflow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Cisco NSO service provisioning begins with the operator or OSS sending a service request to NSO via NETCONF/RESTCONF. NSO then processes the service model and creates a service instance. NSO uses device templates and YANG models to generate device configurations.

NSO pushes the configuration to the network devices using NETCONF. Finally, NSO verifies the service is operational and updates the service state.

1124
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about SD-WAN architecture are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The vSmart controller is responsible for distributing routing and policy information to the WAN edge routers.
B.vEdge routers establish IPsec tunnels directly with each other for data plane traffic.
C.The vBond orchestrator is responsible for forwarding data traffic between branch sites.
D.vEdge routers establish OMP sessions with each other to exchange control plane information.
E.Control plane communication between vSmart and vEdge is secured using IPsec.
AnswersA, B

Correct because vSmart acts as the control plane, using OMP to distribute routes and policies to vEdge/cEdge routers.

Why this answer

In Cisco SD-WAN, the vSmart controller is responsible for centralized control and policy distribution, while the vBond orchestrator handles authentication and NAT traversal. The vManage is the management plane. vEdge routers establish OMP sessions with vSmart, not with each other. Control plane traffic between vSmart and vEdge is secured with DTLS or TLS, not IPsec.

The vBond is not involved in forwarding data traffic.

1125
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of BGP policy application (route-map, prefix-list, AS-path ACL) into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Policy application starts with defining match criteria (prefix-list or AS-path ACL), then creating a route-map with permit/deny and set actions, applying it to a neighbor, and finally verifying the policy effect.

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