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Cisco SCOR / CCNP Security Core 350-701 (350-701) — Questions 76150

978 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
MCQhard

An engineer is configuring Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) in inline NGFW mode. The access control policy must block all traffic from geolocation 'North Korea' and allow all other traffic. Which type of rule should be used and in what order should it be placed?

A.Block rule with source geolocation North Korea, placed at the top of the policy.
B.Intrusion policy with geolocation filter, placed before access control rules.
C.Block rule with source geolocation North Korea, placed at the bottom of the policy.
D.Permit rule with destination geolocation North Korea, placed at the top.
AnswerA

Correct. Block rule at the top ensures all traffic from North Korea is blocked before any allow rule is evaluated.

Why this answer

Geolocation filtering is applied in access control rules. The block rule must be placed before any allow rules to ensure traffic from North Korea is blocked. Rule order is top-down.

77
MCQmedium

A company uses Cisco ISE for network access control. They want to allow employee-owned devices to access the guest network after a simple registration, while corporate devices get full access. Which ISE configuration best achieves this?

A.Use 802.1X with PEAP and machine certificates for all devices.
B.Use MAB for unknown devices, then perform posture assessment; redirect to registration portal if needed.
C.Use MAB only for corporate devices and deny all others.
D.Configure a single PSK for the guest SSID.
AnswerB

Correct. MAB for unknown devices followed by posture assessment and portal redirect allows employee-owned devices to self-register for guest access, while corporate devices (known MACs) can be handled separately (e.g., via MAB or 802.1X) for full access.

Why this answer

Using MAB for unknown devices captures their MAC addresses. Then, posture assessment checks compliance; if the device is non-corporate (employee-owned), it can be redirected to a guest registration portal for simple registration before granting guest network access. Corporate devices that are known can be authenticated via 802.1X and granted full access.

Option A (802.1X with PEAP and machine certificates) is suitable for corporate devices but not for guest devices that may not support 802.1X. Option C (MAB only for corporate devices, deny others) would block employee-owned guest devices entirely. Option D (single PSK for guest SSID) is less secure as it does not provide individual authentication or posture assessment.

78
MCQeasy

A small business uses Cisco AMP for Endpoints with a cloud-based console. The owner receives an email from Cisco that the AMP connector on a specific endpoint has gone offline. The endpoint is a Windows 10 laptop used for remote work. The owner checks the AMP console and sees the endpoint's last check-in was three days ago. The owner contacts the remote user, who says the laptop is running normally and they can access the internet. What should the owner do to resolve the issue?

A.Instruct the user to disable Windows Firewall temporarily.
B.Ask the user to install the latest Windows updates.
C.Ask the user to uninstall and reinstall the AMP connector.
D.Instruct the user to restart the AMP connector service (Cisco AMP for Endpoints Connector).
AnswerD

Restarting the service often resolves check-in issues.

Why this answer

The AMP connector on the endpoint may have a stopped or crashed service. Restarting the Cisco AMP for Endpoints Connector service will re-establish communication with the cloud console. Option A (disable firewall) is unnecessary and could reduce security; internet access works so firewall is likely not blocking.

Option B (install Windows updates) is unrelated to the connector's offline status. Option C (reinstall connector) is an extreme measure that should only be attempted after simpler steps like restarting the service fail.

79
MCQeasy

An organization wants to implement MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB) for devices that do not support 802.1X. Which configuration is required on a Cisco switch to allow MAB fallback?

A.authentication priority dot1x mab
B.authentication port-control auto
C.authentication fallback mab
D.authentication order mab dot1x
AnswerD

This command configures MAB as the primary method with 802.1X as fallback.

Why this answer

The 'authentication order mab dot1x' command configures the switch to attempt MAB first and then fall back to 802.1X if MAB fails. This is the exact requirement for devices that do not support 802.1X, ensuring they are authenticated via MAC address while still allowing 802.1X for capable devices.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'authentication order' and 'authentication priority' (which does not exist), leading candidates to incorrectly select a non-existent command or confuse the sequence of methods.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'authentication priority dot1x mab' is not a valid Cisco IOS command; the correct keyword is 'order' not 'priority'. Option B is wrong because 'authentication port-control auto' enables 802.1X authentication on the port but does not specify any fallback mechanism to MAB; it simply sets the port to require authentication. Option C is wrong because 'authentication fallback mab' is not a valid command; the fallback behavior is configured using the 'authentication order' command, not a separate 'fallback' command.

80
MCQmedium

A company uses Cisco Firepower with FMC and wants to block access to social media websites for all users. Which feature should be used to create this policy?

A.File Policy
B.URL Filtering
C.Intrusion Policy
D.Application Visibility and Control (AVC)
AnswerB

URL filtering uses categories like Social Networking to block websites.

Why this answer

URL filtering allows blocking or allowing access based on URL categories (e.g., Social Networking). Application visibility and control (AVC) can block specific applications, but URL filtering is more appropriate for web browsing categories.

81
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions are best practices when configuring a Cisco WSA to block malicious websites? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure URL filtering categories to block known malicious categories
B.Set the default action to 'Monitor' for all categories
C.Disable user authentication to simplify policy
D.Allow all HTTPS traffic to improve performance
E.Enable Web Reputation filtering
AnswersA, E

Blocking categories like malware, phishing provides protection.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA URL filtering categories allow administrators to block entire groups of known malicious sites, such as malware, phishing, or spyware categories, which are pre-classified by Cisco Talos. This provides a broad, proactive defense against threats without needing to maintain individual URL block lists. Option E is correct because Web Reputation filtering uses a scoring system (1–10, with lower scores being more malicious) to dynamically block or warn users about websites with poor reputation, even if they are not in a specific malicious category, adding a layer of behavioral analysis.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that 'Monitor' mode is a safe default for security, when in fact it only logs traffic and does not block threats, leading candidates to incorrectly select Option B.

82
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. The file invoice.pdf was determined to be malicious by the AMP cloud, yet the endpoint allowed it to execute. What is the most likely reason?

A.The endpoint was not up to date with the latest AMP connector patches.
B.The AMP policy was configured to allow files with a certain confidence level or based on a custom rule.
C.The file was not analyzed locally because local analysis was disabled.
D.The AMP connector lost connectivity after sending the file and fell back to a local allow policy.
AnswerB

The log explicitly states the action was due to a policy rule that allows on low confidence, overriding the malicious determination.

Why this answer

The AMP for Endpoints connector sends a SHA-256 hash of the file to the AMP cloud for analysis. If the cloud determines the file is malicious but the endpoint still allows execution, the most likely reason is that the AMP policy has been configured with a custom rule or a confidence threshold that permits files at that specific malicious confidence level. This overrides the default block action for known malware.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that if AMP cloud marks a file as malicious, the endpoint must block it; the trap here is that policy overrides (custom rules or confidence thresholds) can allow execution despite a malicious verdict.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the AMP connector updates are for the connector software itself, not for the malware signatures or cloud analysis; the cloud already identified the file as malicious, so a connector patch would not change the outcome. Option C is wrong because local analysis (e.g., using the local malware engine) is a separate feature that can be enabled or disabled, but the question states the AMP cloud already analyzed the file and found it malicious, so local analysis is irrelevant to the cloud verdict. Option D is wrong because if the connector lost connectivity, it would fall back to a 'local allow' policy only if configured to do so, but the exhibit shows the cloud received and analyzed the file (it was determined malicious), so connectivity was present; the fallback behavior would not apply.

83
MCQmedium

In a Snort intrusion detection rule, which part specifies the action to take when the rule matches?

A.Action
B.Protocol
C.Options
D.Source IP
AnswerA

Action is the first field in a Snort rule.

Why this answer

The action is the first field in a Snort rule (e.g., alert, drop, reject).

84
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is implementing a cloud security posture management (CSPM) solution. Which TWO of the following are primary functions of CSPM?

Select 2 answers
A.Real-time inspection of network traffic for malicious patterns.
B.Vulnerability scanning of virtual machine operating systems.
C.Managing user identities and access permissions.
D.Detection and remediation of cloud resource misconfigurations (e.g., open S3 buckets).
E.Continuous monitoring of cloud infrastructure against compliance frameworks (e.g., CIS, PCI DSS).
AnswersD, E

CSPM detects misconfigurations such as publicly accessible storage.

Why this answer

CSPM is designed to detect and remediate cloud resource misconfigurations, such as publicly accessible S3 buckets, which are a leading cause of data breaches. It continuously assesses cloud infrastructure against security best practices and compliance frameworks like CIS and PCI DSS. Unlike network-based tools, CSPM focuses on the configuration state of cloud resources rather than inspecting traffic or managing identities.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between CSPM (configuration and compliance monitoring) and CWPP (workload protection, including vulnerability scanning and runtime security), leading candidates to incorrectly select vulnerability scanning as a CSPM function.

85
MCQmedium

A security engineer is configuring Cisco AMP for Endpoints to protect against memory injection attacks. Which feature should be enabled to block exploits that attempt to inject malicious code into legitimate processes?

A.IOC Scanning
B.Device Trajectory
C.Exploit Prevention
D.File quarantine
AnswerC

Exploit Prevention blocks memory injection and other exploit techniques.

Why this answer

Exploit Prevention in Cisco AMP protects against memory injection and other exploit techniques by monitoring process behavior.

86
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE elements are essential components of a secure network architecture according to Cisco's SAFE model? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Encryption for data in transit
B.A single firewall at the internet edge
C.Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA)
D.Network segmentation using VLANs or VRF
E.Large broadcast domains to simplify management
AnswersA, C, D

Protects confidentiality of data traversing the network.

Why this answer

Encryption for data in transit is a core component of Cisco's SAFE model because it ensures confidentiality and integrity of traffic traversing the network. SAFE mandates encryption protocols such as IPsec, TLS, or MACsec to protect against eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. This aligns with the model's principle of maintaining trustworthiness across all communication paths.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a single firewall is sufficient for edge security, but the SAFE model explicitly requires a layered security stack (firewall, IPS, and web/email security) at the internet edge to achieve defense-in-depth.

87
MCQeasy

In the shared responsibility model for PaaS, which of the following is typically the customer's responsibility?

A.Securing the hypervisor
B.Patching the underlying operating system
C.Managing network firewall rules
D.Securing the application code and data
AnswerD

The customer develops and manages the application and its data.

Why this answer

In PaaS, the provider manages the runtime, middleware, OS, and infrastructure. The customer is responsible for the application code and data. Network controls and hypervisor are provider responsibilities.

88
MCQhard

During a security incident, an analyst uses Cisco AMP for Endpoints to remotely investigate a compromised endpoint. The analyst needs to isolate the endpoint from the network while preserving the ability to continue the investigation. Which AMP action should be taken?

A.Process isolation
B.File quarantine
C.Remove connector
D.Isolate
AnswerD

Correct. Isolate blocks network traffic except to the AMP cloud, allowing remote investigation.

Why this answer

Process isolation is not a standard AMP action; however, AMP allows endpoint isolation (network containment) and remote shell for investigation. The best option is to isolate the endpoint and use remote shell. But since only one action is allowed, 'Isolate' is the correct answer as it blocks network traffic while allowing AMP management.

89
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting an issue where emails sent to a specific external domain are being delayed by up to 30 minutes. The Cisco ESA is configured with multiple mail exchangers (MX) for delivery. The logs show that the ESA is attempting delivery to the primary MX, which is unresponsive, and failing over to the secondary MX after 30 minutes. What change should be made to reduce the delivery delay?

A.Enable SMTP over TLS (ESMTP) for the delivery
B.Reduce the delivery queue retry interval in the ESA settings
C.Increase the number of MX records for that domain
D.Remove the primary MX record from DNS
AnswerB

Reducing the delivery queue retry interval causes the ESA to attempt failover to the next MX more quickly, reducing the delay.

Why this answer

The delay is caused by the ESA waiting too long before failing over to the secondary MX. Reducing the delivery queue retry interval will cause the ESA to attempt failover sooner, reducing the delay. Option A is incorrect because SMTP over TLS (ESMTP) does not affect timeout or failover behavior.

Option C is incorrect because increasing the number of MX records does not change the timeout or retry interval. Option D is incorrect because removing the primary MX record is not a best practice and does not address the root cause; the issue is the timeout, not the existence of the primary MX.

90
MCQeasy

A security administrator is investigating an alert from an IPS that detected a SQL injection attempt. The alert was triggered by a signature that looks for specific patterns in the traffic. What type of detection method is this?

A.Signature-based detection
B.Behavioral detection
C.Heuristic detection
D.Anomaly-based detection
AnswerA

Signature-based detection matches traffic against known attack patterns.

Why this answer

Signature-based detection uses predefined patterns (signatures) to identify known attacks. Anomaly-based detection looks for deviations from normal behavior.

91
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibit, what is the current state of the client and what action should the network administrator take to allow full network access?

A.The client is in a quarantine state due to posture assessment failure; the administrator should check the ISE posture policy and ensure the client meets compliance.
B.The client's authentication succeeded but authorization is incomplete; the administrator should configure a new dACL on the switch.
C.The client is being redirected to a guest portal; the administrator should disable the URL redirect and assign a new VLAN.
D.The client is fully authenticated and authorized; no action is needed.
AnswerA

The quarantine SGT and dACL, along with guest portal redirect, indicate the client failed posture assessment; fixing the client's compliance will allow full access.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows 'Authz Success' but the presence of a URL redirect to a guest portal and a dACL named 'PERMIT_QUARANTINE' along with SGT value 2 (commonly quarantine) indicates the client is in a quarantine state due to posture assessment failure. The administrator should check the ISE posture policy and ensure the client meets compliance to allow full network access. Option B is incorrect because the authentication is complete; the issue is posture non-compliance, not incomplete authorization.

Option C is incorrect because the redirect is a result of the quarantine policy, not an independent problem to be disabled. Option D is incorrect because the client does not have full access; the quarantine dACL restricts it.

92
Multi-Selectmedium

A security administrator is evaluating Cisco Umbrella for cloud-delivered security. Which TWO capabilities are provided by the Secure Internet Gateway (SIG) feature? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Cloud-delivered firewall
B.Data loss prevention for SaaS
C.DNS-layer security
D.Site-to-site VPN connectivity
E.Web proxy with URL filtering
AnswersA, E

SIG includes a firewall to control traffic.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella SIG includes a cloud-delivered firewall and a web proxy for URL filtering. DNS-layer security is a separate feature, and VPN is not part of SIG. DLP is typically a CASB function.

93
MCQhard

A company using Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) in explicit proxy mode has enabled HTTPS decryption with a custom CA certificate. A user reports that a specific banking website displays a certificate error message. The administrator verifies that the WSA is generating a certificate for that site. What is the most likely cause of the error?

A.The banking website uses HTTP Public Key Pinning (HPKP) or Certificate Pinning.
B.The WSA's time is not synchronized with the NTP server, causing certificate validity issues.
C.The WSA is not configured to generate certificates for that domain.
D.The user's browser does not trust the WSA's CA certificate.
AnswerA

Pinned certificates are compared to the original, and the WSA's generated certificate does not match, causing an error.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that the banking website uses HTTP Public Key Pinning (HPKP) or certificate pinning. When the WSA performs HTTPS decryption, it generates a new certificate for the site, which does not match the pinned public key or certificate hash that the browser expects. This mismatch triggers a certificate error, even though the WSA's CA is trusted.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between global certificate trust issues (e.g., untrusted CA) and site-specific pinning errors, where candidates mistakenly choose the browser trust option because they overlook that the error is isolated to one site.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if the WSA's time were out of sync, the generated certificate would have an invalid validity period, causing errors on all decrypted sites, not just a specific banking site. Option C is wrong because the administrator verified that the WSA is generating a certificate for that site, so the domain is explicitly configured for decryption. Option D is wrong because if the browser did not trust the WSA's CA certificate, the error would appear on all decrypted HTTPS sites, not exclusively on the banking website.

94
MCQmedium

A security team wants to gain visibility into shadow IT usage of cloud applications and enforce data loss prevention policies. Which cloud security control should they deploy?

A.Cloud WAF
B.CWPP
C.CSPM
D.CASB
AnswerD

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) sits between users and cloud applications to enforce data loss prevention (DLP) policies by inspecting traffic for sensitive content, such as credit card numbers or personally identifiable information, in real time. This directly satisfies the stem’s requirement for visibility into shadow IT usage and policy enforcement, as CASBs can discover unsanctioned cloud apps via API integration or proxy-based traffic analysis, unlike network firewalls which lack application-layer inspection for cloud services.

Why this answer

CASB provides visibility, DLP, and threat detection for sanctioned and unsanctioned cloud apps.

95
MCQhard

An engineer configures a Cisco FTD in a high-availability pair with active/standby failover. The primary unit fails, and the standby takes over. After the primary recovers, what must be done to ensure it resumes as active?

A.Execute 'failover active' on the primary unit.
B.No action is needed; the primary automatically resumes active role.
C.Reboot the secondary unit.
D.Disable and re-enable failover.
AnswerA

This forces the primary to become active again.

Why this answer

In active/standby failover, the active unit can be forced to become standby and the standby active. To make the recovered primary active, the command 'failover active' on the primary or 'failover reset' can be used. However, by default, the primary will not automatically become active unless configured with preempt.

96
Multi-Selectmedium

A network administrator is deploying Cisco ISE for network access control. The network includes printers and IP phones that do not support 802.1X. Which TWO methods can be used to authenticate these devices?

Select 2 answers
A.802.1X with EAP-TLS
B.Posture assessment
C.MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB)
D.PEAP-MSCHAPv2
E.Profiling
AnswersC, E

MAB bypasses 802.1X and authenticates based on MAC address.

Why this answer

MAB allows non-supplicant devices to be authenticated based on their MAC address. Profiling can identify the device type and apply appropriate policies. 802.1X requires a supplicant, and PEAP-MSCHAPv2 is a credential-based EAP method that also requires a supplicant.

97
MCQhard

A Cisco FMC administrator needs to create a file policy to detect malware in HTTP downloads. The policy should allow the file to be delivered if it is known clean, block if known malicious, and allow but capture for analysis if unknown. Which combination of actions is required?

A.Detect Files: Clean = Allow; Malicious = Block; Unknown = Allow and Capture
B.Detect Files: Clean = Block; Malicious = Allow; Unknown = Block
C.Detect Files: Clean = Allow; Malicious = Allow; Unknown = Block
D.Intrusion Policy instead of File Policy
AnswerA

Correct; this matches the requirement.

Why this answer

The file policy can use dispositions from AMP: clean (allow), malicious (block), and unknown (allow but capture for further analysis).

98
MCQhard

A company is deploying Cisco Umbrella to enforce security policies for remote users. They want to ensure that DNS requests from roaming clients are routed through Umbrella's DNS resolvers. However, some users are bypassing Umbrella by using third-party DNS servers like Google (8.8.8.8). Which configuration should be applied to prevent this?

A.Configure Content Filtering to block Google DNS
B.Add a firewall rule on each client to block port 53 to all but Umbrella
C.Enable IP Layer Enforcement in the Umbrella dashboard
D.Enable DNS Policy in the Umbrella roaming client
AnswerD

This forces all DNS requests through Umbrella and blocks alternative DNS servers.

Why this answer

The Umbrella roaming client's DNS Policy feature forces all DNS traffic from the endpoint to use Umbrella's DNS resolvers, even if the user manually configures a third-party DNS server like Google (8.8.8.8). This is achieved by intercepting DNS requests at the OS level and redirecting them to the Umbrella resolvers, effectively preventing bypass attempts without relying on network-level blocks.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between network-level enforcement (like IP Layer Enforcement) and endpoint-level enforcement (like DNS Policy in the roaming client), leading candidates to mistakenly choose IP Layer Enforcement because it sounds like a global solution, but it fails for roaming clients not connected to the corporate network.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Content Filtering in Umbrella blocks specific domains or categories, not IP addresses or DNS server endpoints; it cannot prevent a client from using a third-party DNS resolver like 8.8.8.8. Option B is wrong because adding a firewall rule on each client to block port 53 to all but Umbrella is impractical for roaming users, as it requires manual configuration on every device and does not scale; it also fails if the user has administrative rights to disable the rule. Option C is wrong because IP Layer Enforcement in Umbrella applies to network traffic based on IP addresses, but it does not intercept or redirect DNS queries at the endpoint level; it relies on the network gateway to enforce policies, which is ineffective for roaming clients that are not behind a corporate network.

99
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are features of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Secure web gateway
B.Cloud access security broker
C.Next-generation firewall
D.Data loss prevention
E.DNS-layer security
AnswersA, E

Umbrella includes SWG capabilities.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella provides DNS-layer security as a core feature, which blocks requests to malicious domains before a connection is established, effectively preventing malware, phishing, and command-and-control callbacks. It also includes a Secure Web Gateway (SWG) that enforces URL filtering, application controls, and HTTPS inspection to protect users from web-based threats. These two capabilities are fundamental to Umbrella's cloud-delivered security architecture.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DNS-layer security and SWG as separate features of Umbrella, while tempting candidates to confuse Umbrella with a full NGFW or CASB, which are separate products in Cisco's security portfolio.

100
Multi-Selectmedium

A DevSecOps team is integrating security into their CI/CD pipeline. They want to scan infrastructure-as-code templates for misconfigurations and container images for vulnerabilities. Which two tools are appropriate? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.SAST
B.Trivy
C.HashiCorp Vault
D.Checkov
E.DAST
AnswersB, D

Trivy scans container images for vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

IaC scanning can use Checkov or similar, and container scanning tools like Trivy or Clair are common.

101
MCQmedium

An administrator wants to dynamically change the VLAN assignment for a user after a posture assessment determines that the endpoint is missing a critical patch. Which ISE feature accomplishes this?

A.TrustSec
B.Profiling
C.MAB
D.CoA
AnswerD

CoA enables dynamic session changes, including VLAN/ACL updates.

Why this answer

Change of Authorization (CoA) is the correct answer because it is the ISE feature that allows dynamic, real-time changes to an authenticated session, such as reassigning a VLAN, after a posture assessment. When a posture assessment determines an endpoint is non-compliant (e.g., missing a critical patch), ISE can send a CoA request (RFC 5176) to the network access device (NAD) to modify the session attributes, including VLAN assignment, without requiring the user to reauthenticate.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between authentication methods (like MAB) and post-authentication enforcement mechanisms (like CoA), so the trap here is confusing a feature that handles initial access (MAB) with one that modifies an existing session (CoA).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because TrustSec is a Cisco security architecture that uses Security Group Tags (SGTs) for access control based on identity and context, not for dynamically changing VLAN assignments based on posture assessment results. Option B is wrong because Profiling is an ISE feature that identifies and classifies endpoints based on attributes like MAC address, DHCP, or HTTP fingerprinting, but it does not enforce or change VLAN assignments after authentication. Option C is wrong because MAB (MAC Authentication Bypass) is an authentication method that uses the MAC address as credentials for devices that cannot support 802.1X, but it does not provide dynamic session changes like VLAN reassignment after a posture check.

102
MCQeasy

A small business uses Cisco Duo for multi-factor authentication. They want to ensure that employees accessing cloud apps from personal devices are compliant with device security policies. Which Duo feature should they use?

A.Duo Mobile
B.Duo Device Health
C.Duo Network Gateway
D.Duo Access Gateway
AnswerB

Checks device compliance.

Why this answer

B (Duo Device Health) is correct because it checks device security posture (OS version, encryption, etc.) before allowing access. A (Duo Mobile) is the authenticator app for push notifications and passcodes. C (Duo Network Gateway) is for VPN access.

D (Duo Access Gateway) is for SSO.

103
MCQhard

A DevSecOps team is integrating security into their CI/CD pipeline. They want to scan Terraform configuration files for misconfigurations before deployment. Which tool is specifically designed for that purpose?

A.Checkov
B.DAST scanner
C.SAST scanner
D.Container image scanner
AnswerA

Correct. Checkov performs static analysis on Terraform files.

Why this answer

Checkov is an open-source static analysis tool for IaC (Terraform, CloudFormation) to detect security misconfigurations.

104
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is deploying Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) to protect against phishing attacks. The security team wants to implement two security features to detect malicious URLs in emails. Which two features should be enabled? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) signing
B.Sender Policy Framework (SPF) verification
C.Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)
D.URL reputation filtering
E.Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection
AnswersD, E

Checks URLs against threat intelligence databases.

Why this answer

URL reputation filtering is correct because it uses the Cisco Talos threat intelligence to analyze and block emails containing malicious URLs based on real-time reputation scores. Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection is correct because it uses machine learning and behavioral analysis to detect and block sophisticated phishing URLs that may bypass traditional reputation checks.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between email authentication protocols (DKIM, SPF, DMARC) and content-based security features, so candidates mistakenly choose authentication methods when the question explicitly asks for features that detect malicious URLs in emails.

105
MCQeasy

Which authentication protocol is used in Cisco ISE for certificate-based 802.1X authentication?

A.LEAP
B.EAP-MD5
C.EAP-TLS
D.PEAP-MSCHAPv2
AnswerC

EAP-TLS uses certificates for authentication, providing strong security.

Why this answer

EAP-TLS is the Extensible Authentication Protocol that uses certificates for mutual authentication.

106
MCQhard

Cisco ISE is performing profiling on a network. It receives a DHCP request from a device with vendor class identifier 'MSFT 5.0' and an HTTP user-agent 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0)'. Which probes are most likely used to collect this information?

A.Device Sensor and SNMP probe
B.DHCP probe and HTTP probe
C.HTTP probe and Device Sensor
D.DHCP probe and SNMP probe
AnswerB

Correct. DHCP probe captures DHCP options; HTTP probe captures HTTP headers.

Why this answer

The DHCP probe captures DHCP packets, including the vendor class identifier (option 60) which reveals the device type (e.g., 'MSFT 5.0' for Windows). The HTTP probe intercepts HTTP traffic and parses the User-Agent header (e.g., 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 10.0)') to identify the operating system and browser. Together, these two probes collect the exact information described in the question.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the specific mapping of probe to data source, and the trap here is confusing the Device Sensor probe (which collects data via RADIUS accounting or syslog) with the DHCP or HTTP probes that directly capture packet-level information.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Device Sensor probe collects endpoint attributes via RADIUS or syslog, not DHCP or HTTP headers, and the SNMP probe queries MIBs from network devices, not client-side headers. Option C is wrong because the HTTP probe is correct, but the Device Sensor probe does not capture DHCP vendor class identifiers or HTTP User-Agent strings directly from the endpoint traffic. Option D is wrong because the DHCP probe is correct, but the SNMP probe does not collect HTTP User-Agent headers or DHCP vendor class identifiers; it gathers device information from SNMP-enabled infrastructure devices.

107
Multi-Selectmedium

A security administrator is configuring a Cisco Firepower system for network discovery and wants to identify hosts and services on the network. Which two actions must be configured to enable network discovery? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable SSL/TLS inspection for all traffic.
B.Configure a file policy with malware detection.
C.Configure an Access Control Policy with an 'Allow' rule for discovery traffic.
D.Enable the Network Discovery feature in FMC.
E.Deploy the FTD in inline mode only.
AnswersC, D

Correct. Discovery traffic must be allowed to be analyzed.

Why this answer

Network discovery requires enabling discovery in the FMC and configuring the FTD to perform discovery by applying an access control policy that allows discovery traffic or by configuring discovery settings. Also, the FTD must be in an appropriate mode (inline or passive) and have the necessary policies applied.

108
MCQmedium

A company is implementing a Zero Trust architecture. The security team needs to ensure that all traffic between workloads in a private cloud is encrypted and mutually authenticated. Which solution best meets these requirements?

A.MACsec on the network interfaces
B.IPsec VPN between each pair of workloads
C.SSH tunnels between workloads
D.Mutual TLS (mTLS) between workloads
AnswerD

mTLS provides both encryption and mutual authentication, making it ideal for Zero Trust workload communication.

Why this answer

Mutual TLS (mTLS) provides both encryption and mutual authentication by requiring each workload to present a valid X.509 certificate during the TLS handshake. This ensures that only verified workloads can communicate, and all traffic is encrypted at the application layer, making it the ideal choice for a Zero Trust architecture where every connection is authenticated and authorized regardless of network location.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between network-layer encryption (IPsec, MACsec) and application-layer mutual authentication (mTLS), leading candidates to choose IPsec because it is familiar for site-to-site VPNs, but they overlook that Zero Trust requires per-workload identity verification, not just encryption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MACsec operates at Layer 2 and provides encryption and authentication only between directly connected network interfaces (e.g., switch-to-switch or host-to-switch), not between individual workloads across a routed network; it cannot enforce per-workload mutual authentication. Option B is wrong because IPsec VPN between each pair of workloads creates a full-mesh of tunnels that is operationally complex and does not natively support mutual authentication using certificates without additional configuration (e.g., IKE with certificates), and it is not designed for the dynamic, service-to-service communication typical in private clouds. Option C is wrong because SSH tunnels provide encryption and authentication but are typically used for interactive sessions or port forwarding, not for automated, high-volume workload-to-workload traffic; they lack the standardized certificate-based mutual authentication and scalability of mTLS in a service mesh.

109
Multi-Selectmedium

A Cisco WSA administrator wants to apply different web usage policies based on user group membership. Which two methods can be used to identify users transparently? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Explicit proxy configuration
B.Active Directory integration
C.LDAP bind
D.NTLM authentication
E.WCCP redirect
AnswersB, D

AD can authenticate users transparently.

Why this answer

Transparent identification can use Active Directory or NTLM authentication without explicit proxy config.

110
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An ISE administrator sees this error in the logs. What is the most likely cause?

A.The ISE license does not support SGT.
B.The PassiveID identity source is not configured with the correct SGT mapping.
C.The SGT number is out of range.
D.The pxGrid connection is down.
AnswerB

PassiveID requires mapping between SGTs and identity groups; if missing, it cannot resolve the identity.

Why this answer

The error indicates that PassiveID received an SGT from a network device but does not have a mapping to convert it to an identity. This typically happens when the PassiveID identity source is not configured with the correct SGT-to-identity mapping. Option A is incorrect because licensing issues would produce different errors.

Option C is incorrect because the SGT number range is not the cause of missing mapping. Option D is incorrect because a pxGrid connection failure would show connection-related errors, not a missing SGT mapping.

111
Multi-Selecthard

A company is using Cisco ASA with AnyConnect VPN. They want to implement Dynamic Access Policy (DAP) to enforce access based on device compliance. Which two attributes can DAP use to evaluate endpoint posture? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco ISE authorization profile
B.Antivirus software version and real-time protection status
C.User group membership from Active Directory
D.Source IP address
E.Presence of a specific file
AnswersB, E

Correct. DAP can check antivirus status via AnyConnect posture.

Why this answer

DAP can use attributes from the AnyConnect client such as antivirus status, firewall status, and operating system. It can also use AAA attributes from RADIUS or LDAP. The Secure Endpoint (formerly AMP) connector provides device compliance data.

112
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are valid methods for implementing Network Admission Control (NAC) in a Cisco environment?

Select 2 answers
A.802.1X authentication
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
C.IP source guard
D.DHCP snooping
E.MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB)
AnswersA, E

802.1X is a standard for network access control.

Why this answer

802.1X authentication is a valid NAC method because it enforces port-based access control by requiring end devices to authenticate via EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) before gaining network access. It integrates with a RADIUS server (e.g., Cisco ISE) to validate credentials and dynamically assign VLANs or ACLs based on policy, making it a core NAC technology.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between NAC enforcement mechanisms (like 802.1X and MAB) and Layer 2 security features (like DAI, IP source guard, and DHCP snooping), causing candidates to confuse port security or DHCP snooping with actual admission control methods.

113
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to configure 802.1X port-based authentication on a Cisco switch in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

AAA and RADIUS must be configured first, then the authentication list, global 802.1X enable, and finally interface-level enable.

114
MCQhard

An organization is implementing privileged access management (PAM) with Cisco SecureX and CyberArk. Which feature allows administrators to grant temporary elevated privileges for a specific task, after which the privileges are automatically revoked?

A.Session recording
B.Just-in-time access
C.Application whitelisting
D.Password vaulting
AnswerB

JIT access grants temporary privileges that expire automatically.

Why this answer

Just-in-time (JIT) access provides time-limited elevated privileges that are automatically revoked after the task is completed, reducing the risk of standing privileges.

115
MCQhard

In Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which technology prevents exploit techniques such as code injection and memory corruption at runtime without relying on signatures?

A.Indicators of Compromise (IOC)
B.Exploit Prevention
C.File Reputation
D.Orbital Advanced Search
AnswerB

Correct. Exploit Prevention guards against memory-based exploits without signatures.

Why this answer

Exploit Prevention in Cisco AMP uses exploit mitigation techniques like memory protection and injection detection to block common exploit methods (e.g., buffer overflows, DLL injection) without needing signatures.

116
MCQeasy

A company wants to deploy a site-to-site VPN between two branch offices using Cisco IOS routers. The security policy requires that all traffic between the sites must be encrypted and authenticated using strong encryption. The engineer chooses IPsec with IKEv2. Which IPsec transform set configuration provides the strongest encryption and authentication?

A.transform-set ESP-AES128 ESP-SHA-HMAC
B.transform-set ESP-AES256 ESP-SHA256-HMAC
C.transform-set ESP-DES ESP-MD5-HMAC
D.transform-set ESP-3DES ESP-SHA-HMAC
AnswerB

AES-256 and SHA-256 provide strong encryption and authentication.

Why this answer

It specifies AES-256 encryption, which is the strongest symmetric cipher available in IPsec transform sets, combined with ESP-SHA256-HMAC for integrity and authentication. IKEv2 supports these modern algorithms, and this configuration meets the requirement for strong encryption and authentication.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between ESP-SHA-HMAC (which implies SHA-1) and ESP-SHA256-HMAC (which implies SHA-256), leading candidates to mistakenly choose the weaker SHA-1 option when 'strongest' is required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AES-128 provides only 128-bit encryption, which is weaker than AES-256 and does not meet the 'strongest' requirement. Option C is wrong because DES uses a 56-bit key, which is cryptographically weak and easily broken, and MD5 is a deprecated hash algorithm with known collision vulnerabilities. Option D is wrong because 3DES, while stronger than DES, uses only 168-bit effective key strength and is considered legacy, and ESP-SHA-HMAC refers to SHA-1 (160-bit), which is no longer recommended due to collision attacks.

117
MCQhard

A DevOps team is deploying microservices in Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS). They need to enforce inter-container communication policies based on labels. Which Cisco solution provides micro-segmentation for containers in AKS?

A.Cisco Firepower
B.Cisco ACI
C.Cisco ISE
D.Cisco Secure Workload
AnswerD

Secure Workload provides micro-segmentation and visibility for containers.

Why this answer

Cisco Secure Workload (formerly Tetration) is the correct solution because it provides micro-segmentation for containers in Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) by enforcing inter-container communication policies based on labels. It uses a Kubernetes-native approach, integrating with the Kubernetes API to discover pods and services, and applies label-based policies via eBPF or sidecar proxies to control traffic between containers without modifying the application.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between network-level micro-segmentation (ACI) and workload-level micro-segmentation (Secure Workload), so the trap here is assuming ACI can natively enforce Kubernetes label-based policies, when in fact Secure Workload is the only option that directly integrates with Kubernetes labels for container micro-segmentation in AKS.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco Firepower is a next-generation firewall (NGFW) designed for perimeter and network-layer security, not for container-level micro-segmentation within Kubernetes clusters; it cannot enforce policies based on Kubernetes labels. Option B is wrong because Cisco ACI (Application Centric Infrastructure) is a data center networking solution that provides micro-segmentation at the network fabric level using endpoint groups (EPGs), but it is not designed for container-native label-based policies in AKS and requires integration with a container networking interface (CNI) plugin, not direct Kubernetes label enforcement. Option C is wrong because Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine) is a network access control (NAC) and policy management platform for user and device authentication on wired/wireless networks, not for container workload segmentation; it does not understand Kubernetes labels or container runtime contexts.

118
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are benefits of using Cisco ISE for network access control?

Select 3 answers
A.Firewall integration
B.Guest access provisioning
C.Centralized policy management
D.Storage encryption
E.URL filtering
AnswersA, B, C

ISE uses pxGrid to share context with firewalls for dynamic policy updates.

Why this answer

Cisco ISE provides centralized policy management (option C) by allowing administrators to define and enforce access policies from a single console, which simplifies network access control across the entire organization. Guest access provisioning (option B) is a native feature of ISE that enables secure, self-service or sponsored guest onboarding with customizable captive portals and role-based access. Firewall integration (option A) is a benefit because ISE can dynamically communicate with Cisco firewalls (e.g., ASA, Firepower) via pxGrid to enforce context-aware policies, such as quarantining an infected endpoint or granting micro-segmentation based on user identity and device posture.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between ISE's core AAA and policy management functions versus features like encryption or URL filtering that belong to other security domains, leading candidates to mistakenly attribute all security capabilities to a single product.

119
MCQeasy

An organization wants to prevent users from accessing known malicious websites. Which Cisco WSA feature should be configured to block access based on website reputation?

A.SSL/TLS Decryption
B.URL Filtering
C.AMP File Scanning
D.AVC (Application Visibility and Control)
AnswerB

URL Filtering uses Talos web reputation to block malicious sites.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA uses Cisco Talos web reputation scores to block access to malicious websites based on their reputation.

120
MCQhard

A Cisco WSA appliance is configured with explicit proxy mode. Users report that they cannot access external HTTPS websites, but HTTP works fine. The proxy logs show 'SSL handshake failed' errors. What is the most likely reason?

A.The HTTPS proxy port is not configured on the WSA.
B.The WSA's SSL certificate is not trusted by the clients.
C.The WSA is configured to forward HTTPS traffic without decryption.
D.Client certificates are required for authentication.
AnswerB

Clients must trust the WSA's certificate for HTTPS interception.

Why this answer

In explicit proxy mode, the Cisco WSA must intercept HTTPS traffic by performing a man-in-the-middle (MITM) decryption. For this to work, the WSA presents its own SSL certificate to the client. If that certificate is not trusted by the client's browser or operating system (i.e., not installed in the trusted root certificate store), the client will reject the SSL handshake, resulting in 'SSL handshake failed' errors.

HTTP traffic is unaffected because it does not involve certificate validation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between proxy configuration (port settings) and SSL decryption trust (certificate validation), leading candidates to mistakenly focus on port numbers or forwarding modes instead of the certificate trust chain.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the HTTPS proxy port (typically 3128 or 8080) is configured separately from the decryption function; the error is about the SSL handshake, not about port misconfiguration. Option C is wrong because forwarding HTTPS traffic without decryption (i.e., using the CONNECT method) would not cause an SSL handshake failure at the proxy level—the proxy would simply tunnel the traffic, and the handshake would occur between the client and the destination server. Option D is wrong because client certificate authentication is an optional feature for mutual TLS; it is not required for basic HTTPS decryption, and its absence would not cause a generic 'SSL handshake failed' error.

121
MCQmedium

A Cisco ASA is configured with dynamic PAT to translate internal addresses to a single outside IP address. A user on the inside initiates a connection to an external web server. The ASA creates a connection entry. Which table is checked first when a return packet arrives from the web server?

A.ACL table
B.Connection table (conn)
C.NAT table (xlate)
D.Routing table
AnswerB

Correct. The ASA checks the connection table to see if the packet belongs to an existing session.

Why this answer

The ASA checks the connection table (conn table) first for stateful inspection. The xlate table is used for NAT translation, but connection table is checked for session state.

122
MCQmedium

An engineer applies the ACL shown in the exhibit to the inbound direction of interface GigabitEthernet0/0. The goal is to block all traffic from host 10.1.1.100 to the 192.168.0.0/16 network. However, traffic from 10.1.1.100 to 192.168.1.1 is still being permitted. What is the most likely reason?

A.The deny entry should be placed after the permit entry
B.The ACL should be applied outbound instead of inbound
C.The ACL is applied to the wrong direction; it should be 'out'
D.The traffic from 10.1.1.100 is entering through a different interface
AnswerD

If the traffic does not enter via GigabitEthernet0/0, the ACL will not be applied to it.

Why this answer

ACLs process traffic only on the interface and direction to which they are applied. If the ACL is applied inbound on GigabitEthernet0/0 but the traffic from host 10.1.1.100 to 192.168.1.1 enters through a different interface (e.g., GigabitEthernet0/1), the ACL will never evaluate that traffic, allowing it to pass. This is a fundamental behavior of interface-based ACL filtering in Cisco IOS.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume an ACL applied inbound on one interface will filter all traffic from a source, but Cisco tests the understanding that ACLs are interface- and direction-specific, and traffic can bypass the ACL if it enters through a different interface.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the order of entries in an ACL is critical; the deny entry must be placed before any permit entries that could match the same traffic, but here the deny is already first, so moving it after would make the problem worse, not fix it. Option B is wrong because applying the ACL outbound instead of inbound would not help if the traffic is entering through a different interface; the ACL would still only filter traffic exiting that specific interface, not traffic entering elsewhere. Option C is wrong because the direction 'in' vs 'out' is irrelevant if the traffic never traverses the interface where the ACL is applied; the ACL must be placed on the interface where the traffic enters the router.

123
MCQmedium

Which EAP method used with 802.1X provides certificate-based mutual authentication and is commonly used with Cisco ISE?

A.EAP-TLS
B.EAP-MD5
C.EAP-FAST
D.EAP-GTC
AnswerA

EAP-TLS uses certificates for mutual authentication.

Why this answer

EAP-TLS uses certificates for both client and server authentication, providing strong security.

124
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is experiencing a DDoS attack that floods the network with large volumes of traffic, overwhelming bandwidth. Which three types of DDoS attacks are primarily volumetric? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.UDP flood
B.DNS amplification
C.HTTP GET flood
D.ICMP flood
E.SYN flood
AnswersA, B, D

UDP floods send many UDP packets to random ports.

Why this answer

Volumetric attacks aim to consume bandwidth. UDP floods, ICMP floods, and DNS amplification are common examples.

125
MCQmedium

A security engineer is tuning Snort rules on a Cisco FTD to reduce false positives. Which action should be taken if a rule is generating alerts for legitimate traffic?

A.Change the rule action to 'reject'.
B.Increase the priority of the rule.
C.Disable the rule or set it to 'noalert'.
D.Add the rule to a custom policy with higher precedence.
AnswerC

Correct; disabling or setting to noalert stops false alerts.

Why this answer

To reduce false positives, the rule can be disabled (noalert), thresholding can reduce alert frequency, or the rule can be modified to be more specific. Disabling is a common initial step if the rule is not needed.

126
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to configure a Cisco ISE as a RADIUS server for network access control into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

First add the NAS, then define identity source, authentication policy, authorization policy, and finally test.

127
MCQmedium

A company is deploying a cloud-native application using microservices on AWS. They need to ensure that inter-service communication is encrypted and authenticated. The security team wants to use mutual TLS (mTLS) without managing individual certificates. Which solution should they implement?

A.Use AWS IAM roles for each microservice to authenticate via AWS Signature Version 4.
B.Store certificates in AWS Secrets Manager and configure sidecar proxies to retrieve them.
C.Deploy AWS CloudHSM to generate keys and certificates for each microservice.
D.Use AWS Certificate Manager Private CA with a service mesh (e.g., Istio) to issue and rotate certificates for each service.
AnswerD

ACM Private CA can issue certificates for mTLS, and service mesh can automate certificate distribution.

Why this answer

AWS Certificate Manager Private CA can integrate with a service mesh like Istio to automatically issue, distribute, and rotate mTLS certificates for each microservice. This eliminates the need for manual certificate management while ensuring encrypted and authenticated inter-service communication via mutual TLS.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between authentication mechanisms (IAM SigV4 vs. mTLS) and automation requirements, leading candidates to choose a manual certificate storage solution (like Secrets Manager) instead of an integrated PKI and service mesh approach.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS IAM roles and Signature Version 4 are used for signing HTTP requests to AWS APIs, not for encrypting or authenticating inter-service communication at the transport layer with mTLS. Option B is wrong because storing certificates in AWS Secrets Manager and having sidecar proxies retrieve them still requires manual certificate generation, renewal, and distribution, which does not meet the requirement of 'without managing individual certificates'. Option C is wrong because AWS CloudHSM provides hardware security module (HSM) capabilities for key generation and storage, but it does not automate certificate issuance, rotation, or distribution for microservices; it also requires significant operational overhead to manage certificates.

128
MCQhard

A financial company has a data center with Cisco FTD firewalls in a high-availability pair. They use Cisco ISE for network access control and Cisco Stealthwatch for network visibility. Recently, they deployed a new web application that is accessed by both internal employees and external customers. The application uses HTTPS on port 443. After deployment, the security team notices that the FTD is dropping some HTTPS sessions that appear legitimate. The drops are inconsistent and seem to occur only during peak hours. The FTD logs show the drop reason as 'TCP state violation'. The team has verified that the web server and clients are configured correctly. The Stealthwatch reports show no anomalies. What is the most likely cause and solution?

A.Enable SSL decryption to inspect the encrypted traffic
B.Increase the TCP timeout values on the FTD to accommodate longer sessions
C.Block all traffic to the web server except from trusted IPs
D.Configure TCP state bypass on the FTD for the web server traffic
AnswerD

Bypassing state tracking allows packets that may be asymmetric to pass without being dropped.

Why this answer

The 'TCP state violation' drops during peak hours indicate that the FTD's stateful inspection engine is seeing TCP segments that do not match the expected state machine, likely due to asymmetric routing or session timeouts under load. Configuring TCP state bypass for the web server traffic disables stateful inspection for those flows, allowing the firewall to forward packets based on ACLs alone without tracking TCP states, which resolves the issue without compromising security for legitimate traffic.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume SSL decryption is needed for encrypted traffic issues, but the 'TCP state violation' drop reason directly points to a stateful inspection problem, not an encryption inspection problem.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SSL decryption would add processing overhead and is not designed to fix TCP state violations; it addresses content inspection, not stateful firewall drops. Option B is wrong because increasing TCP timeouts might help if sessions are timing out prematurely, but the drops are inconsistent and occur during peak hours, suggesting a state tracking issue under load rather than timeout expiration. Option C is wrong because blocking all traffic except from trusted IPs would deny external customers access, which contradicts the requirement that the application is accessed by both internal employees and external customers, and it does not address the TCP state violation drops.

129
MCQhard

An organization is implementing TrustSec to enforce micro-segmentation. The Security Group Tag (SGT) is assigned to a user via ISE after authentication. However, traffic from this user to a server with SGT 5 is being dropped. The administrator checks the SGACL configuration on the switch and finds the following: 'permit ip source 2 destination 5'. What is the most likely reason for the traffic being dropped?

A.The PAC on the switch has expired
B.SXP is not configured between ISE and the switch
C.The CTRL protocol is not enabled on the switch
D.The SGACL defaults to deny if no explicit permit is found for the source-destination SGT pair
AnswerB

Correct. SXP is used to share SGT-to-IP bindings from ISE to the switch. Without SXP, the switch cannot associate the user with SGT 2, so even though an SGACL permit exists for source SGT 2 to destination SGT 5, the traffic is dropped because the switch treats the user as having an unknown SGT.

Why this answer

The SGACL entry 'permit ip source 2 destination 5' exists, but traffic from the user to the server with SGT 5 is still being dropped. This is likely because the switch does not know the user's SGT. TrustSec uses SXP to dynamically propagate SGT mappings from ISE to network devices.

Without SXP configured between ISE and the switch, the switch cannot map the user's authentication identity to the correct SGT (e.g., SGT 2). As a result, the switch either treats the user as untagged (SGT 0) or drops the traffic due to lack of a matching SGACL entry for the actual SGT pair. Thus, configuring SXP is essential for the switch to enforce SGACLs based on user-assigned SGTs.

Exam trap

Candidates often see a single SGACL permit entry and assume it applies to all users, forgetting that the SGT must be propagated to the switch via SXP. Without SXP, the switch cannot map users to SGTs, leading to implicit deny even if an SGACL appears to match.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a PAC (Protected Access Credential) expiration would prevent the switch from establishing a RADIUS or EAP-FAST session with ISE, but the SGACL is already present on the switch, indicating authentication and policy download succeeded. Option B is wrong because SXP (SGT Exchange Protocol) is used to propagate SGT bindings between network devices that do not support inline tagging; the switch already has the SGACL and the SGT assignment from ISE, so SXP is not required for enforcement. Option C is wrong because the CTRL protocol (Cisco TrustSec Control Protocol) is used for environment data download and SGT distribution between TrustSec-capable devices, but the SGACL is already configured on the switch, so the control plane is functioning; the issue is the ACL logic, not the protocol.

130
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An IPsec VPN tunnel between two routers is not passing traffic. IKE phase 1 is not complete (MM_NO_STATE). Phase 2 has no SA. Which issue is most likely causing the problem?

A.The remote peer is not reachable due to a routing issue.
B.IKE policy mismatch (e.g., encryption, hash, or pre-shared key) causes phase 1 failure.
C.The ACL defining interesting traffic is misconfigured.
D.Mismatched IPsec transform sets between the peers.
AnswerB

MM_NO_STATE indicates no IKE SA; common cause is policy or PSK mismatch.

Why this answer

The IKE phase 1 state is MM_NO_STATE, which indicates that the Internet Key Exchange (IKE) Main Mode negotiation has not completed. This typically occurs when the peers cannot agree on the IKE policy parameters (encryption, hash, Diffie-Hellman group, authentication method, or pre-shared key). Since phase 2 (IPsec SA) depends on a successful phase 1, the failure cascades, making an IKE policy mismatch the most likely root cause.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between IKE phase 1 and phase 2 failures, and the trap here is that candidates confuse a phase 2 issue (like ACL or transform set mismatch) with a phase 1 issue, but MM_NO_STATE specifically indicates phase 1 is incomplete.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a routing issue would prevent the remote peer from being reachable, but the exhibit shows the peer IP is configured and the tunnel interface is up; IKE would typically show a different error (e.g., 'Waiting for peer' or 'No route to peer') rather than MM_NO_STATE. Option C is wrong because the ACL defining interesting traffic only triggers IKE phase 2 (IPsec SA negotiation); phase 1 (IKE SA) does not depend on interesting traffic and would complete regardless of the ACL. Option D is wrong because mismatched IPsec transform sets affect phase 2 (IPsec SA) negotiation, not phase 1; phase 1 would still complete to MM_ACTIVE even if transform sets differ.

131
MCQmedium

A security engineer is configuring the Cisco ESA to block spam. The engineer wants to rely on a reputation-based system that scores senders based on global email traffic patterns. Which technology should be used?

A.IronPort SenderBase reputation
B.DMARC verification
C.Cisco TALOS outbreak filters
D.AMP for Email
AnswerA

Correct. SenderBase provides SBRS scores based on global email traffic patterns.

Why this answer

IronPort SenderBase uses a reputation score (SBRS) ranging from -10 to +10 to classify senders as trusted or spam sources.

132
MCQeasy

Which NAT type on a Cisco ASA translates both the source and destination IP addresses and is typically used to allow external hosts to access internal servers?

A.Identity NAT
B.PAT (Port Address Translation)
C.Static NAT
D.Dynamic NAT
AnswerC

Correct. Static NAT provides a fixed mapping for both directions.

Why this answer

Static NAT creates a one-to-one mapping between an internal private IP and an external public IP, translating both source and destination addresses symmetrically. It is commonly used to make internal servers accessible from the outside.

133
MCQmedium

A security administrator is configuring a Cisco Firepower NGFW to detect and block application-layer DDoS attacks. Which type of DDoS attack is characterized by overwhelming a server with incomplete HTTP requests, causing resource exhaustion?

A.UDP Flood
B.ICMP Flood
C.Slowloris
D.SYN Flood
AnswerC

Slowloris is an application-layer attack that sends incomplete HTTP headers to tie up connections.

Why this answer

Slowloris is an application-layer DDoS attack that sends partial HTTP requests to keep connections open, exhausting server resources.

134
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid methods for deploying Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) in high availability?

Select 2 answers
A.Active/Active failover
B.Clustering
C.Load balancing with external load balancer
D.Active/Standby failover
E.StackWise
AnswersB, D

FTD supports clustering for high availability and scalability.

Why this answer

Cisco FTD supports high availability through Active/Standby failover (option D) and clustering (option B). Active/Standby failover provides stateful redundancy with one unit handling traffic while the other monitors and takes over upon failure. Clustering groups multiple FTD devices into a single logical unit for both high availability and scalability, distributing traffic across members.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that FTD supports Active/Active failover like ASA, but FTD only supports Active/Standby failover and clustering for high availability.

135
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is implementing Cisco TrustSec. Which two components are required to enforce Security Group Access Control List (SGACL) policies? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
B.Cisco Catalyst switch with CTS
C.Cisco ISE Policy Service Node
D.Cisco ASA Firewall
E.Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client
AnswersB, C

Enforces SGACL at the switch level.

Why this answer

Options B and C are correct. Cisco ISE Policy Service Node (C) defines SGACL rules and distributes them to enforcement points. A Cisco Catalyst switch with CTS (B) is the enforcement point that applies SGACLs based on SGTs.

Options A, D, and E are not required components for basic SGACL enforcement.

136
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is deploying Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) in inline mode and needs to decrypt SSL traffic for inspection. Which two methods are supported by FTD for SSL decryption? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Decrypt - Passthrough: SSL traffic is allowed without inspection.
B.Decrypt - Monitor: SSL traffic is monitored but not decrypted.
C.Decrypt - Block: SSL traffic is blocked if decryption fails.
D.Decrypt - Resign: The FTD re-signs the server certificate with its own CA.
E.Decrypt - Known Key: Using the private key of the destination server.
AnswersD, E

This method installs a CA on the FTD and re-signs certificates for inspection.

Why this answer

FTD supports decrypting traffic using a known private key (e.g., from a web server) or by re-signing certificates using a CA certificate installed on the device. The other options are not valid SSL decryption methods.

137
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid methods for deploying Cisco WSA? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.As a mail relay
B.As a DNS server
C.Inline with firewall port mirroring
D.Explicit proxy (browser configuration)
E.Transparent proxy via WCCP
AnswersD, E

Explicit proxy requires browser proxy settings.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA can be deployed as an explicit proxy (browsers configured to use it) or as a transparent proxy using WCCP or other redirection methods.

138
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An analyst reviews the log from a Cisco Secure Endpoint connector. The file 'invoice.pdf.exe' was quarantined. What best describes the detection process that occurred?

A.The file was blocked at execution time by Exploit Prevention.
B.The cloud reputation was unknown, but local analysis detected malicious behavior, triggering quarantine.
C.The cloud reputation determined the file was malicious and instructed the connector to quarantine.
D.The file was executed and then reverted by the retrospective engine.
AnswerB

Log shows cloud result UNKNOWN, then local analysis verdict Malicious.

Why this answer

The log shows the file 'invoice.pdf.exe' was quarantined based on local analysis after the cloud reputation returned an unknown verdict. Cisco Secure Endpoint uses a multi-layered approach: if the cloud reputation is unknown, the connector performs local analysis (e.g., static analysis, behavioral monitoring) to detect malicious behavior. In this case, the local analysis flagged the file as malicious, triggering the quarantine action.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between cloud reputation, local analysis, and retrospective analysis — the trap here is assuming that quarantine always requires a malicious cloud verdict, when in fact local analysis can independently trigger quarantine when the cloud verdict is unknown.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Exploit Prevention blocks exploits at execution time by monitoring for specific exploit techniques (e.g., heap spray, ROP), not by analyzing file reputation or behavior after execution; the log indicates quarantine after analysis, not a block at execution. Option C is wrong because the cloud reputation was unknown, not malicious; if the cloud had determined the file was malicious, it would have instructed the connector to block or quarantine immediately without requiring local analysis. Option D is wrong because the retrospective engine reverts files after they have been executed and later found malicious via cloud or local analysis; the log shows quarantine during the initial analysis, not a post-execution revert.

139
MCQmedium

A company is moving workloads to Google Cloud and needs private connectivity between its on-premises data center and VPC without traversing the internet. Which service should be used?

A.Azure ExpressRoute
B.AWS Direct Connect
C.Google Cloud Dedicated Interconnect
D.Cloud VPN
AnswerC

This provides private connectivity to GCP.

Why this answer

Google Cloud Dedicated Interconnect provides direct private physical connections between on-premises and GCP VPCs.

140
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer reviews the Cisco Secure Endpoint policy. If an endpoint is offline when a user downloads a file, what will happen?

A.The file will be held until the endpoint comes online and a cloud lookup completes.
B.The file will be quarantined due to the aggressive exploit prevention level.
C.The file will be allowed because local cache will store an unknown disposition.
D.The file will be blocked immediately by scan-on-write.
AnswerC

Local cache stores unknown disposition; file is allowed until cloud lookup can be performed later.

Why this answer

When an endpoint is offline, Cisco Secure Endpoint cannot perform a cloud lookup to determine the file's disposition. The local cache stores the disposition as 'unknown' for files that have not been seen before, and the file is allowed to execute because the default action for an unknown disposition in an offline scenario is to permit the file. This behavior is controlled by the policy setting for 'Unknown' files, which defaults to 'Allow' when the cloud is unreachable.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that offline endpoints will block or quarantine unknown files, when in fact the default behavior is to allow them based on local cache and policy settings for unknown dispositions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco Secure Endpoint does not hold files in a pending state when offline; it uses local caching and allows unknown files by default rather than queuing them for later cloud lookup. Option B is wrong because the aggressive exploit prevention level does not cause file quarantine for offline downloads; exploit prevention focuses on behavioral analysis and exploit detection, not on offline file disposition decisions. Option D is wrong because scan-on-write is a real-time scanning feature that blocks files based on known malware signatures, but it cannot block a file with an unknown disposition when the endpoint is offline and no local signature match exists.

141
MCQmedium

An organization is deploying Cisco Secure Endpoint (AMP) in a high-security environment where endpoints are air-gapped from the internet. The security team needs to maintain up-to-date threat intelligence without direct cloud access. They have a dedicated local server that can download feeds from the AMP cloud once and distribute to endpoints. The server runs the AMP Private Cloud software. However, after installation, endpoints are not receiving updates. The team verifies that the Private Cloud server can reach the AMP cloud via a managed proxy. The endpoints can communicate with the Private Cloud server on TCP 443. What is the most likely cause of the update failure?

A.The proxy is not properly configured to allow HTTPS from the Private Cloud to the AMP cloud.
B.The Private Cloud appliance has not been registered and licensed in the AMP console.
C.The endpoints are using an incorrect certificate to authenticate to the Private Cloud.
D.The Private Cloud server's disk is full, preventing new update downloads.
AnswerB

Registration is required to sync threat intelligence.

Why this answer

The Private Cloud must be registered and licensed with Cisco to receive updates. Without registration, it cannot download threat intelligence. Option A (proxy misconfiguration) is possible but the team verified the proxy works.

Option C (endpoint certificate issue) is less likely; endpoints authenticate via policy. Option D (Private Cloud out of disk space) would log errors, but not the primary cause if the server is newly set up.

142
MCQmedium

Which Cisco NGFW technology can be used to block social media categories such as Facebook and Twitter during business hours?

A.TLS Server Identity Discovery
B.URL Filtering
C.Intrusion Prevention
D.Application Control
AnswerB

URL filtering on Firepower can block entire URL categories like social media.

Why this answer

Firepower URL filtering allows blocking by category, including social media.

143
MCQmedium

Which Cisco content security solution provides DNS-layer protection and a cloud proxy to enforce security policies?

A.Cisco ESA
B.Cisco Firepower NGFW
C.Cisco WSA
D.Cisco Umbrella SIG
AnswerD

Umbrella SIG combines DNS security and cloud proxy.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella SIG provides DNS security and a cloud-based proxy for web filtering.

144
Multi-Selectmedium

A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch port connected to a single endpoint. The requirement is that only the first device that connects to the port is allowed, and any subsequent device that attempts to connect must trigger an error-disabled state. Which two features must be configured to meet this requirement?

Select 2 answers
A.switchport port-security aging type inactivity
B.switchport port-security mac-address sticky
C.switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.2222
D.switchport port-security violation shutdown
E.switchport port-security maximum 1
AnswersB, E

Sticky learning dynamically learns and remembers the first MAC.

Why this answer

The 'switchport port-security mac-address sticky' command dynamically learns the MAC address of the first connected device and saves it as a sticky secure MAC address in the running configuration. Option E is correct because setting the maximum number of secure MAC addresses to 1 ensures that only the first device's MAC address is allowed; any additional device will trigger a security violation. Together, these two features enforce that only the first device can connect, and subsequent devices cause the port to enter an error-disabled state when combined with the shutdown violation mode.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the 'violation shutdown' command must be explicitly configured, when in fact it is the default violation mode for port security, so candidates incorrectly include it as a required feature instead of recognizing that the maximum and sticky commands are the two necessary configurations.

145
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured IP Source Guard and DHCP Snooping on a switch. A host connected to GigabitEthernet0/2 with MAC address 0050.7966.6801 has been assigned IP 192.168.1.10 via DHCP. The host now tries to use IP 192.168.1.20. What will happen?

A.The switch drops all traffic from the host with source IP 192.168.1.20.
B.The switch sends an ARP probe to verify the IP is unused, then updates the binding.
C.The switch updates the binding table to allow 192.168.1.20.
D.The switch allows the traffic because the host is trusted on that port.
AnswerA

IP Source Guard filters traffic based on the binding table; unmatched source IPs are dropped.

Why this answer

IP Source Guard uses DHCP snooping binding table to enforce IP-to-port mapping. When the host at GigabitEthernet0/2 with MAC 0050.7966.6801 attempts to use IP 192.168.1.20 instead of its DHCP-assigned IP 192.168.1.10, the switch compares the source IP of the packet against the binding table. Since 192.168.1.20 is not bound to that port and MAC, the switch drops all traffic from that host with source IP 192.168.1.20, preventing IP spoofing.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that IP Source Guard allows traffic from a trusted host or that it dynamically updates bindings via ARP, when in fact it strictly enforces the DHCP snooping binding table and drops any non-matching traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because IP Source Guard does not send ARP probes; it simply drops traffic that does not match the DHCP snooping binding, and it does not dynamically update bindings based on ARP. Option C is wrong because the binding table is only updated via DHCP snooping (DHCP ACK messages) or static configuration, not by the host arbitrarily changing its IP address. Option D is wrong because the host is not configured as a trusted port for DHCP snooping; trust is applied to uplink ports (e.g., toward the DHCP server), not to access ports like GigabitEthernet0/2.

146
Multi-Selecthard

A company is deploying Cisco ISE for network access control. They need to authenticate devices that do not support 802.1X, such as printers and IP phones. Which TWO methods can be used to authenticate these devices? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.802.1X
B.MAB
C.Profiling
D.Guest portal (web authentication)
E.Device registration via posture agent
AnswersB, D

Correct. MAB uses MAC address for authentication.

Why this answer

MAB uses MAC address for authentication. Profiling can identify the device and then ISE can apply policies, but profiling alone does not authenticate; it is often combined with MAB. The question asks for authentication methods, so MAB and (if the device can be profiled and then authenticated via a policy) but typically MAB is the primary method.

Another method is to use a device certificate if the device supports it, but the question says non-802.1X devices. So MAB and possibly web authentication (guest portal) for devices that can browse. However, the most common are MAB and web authentication.

But from ISE perspective, for non-supplicant devices, MAB and web-auth are options. Since the question says 'authenticate', and web-auth is for guest, I'll include MAB and device registration (which is not standard). Better: MAB and local database authentication via web portal.

However, to be precise, the two methods are MAB and authentication using a local or AD account via a web portal (for devices that can do HTTP). But the options: A) 802.1X (not supported), B) MAB, C) Profiling, D) Guest portal, E) Device registration. The correct two: MAB and Guest portal (since guest portal can provide authentication for non-supplicant devices).

147
MCQeasy

A junior engineer is configuring MAB (MAC Authentication Bypass) on a Cisco switch for legacy printers. After configuration, the printers are still being placed into the default VLAN instead of the authorized VLAN. Which configuration is missing?

A.authentication port-control auto
B.authentication order mab
C.dot1x pae authenticator
D.spanning-tree portfast
AnswerB

This sets MAB as the first authentication method, ensuring it is used.

Why this answer

'authentication order mab'. This command ensures that MAB is attempted before 802.1X on the interface. Without it, the switch may default to 802.1X first, which fails (since printers do not support 802.1X), and if MAB is not in the authentication order, the printer may be placed into the default VLAN instead of the authorized VLAN.

Option A ('authentication port-control auto') is required to enable authentication but does not set the order; it is likely already configured. Option C ('dot1x pae authenticator') enables 802.1X, which is not needed for MAB-only environments and does not affect MAB ordering. Option D ('spanning-tree portfast') speeds up STP convergence and is unrelated to authentication order.

148
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid characteristics of a next-generation firewall (NGFW) compared to a traditional stateful firewall? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Decryption and inspection of SSL/TLS traffic
B.Application identification regardless of port
C.Support for network address translation (NAT)
D.Support for site-to-site VPNs
E.Integrated intrusion prevention system (IPS)
AnswersA, B, E

NGFWs can decrypt encrypted traffic for inspection.

Why this answer

A is correct because NGFWs can perform SSL/TLS decryption and inspection, allowing them to examine encrypted traffic for threats. Traditional stateful firewalls only inspect packet headers and state information, leaving encrypted payloads unexamined. This capability is critical for detecting malware or data exfiltration hidden in HTTPS sessions.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that NAT and VPNs are exclusive to NGFWs, when in fact they are common features of both traditional stateful firewalls and NGFWs.

149
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco ASA to use the Modular Policy Framework (MPF) for advanced traffic inspection. Which three components are part of the MPF? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Service-policy
B.Route-map
C.Class-map
D.Access-list
E.Policy-map
AnswersA, C, E

Correct. Service-policy applies the policy-map to an interface or globally.

Why this answer

MPF consists of class-maps to classify traffic, policy-maps to define actions, and service-policy to apply the policy to interfaces or globally. These are the three core components.

150
MCQmedium

An organization requires that endpoints must have antivirus running and up-to-date patches before being granted full network access. Cisco ISE is used for authentication. Which ISE component enforces these requirements?

A.Guest access
B.TrustSec
C.Posture assessment
D.Profiling
AnswerC

Correct. Posture assessment verifies compliance with security policies.

Why this answer

C is correct because Cisco ISE Posture Assessment is the component specifically designed to check endpoints for compliance with security policies, such as having antivirus running and up-to-date patches. It evaluates the endpoint's state before granting full network access, and can enforce remediation or restrict access based on the results.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Profiling (which identifies device type) with Posture Assessment (which checks security compliance), leading them to select Profiling when the question explicitly requires enforcement of antivirus and patch requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Guest access is used to provide temporary network access to visitors or non-employees, not to enforce endpoint compliance checks. Option B is wrong because TrustSec (Cisco TrustSec) provides role-based access control and segmentation using Security Group Tags (SGTs), but it does not perform endpoint posture checks. Option D is wrong because Profiling identifies and classifies endpoints based on attributes like MAC address, DHCP, or HTTP fingerprinting, but it does not verify antivirus status or patch levels.

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