Courseiva

ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 151225

1175 questions total · 16pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring a standard ACL for traffic filtering on a Cisco IOS router into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Standard ACLs are configured by first entering global configuration mode, then defining ACL entries with permit or deny statements, where each entry specifies a source IP and wildcard mask. After defining all entries, the ACL is applied to an interface in the inbound or outbound direction. Finally, verification with 'show access-lists' confirms the ACL is active and shows hit counts.

152
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each VM storage type on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Allocates storage on demand, grows as needed

Pre-allocates full storage at creation

Provides direct access to a physical LUN

VMware virtual disk file format

Hyper-V virtual disk file format

Why these pairings

Thin provisioning allocates space on demand, thick provisioning allocates full space at creation, RDM provides direct LUN access, VMDK is VMware's virtual disk format, and VHDX is Hyper-V's virtual disk format.

153
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Ansible connection type on the left to its matching protocol on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

SSH-based connection for Cisco IOS/IOS-XE CLI

SSH-based connection for NETCONF protocol

HTTP/HTTPS-based connection for REST APIs

Runs modules on the control node, not on the target

Pure Python SSH implementation for legacy devices

Why these pairings

network_cli uses SSH for CLI-based devices; netconf uses SSH for NETCONF-based devices; httpapi uses HTTP/HTTPS for REST APIs like NX-API or IOS-XE RESTCONF.

154
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each EAP method on the left to its matching authentication type on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Mutual certificate-based authentication

Server-side certificate with MSCHAPv2 inner method

Protected Access Credential (PAC) for secure tunneling

Simple username and password hash (no mutual authentication)

Generic Token Card for one-time password or certificate

Why these pairings

EAP-TLS uses certificates, PEAP uses server certificate with inner MSCHAPv2, EAP-FAST uses a PAC, and EAP-MD5 uses simple password hash.

155
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each multicast tree type on the left to its matching description on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Tree rooted at the source, uses optimal path to each receiver

Shared tree rooted at the RP, used in PIM Sparse Mode

Shared tree that allows multicast traffic to flow in both directions

A tree rooted at the source of the multicast traffic

A tree rooted at the RP, shared by all sources for a given group

Why these pairings

SPT is the shortest path from source to receivers; RPT is a shared tree rooted at the RP; Bidirectional tree allows traffic to flow both ways; Source tree is a tree rooted at the source; Shared tree is a tree rooted at the RP.

156
MCQhard

A network engineer is deploying Cisco DNA Center in a brownfield network. The engineer wants to use DNA Center to automate the configuration of QoS policies across all access switches. After discovering the devices and adding them to Inventory, the engineer creates a QoS policy and assigns it to a site. However, when attempting to provision, DNA Center reports that the devices are in 'Compliance Error' state. What is the most likely reason?

A.The devices have existing QoS configurations that conflict with the new policy.
B.The devices are not running a supported IOS-XE version for QoS automation.
C.The DNA Center appliance does not have enough storage to process the QoS policy.
D.The QoS policy was created with an invalid DSCP value.
AnswerA

Correct because DNA Center's compliance check compares the intended configuration with the actual device configuration. Conflicts cause compliance errors.

Why this answer

In brownfield deployments, devices may have existing configurations that conflict with the intended policies. DNA Center performs a compliance check before provisioning. If the current device configuration does not match the intended configuration (e.g., existing QoS settings), DNA Center reports a compliance error.

The engineer must either update the device configuration to match the intent or modify the intent to accommodate the existing configuration.

157
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DSCP re-marking at enterprise WAN edge into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

At the enterprise WAN edge, traffic is first classified based on existing markings or other criteria. Then a policy-map is created to set the new DSCP value. The policy is applied outbound on the WAN interface.

The router re-marks packets as they exit. Finally, the new DSCP value is verified using show commands.

158
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each 802.11 standard on the left to its matching frequency band and maximum speed on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

2.4 GHz, 11 Mbps

5 GHz, 54 Mbps

2.4 GHz, 54 Mbps

2.4/5 GHz, 600 Mbps

5 GHz, 6.9 Gbps

Why these pairings

802.11b operates at 2.4 GHz with 11 Mbps; 802.11a at 5 GHz with 54 Mbps; 802.11g at 2.4 GHz with 54 Mbps; 802.11n can use both 2.4 and 5 GHz with 600 Mbps; 802.11ac operates only at 5 GHz with up to 6.9 Gbps.

159
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about REST API HTTP methods are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.GET is a safe method that must not change server state.
B.POST is idempotent, meaning multiple identical requests have the same effect.
C.DELETE is non-idempotent and each request may have a different outcome.
D.PUT is idempotent and replaces the entire resource at the target URI.
E.PATCH is always idempotent because it uses a patch document.
AnswersA, D

Correct because GET is defined as safe and idempotent in REST.

Why this answer

The correct answers are A and D. A is correct because GET is defined as a safe method that does not modify server state. D is correct because PUT is idempotent — multiple identical requests produce the same result.

B is incorrect because POST is not idempotent; it often creates new resources. C is incorrect because DELETE is idempotent, not non-idempotent. E is incorrect because PATCH is typically non-idempotent unless applied carefully.

160
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each BGP message type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Establishes BGP peering parameters

Advertises or withdraws prefixes

Reports error conditions

Maintains session liveness

Requests re-advertisement of routes

Why these pairings

OPEN establishes peering; UPDATE advertises/withdraws routes; NOTIFICATION signals errors; KEEPALIVE maintains session; ROUTE-REFRESH requests re-advertisement.

161
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Cisco AP join process and discovery are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.An AP can discover a WLC using DHCP option 43, which provides the WLC management IP address.
B.An AP can discover a WLC by sending a DNS query for 'CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain'.
C.An AP must have a valid certificate installed to establish a DTLS session with the WLC.
D.An AP can discover a WLC by sending an SNMP broadcast to the local subnet.
E.An AP can be manually configured with the primary WLC name via the AP CLI before joining.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because DHCP option 43 is a standard method for APs to learn the WLC IP address during boot.

Why this answer

APs discover WLCs via DHCP option 43, DNS, or local subnet broadcast. They use CAPWAP for control and data. The AP must have a valid certificate for DTLS.

APs can be pre-configured with a primary WLC name. APs do not use SNMP to find WLCs.

162
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW7: SW7# show monitor session 7 Session 7 --------- Type : Local Session Source Ports : Both : Gi1/0/1 Destination Ports : Gi1/0/20 Encapsulation : Native Ingress : Enabled Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.The destination port Gi1/0/20 can forward incoming traffic in addition to sending mirrored traffic.
B.This is an RSPAN session with a remote VLAN.
C.Only egress traffic from Gi1/0/1 is mirrored.
D.The destination port is configured to block all incoming traffic.
AnswerA

Ingress enabled allows the port to forward received traffic.

Why this answer

The output shows a local SPAN session with the destination port Gi1/0/20 configured with 'Ingress : Enabled'. This means the destination port can forward incoming traffic (traffic received on Gi1/0/20) in addition to sending mirrored traffic from the source port Gi1/0/1. By default, a SPAN destination port drops all incoming traffic, but enabling ingress allows it to process and forward incoming frames.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a SPAN destination port always drops all incoming traffic, but the 'Ingress : Enabled' setting explicitly overrides that default behavior, making it a common trap for candidates who overlook the ingress field in the output.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the session type is explicitly 'Local Session', not RSPAN; RSPAN uses a remote VLAN to transport mirrored traffic to a different switch, which is not indicated here. Option C is wrong because the source port is configured with 'Both', meaning both ingress and egress traffic from Gi1/0/1 are mirrored, not only egress. Option D is wrong because 'Ingress : Enabled' indicates the destination port is configured to accept incoming traffic, not block it; blocking incoming traffic is the default behavior when ingress is disabled.

163
Multi-Selecteasy

Which two statements about IP SLA probe scheduling and operation states are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The 'schedule' command with 'start-time now' causes the IP SLA operation to begin immediately.
B.An IP SLA operation in the 'active' state indicates that the probe is currently being sent and responses are being collected.
C.The 'life' parameter in the IP SLA configuration sets the frequency at which probes are sent.
D.An IP SLA operation remains in the 'pending' state until the 'start-time' is reached, even if the configuration is complete.
E.The 'schedule' command with 'life forever' causes the operation to stop after a single probe.
AnswersA, B

Correct because 'start-time now' starts the operation as soon as the command is entered.

Why this answer

IP SLA operations can be scheduled to start immediately or at a specific time, and they can run indefinitely or for a fixed duration. The 'life' parameter controls how long the operation runs. An operation in 'active' state is currently sending probes.

The 'pending' state means the operation is configured but not yet scheduled. The 'life forever' command makes the operation run until manually stopped.

164
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of stateless DHCPv6 address assignment steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Stateless DHCPv6 uses SLAAC for addressing and DHCPv6 for additional parameters. The host sends an RS, receives an RA with the O flag, then sends an Information-Request and receives a Reply with options like DNS.

165
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about OSPF route summarization are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Inter-area route summarization is configured on ABRs using the "area range" command.
B.External route summarization is configured on ASBRs using the "summary-address" command.
C.Route summarization reduces the size of the LSDB and improves network convergence.
D.Route summarization can be configured on any OSPF router to reduce Type 1 LSAs.
E.Summarization in OSPF can be applied to Type 1 and Type 2 LSAs to reduce flooding.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because ABRs use the "area range" command to summarize routes between areas, reducing Type 3 LSAs.

Why this answer

Inter-area summarization is configured on ABRs to reduce the number of Type 3 LSAs. Option B is correct because external route summarization is configured on ASBRs to reduce Type 5 LSAs. Option C is correct because summarization helps reduce the routing table size and LSA flooding, improving network stability.

Option D is incorrect because summarization is not supported on internal routers; it is only performed on ABRs and ASBRs. Option E is incorrect because summarization does not affect Type 1 or Type 2 LSAs; it only affects Type 3 and Type 5 LSAs.

166
Multi-Selecteasy

Which four statements about multicast group addresses and Layer 2 mapping are true? (Choose four.)

Select 4 answers
A.The multicast MAC address is derived by placing the lower 23 bits of the multicast IP address into the OUI 01-00-5E.
B.Multiple multicast IP addresses can map to the same multicast MAC address.
C.The multicast IP address 224.0.0.1 maps to the MAC address 01-00-5E-00-00-01.
D.The multicast IP address range 224.0.0.0/24 is reserved for global scope and can be routed across the internet.
E.The multicast MAC address 01-00-5E-00-00-05 corresponds to the IP address 224.0.0.5.
AnswersA, B, C, E

Correct. The multicast MAC address is derived by placing the lower 23 bits of the multicast IP address into the OUI 01-00-5E.

Why this answer

Multicast IP addresses in the 224.0.0.0/4 range map to Layer 2 MAC addresses using the OUI 01-00-5E. The lower 23 bits of the IP address are placed into the last three bytes of the MAC address, with the 24th bit set to 0. This mapping is not unique, so multiple IP addresses can map to the same MAC (e.g., 224.0.0.1 maps to 01-00-5E-00-00-01, and 224.128.0.1 also maps to the same MAC).

Statement A is correct because it describes the derivation. Statement B is correct because of the 23-bit mapping. Statement C is correct: 224.0.0.1 maps to 01-00-5E-00-00-01.

Statement D is false because 224.0.0.0/24 is the local network control block used for link-local communication and is not routable across the internet. Statement E is correct: 01-00-5E-00-00-05 corresponds to 224.0.0.5 since the low 23 bits (0.0.5) match.

167
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about BGP TTL security are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.BGP TTL security uses the Generalized TTL Security Mechanism (GTSM) to validate the TTL of incoming BGP packets.
B.The command 'neighbor <ip> ttl-security hops <hop-count>' is used to enable BGP TTL security on a per-neighbor basis.
C.The default TTL value for eBGP packets is 64.
D.BGP TTL security encrypts the BGP update messages to prevent eavesdropping.
E.BGP TTL security is only applicable to eBGP sessions, not iBGP.
AnswersA, B

Correct because GTSM checks that the TTL is within a valid range based on the configured hop count.

Why this answer

BGP TTL security (GTSM) protects against CPU-based attacks by ensuring incoming BGP packets have a TTL of 255 minus the expected hop count. The neighbor ttl-security hops command is used on Cisco IOS-XE to enable this feature, and it must be configured on both peers to be effective. Option C is incorrect because the default TTL for eBGP is 1, not 64.

Option D is incorrect because GTSM does not encrypt BGP updates. Option E is incorrect because GTSM is supported for both eBGP and iBGP.

168
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SD-WAN controller on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Centralized management, monitoring, and configuration of the SD-WAN fabric

Control plane distribution of OMP routes, TLOCs, and policies

Orchestration of initial authentication and NAT traversal for WAN edge devices

WAN edge router that forwards data plane traffic and terminates overlay tunnels

Historical and real-time analytics for network visibility and troubleshooting

Why these pairings

vManage provides centralized management and monitoring; vSmart is the control plane controller that distributes routing and policy; vBond handles authentication and orchestration of the overlay network.

169
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco TrustSec inline tagging across fabric into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

TrustSec inline tagging starts with the ingress switch classifying traffic and adding an SGT to the frame, then forwarding it across the fabric, the egress switch reading the SGT, matching it to an SGACL, and finally enforcing the permit/deny decision.

170
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about configuring model-driven telemetry on Cisco IOS-XE devices are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The 'telemetry' command enters the telemetry configuration submode, where subscriptions and sensor groups are defined.
B.A sensor group can contain multiple sensor paths, each referencing a YANG data model path.
C.The 'update-policy' command is used to set the on-change trigger for a subscription.
D.A single subscription can only have one sensor group and one receiver.
E.The 'receiver' command specifies the destination IP address, port, and protocol (e.g., gRPC or TCP) for the telemetry stream.
AnswersA, B, E

Correct because 'telemetry' at global config mode enters the telemetry configuration context, where you can configure subscriptions, sensor groups, and receivers.

Why this answer

On IOS-XE, telemetry is configured under the 'telemetry' submode. A subscription defines the destination (e.g., IP, port, protocol) and the sensor paths (YANG paths). Multiple sensor groups can be associated with one subscription.

The 'update-policy' command sets the periodic interval. The 'receiver' command specifies the collector details. TLS is supported for secure dial-out connections.

171
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MPLS label operation on the left to its matching action on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Adds a new label to the top of the label stack

Removes the top label from the label stack

Replaces the top label with a new label value

Pops the label at the penultimate hop before the egress LER

Copies the IP TTL value into the MPLS TTL field

Why these pairings

Push adds a new label to the stack, pop removes the top label, swap replaces the top label with a new one, PHP pops the label before the egress LER, and TTL propagation copies the IP TTL into the label TTL field.

172
Multi-Selecthard

Which two statements about EtherChannel configuration and verification are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.On IOS-XE, the 'channel-group 1 mode active' command creates the port-channel interface automatically if it does not exist.
B.The 'show etherchannel load-balance' command displays the current load-balancing method and the hash algorithm used.
C.In a Layer 3 EtherChannel, you must assign an IP address to the port-channel interface and also to each member interface.
D.The 'channel-group 1 mode desirable' command is valid on both IOS-XE and NX-OS platforms.
E.If physical ports in an EtherChannel have different speed or duplex settings, the EtherChannel will still form but with reduced bandwidth.
AnswersA, B

Correct because when the first physical port is added with a mode that enables LACP, the port-channel interface is dynamically created.

Why this answer

EtherChannel interfaces can be configured as Layer 2 (switchport) or Layer 3 (no switchport). The 'channel-group' command assigns a physical port to a port-channel. The 'show etherchannel summary' command displays the state and bundle information.

On NX-OS, the 'channel-group' command uses the 'force' option to override mismatched parameters.

173
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SD-Access fabric border handoff configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with defining the external network, then creating the SVI for the handoff, configuring the routing protocol, applying the border handoff policy, and finally verifying the connectivity. This sequence ensures the border node can properly connect the fabric to external networks.

174
MCQhard

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R9: R9# show ip nat translations Pro Inside global Inside local Outside local Outside global udp 192.0.2.20:1234 10.0.0.20:1234 203.0.113.1:53 203.0.113.1:53 tcp 192.0.2.20:5678 10.0.0.20:5678 198.51.100.1:80 198.51.100.1:80 --- 192.0.2.21 10.0.0.21 --- --- Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.All translations are dynamic.
B.The router is using both static NAT and PAT simultaneously.
C.The router is configured with a single NAT pool.
D.The inside global address 192.0.2.20 is used for both static and dynamic translations.
AnswerB

Static NAT for 10.0.0.21 and PAT for 10.0.0.20 are both active.

Why this answer

The output shows two types of NAT entries: a dynamic PAT entry for UDP (192.0.2.20:1234) and TCP (192.0.2.20:5678), and a static one-to-one translation for 192.0.2.21 to 10.0.0.21 (indicated by '---' in the protocol and port fields). This combination of dynamic PAT and static NAT on the same router confirms that both static NAT and PAT are being used simultaneously.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between static NAT (no ports) and dynamic PAT (with ports) in the 'show ip nat translations' output, leading candidates to mistakenly think all entries are dynamic when they see multiple translations sharing the same inside global address.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the translation for 192.0.2.21 to 10.0.0.21 has no protocol or port, which is characteristic of a static NAT entry, not a dynamic one. Option C is wrong because the presence of both static and dynamic translations does not imply a single NAT pool; static NAT uses a fixed mapping, while dynamic PAT uses a pool or overload, and the output does not indicate a single pool. Option D is wrong because 192.0.2.20 is used only for dynamic PAT translations (with ports), while 192.0.2.21 is the static translation; they are separate inside global addresses.

175
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Cisco ISE profiling and policy assignment flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The flow starts with endpoint authentication via 802.1X/MAB, then ISE collects profiling data (e.g., DHCP, HTTP). ISE matches the endpoint to a profiling policy, assigns an identity group, and finally applies the appropriate authorization policy (e.g., SGT, VLAN).

176
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of a NETCONF get-config operation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The NETCONF get-config operation begins with establishing a secure SSH session, then the client sends a hello message to exchange capabilities. After the server responds with its hello, the client sends the get-config request. The server retrieves the configuration and sends the reply.

177
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about policing and shaping are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Policing can be configured on both ingress and egress interfaces, whereas shaping is typically applied only on egress interfaces.
B.Shaping drops packets that exceed the configured rate, while policing buffers them to meet the rate.
C.Both policing and shaping use a token bucket algorithm to measure traffic rates.
D.Shaping is more suitable than policing for traffic that must be dropped immediately, such as scavenger-class traffic.
E.Policing always introduces additional latency due to queuing, while shaping does not.
AnswersA, C

Correct. Policing is bidirectional; shaping is unidirectional (outbound) because it requires buffering.

Why this answer

Policing drops or re-marks packets that exceed a configured rate, while shaping buffers excess packets and delays them to smooth traffic. Policing can be applied inbound or outbound, but shaping is typically outbound only. Shaping uses a buffer, which can introduce jitter.

178
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each AAA method list on the left to its correct fallback order on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

local case (no server defined): local

RADIUS then local

TACACS+ then local

local (no fallback)

none (no authentication required)

Why these pairings

Method lists define the order of authentication sources. The default login method uses local as fallback; a common RADIUS-first list uses local; a TACACS+-first list uses local; a local-only list uses no fallback; and a none list allows access without authentication.

179
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of LDP session establishment between LSRs into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

LDP session establishment starts with discovering neighbors via Hello messages over UDP, then opening a TCP connection. The LSRs exchange initialization parameters over TCP, followed by Keepalive messages to confirm the session. Finally, label mappings are exchanged for FECs.

180
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The distribution layer provides policy-based connectivity and controls traffic flow between access and core layers.
B.The access layer is responsible for routing between VLANs and providing high-speed switching for the campus backbone.
C.The core layer should be designed for high-speed transport and minimal latency, avoiding CPU-intensive features like ACLs.
D.A two-tier hierarchical design (collapsed core) is recommended for large campus networks with thousands of users.
E.The core layer should enforce security policies and perform packet inspection to protect the campus network.
AnswersA, C

Correct because the distribution layer is the policy enforcement boundary, implementing routing, QoS, and security policies.

Why this answer

The Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture uses a hierarchical model to improve scalability, performance, and manageability. The access layer provides user and device connectivity, often with VLANs and PoE. The distribution layer aggregates access switches and provides policy enforcement, while the core layer provides high-speed transport.

The collapsed core design merges core and distribution for smaller networks. Option A is correct because the distribution layer is indeed the policy enforcement point. Option C is correct because the core layer should be optimized for high-speed switching without complex policies.

Option B is incorrect because the access layer typically does not perform routing between VLANs (that is a distribution layer function). Option D is incorrect because a two-tier design (collapsed core) is actually recommended for smaller campuses, not larger ones. Option E is incorrect because the core layer should not be used for security filtering, which is a distribution layer role.

181
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each ISE policy result on the left to its matching enforcement action on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Downloadable ACL applied to the port after authentication

Assigns the endpoint to a specific VLAN ID

Tags the endpoint with a security group tag for TrustSec

Sets the maximum time before re-authentication is required

Forces HTTP traffic to a captive portal or compliance page

Why these pairings

DACL filters traffic, VLAN assignment places the endpoint, and SGT tagging applies a security group tag.

182
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about NAT configuration on Cisco IOS-XE are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.NAT overload (PAT) allows multiple internal hosts to share a single public IP address by using unique source port numbers.
B.The ip nat inside source list 1 pool POOL overload command enables dynamic NAT without port translation.
C.A static NAT entry is created using the ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.10 203.0.113.10 command.
D.The ip nat outside command is applied to the internal interface to mark it as the source of NAT translations.
E.Dynamic NAT without overload translates multiple inside addresses to a single outside address using port numbers.
AnswersA, C

Correct because PAT uses port multiplexing to distinguish sessions from different internal hosts sharing one global IP.

Why this answer

NAT overload (PAT) translates multiple inside local addresses to a single inside global address using port numbers. The ip nat inside source list command with the overload keyword enables this. The ip nat inside source static command creates a one-to-one mapping, not many-to-one.

Dynamic NAT without overload uses a pool of global addresses one-to-one. The ip nat outside command is applied to the external interface, not inside. NAT can translate source addresses for traffic leaving the inside network.

183
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each DNA Center API category on the left to its matching endpoint group on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Endpoints for inventory, topology, and health summaries

Endpoints for site, building, and floor creation and management

Endpoints for network device discovery and reachability testing

Endpoints for software image management, device reboot, and configuration archive

Endpoints for creating and applying access and QoS policies

Why these pairings

DNA Center API categories map to endpoint groups: Know Your Network includes inventory and topology; Site Management handles building and floor details; Connectivity covers network device discovery; Operational Tasks includes software image management and device reboot.

184
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of OMP route advertisement between vSmart and vEdge into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

OMP route advertisement begins with the vEdge learning a route locally, then originating an OMP route and sending it to vSmart, which processes and installs it in the route table, then advertises it to other vEdge routers, and finally the receiving vEdge installs the OMP route into its forwarding table.

185
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Cisco DNA Center software image management (SWIM) are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco DNA Center allows administrators to define a golden image for each device family and automatically enforce compliance.
B.Cisco DNA Center can upgrade device images remotely without requiring physical access to the devices.
C.Cisco DNA Center SWIM requires all devices to have a TFTP server configured locally to receive new images.
D.Cisco DNA Center SWIM does not provide any compliance reporting or audit trails for image versions.
E.Cisco DNA Center SWIM only supports Cisco Catalyst 9000 series switches and cannot manage older platforms.
AnswersA, B

Correct because SWIM enables setting a desired image version (golden image) and then checking devices against it, flagging non-compliant ones.

Why this answer

SWIM in DNA Center automates image upgrades and compliance. The correct answers describe golden image definition and remote upgrade capabilities. The wrong answers incorrectly claim mandatory TFTP usage, lack of compliance reporting, and that SWIM only works with specific hardware models.

186
MCQeasy

Which BGP attribute is preferred when it has the lowest value?

A.MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator)
B.Local Preference
C.Weight
D.AS Path
AnswerA

The MED attribute is used to indicate the preferred path into an AS; lower MED is better.

Why this answer

The Multi-Exit Discriminator (MED) is a BGP path attribute used to influence inbound traffic to an AS from multiple entry points. A lower MED value is preferred over a higher one, making it the correct answer among the options where the lowest value is preferred.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between attributes where higher is preferred (Local Preference, Weight) versus lower is preferred (MED, AS Path length), and the trap here is that candidates might confuse MED with Local Preference or Weight, both of which use higher values as better.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Local Preference) is wrong because Local Preference is used to influence outbound traffic from an AS, and a higher value is preferred, not lower. Option C (Weight) is wrong because Weight is a Cisco-proprietary attribute that is preferred when it has a higher value, not lower. Option D (AS Path) is wrong because a shorter AS Path length is preferred, meaning a lower count is better, but the question asks for an attribute where the lowest value is preferred, and AS Path is not typically described as a 'value' in the same sense as MED; moreover, AS Path length is a count, not a metric like MED, and the question's phrasing aligns more directly with MED's explicit numeric comparison.

187
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SD-Access layer on the left to its matching technology on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

IS-IS routing protocol for physical network connectivity

VXLAN encapsulation and LISP for host mobility and location

Cisco TrustSec (CTS) for SGT-based access control

Cisco DNA Center for automation and assurance

LISP control plane and VXLAN data plane for fabric forwarding

Why these pairings

The underlay uses IS-IS for physical connectivity, the overlay uses VXLAN and LISP for encapsulation and location mapping, and the policy layer uses CTS for SGT-based segmentation.

188
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each OSPF area type on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Must connect all other areas; area 0

Blocks Type 5 LSAs; allows Type 3 summary LSAs

Blocks Type 5 and Type 3 LSAs; uses default route only

Allows Type 7 LSAs for external routes; blocks Type 5 LSAs

Blocks Type 5 and Type 3; allows Type 7 for external routes

Why these pairings

Backbone area (0) connects all other areas; Stub area blocks Type 5 LSAs but allows Type 3; Totally stubby area blocks both Type 5 and Type 3 (default route only); NSSA allows Type 7 LSAs for external routes but blocks Type 5; NSSA totally stubby blocks Type 5 and Type 3 but allows Type 7.

189
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each CAPWAP message type on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Manages AP configuration, keepalive, and state

Encapsulates user data frames between AP and WLC

Sent by AP to find WLCs

Sent by AP to join a WLC

Sent by WLC to push new settings to AP

Why these pairings

CAPWAP Control messages manage the AP (e.g., keepalive, configuration); CAPWAP Data messages carry user traffic between AP and WLC.

190
Multi-Selecteasy

Which two statements about PortFast are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.PortFast allows a port to transition directly from blocking to forwarding state.
B.PortFast should be enabled on ports that connect to end-user devices.
C.PortFast disables BPDU processing on the port.
D.PortFast is automatically enabled on all trunk ports.
E.PortFast changes the root bridge election process.
AnswersA, B

Correct because PortFast bypasses the listening and learning states, enabling immediate forwarding.

Why this answer

PortFast is a Cisco enhancement that allows a port to transition immediately from blocking to forwarding, bypassing the listening and learning states. It is intended for ports connected to end hosts, not to other switches. When PortFast is enabled, the port still participates in STP BPDU processing, but the BPDU guard feature can be used to protect against accidental loops.

PortFast does not affect the root bridge election or the designated port selection process.

191
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DSCP-to-CoS mapping at LAN boundary into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, trust the DSCP on the ingress interface. Then, map DSCP to CoS using a table-map. Apply the table-map in a policy-map.

Finally, apply the policy-map to the interface.

192
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of the CAPWAP discovery and join process between a lightweight AP and a WLC into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The CAPWAP process starts with the AP obtaining an IP address (via DHCP), then discovering the WLC (via DHCP option 43 or DNS). The AP sends a Discovery Request, the WLC replies with a Discovery Response, and finally the AP sends a Join Request to establish the control tunnel.

193
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each data encoding format on the left to its typical use case on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Human-readable, commonly used in REST APIs

Verbose, supports schemas and namespaces

Human-friendly, often used for configuration files

Compact binary format for efficient serialization

Why these pairings

Correct pairings: JSON is human-readable and widely used in REST APIs; XML is verbose with schema support; YAML is human-friendly for configuration files; Protobuf is a compact binary format for high-performance RPC.

194
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SNMPv3 authentication and privacy negotiation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

SNMPv3 first discovers the engine ID, then negotiates authentication, then privacy, and finally processes the request.

195
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each EIGRP metric component on the left to its matching variable on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Bandwidth

Load

Delay

Reliability

Why these pairings

K1 corresponds to bandwidth, K2 to load, K3 to delay, and K4 to reliability. K5 is not directly assigned to a single metric component; it is a multiplier used with reliability in the metric formula. MTU is not a K variable; it is only used in the feasibility condition.

Exam trap

A common mistake is to assign MTU to K5, but MTU is not a component of the EIGRP metric formula.

196
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about MPLS VPN (Layer 3 VPN) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.PE routers maintain separate VRF instances for each customer.
B.Route distinguishers (RDs) are used to make overlapping customer prefixes unique.
C.Route targets (RTs) control the import and export of routes between VRFs.
D.P routers must maintain customer VPN routing information.
E.MPLS VPNs use a single label to forward packets across the service provider core.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because VRFs isolate customer routing tables on the PE.

Why this answer

In MPLS Layer 3 VPNs, the PE routers maintain separate VRF instances for each customer. Route distinguishers (RDs) make overlapping customer prefixes unique, while route targets (RTs) control the import/export of routes between VRFs. The P (provider) routers do not need to know about customer routes; they only switch based on MPLS labels.

Option D is incorrect because P routers do not maintain customer routes. Option E is incorrect because MPLS VPNs use two labels: the inner label identifies the egress PE, and the outer label is used for transport through the core.

197
Drag & Drophard

Drag and drop the steps of configuring NETCONF YANG-based telemetry with on-change subscription into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, enable NETCONF on the device. Then, define a sensor group that includes the YANG paths to monitor for changes. Next, create a subscription that specifies the sensor group, a receiver, and the on-change update policy.

After that, apply the subscription to activate it. Finally, the device sends updates only when the monitored data changes.

198
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each DTP mode on the left to its matching trunking behavior on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Actively sends DTP frames to form trunk

Passively waits for DTP frames to form trunk

Forces the port to become a trunk regardless of neighbor

Forces the port to be an access port, no trunking

Disables DTP, trunking only if manually configured

Why these pairings

Dynamic desirable actively negotiates trunking; dynamic auto waits for a neighbor to initiate; trunk forces trunking; access forces access mode; non-negotiate disables DTP.

199
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each trunk encapsulation on the left to its matching standard on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Cisco proprietary, encapsulates entire frame with 30-byte header; Does not support native VLAN concept

IEEE standard, inserts 4-byte tag into frame; Supports up to 4094 VLANs

Untagged frames on trunk port

Why these pairings

ISL is Cisco proprietary with 30-byte header; 802.1Q is IEEE standard with 4-byte tag; only 802.1Q supports native VLAN; ISL encapsulates entire frame.

200
Multi-Selecteasy

Which two statements about VLAN configuration and verification on a Cisco IOS switch are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.VLAN 1 and VLANs 1002-1005 cannot be deleted.
B.The 'show vlan brief' command only displays VLANs that have been created on the switch.
C.The 'switchport access vlan 10' command automatically creates VLAN 10 if it does not exist.
D.The 'no switchport' command on a switch port places it into the default VLAN.
E.Extended VLANs (1006-4094) are stored in the vlan.dat file by default.
AnswersA, B

Correct because these are default VLANs that are automatically created and cannot be removed.

Why this answer

Correct: A is true because VLANs 1 and 1002-1005 are reserved (default) and cannot be deleted. B is true because 'show vlan brief' displays only VLANs that exist in the VLAN database, not all possible VLANs. C is incorrect because the 'switchport access vlan' command assigns a port to a VLAN, but the VLAN must already exist or be created first; the command does not automatically create the VLAN.

D is incorrect because 'no switchport' converts the interface to a Layer 3 routed port, which does not participate in VLANs. E is incorrect because the extended VLAN range (1006-4094) is not saved in vlan.dat by default; they are stored in the running configuration.

201
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to configure port security on a Cisco switch in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Port security limits unauthorized MAC addresses; violation mode defines action on violation.

202
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each HTTP method on the left to its matching REST operation on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Retrieve a resource (read data)

Create a new resource

Update or replace an existing resource

Remove a resource

Partially modify an existing resource

Why these pairings

GET retrieves a resource, POST creates a new resource, PUT updates/replaces a resource, DELETE removes a resource, and PATCH partially modifies a resource.

203
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NETCONF edit-config with candidate datastore flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order begins with opening a NETCONF session, locking the candidate datastore, sending the edit-config operation, committing the candidate to running, and finally unlocking the candidate datastore.

204
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about policing and shaping are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Policing can be applied in both the inbound and outbound directions on an interface.
B.Shaping buffers excess packets and may introduce additional delay.
C.Policing uses a token bucket algorithm to measure traffic rates.
D.Shaping can be applied inbound to limit traffic entering an interface.
E.Policing always drops packets that exceed the configured rate and never re-marks them.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because policing is supported on both input and output directions in Cisco IOS.

Why this answer

Policing drops or re-marks traffic exceeding a rate and does not buffer, while shaping buffers and smooths traffic to a lower rate. Both use token bucket algorithms. Shaping introduces delay but reduces drops, whereas policing can cause TCP retransmissions due to drops.

Policing can be applied inbound or outbound, shaping typically outbound.

205
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NFV MANO (VNFM/NFVO/VIM) interaction flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The MANO interaction flow starts with the NFVO receiving a service request from OSS/BSS. The NFVO then requests the VNFM to instantiate a VNF. The VNFM requests the VIM to allocate resources.

The VIM allocates resources and returns resource information to the VNFM. Finally, the VNFM instantiates the VNF and reports status to the NFVO.

206
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about REST API authentication and security are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Token-based authentication typically uses the HTTP Authorization header to pass the token.
B.HTTPS is recommended for REST APIs to ensure data encryption in transit.
C.API keys provide the same level of security as OAuth 2.0 tokens.
D.Basic authentication over HTTP is secure because the credentials are base64-encoded.
E.OAuth 2.0 is an authorization framework that can be used for REST API access.
AnswersA, B, E

Correct because tokens are commonly sent in the Authorization header using the Bearer scheme.

Why this answer

REST APIs often use token-based authentication (e.g., JSON Web Tokens) where the client includes a token in the HTTP Authorization header. HTTPS (TLS) is essential to encrypt the communication and protect credentials. API keys are a common method for identifying clients but are less secure than token-based methods if used alone.

Basic authentication sends credentials in base64 encoding, which is not encrypted and should only be used over HTTPS. OAuth 2.0 is a framework that provides token-based authorization, often used for delegated access.

207
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about queuing and congestion management are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.CBWFQ allows you to define multiple classes and assign each a guaranteed minimum bandwidth.
B.LLQ combines a strict priority queue with CBWFQ classes to support real-time traffic.
C.Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) is the default queuing mechanism on all Cisco router interfaces.
D.Tail drop is the only drop policy available for CBWFQ queues.
E.FIFO queuing provides per-class bandwidth guarantees.
AnswersA, B

Correct because CBWFQ allocates bandwidth to each class based on the 'bandwidth' command.

Why this answer

CBWFQ provides guaranteed bandwidth to classes, while LLQ adds a strict priority queue for delay-sensitive traffic. WFQ is the default on low-speed interfaces. FIFO is used on high-speed interfaces by default.

Tail drop is the default drop policy for FIFO and CBWFQ queues.

208
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about BGP path attributes are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.AS_PATH is a well-known mandatory attribute.
B.LOCAL_PREF is a well-known discretionary attribute.
C.MED is an optional transitive attribute.
D.ORIGIN is a well-known discretionary attribute used for loop prevention.
E.NEXT_HOP is an optional non-transitive attribute.
AnswersA, B

Correct: AS_PATH is well-known mandatory; it is always included in BGP updates and is used for loop prevention and path selection.

Why this answer

The AS_PATH attribute is well-known mandatory and is used for loop prevention and path selection. The LOCAL_PREF attribute is well-known discretionary and is used to influence outbound traffic from an AS. The MED attribute is optional non-transitive and is used to influence inbound traffic.

The ORIGIN attribute is well-known mandatory but not used for loop prevention. The NEXT_HOP attribute is well-known mandatory but is not optional.

209
MCQeasy

What is the maximum hop count for EIGRP?

A.15
B.100
C.255
D.Unlimited
AnswerB

The default maximum hop count for EIGRP is 100.

Why this answer

EIGRP uses a metric based on bandwidth and delay, but it also has a hop count limit. The default maximum hop count is 100, but it can be configured up to 255.

210
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW8: SW8# show monitor session 8 Session 8 --------- Type : Remote Source Session Source VLANs : Both : 30 Destination Ports : Gi1/0/30 Encapsulation : Replicate Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.All traffic on VLAN 30 is mirrored and sent to a remote VLAN via Gi1/0/30.
B.This is a local SPAN session that monitors VLAN 30.
C.Only received traffic on VLAN 30 is captured.
D.The destination port Gi1/0/30 is used to receive mirrored traffic.
AnswerA

The type 'Remote Source Session' and Replicate encapsulation indicate RSPAN.

Why this answer

The output shows a Remote Source SPAN (RSPAN) session, where traffic on VLAN 30 (both sent and received) is replicated and sent out destination port Gi1/0/30. The 'Encapsulation: Replicate' indicates that the mirrored frames are forwarded unchanged to the destination port, which is typically connected to an RSPAN VLAN for transport to a remote monitoring device. Therefore, all traffic on VLAN 30 is mirrored and sent via Gi1/0/30 to a remote VLAN.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between local SPAN, RSPAN, and ERSPAN, and the trap here is that candidates confuse 'Remote Source Session' with a local SPAN or assume 'Both' means only one direction is captured.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the session type is 'Remote Source Session', not a local SPAN session; local SPAN would show 'Local SPAN' and does not use an RSPAN VLAN. Option C is wrong because the output shows 'Both' under Source VLANs, meaning both received and transmitted traffic on VLAN 30 are captured, not only received traffic. Option D is wrong because Gi1/0/30 is configured as a destination port that sends mirrored traffic out, not receives it; a destination port in SPAN is used to transmit mirrored packets to a monitoring device.

211
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of BGP confederations setup between sub-ASes into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

First, you assign the confederation identifier (main AS). Then you define the member sub-AS numbers. Next, you configure eBGP peering between sub-ASes using the sub-AS numbers.

After that, you ensure iBGP is configured within each sub-AS. Finally, you verify confederation peers with show ip bgp neighbors.

212
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about PAgP (Port Aggregation Protocol) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.PAgP uses the multicast MAC address 01-00-0c-cc-cc-cc for its protocol frames.
B.PAgP can negotiate an EtherChannel with a device that runs LACP in active mode.
C.The PAgP modes 'desirable' and 'auto' will form an EtherChannel only if the neighbor is set to 'desirable' or 'auto'.
D.PAgP supports up to 8 ports in a single EtherChannel, with no standby ports.
E.PAgP can detect and report mismatched parameters such as speed and duplex between member ports.
AnswersA, D, E

Correct because PAgP uses the Cisco proprietary multicast address 01-00-0c-cc-cc-cc.

Why this answer

PAgP is a Cisco proprietary protocol for EtherChannel negotiation. It uses modes 'auto', 'desirable', and 'on'. PAgP packets are sent using Cisco's proprietary multicast address 01-00-0c-cc-cc-cc.

PAgP supports up to 8 ports per channel and does not support standby ports. PAgP can detect misconfigurations.

213
MCQeasy

Which BGP attribute is preferred with the lowest value?

A.MULTI_EXIT_DISC (MED)
B.LOCAL_PREF
C.AS_PATH
D.WEIGHT
AnswerA

Correct. MED is used to influence inbound traffic and lower values are preferred.

Why this answer

In BGP path selection, the LOCAL_PREF attribute is used to prefer paths within an AS. A higher LOCAL_PREF is preferred, but the question asks for the attribute preferred with the lowest value. The WEIGHT attribute is Cisco-specific and is preferred with the highest value.

The MULTI_EXIT_DISC (MED) attribute is preferred with the lowest value.

214
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about the Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.MSTP allows multiple VLANs to be mapped to a single spanning-tree instance.
B.MSTP uses an Internal Spanning Tree (IST) to interconnect MST regions.
C.MSTP is backward compatible with 802.1D and RSTP.
D.MSTP requires a separate spanning-tree instance for every VLAN.
E.MSTP uses a different BPDU format than RSTP.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because MSTP reduces the number of STP instances by grouping VLANs, improving scalability.

Why this answer

MSTP (802.1s) allows mapping multiple VLANs to a single spanning-tree instance, reducing the number of STP instances needed. It uses an internal spanning tree (IST) to interconnect MST regions. MSTP is backward compatible with 802.1D and RSTP through the use of common spanning tree (CST) at the region boundary.

MSTP does not require a separate instance for every VLAN like PVST+; it groups VLANs into instances. MSTP uses the same BPDU format as RSTP with additional MST-specific information.

215
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of SPAN session on EtherChannel member ports into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

When using EtherChannel, the SPAN source must be the port-channel interface, not individual members, to capture all traffic.

216
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each SD-WAN policy type on the left to its matching application point on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Applied on vSmart to influence OMP route and TLOC propagation

Applied on WAN edge routers to modify forwarding behavior (e.g., NAT, QoS)

Applied on WAN edge routers to steer traffic based on application and SLA

Applied on WAN edge routers to export NetFlow v9/IPFIX flow records

Applied on vSmart to control which VPNs are advertised to specific sites

Why these pairings

Control policies affect routing decisions; data policies affect forwarding; app-route policies affect per-tunnel path selection; cflowd policies enable traffic flow monitoring.

217
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each syslog severity level on the left to its matching numeric value on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

0

1

2

3

4

Why these pairings

Syslog severity levels range from 0 (Emergency) to 7 (Debug).

218
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about Cisco DNA Center Assurance are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Cisco DNA Center Assurance uses streaming telemetry from devices to monitor network health in real time.
B.Cisco DNA Center Assurance can automatically remediate issues by changing device configurations.
C.Cisco DNA Center Assurance provides a client health score based on RF metrics, application performance, and connectivity.
D.Cisco DNA Center Assurance relies solely on SNMP polling for data collection.
E.Cisco DNA Center Assurance can proactively detect anomalies and send alerts before users are impacted.
AnswersA, C, E

Correct because Assurance leverages model-driven telemetry (e.g., from Cisco IOS-XE) to collect real-time data for analysis.

Why this answer

DNA Center Assurance provides proactive monitoring and troubleshooting using telemetry and AI/ML. The correct answers highlight its use of streaming telemetry, client health scoring, and proactive issue detection. The incorrect options confuse Assurance with automation (configuration changes) or misstate data sources (SNMP polling is secondary to telemetry).

219
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SPAN source type on the left to the traffic it monitors on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Monitors all traffic entering or leaving a single physical interface.

Monitors all traffic on all ports belonging to a specific VLAN.

Monitors all traffic on all member links of a port-channel interface.

Monitors traffic sent to or from the switch CPU (e.g., control plane).

Monitors all traffic on a contiguous set of VLANs.

Why these pairings

A source port monitors all traffic on that specific port; a source VLAN monitors all traffic on all ports in that VLAN; an EtherChannel source monitors all traffic on all member links of the EtherChannel.

220
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each queuing mechanism on the left to its matching feature on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

No classification, single queue, packets served in order of arrival

Automatically classifies flows and provides fair queuing per flow

Allows creation of custom traffic classes with guaranteed bandwidth

Adds a strict priority queue within CBWFQ for delay-sensitive traffic

Multiple queues with strict priority servicing, lower queues starve if higher queues are non-empty

Why these pairings

FIFO is the simplest queuing with no classification; WFQ provides fair bandwidth distribution; CBWFQ allows user-defined classes; LLQ adds a strict priority queue; PQ always services the highest-priority queue first.

221
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid methods to mitigate VLAN hopping attacks?

Select 2 answers
A.Configure switchport mode dynamic auto on all ports.
B.Disable Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) on all access ports.
C.Set the native VLAN to VLAN 1 on all trunk ports.
D.Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID on all trunk ports.
E.Use 802.1Q trunking instead of ISL.
AnswersB, D

Prevents trunk negotiation.

Why this answer

Disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) on all access ports prevents a switch port from automatically negotiating a trunk, which is the primary vector for VLAN hopping attacks. An attacker can spoof DTP messages to force a port into trunking mode, gaining access to multiple VLANs; disabling DTP eliminates this risk.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that simply using 802.1Q trunking (Option E) or setting the native VLAN to VLAN 1 (Option C) provides security, when in fact the key mitigations are disabling DTP on access ports and using an unused native VLAN on trunk ports.

222
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each BGP path selection criterion on the left to its order of preference (1 = highest priority) on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

1

2

3

4

5

Why these pairings

Weight (highest) is checked first, then LOCAL_PREF (highest), then locally originated routes, then AS_PATH (shortest), then ORIGIN (IGP < EGP < incomplete).

223
MCQeasy

Which QoS mechanism is used to prevent congestion by dropping packets before a queue becomes full?

A.Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED)
B.Priority Queuing (PQ)
C.Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)
D.Tail Drop
AnswerA

WRED proactively drops packets to avoid tail drop and global synchronization.

Why this answer

Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is a congestion avoidance mechanism that proactively drops packets before a queue becomes full. By monitoring the average queue depth and dropping packets with a probability that increases as the queue depth grows, WRED signals TCP senders to reduce their transmission rate, thereby preventing tail drop and global synchronization. This differs from congestion management mechanisms like PQ or CBWFQ, which only act on packets after the queue is full.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between congestion management (queuing/scheduling) and congestion avoidance (drop policy), so the trap here is that candidates confuse mechanisms like CBWFQ or PQ (which manage queues after they form) with WRED (which prevents queues from filling up in the first place).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Priority Queuing (PQ) is a congestion management mechanism that services queues in strict priority order, not a congestion avoidance mechanism; it does not drop packets before the queue is full. Option C is wrong because Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ) is a scheduling mechanism that allocates bandwidth to classes and queues packets, but it does not proactively drop packets to prevent congestion. Option D is wrong because Tail Drop is a passive congestion management mechanism that drops packets only when the queue is completely full, which can cause global TCP synchronization and does not prevent congestion by dropping packets early.

224
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each protocol on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses UDP transport; Encrypts only the password in the packet; Combines authentication and authorization into one process

Uses TCP transport; Encrypts the entire packet payload

Why these pairings

RADIUS uses UDP, encrypts only the password, and combines authentication and authorization. TACACS+ uses TCP, encrypts the entire packet, and separates authentication, authorization, and accounting.

225
MCQeasy

A network administrator needs to allow SSH access to a router from the management network 192.168.1.0/24. Which configuration should be applied?

A.Apply an extended ACL to the vty lines.
B.Apply a named ACL to the interface.
C.Apply an ACL to the console line.
D.Apply a standard ACL to the vty lines.
AnswerD

Standard ACL can filter by source IP.

Why this answer

A standard ACL applied to the vty lines is the proper method to restrict SSH access to a router from a specific source network. Standard ACLs filter based on source IP address, and when applied to the vty lines with the 'access-class' command, they control which management hosts can initiate inbound SSH sessions to the router.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between filtering traffic destined to the router (vty access-class) versus traffic passing through the router (interface ACL), leading candidates to incorrectly apply an ACL to an interface instead of the vty lines.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an extended ACL can filter on source and destination IP addresses and ports, but applying it to the vty lines is not supported; vty lines only accept standard ACLs via the 'access-class' command. Option B is wrong because applying a named ACL to an interface filters traffic passing through the router, not traffic destined to the router itself (such as SSH management access). Option C is wrong because the console line is used for local out-of-band management and does not support SSH access; ACLs applied to the console line would not affect remote SSH sessions.

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