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ENCOR 350-401 (350-401) — Questions 901975

1175 questions total · 16pages · All types, answers revealed

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901
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each PIM mode on the left to its matching traffic distribution method on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Uses explicit join messages to build a shared tree

Floods multicast traffic on all interfaces, then prunes unwanted branches

Builds shortest path trees from source to receivers

Uses a shared tree with no source-specific state

Operates in sparse mode by default, but allows dense mode per group

Why these pairings

PIM Sparse Mode uses explicit join to build a shared tree; Dense Mode floods initially then prunes; Source-Specific Mode uses shortest path trees from source; Bidirectional PIM uses a shared tree with no source-specific state.

902
MCQmedium

A company is virtualizing its network functions using NFV on a KVM-based hypervisor. The design must ensure that the virtual router (CSR1000v) can handle high-throughput traffic with minimal latency. Which architectural consideration is most critical for achieving this goal?

A.Pin the vCPU of the CSR1000v to dedicated physical cores and ensure the VM memory is allocated from the same NUMA node.
B.Use a Type 2 hypervisor to allow the VNF to share resources with other VMs more efficiently.
C.Enable overcommitment of CPU resources to maximize the number of VNFs per host.
D.Place the CSR1000v on a VMware ESXi host instead of KVM for better performance.
AnswerA

CPU pinning and NUMA locality reduce latency and improve performance by avoiding cross-NUMA memory access.

Why this answer

Pinning vCPUs to dedicated physical cores and allocating memory from the same NUMA node eliminates cross-NUMA memory access and CPU scheduling contention, which are critical for reducing latency and maximizing throughput in a data-plane-intensive VNF like the CSR1000v. This ensures that the VM's memory accesses are local to the NUMA node where its vCPUs run, avoiding the performance penalty of remote memory access over the QPI/UPI interconnect.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that simply using a Type 1 hypervisor or avoiding overcommitment is sufficient, but the trap here is that candidates overlook the critical impact of NUMA locality and vCPU pinning on latency-sensitive VNFs, assuming that any virtualization optimization will suffice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Type 2 hypervisor (hosted on an OS) introduces additional overhead and is less performant for high-throughput NFV workloads compared to a Type 1 hypervisor like KVM, which runs directly on hardware. Option C is wrong because CPU overcommitment allows multiple vCPUs to share physical cores, which can cause resource contention and increased latency, directly undermining the goal of minimal latency for the CSR1000v. Option D is wrong because the question specifically states the design uses KVM, and while ESXi can be performant, the architectural consideration for achieving minimal latency on KVM is NUMA-aware pinning, not switching hypervisors; the correct answer addresses the universal principle of NUMA locality regardless of hypervisor.

903
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of VRF import/export route-target policy flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The order starts with configuring the export RT on the VRF, the PE advertising the VPNv4 route with that RT, the remote PE receiving the route and comparing the RT with its import RT list, if matched the route is imported into the VRF, and finally the route is installed in the VRF routing table.

904
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of traffic shaping vs policing configuration steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for configuring traffic shaping or policing is: first, define a class map to match the desired traffic (A); second, create a policy map that specifies the shape or police action (B); third, apply the service policy to the interface (C); fourth, verify the policy using the show policy-map interface command (D); and finally, adjust the shaping rate or policing burst as needed based on verification results (E). This sequence ensures that traffic classification and policy definition are completed before applying the policy, and verification is done before making adjustments.

905
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of TrustSec SGT assignment and propagation via SXP into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

SGT propagation via SXP starts with ISE assigning an SGT to an endpoint, the access switch mapping IP-to-SGT, then the SXP speaker sending that mapping to an SXP listener, which updates its local SGT cache, and finally the listener uses the SGT for policy enforcement.

906
MCQeasy

What is the default OSPF hello interval on a broadcast multi-access network (e.g., Ethernet)?

A.10 seconds
B.30 seconds
C.40 seconds
D.5 seconds
AnswerA

The default hello interval for OSPF on broadcast and point-to-point networks is 10 seconds.

Why this answer

On broadcast multi-access networks like Ethernet, OSPF defaults to a hello interval of 10 seconds. This is defined in RFC 2328 and is used to quickly detect neighbor failures while keeping overhead low. The corresponding dead interval is 40 seconds (4 times the hello interval).

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between hello and dead intervals, and candidates frequently confuse the 40-second dead interval with the hello interval, or mistakenly apply NBMA defaults to broadcast networks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 30 seconds is the default hello interval for OSPF on non-broadcast multi-access (NBMA) networks, such as Frame Relay, not on broadcast multi-access networks. Option C is wrong because 40 seconds is the default dead interval on broadcast multi-access networks, not the hello interval. Option D is wrong because 5 seconds is not a standard OSPF default hello interval; it is sometimes used in tuned configurations for faster convergence but is not the default.

907
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about SD-WAN overlay tunnels and transport are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Control plane communication between vSmart and edge devices uses DTLS or TLS encryption.
B.Data plane tunnels between edge devices are encrypted using IPsec with IKEv2 key exchange.
C.A TLOC (Transport Location) is defined by the combination of system IP, color, and encapsulation type.
D.SD-WAN edge devices can only use MPLS or Internet as transport; LTE is not supported.
E.OMP is responsible for dynamically establishing IPsec tunnels between edge devices based on policy.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because the control plane (vSmart to edge) uses DTLS by default, with TLS as an option.

Why this answer

SD-WAN uses DTLS or TLS for secure control plane tunnels, and IPsec for data plane tunnels. Each edge device builds multiple IPsec tunnels to other edge devices based on TLOC mapping. The transport can be any combination of MPLS, Internet, or LTE.

TLOC uniquely identifies a WAN attachment point. OMP manages route distribution, not tunnel establishment.

908
MCQmedium

Consider the following configuration snippet: interface Port-channel1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,30 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 channel-group 1 mode active ! interface GigabitEthernet0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive What is the effect of this configuration?

A.The EtherChannel will form using LACP, and the port-channel will operate as a trunk carrying VLANs 10, 20, and 30.
B.The EtherChannel will not form because both sides must use the same LACP mode.
C.The EtherChannel will form using PAgP because the mode is not specified as lacp.
D.The EtherChannel will form but only VLAN 1 will be allowed on the trunk.
AnswerA

Correct. LACP active/passive will negotiate, and the port-channel trunk configuration applies to all member ports.

Why this answer

The configuration uses LACP with one side in active mode (GigabitEthernet0/1) and the other in passive mode (GigabitEthernet0/2). LACP allows an active/passive combination to form an EtherChannel, unlike PAgP which requires at least one side to be in desirable mode. The trunk and allowed VLANs are configured on the port-channel interface, which applies to all member ports once the channel is established.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that both sides of an LACP EtherChannel must use the same mode (active/active or passive/passive), but in fact active/passive works, while passive/passive does not form a channel.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because LACP does not require both sides to use the same mode; active/passive is a valid combination that forms an EtherChannel. Option C is wrong because the channel-group mode commands use LACP keywords (active/passive), not PAgP keywords (desirable/auto); PAgP is not involved here. Option D is wrong because the 'switchport trunk allowed vlan' command on the port-channel interface explicitly permits VLANs 10, 20, and 30, not just VLAN 1.

909
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of ISE profiling-based dynamic ACL assignment into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

ISE profiling identifies the device type via DHCP/HTTP probes, matches it to a profile, then ISE downloads a dynamic ACL to the switch, which applies it to the port, and finally the switch enforces the ACL on traffic from that endpoint.

910
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each WAN technology on the left to its matching OSI layer on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Layer 2.5

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 3

Layer 2

Why these pairings

MPLS operates at Layer 2.5 (between Layer 2 and Layer 3). Metro Ethernet is a Layer 2 technology. SD-WAN is a Layer 3 overlay technology.

DMVPN is a Layer 3 VPN technology.

911
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DNA Center network discovery and device sync into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with defining the discovery range (IP/subnet), then running the discovery, then the discovered devices are added to inventory, then DNA Center syncs the device configurations, and finally the devices are assigned to sites. This ensures devices are properly discovered, inventoried, and placed in the hierarchy.

912
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each traffic direction on the left to the correct SPAN keyword used to monitor it on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Monitors only traffic received on the source port.

Monitors only traffic transmitted from the source port.

Monitors both received and transmitted traffic on the source port.

Synonym for rx, monitors only incoming traffic.

Synonym for tx, monitors only outgoing traffic.

Why these pairings

The 'rx' keyword monitors only received traffic; 'tx' monitors only transmitted traffic; 'both' monitors both directions; 'ingress' and 'egress' are alternative keywords for the same concepts.

913
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a valid VLAN range that can be created on a Cisco IOS switch?

A.VLAN 100
B.VLAN 0
C.VLAN 4095
D.VLAN 1006
AnswerA

Correct. VLAN 100 is within the standard range of 1-1005.

Why this answer

VLAN 100 is a valid VLAN ID because Cisco IOS switches support VLANs in the range 1–1005 for normal-range VLANs, and VLAN 100 falls within this range. Normal-range VLANs are stored in the vlan.dat file and can be created on a standard IOS switch without requiring extended VLAN configuration.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that any VLAN ID from 1 to 4094 is valid on any switch, but the trap here is that extended VLANs (1006–4094) require specific VTP modes or configuration, and VLANs 0, 1002–1005, and 4095 are reserved or not user-creatable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because VLAN 0 is reserved and cannot be used; VLAN IDs start at 1. Option C is wrong because VLAN 4095 is reserved for implementation use and is not available for user-created VLANs; the maximum usable VLAN ID is 4094. Option D is wrong because VLAN 1006 is in the extended VLAN range (1006–4094), which requires a switch running in transparent mode or with VTP version 3, and is not a valid normal-range VLAN that can be created by default on a standard IOS switch.

914
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about Cisco SD-WAN security and segmentation are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Data plane traffic between vEdge routers is encrypted using IPsec tunnels.
B.Control plane traffic between vSmart and vEdge routers is secured using DTLS or TLS.
C.VPN segmentation in SD-WAN allows traffic from different tenants or departments to be isolated using separate VRFs on the vEdge routers.
D.Data plane encryption is performed between vSmart controllers and vEdge routers to protect OMP updates.
E.VPN segmentation is configured on the vSmart controller and pushed to vEdge routers via OMP.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because IPsec is used to encrypt all data traffic traversing the overlay tunnels between WAN Edge routers.

Why this answer

Cisco SD-WAN uses IPsec for data plane encryption and supports multiple VPN segments (VRFs) for traffic isolation. Control plane encryption is also provided using DTLS or TLS. The data plane encryption is between vEdge routers, not between vSmart and vEdge.

VPN segmentation is configured on vEdge routers, not on vSmart. The vBond orchestrator does not participate in data plane encryption.

915
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about BGP path attributes are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The AS_PATH attribute is well-known mandatory.
B.The LOCAL_PREF attribute is well-known discretionary.
C.The MED attribute is well-known mandatory.
D.The ORIGIN attribute is optional transitive.
E.The COMMUNITY attribute is well-known mandatory.
AnswersA, B

Correct because AS_PATH is always included in BGP updates and is well-known mandatory.

Why this answer

The AS_PATH attribute is well-known mandatory and is used for loop prevention and path selection. The LOCAL_PREF attribute is well-known discretionary and is used to influence outbound traffic from an AS. The MED attribute is optional non-transitive, not well-known.

The ORIGIN attribute is well-known mandatory. The COMMUNITY attribute is optional transitive.

916
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of troubleshooting a failed RSPAN session into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with verifying the RSPAN VLAN exists and is active on all switches, then checking that trunk links carry the RSPAN VLAN, then confirming the source SPAN session is correctly configured, then inspecting the destination SPAN session, and finally using debug or monitor commands to isolate the issue.

917
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three statements about syslog message severity levels are correct? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Severity level 0 (emergencies) indicates the system is unusable.
B.Severity level 3 (errors) includes error conditions that still allow the system to function.
C.Severity level 5 (notifications) is used for normal but significant conditions, such as interface up/down.
D.Severity level 6 (informational) is used for debugging messages that are only useful during troubleshooting.
E.The default logging console severity level on Cisco IOS is 3 (errors).
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because level 0 is the highest severity and indicates a system-wide failure or emergency.

Why this answer

Syslog severity levels range from 0 (emergency) to 7 (debugging). The logging console default is usually level 7 (debugging) but can be changed. Level 3 (errors) includes error conditions that still allow the system to function.

Level 5 (notifications) is for normal but significant conditions. Level 6 (informational) is for informational messages. Level 0 is the highest severity (most critical).

918
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of EIGRP route summarization configuration into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

EIGRP route summarization first requires enabling EIGRP, configuring the network statement, then entering interface configuration mode, applying the summary-address command, and finally verifying the summary route in the routing table.

919
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each MQC component on the left to its matching role on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Defines traffic classification using match statements; Uses match commands to identify traffic

Defines QoS actions (e.g., bandwidth, priority) for each class; Contains class blocks that reference class-maps

Applies a policy-map to an interface (input or output)

Why these pairings

class-map defines traffic classification criteria, policy-map defines the QoS actions to apply, service-policy applies the policy-map to an interface, class-map uses match statements, and policy-map uses class statements.

920
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Switch SW2: SW2# show spanning-tree vlan 20 VLAN0020 Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee Root ID Priority 24596 Address aabb.cc00.0200 Cost 4 Port 1 (GigabitEthernet0/1) Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Bridge ID Priority 32778 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 20) Address aabb.cc00.0300 Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec Aging Time 300 sec Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type ------------------- ---- --- --------- -------- ------------------------------ Gi0/1 Root FWD 4 128.1 P2p Gi0/2 Desg FWD 4 128.2 P2p Gi0/3 Altn BLK 4 128.3 P2p Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.SW2 is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B.GigabitEthernet0/3 is in the Blocking state to prevent a loop.
C.The root port cost is 8.
D.SW2's bridge priority is 32768.
AnswerB

Correct. Gi0/3 is shown as Altn BLK (Alternate, Blocking), which prevents a loop.

Why this answer

The output shows that SW2's Gi0/3 is in the Alternate (Altn) role and Blocking (BLK) state. In Rapid PVST+ (IEEE 802.1w), an alternate port provides a backup path to the root bridge and is placed in a blocking state to prevent Layer 2 loops. This confirms that Gi0/3 is blocking to maintain a loop-free topology.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the root bridge's priority and a non-root switch's priority, including the sys-id-ext addition, so candidates mistakenly think the bridge priority is the base priority without adding the VLAN ID.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SW2 is not the root bridge; the Root ID shows priority 24596 and address aabb.cc00.0200, while SW2's Bridge ID has priority 32778 and address aabb.cc00.0300, so SW2 is a non-root switch. Option C is wrong because the root port cost is explicitly shown as 4 (under the Root ID section, Cost 4), not 8. Option D is wrong because SW2's bridge priority is 32778 (priority 32768 + sys-id-ext 20), not 32768; the sys-id-ext (VLAN ID) is added to the base priority.

921
MCQmedium

Which statement correctly describes the difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

A.RADIUS encrypts the entire packet; TACACS+ encrypts only the password.
B.RADIUS encrypts only the password; TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet body.
C.Both protocols encrypt the entire packet.
D.Neither protocol encrypts any part of the packet.
AnswerB

Correct. RADIUS encrypts only the password attribute, while TACACS+ encrypts the entire payload.

Why this answer

RADIUS encrypts only the password attribute in the Access-Request packet using a shared secret and MD5 hash, leaving the rest of the packet (e.g., username, service type) in cleartext. TACACS+ encrypts the entire body of the packet (all fields except the standard header) using a shared secret and MD5-based encryption, providing confidentiality for all AAA information. This makes option B correct because it accurately describes the encryption scope difference between the two protocols.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that RADIUS encrypts more than it actually does; the trap here is assuming RADIUS encrypts the entire packet like TACACS+, when in fact RADIUS only encrypts the password attribute, while TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet body.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it reverses the encryption behavior: RADIUS encrypts only the password, not the entire packet, while TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet body, not just the password. Option C is wrong because RADIUS does not encrypt the entire packet; only the password is encrypted, and other fields like username and NAS-IP-Address are sent in cleartext. Option D is wrong because both protocols do encrypt at least some part of the packet: RADIUS encrypts the password, and TACACS+ encrypts the entire packet body.

922
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of RSPAN session configuration and traffic flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order starts with creating a dedicated VLAN for RSPAN traffic, then configuring the source switch to monitor traffic and forward it to that VLAN, followed by configuring the intermediate switches to transport the RSPAN VLAN, then configuring the destination switch to receive and analyze the traffic, and finally verifying end-to-end packet flow.

923
MCQmedium

spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst What is the effect of this global configuration command?

A.The switch will use Rapid PVST+ for all VLANs, providing faster convergence than classic STP.
B.The switch will use MSTP for all VLANs.
C.The switch will use classic STP for all VLANs.
D.The switch will disable STP on all ports.
AnswerA

Rapid PVST+ is the Cisco implementation of RSTP per VLAN.

Why this answer

The command 'spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst' enables Rapid PVST+ (Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus) on the switch, which runs a separate instance of RSTP (802.1w) for each VLAN. This provides faster convergence than classic STP (802.1D) by using mechanisms such as sync/agreement handshakes, edge ports, and link types, while still maintaining per-VLAN topology independence.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'rapid-pvst' (RSTP per VLAN) and 'mst' (MSTP, which maps multiple VLANs to fewer instances), and candidates may confuse 'rapid-pvst' with simply enabling RSTP globally without understanding it applies per VLAN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because MSTP (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol, 802.1s) is enabled with the command 'spanning-tree mode mst', not 'rapid-pvst'. Option C is wrong because classic STP (802.1D) is the default mode on many switches or is set with 'spanning-tree mode pvst', not with 'rapid-pvst'. Option D is wrong because the command does not disable STP; STP is disabled globally with 'no spanning-tree vlan <vlan>' or 'spanning-tree mode none' (if supported), not by setting the mode to rapid-pvst.

924
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of LDP session establishment between LSRs into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

LDP session establishment starts with Hello discovery via UDP, then TCP connection setup, LDP initialization with parameters, label exchange via KeepAlive and Label Mapping, and finally session up with full label exchange.

925
MCQhard

A network engineer is configuring model-driven telemetry on a Cisco IOS-XE router to stream CPU and memory statistics to a collector. The engineer wants to use the YANG model 'Cisco-IOS-XE-process-cpu-oper' and 'Cisco-IOS-XE-memory-oper'. After configuring the telemetry subscription, the engineer notices that no data is being received at the collector. The collector is reachable and the gRPC dial-out is configured correctly. What is the most likely cause of the issue?

A.The YANG models specified are not supported on IOS-XE
B.The telemetry subscription is missing the 'source-interface' configuration
C.The collector is blocking UDP traffic from the router
D.The engineer must enable 'ip http secure-server' for telemetry to work
AnswerB

Without a source-interface, the router may use an unreachable IP address, causing the collector to drop the connection or not receive data.

Why this answer

That the YANG models are operational data models and require the 'source-address' to be specified under the telemetry receiver, or the subscription must be for operational data. Actually, the most likely cause is that the engineer did not include the 'source-interface' configuration under the telemetry subscription, which is required for dial-out telemetry to ensure the router uses the correct IP address. The other options are incorrect because the collector is reachable, so firewall is not the issue; YANG models are correct; and gRPC is supported.

926
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each flow record field on the left to its matching category (key or non-key) on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Key field

Key field

Key field

Non-key field

Non-key field

Why these pairings

Key fields define a unique flow (e.g., source IP, destination IP, protocol). Non-key fields provide additional data (e.g., byte count, packet count, timestamps).

927
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about model-driven telemetry are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Model-driven telemetry uses a pull model where the collector requests data from network devices.
B.Telemetry subscriptions can be configured to report data on a periodic interval or when a value changes.
C.gRPC and gNMI are common transport protocols used for model-driven telemetry.
D.Model-driven telemetry requires the use of SNMP for data encoding.
E.YANG data models define the structure and semantics of telemetry data.
AnswersB, C, E

Subscriptions support both periodic (cadence-based) and on-change reporting.

Why this answer

Model-driven telemetry (MDT) uses YANG data models and supports both periodic and on-change subscriptions. It uses a push model, reducing polling overhead. gRPC and gNMI are common transport protocols. Telemetry data can be encoded in JSON or GPB.

928
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DNA Center SWIM (Software Image Management) upgrade flow into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order begins with importing the image into the image repository, then distributing the image to the device, then activating the image (setting it as the boot image), then rebooting the device, and finally verifying the new version. This ensures a controlled upgrade process.

929
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of AAA accounting for command logging setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

To log commands via AAA accounting, you first enable AAA globally, then configure the accounting method list for exec or commands, apply it to the desired lines, and finally verify that commands are being sent to the accounting server.

930
MCQhard

A network engineer is troubleshooting an issue where Cisco DNA Center is not sending configuration changes to a group of switches. The engineer checks the Provisioning dashboard and sees that the devices are in 'Pending' state. The engineer has already created the intent (network profile) and assigned it to the site. What is the most likely cause?

A.The engineer has not executed the Provision workflow to deploy the configuration.
B.The devices are not reachable from DNA Center.
C.The DNA Center appliance is out of disk space.
D.The network profile contains an invalid configuration.
AnswerA

Correct because 'Pending' means the configuration is ready but not yet deployed; the engineer must run the Provision workflow.

Why this answer

In Cisco DNA Center, provisioning is a multi-step process. After creating intent, the engineer must explicitly run the Provision workflow to push the configuration. The 'Pending' state indicates that the intent has been defined but not yet deployed.

The engineer must start the provisioning job to push the configuration to the devices.

931
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about LDP (Label Distribution Protocol) are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.LDP uses UDP to send Hello messages for neighbor discovery.
B.LDP establishes TCP sessions between LSRs to exchange label bindings.
C.LDP assigns labels to all prefixes in the routing table by default.
D.LDP supports traffic engineering by reserving bandwidth along LSPs.
E.LDP uses OSPF to distribute label bindings across the network.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because LDP Hellos are sent as UDP packets to the multicast address 224.0.0.2 on port 646.

Why this answer

LDP uses Hello messages (UDP on port 646) for neighbor discovery and TCP (port 646) for session establishment and label exchange. LDP assigns labels to all prefixes in the routing table by default. LDP does not support traffic engineering; RSVP-TE is used for that.

LDP does not use OSPF for label distribution; it has its own discovery and session mechanisms.

932
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about using Python for configuration management and templating in network automation are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Jinja2 templates allow the use of variables and control structures like loops and conditionals to generate network device configurations.
B.A Python script can load a Jinja2 template, render it with device-specific data, and push the resulting configuration to a network device.
C.Jinja2 can be used to execute CLI commands on network devices directly from within the template.
D.Jinja2 is a Python library used for parsing YAML files.
E.Python cannot be used to generate configuration files because it lacks templating capabilities.
AnswersA, B

Correct because Jinja2 is a powerful templating engine that supports variables, for loops, if statements, and filters, making it ideal for generating dynamic configurations.

Why this answer

The correct answers focus on Jinja2 templating and its integration with Python. The incorrect options either misstate Jinja2's capabilities (it does not execute commands), misidentify the library for YAML parsing (PyYAML, not Jinja2), or incorrectly claim that Python cannot be used for configuration generation (it can, via templates).

933
MCQmedium

Given the following configuration on a Cisco IOS-XE device: router ospf 1 network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip ospf cost 10 ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 10.2.2.1 255.255.255.0 ! Which statement is true about OSPF operation?

A.Both interfaces will have an OSPF cost of 10.
B.GigabitEthernet0/0 will have an OSPF cost of 10, and GigabitEthernet0/1 will have a default cost based on its bandwidth.
C.Both interfaces will have the same OSPF cost because they are in the same area.
D.OSPF will not run on either interface because the network command uses a wildcard mask of 0.255.255.255.
AnswerB

Correct. The explicit cost applies only to the interface it is configured on. The other interface uses the default cost.

Why this answer

The 'ip ospf cost' command overrides the default cost calculation based on bandwidth. The network command matches both interfaces because they fall under 10.0.0.0/8.

934
MCQmedium

A network engineer writes the following Python script to collect telemetry data from a Cisco IOS-XE device using NETCONF: ```python from ncclient import manager m = manager.connect( host='192.168.1.1', port=830, username='admin', password='cisco', hostkey_verify=False ) filter = ''' <filter xmlns="urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:netconf:base:1.0"> <interfaces xmlns="http://openconfig.net/yang/interfaces"> <interface> <name>GigabitEthernet1</name> </interface> </interfaces> </filter> ''' reply = m.get(filter=('subtree', filter)) print(reply.xml) m.close_session() ``` What is the issue with this code?

A.The filter is passed as a string instead of a tuple with filter type.
B.The hostkey_verify=False is insecure and should be set to True.
C.The interface name should be 'GigabitEthernet0/0' to match Cisco naming.
D.The filter XML uses the wrong namespace for interfaces.
AnswerA

ncclient requires filter=('subtree', filter_xml) to specify the filter type.

Why this answer

The filter is passed as a string but the ncclient library expects a tuple with the filter type and the filter content. The correct syntax is filter=('subtree', filter_string). The code passes a single string, which will cause a TypeError.

935
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of WLC high availability SSO failover steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In HA SSO, the active WLC fails, the standby detects the failure via RP link, takes over the active role, reinitializes interfaces, and then clients reassociate to the new active WLC.

936
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about virtual machine migration (vMotion/VMware) or live migration (Hyper-V) are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.During live migration, the virtual machine must be powered off to transfer memory contents.
B.Live migration copies the memory state of the VM from the source host to the destination host while the VM continues to run.
C.Live migration requires that both source and destination hosts use the same shared storage for the VM's virtual disks.
D.Both source and destination hosts must have compatible CPU feature sets to ensure the VM does not encounter instruction errors after migration.
E.After a live migration, the virtual machine's IP address changes to match the new network segment.
AnswersB, D

Correct because the hypervisor iteratively copies memory pages to the destination with minimal downtime.

Why this answer

Live migration moves a running VM between hosts with minimal downtime. Option B is correct because live migration typically copies memory pages iteratively while the VM runs. Option D is correct because both the source and destination hosts must have compatible CPU features (e.g., same CPU family or Enhanced vMotion Compatibility).

Option A is incorrect because the VM must remain powered on during live migration. Option C is incorrect because shared storage is often used but not mandatory; storage vMotion can migrate without shared storage. Option E is incorrect because the VM retains its IP address and network state after migration.

937
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of NAT overload (PAT) packet translation process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The PAT process begins with a host sending a packet with a private source IP and port. The router creates a NAT entry mapping the private address and port to the outside global address and a unique port. It then translates the source IP and port in the packet.

When the reply arrives, the router looks up the NAT table to find the original mapping. Finally, it translates the destination back to the private IP and port and forwards the packet to the host.

938
MCQhard

A network engineer uses the following Python code to subscribe to telemetry data from a Cisco IOS-XE device via NETCONF using the YANG module 'Cisco-IOS-XE-mdt-oper': ```python from ncclient import manager m = manager.connect( host='192.168.1.1', port=830, username='admin', password='cisco', hostkey_verify=False ) # Create a telemetry subscription subscription = ''' <config> <mdt-config-data xmlns="http://cisco.com/ns/yang/Cisco-IOS-XE-mdt-cfg"> <mdt-subscription> <subscription-id>400</subscription-id> <base> <stream>yang-push</stream> <encoding>encode-kvgpb</encoding> <period>5000</period> <xpath>/interfaces/interface/state/counters</xpath> </base> <mdt-receivers> <address>10.1.1.100</address> <port>50051</port> <protocol>grpc-tcp</protocol> </mdt-receivers> </mdt-subscription> </mdt-config-data> </config> ''' reply = m.edit_config(target='running', config=subscription) print(reply.xml) m.close_session() ``` What is the issue with this code?

A.The code uses target='running' which may not be writable; it should use target='candidate' and then commit.
B.The XML namespace is incorrect; it should be 'http://cisco.com/ns/yang/Cisco-IOS-XE-mdt-oper'.
C.The xpath is invalid; it should be '/interfaces/interface/state/counters'.
D.The subscription-id should be a string, not an integer.
AnswerA

IOS-XE NETCONF typically requires candidate configuration and commit.

Why this answer

The NETCONF edit-config operation with target='running' is used to directly modify the running configuration. However, on many Cisco IOS-XE devices, the running configuration is not directly writable via NETCONF; you must use target='candidate' and then commit. Additionally, the XML namespace for mdt-config-data may be incorrect; the correct namespace is 'http://cisco.com/ns/yang/Cisco-IOS-XE-mdt-cfg' but the module name is 'Cisco-IOS-XE-mdt-cfg'.

However, the primary issue is that the code uses target='running' instead of target='candidate' and a separate commit operation.

939
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each Cisco security feature on the left to its matching OSI layer on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4

Layer 7

Layer 2

Why these pairings

Port security operates at Layer 2, ACLs at Layer 3, firewall at Layer 4, IPS at Layer 7, and 802.1X at Layer 2.

940
Multi-Selecteasy

Which two statements about VRF-lite configuration are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.In VRF-lite, each VRF maintains its own independent routing table.
B.Interfaces are assigned to a VRF using the 'ip vrf forwarding' command under interface configuration.
C.VRF-lite requires MPLS enabled on all interfaces.
D.VRF-lite can only use static routes for inter-VRF communication.
E.A router can have at most two VRFs configured.
AnswersA, B

Correct because the core concept of VRF-lite is per-VRF routing tables for path isolation.

Why this answer

VRF-lite provides path isolation on a single router without MPLS. The correct answers describe that VRF-lite uses separate routing tables and that interfaces are assigned to VRFs. The incorrect options wrongly claim that VRF-lite requires MPLS or that it supports only static routing.

941
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each YANG statement on the left to its matching function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Groups related nodes into a subtree

Defines a single scalar value node

Defines a sequence of entries with keys

Defines an array of scalar values

Defines a derived type from an existing base type

Why these pairings

In YANG, container groups related nodes, leaf holds a single scalar value, list defines a sequence of entries, leaf-list is an array of scalar values, and typedef defines a derived type.

942
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about encoding formats in model-driven telemetry are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Google Protocol Buffers (GPB) provide a compact, binary encoding that reduces bandwidth usage.
B.JSON encoding is human-readable and supported by both gRPC and RESTCONF telemetry.
C.XML encoding is verbose but is the default for NETCONF-based telemetry subscriptions.
D.YANG defines the encoding format for telemetry data.
E.CBOR is a binary encoding format used exclusively in Cisco IOS-XE telemetry.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because GPB is efficient and commonly used in high-performance telemetry.

Why this answer

GPB is compact and efficient, often used with gRPC. JSON is human-readable and widely supported. XML is verbose but used in NETCONF.

YANG does not define encoding; it defines data models. CBOR is not commonly used in Cisco telemetry.

943
MCQmedium

A network engineer runs the following command on Router R5: R5# show ip ospf border-routers OSPF Process 1 internal Routing Table Codes: i - Intra-area route, I - Inter-area route i 1.1.1.1 [110/10] via 192.168.1.1, GigabitEthernet0/0, ABR, Area 0, SPF 5 i 2.2.2.2 [110/20] via 192.168.1.2, GigabitEthernet0/0, ASBR, Area 0, SPF 5 Based on this output, what can be concluded?

A.Router 1.1.1.1 connects area 0 to another OSPF area.
B.Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router.
C.Router 1.1.1.1 is redistributing external routes into OSPF.
D.The route to 2.2.2.2 is an inter-area route.
AnswerA

ABR indicates it connects multiple areas.

Why this answer

The output shows an entry for 1.1.1.1 with the label 'ABR' (Area Border Router) and a route type of 'i' (intra-area). An ABR connects two or more OSPF areas, so Router 1.1.1.1 must be connecting Area 0 to another OSPF area. The metric [110/10] and next-hop 192.168.1.1 confirm it is reachable within Area 0.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between ABR and ASBR roles in the 'show ip ospf border-routers' output, where candidates mistakenly assume any border router is an ABR or confuse the 'i' and 'I' route codes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the output explicitly labels 2.2.2.2 as 'ASBR' (Autonomous System Boundary Router), not ABR; an ASBR redistributes external routes into OSPF, it does not connect areas. Option C is wrong because 1.1.1.1 is labeled 'ABR', not 'ASBR'; only an ASBR redistributes external routes into OSPF. Option D is wrong because the route to 2.2.2.2 is marked with 'i' (intra-area), not 'I' (inter-area); inter-area routes are denoted by a capital 'I' in the OSPF routing table.

944
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of WLC high availability SSO failover steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In WLC SSO HA, the active WLC fails, triggering the standby to take over. The standby detects the failure via loss of heartbeat and link state. It then assumes the active role, reinitializing interfaces and applying the synchronized configuration.

The standby (now active) sends gratuitous ARP to update the network. Finally, client sessions and CAPWAP tunnels are re-established with the new active WLC.

945
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about OSPF network types are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The point-to-point network type does not require a DR/BDR election.
B.The broadcast network type uses a DR/BDR to reduce the number of adjacencies.
C.The NBMA network type automatically discovers neighbors via hello packets.
D.The point-to-multipoint network type requires a DR/BDR election.
E.The loopback interface defaults to the point-to-point network type.
AnswersA, B

Correct because in point-to-point networks, there are only two routers, so no DR/BDR is needed.

Why this answer

The point-to-point network type does not require a DR/BDR election. Option B is correct because the broadcast network type uses a DR/BDR to reduce adjacencies and LSAs. Option C is incorrect because NBMA networks require manual neighbor configuration.

Option D is incorrect because the point-to-multipoint network type does not require a DR/BDR. Option E is incorrect because the loopback interface defaults to the loopback network type, not point-to-point.

946
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IGMPv3 membership report processing into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

IGMPv3 allows hosts to specify source filtering. The host sends a Membership Report with group and source list. The switch/router receives the report and updates its multicast forwarding table.

It adds the group and includes the requested sources. It then forwards multicast traffic from those sources to the host's port. The router periodically sends General Queries to maintain membership.

947
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each SNMP operation on the left to its matching direction on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Manager requests a specific variable from agent

Manager requests the next variable in a MIB tree

Manager requests a large block of data efficiently

Manager modifies a variable on the agent

Agent sends unsolicited notification to manager

Why these pairings

GET, GETNEXT, GETBULK, and SET are initiated by the manager; TRAP and INFORM are initiated by the agent.

948
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about MPLS forwarding are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.MPLS forwarding uses the Label Forwarding Information Base (LFIB) to make forwarding decisions.
B.The LFIB is populated by label distribution protocols such as LDP.
C.The LIB stores all labels learned from LDP neighbors, but the LFIB is used for actual forwarding.
D.MPLS forwarding uses the Forwarding Information Base (FIB) for label lookups.
E.MPLS forwarding uses the Routing Information Base (RIB) to determine the next hop.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because the LFIB is the table used for MPLS label switching.

Why this answer

MPLS forwarding is based on a label lookup in the LFIB (Label Forwarding Information Base). The LFIB is populated by label distribution protocols such as LDP or RSVP-TE. The FIB (Forwarding Information Base) is used for IP forwarding, not MPLS.

The LIB (Label Information Base) stores all labels learned from neighbors, but the LFIB is used for actual forwarding decisions. Option D is incorrect because the FIB is not used for MPLS forwarding. Option E is incorrect because the RIB (Routing Information Base) is used for IP routing, not MPLS label switching.

949
MCQhard

An engineer is troubleshooting an EIGRP issue where a router is not learning a specific route from a neighbor. The engineer runs 'show ip eigrp topology all-links' and sees the route in the topology table with a feasible distance of 100 and a reported distance of 120. The neighbor's advertised distance is 80. The router's own computed distance to the network is 150. The route is not in the routing table. What is the most likely cause?

A.The route is a feasible successor, but the successor route is not present.
B.The route is not installed because the reported distance (80) from the neighbor is less than the feasible distance (100), but the router's computed distance (150) is higher.
C.The route is not installed because its metric (150) is not the best metric; the router has another route with a lower metric (100).
D.The route is not installed because EIGRP is configured for stub routing, which prevents learning routes.
AnswerC

The route in the topology table has a computed distance of 150, which is higher than the feasible distance (FD) of 100. EIGRP only installs the successor route (lowest metric) into the routing table, so this route is not installed because it is not the best path.

Why this answer

The route in the topology table has a computed distance of 150 via the neighbor, but the feasible distance (FD) for this destination is 100, which is the best metric from another neighbor. EIGRP installs only the route with the lowest metric (the successor) into the routing table. Since the computed distance of 150 is higher than the FD of 100, this route is not the best and is not installed.

Option C correctly identifies that the route is not installed because there is another route with a lower metric.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse the feasible distance (FD) with the computed distance of a specific path. Here, the FD is 100 from a different neighbor, but the route in question has a computed distance of 150—it is not the successor. The route is not installed because it is not the best path, not because of any feasibility condition issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a feasible successor is a backup route that meets the feasibility condition (reported distance < feasible distance), but the route is not installed as a feasible successor if the successor route is present; the issue is that the route is not in the routing table, not that the successor is missing. Option B is wrong because the reported distance (80) from the neighbor is less than the feasible distance (100), which actually satisfies the feasibility condition, but the router's computed distance (150) being higher than the FD (100) means this route is not the best path; the route is not installed because the router has a better path (FD 100), not because of the reported distance comparison. Option D is wrong because stub routing prevents the router from learning routes from neighbors, but the router is learning the route (it appears in the topology table), so stub routing is not the cause; the issue is about route selection, not route learning.

950
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of configuring LLQ (Low Latency Queuing) on a Cisco router into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for configuring LLQ (Low Latency Queuing) on a Cisco router is: first, create a class-map to define the traffic class for real-time traffic (A). Next, configure the priority command in a policy-map to assign priority queuing to that class (B). Then, set bandwidth and queue-limit parameters for the priority queue within the policy-map (C).

After the policy-map is complete, apply it to the interface using the service-policy output command (D). Finally, verify the priority queue operation using show policy-map (E). This sequence ensures proper classification, queuing, and activation.

951
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of VLAN mapping on trunk interfaces into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

VLAN mapping requires first enabling the feature globally, then configuring the trunk interface, mapping the VLANs, and finally verifying the translation. The order ensures proper translation between customer and service provider VLANs.

952
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about OSPF area types are correct? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A stub area blocks Type 5 AS External LSAs but allows Type 3 Summary LSAs and a default route.
B.A totally stubby area blocks both Type 5 and Type 3 LSAs, injecting only a default route into the area.
C.A not-so-stubby-area (NSSA) allows Type 5 LSAs to be imported from external networks.
D.A standard area can contain Type 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 LSAs.
E.A totally NSSA blocks Type 3 LSAs but allows Type 5 LSAs from external sources.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct because stub areas are designed to reduce the LSDB by preventing Type 5 LSAs, while still receiving inter-area routes via Type 3 and a default route.

Why this answer

OSPF area types control the propagation of LSAs. A standard area can carry all LSA types. A stub area blocks Type 5 LSAs but allows Type 3.

A totally stubby area blocks both Type 5 and Type 3 (except a default route). A not-so-stubby-area (NSSA) blocks Type 5 but allows Type 7 for external routes. A totally NSSA further blocks Type 3.

953
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each TACACS+ packet type on the left to its correct function on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Initiates an authentication session from the client to the server

Sent by the server to the client, carrying prompts or authentication results

Sent by the client to the server with the user's response to a prompt

Used for authorization requests and responses

Used for accounting start, stop, and interim records

Why these pairings

TACACS+ uses START to initiate authentication, REPLY to respond with prompts or success/failure, CONTINUE to send user responses, and also has special types for authorization and accounting.

954
MCQmedium

A network engineer is deploying Cisco DNA Center in a large campus network with 5000+ devices. After initial setup, the engineer notices that the Assurance module is not receiving telemetry data from many access switches. The switches are running IOS-XE 16.12 and are reachable via SNMP. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The switches are not configured with NETCONF/YANG or telemetry streaming.
B.The DNA Center appliance is not licensed for the Assurance module.
C.The switches are not running the correct IOS-XE version for DNA Center compatibility.
D.The SNMP community string is incorrect on the switches.
AnswerA

Correct because Assurance requires telemetry streaming (e.g., model-driven telemetry) from devices; SNMP alone is insufficient.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center Assurance relies on telemetry data collected via NETCONF/YANG or gRPC, not just SNMP. If the switches are not configured for telemetry, Assurance will not receive the necessary data. SNMP is used for inventory and basic monitoring, but not for the rich telemetry required by Assurance.

955
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about SNMP trap and inform operations are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Traps are unacknowledged notifications sent from the SNMP agent to the manager.
B.Informs are acknowledged notifications that require a response from the manager.
C.Informs use UDP port 162, the same as traps.
D.Traps are more reliable than informs because they are sent with a higher priority.
E.Informs consume less memory and processing than traps because they do not require state tracking.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct: Traps are unacknowledged; the manager does not send a response.

Why this answer

SNMP traps are unacknowledged messages sent from agent to manager. Informs are acknowledged (confirmed) notifications. Informs require a response from the manager and can be retransmitted if no response is received.

Traps are sent via UDP port 162 by default. Informs also use UDP port 162. Informs consume more memory and processing because they maintain state for acknowledgment.

Traps are less reliable because they are not acknowledged.

956
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of IP addressing scheme design and subnetting steps into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

IP addressing design starts with gathering requirements, then choosing a private address space. Subnetting is applied to create subnets, which are assigned to specific network segments, and finally summarized to reduce routing table size.

957
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Multiple SPAN source ports with filter VLAN into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The configuration must first specify the session, then define sources and filter VLAN, and finally activate the session.

958
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO statements are true about Cisco DNA Center automation? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.DNA Center primarily uses SNMP to manage devices.
B.DNA Center only supports greenfield deployments.
C.DNA Center uses a declarative model for network configuration.
D.DNA Center provides a single dashboard for network management.
E.DNA Center uses an imperative model for network configuration.
AnswersC, D

DNA Center is declarative.

Why this answer

Cisco DNA Center uses a declarative model for network configuration. In a declarative model, the administrator specifies the desired end-state of the network (e.g., 'VLAN 10 should exist on all access switches'), and DNA Center's automation engine determines the necessary steps to achieve that state, handling dependencies and ordering automatically. This contrasts with imperative models where each step must be explicitly scripted.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between declarative and imperative models, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly associate DNA Center's automation with imperative scripting (like Python or Ansible playbooks) rather than recognizing its intent-based, declarative nature.

959
MCQmedium

Examine the following configuration: policy-map QUEUE class GOLD bandwidth percent 25 queue-limit 64 packets class SILVER bandwidth percent 25 queue-limit 128 packets class class-default fair-queue interface GigabitEthernet0/2 service-policy output QUEUE Which statement about this configuration is true?

A.The GOLD class has a smaller queue limit than SILVER, which may cause more packet drops for GOLD traffic under congestion.
B.The SILVER class will always receive more bandwidth than GOLD because of its larger queue limit.
C.The configuration is invalid because 'queue-limit' cannot be used with 'bandwidth percent' in the same class.
D.The 'fair-queue' command in class-default will override the bandwidth allocation for GOLD and SILVER.
AnswerA

Correct. A smaller queue limit means fewer packets can be buffered, increasing the likelihood of drops when the queue is full.

Why this answer

The GOLD class has a queue-limit of 64 packets, while the SILVER class has a queue-limit of 128 packets. Under congestion, the smaller queue for GOLD will fill up faster, leading to more tail drops for GOLD traffic, even though both classes are allocated the same bandwidth percentage. This demonstrates that queue-limit directly affects drop probability, not bandwidth allocation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a larger queue-limit implies more bandwidth, when in fact queue-limit only affects buffer depth and drop behavior, not bandwidth allocation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because queue-limit does not affect bandwidth allocation; bandwidth is controlled by the 'bandwidth percent' command, which is set to 25% for both GOLD and SILVER, so they receive equal bandwidth under congestion. Option C is wrong because 'queue-limit' can be used with 'bandwidth percent' in the same class; they are independent QoS parameters that control different aspects (bandwidth guarantee vs. queue depth). Option D is wrong because 'fair-queue' in class-default only applies to the default class and does not override the explicit bandwidth allocation for GOLD and SILVER classes, which are configured with strict bandwidth percentages.

960
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each hypervisor type on the left to its matching characteristic on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Runs directly on physical hardware without a host OS

Runs on top of an existing operating system

Example of a Type 1 hypervisor

Example of a Type 2 hypervisor

Linux-based Type 1 hypervisor that is part of the kernel

Why these pairings

Type 1 hypervisors run directly on hardware and are common in data centers; Type 2 run on a host OS and are used for desktop virtualization.

961
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about SNMPv3 security models are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The authNoPriv security model provides authentication but no encryption.
B.The noAuthNoPriv security model uses both a username and a password for authentication.
C.The authPriv security model provides both authentication and encryption.
D.SNMPv3 requires the use of a separate engine ID for each SNMP manager and agent.
E.The authPriv model supports only AES-256 for encryption.
AnswersA, C

Correct: authNoPriv uses an authentication protocol (MD5 or SHA) but does not encrypt the payload.

Why this answer

SNMPv3 provides three security models: noAuthNoPriv (no authentication, no encryption), authNoPriv (authentication but no encryption), and authPriv (authentication and encryption). The authPriv model uses HMAC-MD5 or HMAC-SHA for authentication and CBC-DES or CFB128-AES for encryption. The engine ID is a unique identifier for each SNMP entity and is used to generate the localized key.

962
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each ACL type on the left to its matching capability on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Filters based on source IP address only

Filters based on source/destination IP, protocol, and port numbers

Allows alphanumeric naming for easier identification

Applies time-of-day restrictions to permit or deny traffic

Opens temporary holes for user authentication

Why these pairings

Standard ACLs filter only source IP; Extended ACLs filter source/dest IP, protocol, and ports; Named ACLs allow alphanumeric naming; Time-based ACLs restrict based on time of day.

963
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of Layer 3 EtherChannel (routed port-channel) setup into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order for Layer 3 EtherChannel (routed port-channel) setup is: first, create the port-channel interface using 'interface port-channel'. Next, configure the member ports as Layer 3 interfaces with 'no switchport' and assign them to the port-channel using 'channel-group'. Then, assign an IP address to the port-channel interface.

After that, enable the port-channel interface with 'no shutdown'. Finally, verify routing using 'show ip route' and ping.

964
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of MSDP peering for inter-domain multicast into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

MSDP allows RPs in different domains to share information about active sources. When an RP learns of a new source, it sends a Source-Active (SA) message to its MSDP peers. The peer RP then creates an (S,G) state and can join the source if there are interested receivers.

965
Matchinghard

Drag and drop each ISE policy result on the left to its matching enforcement action on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Downloadable ACL applied to the port

Assigns the endpoint to a specific VLAN

Assigns a security group tag to the session

Redirects HTTP traffic to a captive portal

Sets maximum duration for the authenticated session

Why these pairings

DACL filters traffic, VLAN assigns network segment, SGT tags traffic for TrustSec, URL redirect forces web authentication.

966
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of LACP EtherChannel negotiation and bundle formation into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

LACP first exchanges system priority to determine which side is active, then exchanges port priorities to select which ports bundle, next negotiates the operational key, then forms the bundle by synchronizing parameters, and finally the port channel interface becomes operational. This order follows the LACP state machine as defined in IEEE 802.3ad.

967
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of telemetry path validation using YANG DevKit into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Validation starts by loading the YANG model, parsing the path, checking it against the schema, testing it on a device, and then confirming the output.

968
Matchingeasy

Drag and drop each VNF category on the left to its matching example on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Cisco CSR 1000v

Cisco ASAv

Citrix ADC VPX

Cisco vWAAS

Cisco Nexus 1000V

Why these pairings

Virtual routers, firewalls, and load balancers are common VNF categories.

969
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of a RESTCONF PUT transaction on IOS-XE into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

The correct order ensures the RESTCONF PUT request is properly authenticated, targeted, and validated before the device applies the configuration. First, the client must authenticate with the device. Then it constructs the PUT request with the target URI.

The device validates the request, applies the configuration, and finally sends a success response.

970
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of DMVPN Phase 2 NHRP resolution process into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

In DMVPN Phase 2, the spoke sends an NHRP Resolution Request to the hub to learn the destination spoke's NBMA address. The hub forwards the request to the destination spoke, which replies with an NHRP Resolution Reply. The hub relays this reply back to the originating spoke.

Finally, the originating spoke installs the NHRP shortcut entry and can initiate a direct tunnel to the destination spoke.

971
Matchingmedium

Drag and drop each EIGRP DUAL state on the left to its matching stage on the right.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Route is stable and no queries are pending

Router is querying neighbors for a new route

Router uses a feasible successor without querying

Router queries all neighbors for a new route

Router that first sends a query for a lost route

Why these pairings

Passive state indicates a stable route; Active state indicates the router is querying neighbors; Local Computation occurs when a feasible successor exists; Diffusing Computation occurs when no feasible successor exists; Query Origin is the router that starts the query process.

972
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two statements about Cisco FlexConnect are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.FlexConnect APs can locally switch client data traffic at the remote site without tunneling it to the WLC.
B.FlexConnect APs always maintain a control and data tunnel to the WLC, even in standalone mode.
C.FlexConnect supports all encryption methods including CCKM and 802.11r in local switching mode.
D.FlexConnect APs can perform rogue detection and containment even when disconnected from the WLC.
E.FlexConnect APs can authenticate clients locally using a local RADIUS server or a local user database when the WLC is unreachable.
AnswersA, E

Correct because FlexConnect local switching mode allows client traffic to be bridged locally at the AP, reducing WAN bandwidth usage.

Why this answer

FlexConnect allows APs to locally switch client traffic and to function independently when the WLC is unreachable, but it does not support all encryption methods (e.g., CCKM is not supported in FlexConnect local switching mode) and it does not support rogue detection in standalone mode.

973
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps of ISE RADIUS policy evaluation order into the correct order, from first to last.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4
5Step 5

Why this order

Cisco ISE evaluates RADIUS policies in a specific order: first authentication policies, then authorization policies (based on conditions), and finally the default rule if no match is found. This ensures proper access control.

974
Multi-Selecteasy

Which three statements about NFV use cases and deployment models are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Virtual CPE (vCPE) is a common NFV use case that replaces physical routers and firewalls at customer sites with software-based functions.
B.Virtual Evolved Packet Core (vEPC) virtualizes mobile core network functions such as MME, SGW, and PGW.
C.NFV can be deployed on-premises, in a private cloud, or in a public cloud infrastructure.
D.NFV requires dedicated hardware appliances for each virtualized network function.
E.NFV deployments are limited to static, non-scalable configurations.
AnswersA, B, C

Correct because vCPE is a well-known NFV application where network functions like routing and firewall run as VNFs on standard hardware at the customer premises or in the cloud.

Why this answer

NFV is used to virtualize various network functions. Virtual CPE (vCPE) replaces physical customer premises equipment with software running on standard hardware. Virtual Evolved Packet Core (vEPC) is a key use case in mobile networks.

NFV can be deployed on-premises or in the cloud. Option A is correct because vCPE is a common NFV use case. Option B is correct because vEPC virtualizes mobile core functions.

Option C is correct because NFV supports both on-prem and cloud deployment. Option D is incorrect because NFV does not require dedicated hardware; it uses standard servers. Option E is incorrect because NFV can scale dynamically, not just statically.

975
Multi-Selecthard

Which three statements about error handling and debugging in Python network automation scripts are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Using 'pass' in an except block is a best practice to ignore errors in production scripts.
B.The try-except block allows a script to handle connection timeouts without crashing.
C.Using the logging module helps record errors and debug information to a file.
D.Print statements can be used to debug variable values during script development.
E.The continue statement is used to handle exceptions in Python.
AnswersB, C, D

Correct because try-except catches exceptions like timeouts, allowing the script to take alternative actions or retry.

Why this answer

Correct answers: B, C, and D. B is correct because try-except blocks allow the script to handle exceptions gracefully without crashing. C is correct because logging provides a structured way to record events and errors for later analysis.

D is correct because print statements are a simple debugging technique to output variable values during development. A is incorrect because 'pass' is a no-op statement that silently ignores exceptions, which is not recommended for production code. E is incorrect because the continue statement is used in loops to skip to the next iteration, not for error handling.

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