CCNA ITIL Management Practices Questions

45 of 420 questions · Page 6/6 · ITIL Management Practices · Answers revealed

376
MCQmedium

Which document defines the agreed level of service between an IT provider and a customer?

A.Underpinning Contract (UC)
B.Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C.Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
D.Continual Improvement Register (CIR)
AnswerB

An SLA defines the agreed service level between provider and customer.

Why this answer

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a documented agreement between the service provider and the customer defining the level of service. Option A is correct. Option B (OLA) is an internal agreement between teams.

Option C (UC) is a contract with a third party. Option D (CIR) is not an ITIL term.

377
MCQeasy

Which ITIL 4 practice is responsible for ensuring that all IT assets are tracked and managed throughout their lifecycle?

A.Supplier Management
B.Service Configuration Management
C.Service Desk
D.IT Asset Management
AnswerD

IT Asset Management focuses on the lifecycle and financial value of assets.

Why this answer

IT Asset Management manages the lifecycle of assets, including financial tracking.

378
MCQeasy

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the Incident Management practice?

A.To find the root cause of incidents
B.To monitor and manage events throughout their lifecycle
C.To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
D.To manage the lifecycle of all changes
AnswerC

Correct. Incident Management focuses on restoring service.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of Incident Management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations. This ensures that service availability and quality are maintained, aligning with the ITIL 4 guiding principle of 'Focus on Value' by prioritizing rapid recovery over root cause analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Incident Management with Problem Management, mistakenly thinking the goal is to find root causes, when ITIL explicitly separates these practices to ensure rapid service restoration is not delayed by diagnostic analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because finding the root cause of incidents is the purpose of the Problem Management practice, not Incident Management; Incident Management focuses on immediate restoration, not investigation. Option B is wrong because monitoring and managing events throughout their lifecycle is the purpose of the Monitoring and Event Management practice, which deals with detecting and responding to events, not incidents. Option D is wrong because managing the lifecycle of all changes is the purpose of the Change Enablement practice, which controls the introduction of changes to minimize risk, not the restoration of service after an incident.

379
MCQmedium

A supplier is consistently failing to meet contractual targets. Which practice is responsible for managing this?

A.IT Asset Management
B.Supplier Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Change Enablement
AnswerB

Correct. Supplier Management manages supplier performance and contracts.

Why this answer

Supplier Management handles supplier performance, contracts, and relationships.

380
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the ITIL Continual Improvement Model?

A.What is the vision? → Where do we want to be? → Where are we now? → How do we get there? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep the momentum going?
B.Where are we now? → What is the vision? → Where do we want to be? → How do we get there? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep the momentum going?
C.What is the vision? → Where are we now? → Where do we want to be? → How do we get there? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the vision? → Where are we now? → How do we get there? → Where do we want to be? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep the momentum going?
AnswerC

This is the correct sequence of the 7 steps.

Why this answer

The ITIL Continual Improvement Model consists of 7 steps: What is the vision?, Where are we now?, Where do we want to be?, How do we get there?, Take action, Did we get there?, and How do we keep the momentum going? Option A is the correct order. Options B, C, and D have incorrect sequences.

381
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are differences between Incident Management and Problem Management?

Select 2 answers
A.Incident Management is triggered by events, while Problem Management is triggered by changes
B.Incident Management aims to restore service as soon as possible, while Problem Management aims to identify the root cause
C.Incident Management focuses on individual disruptions, while Problem Management looks for underlying patterns
D.Incident Management is performed by the service desk only, while Problem Management is performed by technical teams
E.Incident Management does not use workarounds, while Problem Management does
AnswersB, C

This is a key difference.

Why this answer

Incident Management focuses on restoring service quickly, while Problem Management focuses on finding root causes. Options A and D are correct. Option B is false because problem management may also use workarounds.

Option C is false because both practices may involve multiple teams. Option E is false because both can be triggered by events.

382
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are key performance indicators (KPIs) for the Service Desk practice?

Select 2 answers
A.First Contact Resolution (FCR)
B.Mean Time to Resolve (MTTR)
C.Number of changes implemented
D.Percentage of SLA targets met
E.Customer Satisfaction (CSAT)
AnswersA, E

FCR measures the percentage of issues resolved on first contact, a key service desk KPI.

Why this answer

FCR (First Contact Resolution) and CSAT (Customer Satisfaction) are common service desk metrics. MTTR (Mean Time to Resolve) is an Incident Management KPI, but also relevant for service desk. However, ITIL 4 specifically highlights FCR and CSAT for service desk.

MTTR is more incident management. Option D and E are not typical service desk KPIs.

383
MCQhard

In the context of ITIL 4, which activity is part of Problem Management but NOT part of Incident Management?

A.Applying workarounds to restore service
B.Conducting root cause analysis
C.Logging and categorizing issues
D.Escalating issues to higher-level support
AnswerB

Root cause analysis is a key activity in Problem Management, not in Incident Management.

Why this answer

Problem Management includes root cause analysis (problem control) and error control (known errors). Incident Management focuses on restoring service quickly. Option B is unique to Problem Management.

Options A, C, and D are part of both or only incident management.

384
MCQmedium

Which of the following is a difference between a standard change and a normal change?

A.Normal changes require approval from the CAB, while standard changes do not require any approval
B.Standard changes can be implemented without a change request
C.Standard changes are always low risk, while normal changes are high risk
D.Standard changes are pre-approved and follow a predefined procedure
AnswerD

Correct. Standard changes are low-risk, routine, and pre-approved.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-approved and have a defined procedure; normal changes require assessment and approval by a change authority.

385
MCQeasy

What type of change is pre-authorized and has a defined procedure?

A.Optional change
B.Normal change
C.Emergency change
D.Standard change
AnswerD

Standard changes are pre-authorized and have a defined procedure.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-approved and follow a defined procedure. Option A is correct. Option B requires authorization via a change advisory board.

Option C is for urgent changes. Option D is not a change type.

386
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are considered event types in Monitoring and Event Management?

Select 3 answers
A.Exception
B.Critical
C.Standard
D.Informational
E.Warning
AnswersA, D, E

Indicates a deviation from normal operation.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because in ITIL 4, 'Exception' is one of the three defined event types in Monitoring and Event Management. Exception events indicate that something has deviated from normal operation, such as a configuration drift or a threshold breach, and they require immediate attention or escalation.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse severity levels (like Critical) or change management categories (like Standard) with the three official ITIL 4 event types, leading them to select options that sound plausible but are technically incorrect.

387
MCQmedium

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. According to ITIL 4, what should the analyst do FIRST?

A.Approve a change to fix the system
B.Investigate the root cause of the access issue
C.Log and categorize the incident in the system
D.Notify senior management of the outage
AnswerC

The first step is to log the incident to begin the Incident Management process.

Why this answer

The first step in Incident Management is to log and categorize the incident to initiate the process. Option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because root cause analysis is part of Problem Management, not the first step.

Option C is incorrect because the analyst cannot directly approve changes. Option D is incorrect because the focus is on restoring service, not notifying management immediately.

388
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following statements about Service Desk and Incident Management are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.Incident Management may use workarounds to restore service quickly
B.The Service Desk acts as the single point of contact for incident reporting
C.Incident Management focuses on finding the root cause of incidents
D.The Service Desk is responsible for root cause analysis
E.All service requests must be logged as incidents
AnswersA, B

Workarounds are acceptable in Incident Management to restore service.

Why this answer

The Service Desk is the SPOC for incidents (Option A). Incident Management aims to restore service with workarounds (Option D). Option B is false because Incident Management applies workarounds; Option C is false because the Service Desk does not perform root cause analysis; Option E is false because service requests are handled by Service Request Management, not necessarily the Service Desk.

389
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a key activity of Problem Management?

A.Identifying the root cause of incidents
B.Authorizing changes
C.Fulfilling user requests
D.Restoring service as quickly as possible
AnswerA

Correct. Root cause analysis is a key part of Problem Management.

Why this answer

Problem Management aims to prevent incidents from recurring by identifying and eliminating their root causes. Identifying the root cause of incidents is a core activity of Problem Management, as it enables the creation of known errors and the implementation of permanent solutions. This distinguishes it from Incident Management, which focuses on restoring service quickly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the goal of Incident Management (restoring service quickly) with the goal of Problem Management (finding root causes), leading them to select Option D.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because authorizing changes is a key activity of Change Enablement, not Problem Management; Change Enablement manages the lifecycle of all changes to ensure they are assessed, authorized, and implemented with minimal risk. Option C is wrong because fulfilling user requests is the responsibility of Service Request Management, which handles pre-defined, low-risk requests like password resets or access provisioning. Option D is wrong because restoring service as quickly as possible is the primary objective of Incident Management, which focuses on minimizing downtime rather than analyzing underlying causes.

390
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are key measures used for the Service Desk practice?

Select 2 answers
A.Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)
B.First Contact Resolution (FCR)
C.Service Uptime
D.Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)
E.Number of changes implemented
AnswersA, B

CSAT measures user satisfaction with the service desk.

Why this answer

Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT) is a key measure for the Service Desk practice because it directly reflects the end-user's perception of the service quality and support experience. It is typically gathered through post-interaction surveys and provides immediate feedback on how well the service desk meets user expectations, aligning with the ITIL guiding principle of 'Focus on Value'.

Exam trap

PeopleCert often tests the distinction between Service Desk metrics (CSAT, FCR) and broader IT operations metrics (uptime, MTTR, change counts) to see if candidates confuse practice-specific measures with general IT performance indicators.

391
MCQhard

Which ITIL 4 practice is responsible for managing known errors and ensuring workarounds are documented?

A.Change Enablement
B.Incident Management
C.Problem Management
D.Service Request Management
AnswerC

Problem Management includes error control, which manages known errors and workarounds.

Why this answer

Problem Management is the ITIL 4 practice responsible for managing known errors and ensuring workarounds are documented. It identifies the root causes of incidents, creates known error records in the Known Error Database (KEDB), and documents workarounds to reduce the impact of recurring issues, aligning with the ITIL 4 'Problem Management' practice definition.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Incident Management's focus on restoring service quickly with Problem Management's responsibility for documenting known errors and workarounds, leading them to select Incident Management instead of Problem Management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Change Enablement manages the lifecycle of changes to IT services, not the documentation of known errors or workarounds. Option B is wrong because Incident Management focuses on restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident, not on managing known errors or documenting workarounds for root causes. Option D is wrong because Service Request Management handles pre-defined, standard user requests (e.g., password resets), not the identification and documentation of known errors or workarounds.

392
MCQmedium

Which ITIL 4 practice is responsible for managing the lifecycle of all IT assets?

A.Service Configuration Management
B.Supplier Management
C.Capacity and Performance Management
D.IT Asset Management
AnswerD

IT Asset Management manages the lifecycle of IT assets.

Why this answer

IT Asset Management manages the lifecycle of IT assets, including financial and contractual aspects.

393
MCQmedium

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. According to ITIL 4, what should the analyst do FIRST?

A.Escalate the issue to the Problem Management team
B.Log an incident record and attempt to restore service
C.Inform the users that the issue will be resolved within 24 hours
D.Submit a change request to modify the CRM system
AnswerB

Logging the incident is the immediate step; the goal is to restore service as quickly as possible.

Why this answer

The first action should be to log the incident to record the details and begin service restoration.

394
MCQmedium

A known error has been documented for a recurring application crash. According to ITIL 4, in which phase of Problem Management is this known error created?

A.Problem control
B.Problem identification
C.Error control
D.Incident Management
AnswerC

Correct: Error control manages known errors and workarounds.

Why this answer

Error Control is the phase where known errors are documented and managed, after root cause analysis in Problem Control.

395
MCQhard

An organization wants to improve first-level resolution rate. Which practice should be primarily involved?

A.Monitoring and Event Management
B.Problem Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Service Desk
AnswerD

The Service Desk aims to resolve incidents at first contact; improving FCR is a direct goal.

Why this answer

Improving first-level resolution rate is a key objective of the Service Desk, often through training, knowledge management, and empowerment. Option A is correct. Option B focuses on SLAs.

Option C is about monitoring. Option D is about managing problems.

396
MCQeasy

What is a configuration baseline?

A.A standard change that updates the CMDB
B.A policy for managing configuration data
C.A list of all configuration items in the CMDB
D.A snapshot of the configuration of a service or infrastructure at a specific point in time
AnswerD

This is the definition of a configuration baseline.

Why this answer

A configuration baseline is a snapshot of the configuration of a service or infrastructure at a point in time, used as a benchmark.

397
MCQhard

A change is being implemented to replace a server. The change is low risk and follows a pre-approved procedure. According to ITIL 4, what type of change is this?

A.Standard change
B.Emergency change
C.Normal change
D.Service request
AnswerA

Standard changes are pre-approved and low-risk, with a known procedure.

Why this answer

Standard changes are pre-approved, low-risk, and follow a defined procedure. Normal changes require individual assessment, and emergency changes are for urgent fixes.

398
MCQhard

An organization is implementing a new IT service. Which practice is responsible for negotiating and agreeing on service level targets with the customer?

A.Change Enablement
B.Supplier Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Service Desk
AnswerC

Correct.

Why this answer

Service Level Management negotiates and agrees on SLAs with customers.

399
MCQeasy

What is the PRIMARY purpose of the Service Desk practice?

A.To manage the lifecycle of all incidents
B.To provide a single point of contact for users
C.To capture and report on IT service performance
D.To perform root cause analysis on problems
AnswerB

This is the primary purpose of Service Desk.

Why this answer

The Service Desk provides a single point of contact (SPOC) for users to report incidents and request services.

400
MCQeasy

Which practice involves the negotiation, agreement, and monitoring of service level targets?

A.Supplier Management
B.Incident Management
C.Service Desk
D.Service Level Management
AnswerD

This is the core purpose of service level management.

Why this answer

Service Level Management is responsible for defining, negotiating, and monitoring SLAs to ensure service quality meets agreed levels.

401
MCQmedium

A user requests a new laptop because their current one is failing frequently. The service desk analyst determines that the user is eligible for a replacement under the existing policy. What type of record should the analyst create?

A.Problem record
B.Service request
C.Incident record
D.Change request
AnswerB

A service request is a pre-defined, standardized request that follows an established procedure.

Why this answer

The user is requesting a standard, pre-approved service (a laptop replacement under an existing policy), which is a classic service request. Service requests are defined in ITIL 4 as the formal request from a user for something to be provided – such as a new device – and follow a standard, low-risk procedure. This is not an incident (a failure) or a problem (a root cause), and it does not require a change request because the replacement is already authorized by policy.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a 'failing laptop' with an 'incident,' but the question explicitly states the user is eligible for a replacement under an existing policy, making it a service request, not an incident record.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a problem record is used to investigate the root cause of one or more incidents, not to fulfill a user's request for a new laptop. Option C is wrong because an incident record is created to restore normal service operation after an unplanned interruption or reduction in quality, whereas here the user is proactively requesting a replacement under a policy, not reporting a current failure. Option D is wrong because a change request is needed when a modification to a controlled service or component is required that is not already pre-authorized; a standard laptop replacement under an existing policy is a pre-approved service request, not a change.

402
MCQmedium

In ITIL 4, what is the difference between Deployment Management and Release Management?

A.Deployment Management is part of Release Management
B.There is no difference
C.Deployment Management is only for hardware
D.Release Management handles the build and testing; Deployment Management moves to production
AnswerD

Correct. Release Management plans and builds releases; Deployment Management deploys them.

Why this answer

Release Management oversees the release of new or changed services, while Deployment Management moves components into production.

403
MCQhard

An organization is designing a new service. The service owner wants to ensure that the service can be operated within agreed service levels. Which ITIL management practice should be applied to define the acceptable performance levels?

A.Service Continuity Management
B.Capacity and Performance Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Service Catalog Management
AnswerC

Service Level Management is responsible for setting and managing service level targets.

Why this answer

Service Level Management (SLM) is the ITIL practice responsible for negotiating, agreeing, and documenting measurable service level targets (SLTs) with customers, and then monitoring and reporting on achievement against those targets. In this scenario, defining 'acceptable performance levels' directly corresponds to establishing SLTs within a Service Level Agreement (SLA), which is the core function of SLM.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the practice that *defines* the targets (Service Level Management) with the practice that *ensures* the targets can be met operationally (Capacity and Performance Management), leading candidates to pick B instead of C.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Service Continuity Management focuses on ensuring the organization can continue operating during and after a disaster or major disruption, not on defining day-to-day acceptable performance levels. Option B is wrong because Capacity and Performance Management ensures that services and infrastructure can meet agreed capacity and performance demands, but it does not define what those acceptable performance levels are; it works to fulfill the targets set by Service Level Management. Option D is wrong because Service Catalog Management maintains a single source of consistent information on all live services and their details, but it does not define performance targets or acceptable service levels.

404
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE are examples of events in Monitoring and Event Management?

Select 3 answers
A.A warning event that does not disrupt service but requires attention
B.An exception event indicating a service disruption
C.A routine event that occurs at scheduled intervals
D.A critical event requiring immediate escalation
E.An informational event indicating normal operation
AnswersA, B, E

Correct: warning events indicate potential issues.

Why this answer

Events are categorized as informational, warning, or exception. Option A (informational), Option C (warning), and Option E (exception) are the three types. Option B (critical) is part of exception but not a separate category.

Option D (routine) is not an event category.

405
MCQmedium

A user contacts the service desk requesting a new software license for a standard application that is listed in the service catalogue. According to ITIL 4, how should this request be classified?

A.As a service request
B.As a problem, because the user cannot access the software
C.As an incident, because it requires action from IT
D.As a change request, because a new license changes the environment
AnswerA

Correct: service requests are for standard, pre-approved fulfillment items from the service catalogue.

Why this answer

A service request is a predefined, pre-approved request for standard services available in the service catalogue. This scenario fits the definition of a service request.

406
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are typical metrics for a Service Desk?

Select 2 answers
A.Number of known errors
B.Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)
C.Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)
D.First Contact Resolution (FCR)
E.Percentage of changes that are emergency
AnswersB, D

CSAT measures user satisfaction with service desk interactions.

Why this answer

The Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT) is a standard service desk metric that directly measures the end-user's perception of service quality, typically gathered via post-interaction surveys. It is a key performance indicator (KPI) in ITIL 4 for evaluating the value delivered by the service desk.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse service desk metrics with incident management or change management metrics, mistakenly selecting MTTR or emergency change percentages because they seem related to service restoration or urgency.

407
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are phases of the ITIL Continual Improvement Model?

Select 3 answers
A.Implement improvements
B.Define what you want to achieve
C.Define baselines
D.Monitor and control changes
E.Evaluate results
AnswersA, C, E

Implementing improvements is a step.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because 'Implement improvements' is explicitly listed as the sixth and final phase of the ITIL 4 Continual Improvement Model. This phase focuses on executing the planned actions to realize the desired improvements, ensuring that changes are embedded into the organization's operations and culture.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the generic phrase 'Define what you want to achieve' with the official phase 'Define the vision and business goals', leading them to select a plausible-sounding but incorrect option.

408
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of warranty?

Select 2 answers
A.The system performs transactions within 2 seconds
B.The system is available 99.9% of the time
C.The system provides the required functionality
D.The system encrypts all data at rest
E.The system allows users to generate reports
AnswersB, D

Availability is a warranty aspect.

Why this answer

Warranty in ITIL 4 refers to the assurance that a service will meet agreed-upon levels of availability, capacity, continuity, and security. Option B is correct because 99.9% availability directly measures uptime, a core warranty attribute. Option D is correct because encrypting data at rest ensures security and compliance, which is a key warranty aspect.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse utility (what the service does) with warranty (how well it is delivered), often selecting functional features like 'generates reports' or 'performs transactions' as warranty examples.

409
MCQeasy

Which practice ensures that the IT service provider has sufficient resources to meet current and future demands?

A.Service Configuration Management
B.Availability Management
C.IT Asset Management
D.Capacity and Performance Management
AnswerD

Correct: This practice manages capacity and performance.

Why this answer

Capacity and Performance Management ensures services meet agreed performance and demand requirements.

410
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are objectives of Supplier Management?

Select 2 answers
A.Ensure that suppliers and their services are aligned with the business needs and objectives
B.Define and agree on service level targets with customers
C.Ensure that suppliers and their performance are managed to support the provision of seamless quality services
D.Manage the financial assets of the organization
E.Manage the service desk to handle supplier-related incidents
AnswersA, C

Supplier Management aligns supplier services with business needs.

Why this answer

Supplier Management aims to ensure that suppliers and their services are aligned with the business needs and objectives, which is a core objective stated in the ITIL 4 framework. This alignment ensures that the organization obtains value from its suppliers while meeting strategic goals. Option A directly reflects this objective, making it correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the objectives of Supplier Management with those of Service Level Management or Incident Management, leading them to select options that describe operational tasks rather than strategic alignment goals.

411
MCQhard

An organization wants to improve its service desk's first-level resolution rate. Which approach BEST aligns with ITIL 4 guidance?

A.Create more detailed escalation procedures
B.Increase the number of service desk agents
C.Implement a shift-left strategy by training service desk staff and providing better knowledge tools
D.Increase the number of second-level support teams
AnswerC

Shift-left moves resolution capability closer to the user, increasing first-contact resolution.

Why this answer

Shift-left involves enabling front-line staff to resolve more issues, which increases first-contact resolution.

412
MCQhard

A company has an SLA that guarantees 99.9% availability. The IT team measures actual availability at 99.95%. Which practice is directly responsible for monitoring and reporting this?

A.Monitoring and Event Management
B.IT Asset Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Availability Management
AnswerC

Service Level Management negotiates, monitors, and reports on SLAs.

Why this answer

Service Level Management (SLM) is the ITIL practice responsible for negotiating, agreeing, documenting, and reviewing service level targets (like 99.9% availability) and for monitoring and reporting actual performance against those targets. In this scenario, the IT team measures actual availability at 99.95%, which exceeds the SLA guarantee; SLM owns the process of comparing this measured data to the SLA, producing compliance reports, and managing stakeholder expectations. Monitoring and Event Management provides the raw data (e.g., uptime logs), but SLM is the practice that interprets and reports the SLA-specific metric.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the technical practice of Availability Management (which designs for uptime) with the governance practice of Service Level Management (which monitors and reports SLA compliance), leading them to pick D instead of C.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Monitoring and Event Management is responsible for collecting raw data (e.g., via SNMP traps, syslog, or synthetic probes) and generating events, but it does not own the SLA reporting or the comparison of measured availability against contractual targets. Option B is wrong because IT Asset Management focuses on tracking the lifecycle of hardware and software assets (e.g., CMDB entries, license compliance, procurement), not on monitoring or reporting service availability metrics. Option D is wrong because Availability Management is a technical practice that designs and implements measures to achieve availability targets (e.g., redundancy, failover), but the monitoring and reporting of SLA compliance is explicitly owned by Service Level Management.

413
MCQmedium

A company allows employees to request new software through a pre-approved catalogue. Which type of request is this?

A.Change request
B.Incident
C.Service request
D.Problem
AnswerC

A service request is a pre-defined, routine request from a catalogue.

Why this answer

A service request is a pre-defined, pre-approved request for a standard service, often from a service catalogue.

414
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the ITIL Continual Improvement Model?

A.What is the vision? → Where do we want to be? → Where are we now? → How do we get there? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep momentum?
B.What is the vision? → Where are we now? → Where do we want to be? → How do we get there? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep momentum?
C.Where are we now? → What is the vision? → How do we get there? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep momentum? → Business case
D.Where are we now? → Where do we want to be? → What is the vision? → How do we get there? → Take action → Did we get there? → How do we keep momentum?
AnswerB

This is the correct sequence of the 7-step improvement model.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because it follows the exact sequence of the ITIL Continual Improvement Model as defined in ITIL 4: starting with 'What is the vision?', then 'Where are we now?', followed by 'Where do we want to be?', 'How do we get there?', 'Take action', 'Did we get there?', and finally 'How do we keep momentum?'. This order ensures that the current state is assessed before defining the target state, which is a core principle of the model.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the order of 'Where are we now?' and 'Where do we want to be?', mistakenly thinking the target state should be defined before assessing the current state, which is a common misconception tested in ITIL 4 Foundation exams.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it places 'Where do we want to be?' before 'Where are we now?', which violates the model's requirement to first understand the current state before defining the desired state. Option C is wrong because it starts with 'Where are we now?' instead of 'What is the vision?', and it incorrectly ends with 'Business case' instead of 'How do we keep momentum?', omitting the final step. Option D is wrong because it places 'Where do we want to be?' before 'What is the vision?', and also starts with 'Where are we now?' instead of the vision step, disrupting the logical flow from vision to assessment to target.

415
MCQmedium

In which phase of Problem Management are known errors created and managed?

A.Incident management
B.Problem control (root cause analysis)
C.Error control
D.Problem identification
AnswerC

Why this answer

Known errors are created and managed during the Error Control phase of Problem Management. This phase focuses on documenting known errors in the Known Error Database (KEDB) after root cause analysis is complete, and managing them through their lifecycle until a permanent resolution (e.g., a change via RFC) is implemented. Error Control ensures that workarounds are available and that the known error is tracked for future resolution.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Problem Control (root cause analysis) with Error Control, mistakenly thinking known errors are created during root cause analysis rather than after it, when the cause is known and documented as a known error.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Incident Management handles restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible, not the creation or management of known errors. Option B is wrong because Problem Control (root cause analysis) identifies the underlying cause of problems but does not create or manage known errors; that occurs in the subsequent Error Control phase. Option D is wrong because Problem Identification is the initial phase where problems are detected and logged, not where known errors are created or managed.

416
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are elements of the ITIL 4 Service Value System (SVS)?

Select 2 answers
A.Governance
B.Products and Services
C.Opportunity/Demand
D.Guiding Principles
E.Outcome
AnswersA, D

Why this answer

The SVS includes Guiding Principles, Governance, Service Value Chain, Practices, and Continual Improvement. Opportunity/Demand and Outcome are not SVS elements.

417
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE are key metrics for the Service Desk practice?

Select 3 answers
A.First Contact Resolution (FCR)
B.Average time to resolve an incident
C.Number of problems recorded
D.Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)
E.Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
AnswersA, B, D

Correct: percentage of incidents resolved on first contact.

Why this answer

Key service desk metrics include First Contact Resolution (FCR), Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT), and average time to resolve incidents (which relates to Mean Time to Resolve). MTBF is an availability metric. Number of problems is a problem management metric.

418
MCQmedium

An IT service desk analyst receives a call that users cannot access the CRM system. What should they do FIRST?

A.Log the incident and categorize it
B.Check the known error database for a workaround
C.Route the call directly to problem management
D.Tell the user it is not an incident and ask them to call back
AnswerA

Correct first step: record the incident to start the incident management process.

Why this answer

According to ITIL 4, the first step in incident management is to log and categorize the incident to ensure it is recorded and prioritized. Option A is correct because immediate documentation enables proper handling. Option B (routing to problem management) is premature as root cause analysis is done after incidents are logged.

Option C (checking known errors) is part of problem management, not first response. Option D (closing and asking to call back) is unacceptable as service must be restored.

419
MCQmedium

An organization wants to implement a tool that tracks the lifecycle of IT assets from procurement to disposal. Which practice is primarily responsible for this?

A.Service Configuration Management
B.Monitoring and Event Management
C.Supplier Management
D.IT Asset Management
AnswerD

IT Asset Management covers the complete lifecycle of assets.

Why this answer

IT Asset Management manages the lifecycle of IT assets, including procurement, maintenance, and disposal. Service Configuration Management manages configuration items and their relationships, but not the financial lifecycle. Supplier Management deals with suppliers, and Monitoring and Event Management deals with events.

420
MCQmedium

An organization's IT service desk is receiving a high volume of calls about users being unable to log in to the payroll system following a scheduled maintenance window. According to ITIL 4, what type of record should be raised?

A.A service request, to fulfil the users' need to access the payroll system
B.An incident record, as users are experiencing an unplanned service interruption
C.A change request, to reverse the changes made during the maintenance window
D.A problem record, to investigate the root cause of the login failure
AnswerB

An unplanned interruption or degradation of an IT service is an incident. The immediate goal is service restoration.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because an unplanned interruption to a service is an incident. Even though it occurred after maintenance, users are now unable to access the service, which constitutes a loss of service — the definition of an incident. Option A is wrong because a problem is the underlying cause of incidents, which is investigated after incidents are logged.

Option C is wrong because a change request is used to modify IT infrastructure, not to record service disruptions. Option D is wrong because a service request is for pre-approved, routine fulfilments.

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