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Cisco SCOR / CCNP Security Core 350-701 (350-701) — Questions 226300

978 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
MCQhard

An engineer is troubleshooting traffic drops on a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) device. The traffic is allowed by the access control policy but is being dropped. Which feature should the engineer check to identify the cause of the drop?

A.Check the 'show access-list' output for the hit count.
B.Check the 'show route' output for routing issues.
C.Use the 'capture' command with trace option to see packet flow and drop reason.
D.Check the 'show conn' output for the connection state.
AnswerC

Captures packets and shows the disposition, including drops.

Why this answer

The 'capture' command with the 'trace' option on Cisco FTD provides a detailed, packet-level analysis of how traffic is processed through the firewall pipeline. It shows each step (e.g., ingress, routing, access control, NAT, egress) and explicitly states the drop reason, such as 'action-drop' due to intrusion prevention, URL filtering, or security intelligence, even when the access control policy appears to allow the traffic. This is the only option that directly identifies the specific cause of a drop in the data path.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that 'show access-list hit counts' or 'show conn' can diagnose drops, but the trap here is that FTD has multiple inspection layers (prefilter, SSL, intrusion, file, etc.) beyond the basic access control policy, and only a packet trace can pinpoint which layer caused the drop.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'show access-list' hit counts only indicate whether an access control entry (ACE) was matched, not why traffic is dropped after matching; a hit count does not reveal drops due to deeper inspection features like SSL decryption, file policy, or intrusion policy. Option B is wrong because 'show route' checks routing table entries for destination reachability, but traffic drops on FTD often occur after routing decisions (e.g., at the application layer) and routing issues would typically cause a 'no route' drop, not a silent drop when the policy allows traffic. Option D is wrong because 'show conn' displays the state of established connections (e.g., established, time_wait) but does not show why a new packet was dropped before a connection was created; it is useful for connection state but not for identifying drop reasons in the pre-filter or inspection pipeline.

227
MCQeasy

An organization wants to enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA) for VPN access using Cisco AnyConnect. Which Cisco product integrates with AnyConnect to provide MFA via push notifications or one-time passwords?

A.Cisco SecureX
B.Cisco Duo
C.Cisco ISE
D.Cisco AMP for Endpoints
AnswerB

Duo is the Cisco MFA solution that integrates with AnyConnect for push, TOTP, etc.

Why this answer

Cisco Duo integrates directly with AnyConnect via the Duo Authentication Proxy or the native Duo AnyConnect client module to provide multi-factor authentication. It supports push notifications to the Duo Mobile app, one-time passwords (OTP) generated by the app or hardware tokens, and phone callback, making it the correct choice for MFA enforcement on VPN access.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between policy enforcement (ISE) and actual MFA delivery (Duo), leading candidates to mistakenly choose ISE because it can integrate with MFA, but it does not natively generate push notifications or OTPs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco SecureX is a cloud-native security platform that provides visibility and orchestration across security products, not a dedicated MFA solution for AnyConnect VPN. Option C is wrong because Cisco ISE (Identity Services Engine) can enforce MFA via RADIUS integration with third-party MFA providers or its own internal authentication, but it does not natively provide push notifications or OTPs without an external MFA server like Duo. Option D is wrong because Cisco AMP for Endpoints is an advanced malware protection and endpoint detection and response (EDR) solution, not an MFA product, and it does not integrate with AnyConnect for authentication.

228
MCQmedium

A security team implements a policy where users must provide a password and a one-time code from a mobile app. Which authentication factors are being used?

A.Inherence only
B.Possession and inherence
C.Knowledge and possession
D.Knowledge and inherence
AnswerC

Password (knowledge) and mobile device (possession).

Why this answer

Something you know (password) and something you have (mobile app one-time code).

229
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid methods for Cisco ISE to collect endpoint attributes for profiling? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Syslog
B.RADIUS Accounting
C.NetFlow Probe
D.SNMP Polling
E.DHCP Probe
AnswersC, E

NetFlow probe analyzes traffic flows to profile endpoints.

Why this answer

Cisco ISE can use a NetFlow Probe to collect NetFlow records from network devices, which provide metadata about traffic flows (e.g., IP addresses, ports, protocols) that ISE analyzes to profile endpoints. This passive collection method helps identify endpoint attributes without requiring active agent deployment.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'RADIUS Accounting' (session tracking) and 'RADIUS Authentication' (profiling probe) — candidates mistakenly assume Accounting is used for profiling, but only Authentication is a valid probe.

230
MCQmedium

A network administrator is configuring Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) in routed mode to provide intrusion prevention (IPS) for internal traffic. They create an access control rule that allows traffic from the internal network (10.0.0.0/8) to the internet, and they attach an intrusion policy to this rule. After deploying the configuration, they generate known malicious traffic from a test host and observe that no alerts are triggered in the Firepower Management Center (FMC). The administrator checks the FTD and confirms that the Snort process is running, and the rule is at the top of the access control policy with action 'Allow'. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The FTD is configured in transparent mode.
B.The traffic is being fast-pathed and bypassing the Snort engine.
C.The access control rule action is set to 'Allow' rather than 'Allow with Intrusion Prevention'.
D.The intrusion policy is not associated with the correct preprocessor.
AnswerC

IPS inspection requires the rule action to explicitly include intrusion prevention.

Why this answer

In Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD), an access control rule with action 'Allow' permits traffic without sending it to the Snort intrusion inspection engine. To enable IPS, the rule action must be 'Allow with Intrusion Prevention', which explicitly invokes the intrusion policy. Since the rule was set to 'Allow', the malicious traffic bypassed Snort inspection entirely, so no alerts were generated.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Allow' and 'Allow with Intrusion Prevention' as a common pitfall, where candidates assume attaching an intrusion policy to any rule automatically invokes Snort inspection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the FTD is confirmed to be in routed mode (as stated in the question), and transparent mode would not cause the Snort process to be running or affect rule action behavior. Option B is wrong because fast-pathing (hardware acceleration) only bypasses Snort for traffic that matches a fast-path rule or is not subject to inspection; here the rule is at the top with action 'Allow', which does not invoke Snort, so it is not a fast-path issue. Option D is wrong because the intrusion policy is correctly attached to the rule; the problem is the rule action itself, not the preprocessor association.

231
MCQmedium

An organization uses Cisco Umbrella to secure remote users. The security team wants to ensure that all DNS queries from endpoints are forwarded to Umbrella even when users are off the corporate network. Which deployment method achieves this?

A.Configure a network-based proxy
B.Use a PAC file to redirect traffic
C.Use BGP injection to advertise Umbrella IPs
D.Deploy the Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client on endpoints
AnswerD

Roaming client ensures off-net DNS forwarding.

Why this answer

The Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client is specifically designed to enforce DNS security on endpoints regardless of their network location. It installs a local DNS forwarder that intercepts all DNS queries and sends them to Umbrella's cloud resolvers, ensuring protection even when users are off the corporate network. This method does not rely on network-level configurations that are ineffective for remote users.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between network-level controls (proxy, BGP) and endpoint-level controls (roaming client), leading candidates to incorrectly choose a network-based solution for remote users who are not on the corporate network.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a network-based proxy requires traffic to be routed through a central proxy server, which is not feasible for remote users who are not connected to the corporate network. Option B is wrong because a PAC file directs web traffic to a proxy based on URL patterns but does not enforce DNS forwarding to Umbrella; it only affects HTTP/HTTPS traffic, not all DNS queries. Option C is wrong because BGP injection is a routing technique used to influence traffic paths at the network level, typically for on-premises or data center environments, and cannot be applied to individual remote endpoints.

232
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is tuning an IPS on a Cisco FTD to reduce false positives. Which three techniques are effective? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Add source and destination IP filters to signatures
B.Disable specific signatures that trigger incorrectly
C.Increase the global sensitivity slider to maximum
D.Enable all built-in rules to maximize coverage
E.Use monitor mode for new or modified rules
AnswersA, B, E

Restricting rule scope reduces irrelevant alerts.

Why this answer

Tuning to reduce false positives includes adjusting thresholds, disabling specific signatures, using rule filtering by source/destination, and customizing rules. Monitoring without dropping (monitor mode) also helps evaluate impact.

233
MCQmedium

An organization wants to implement URL filtering based on user identity. The Cisco WSA must integrate with which directory service to apply policies per user or group?

A.Active Directory
B.RADIUS
C.TACACS+
D.LDAP
AnswerA

AD integration allows WSA to map users to groups for policy enforcement.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA integrates with Active Directory for identity-based policies.

234
MCQmedium

A network administrator is configuring Cisco WSA to intercept web traffic transparently. Which protocol should be used to redirect traffic from the router to the WSA?

A.SSL/TLS Decryption
B.WCCP
C.HTTP Proxy with PAC files
D.Active Directory integration
AnswerB

WCCP enables transparent redirection of web traffic to the WSA.

Why this answer

WCCP (Web Cache Communication Protocol) is used to transparently redirect web traffic from routers or switches to the WSA.

235
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ASA firewall is deployed in a cloud environment. After applying this ACL to an interface, users report that they cannot access cloud instances from on-premises. What is the most likely cause?

A.The ACL allows all traffic but users need NAT
B.The ACL is applied to the wrong interface
C.The ACL blocks all RFC 1918 private addresses, which may include the cloud VPC CIDR
D.The ACL permits only private addresses
AnswerC

Cloud VPCs often use private IP ranges, which are denied.

Why this answer

The ACL shown in the exhibit (which is not provided but implied by the question) blocks RFC 1918 private address ranges (10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, 192.168.0.0/16). Cloud VPCs commonly use these private IP ranges for their instances. If the cloud VPC CIDR falls within an RFC 1918 range, the ACL will deny traffic to those cloud instances, preventing on-premises users from accessing them.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume RFC 1918 blocks are safe for cloud environments, but cloud VPCs frequently use these private ranges, so blocking them breaks connectivity to cloud instances.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NAT is not required for traffic that is already routed correctly; the issue is an ACL blocking traffic, not a lack of NAT. Option B is wrong because the question states the ACL was applied to an interface, and there is no indication it was applied to the wrong interface; the problem is the ACL content, not its placement. Option D is wrong because the ACL does not permit only private addresses; it explicitly denies RFC 1918 addresses, which is the opposite of permitting them.

236
MCQmedium

An organization wants to enforce a policy that blocks outbound emails containing Social Security numbers. Which feature of Cisco ESA should be configured?

A.DLP Policies
B.Anti-Spam
C.AMP for Email
D.Outbreak Filters
AnswerA

DLP policies are designed to detect and prevent sensitive data leakage.

Why this answer

DLP policies on Cisco ESA scan outbound email for sensitive data patterns like SSNs.

237
MCQmedium

A security analyst is monitoring the Cisco FMC and notices a high number of false positives from an intrusion rule that detects SQL injection attempts. The legitimate web application frequently generates similar patterns. Which course of action would reduce false positives while maintaining detection for actual attacks?

A.Disable the rule entirely.
B.Create a new intrusion rule with opposite logic.
C.Change the rule action to 'pass'.
D.Increase the rule's threshold to reduce frequency.
AnswerD

Thresholding can reduce alerts from repeated patterns while still triggering on high volume.

Why this answer

Modifying the rule's threshold to require a higher number of matches or using a suppression filter for the web server IP can reduce false positives.

238
MCQhard

A university is deploying 802.1X authentication for wired access using Cisco ISE. The network consists of Cisco Catalyst switches. The authentication is working for most users, but some users in a specific building are experiencing frequent authentication failures, especially during peak hours. The switches in that building are configured with RADIUS settings pointing to ISE. ISE logs show that authentication requests are being sent but sometimes time out. The network team suspects that the issue is related to RADIUS server load balancing, as the ISE deployment includes two nodes in a distributed model. What is the most likely cause of the timeouts?

A.The RADIUS shared secret is misconfigured on some switches.
B.The switches are not configured with the correct VLAN assignments.
C.The switches are using the wrong RADIUS accounting port.
D.The ISE nodes are not configured for load balancing, causing one node to be overwhelmed.
AnswerD

Without load balancing, all requests may go to one node, causing overload and timeouts during peak times.

Why this answer

The symptoms—intermittent timeouts during peak hours in a specific building—point to a load-balancing issue. In a distributed ISE deployment, if the switches are not configured with multiple RADIUS server entries or if ISE nodes are not properly load-balanced (e.g., using a single primary server or missing secondary server configuration), one node can become overwhelmed with authentication requests, leading to timeouts. The fact that authentication works for most users but fails during peak hours in one building strongly suggests that the switches in that building are sending all requests to a single ISE node that cannot handle the load.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between authentication failures caused by misconfiguration (e.g., shared secret, VLAN) versus performance-related timeouts due to load balancing, tempting candidates to pick a configuration error when the real issue is capacity or distribution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a misconfigured RADIUS shared secret would cause consistent authentication failures for all users on the affected switches, not intermittent timeouts during peak hours. Option B is wrong because incorrect VLAN assignments would result in successful authentication but incorrect network access (e.g., wrong VLAN), not RADIUS timeouts. Option C is wrong because the RADIUS accounting port (typically UDP 1813) is used for accounting messages, not authentication; authentication uses UDP 1812, and a misconfigured accounting port would not cause authentication timeouts.

239
MCQmedium

A company is deploying Cisco ISE to enforce access policies based on endpoint posture. Endpoints must be compliant before being granted full network access. Which policy type is used to define the compliance requirements?

A.Authentication policy
B.Profiling policy
C.Posture policy
D.Authorization policy
AnswerC

Defines compliance requirements.

Why this answer

Posture policy defines the compliance requirements (e.g., antivirus, patch level) and the remediation actions. Option A is incorrect because Authentication policy determines the method of authentication. Option B is incorrect because Profiling policy identifies device type.

Option D is incorrect because Authorization policy determines the resulting access after authentication and posture.

240
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO are valid considerations for deploying Cisco Firepower NGIPS with inline mode? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Inline mode automatically decrypts SSL traffic without configuration.
B.The IPS engine inspects all traffic regardless of prefilter policies.
C.Inline interfaces can drop malicious packets based on signatures and anomalies.
D.Inline mode requires the use of passive interfaces for failover.
E.Hardware bypass is supported on specific Firepower appliances to ensure network continuity during device failure.
AnswersC, E

Inline mode enables dropping of traffic.

Why this answer

Inline mode in Cisco Firepower NGIPS allows the system to actively drop malicious packets based on signature matches and anomaly detection. Unlike passive monitoring, inline interfaces sit directly in the traffic path, enabling the IPS engine to enforce blocking actions in real time.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that inline mode automatically inspects all traffic, but candidates must remember that prefilter policies can bypass the IPS engine entirely, and SSL decryption is never automatic.

241
MCQeasy

Which Cisco security solution provides DNS-layer security to block access to malicious domains before a connection is established?

A.Cisco Umbrella
B.Cisco ESA
C.Cisco WSA
D.Cisco Firepower NGFW
AnswerA

Correct. Umbrella provides DNS security and cloud proxy.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella operates at the DNS layer to block requests to malicious domains.

242
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common indicators of a DDoS attack at the network layer?

Select 3 answers
A.A spike in UDP traffic to a single target
B.Unusual traffic on non-standard TCP/UDP ports
C.A high number of TCP SYN packets from multiple sources
D.High CPU usage on network devices
E.A sudden increase in ICMP echo request packets from many IPs
AnswersA, C, E

UDP flood is a common network-layer DDoS.

Why this answer

A spike in UDP traffic to a single target is a classic indicator of a UDP flood attack, a common network-layer DDoS. Attackers send a high volume of UDP packets, often to random ports, overwhelming the target's ability to process them and consuming bandwidth. This is a direct Layer 3/4 attack that does not require a completed handshake, making it easy to generate and hard to mitigate without proper filtering.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between network-layer (Layer 3/4) and application-layer (Layer 7) indicators, so candidates mistakenly choose 'unusual traffic on non-standard ports' as a network-layer indicator when it is actually a sign of application-layer attacks like HTTP floods or DNS amplification.

243
MCQhard

A network administrator is configuring Cisco ISE to authenticate devices that do not support 802.1X supplicant software. Which authentication method should be used for these non-supplicant devices?

A.PEAP-MSCHAPv2
B.MAB
C.EAP-TLS
D.EAP-FAST
AnswerB

MAB authenticates based on MAC address, suitable for non-supplicant devices.

Why this answer

MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB) uses the device's MAC address for authentication, allowing non-supplicant devices to gain network access.

244
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured the router with zone-based firewall rules. Traffic from the DMZ zone to the OUTSIDE zone is being dropped, although traffic from the INSIDE zone to the OUTSIDE zone flows normally. The DMZ zone is configured with security-level 50 and the INSIDE zone with 100. What is the most likely cause of the dropped traffic?

A.The inspect action is not applied to the DMZ traffic class
B.No zone-pair is defined for traffic from DMZ to OUTSIDE
C.The class-default action in the policy-map drops all traffic from DMZ
D.The DMZ has a lower security-level than the INSIDE zone, causing traffic to be implicitly denied
AnswerB

The zone-pair is only defined for source INSIDE to destination OUTSIDE, leaving DMZ traffic without any policy.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that no zone-pair is defined for traffic from DMZ to OUTSIDE. In zone-based firewall, traffic between zones is implicitly denied unless a zone-pair with a service policy is configured. Since only INSIDE to OUTSIDE has a zone-pair, DMZ to OUTSIDE traffic is dropped by default.

Option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because the inspect action, while missing, would not help if no policy is applied. Option C is incorrect because the class-default applies only within the applied policy.

Option D is incorrect because security-levels are not used in ZBFW.

245
MCQhard

A company uses Microsoft Azure and has deployed Cisco CloudCenter for workload lifecycle management. They also use Cisco Firepower NGFW in Azure. A security analyst notices that the Firepower logs show outbound connections from a workload to an IP address in a known threat feed. The workload is a Linux server that runs a custom application. The analyst checks Azure Network Security Groups (NSGs) and finds that outbound traffic is not restricted. The company's policy requires that all outbound traffic be inspected and logged. The analyst wants to block the specific IP while allowing other outbound traffic. Which action should be taken?

A.Configure the NSG to deny all outbound traffic and then add allow rules for known good destinations.
B.Create a Firepower Access Control policy rule to block traffic to the threat IP and log it.
C.Add a network security group rule to block the specific IP address.
D.Modify the route table to send all outbound traffic through a firewall, bypassing the NSG.
AnswerB

Correct: Firepower can use dynamic threat intelligence to block.

Why this answer

Cisco Firepower NGFW is the inline security enforcement point in this Azure deployment, and it can inspect and log all outbound traffic. Creating a Firepower Access Control policy rule to block the specific threat IP and log it directly enforces the security policy at the firewall layer, which is the only device capable of deep packet inspection and logging as required by company policy. NSGs operate at Layer 3/4 and cannot inspect application-layer traffic or integrate with threat feeds for granular IP blocking without affecting other traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that Azure NSGs can replace a dedicated firewall for outbound traffic inspection and logging, but NSGs lack application-layer visibility and cannot enforce granular threat-feed-based blocking while maintaining required logging.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because denying all outbound traffic in an NSG and then adding allow rules for known good destinations is overly restrictive, breaks the custom application's ability to communicate with unknown but legitimate destinations, and NSGs cannot perform the required logging and inspection of outbound traffic as mandated by policy. Option C is wrong because Azure NSGs are stateless or stateful at Layer 3/4 only; they cannot inspect application-layer traffic, integrate with threat feeds, or provide the detailed logging required for outbound connections, and blocking a single IP in an NSG would still allow other outbound traffic without inspection. Option D is wrong because modifying the route table to send all outbound traffic through a firewall bypasses the NSG but does not itself block the specific IP; it would require additional firewall rules, and the question asks for a direct action to block the IP while allowing other traffic, not a routing change that could introduce complexity and potential misconfiguration.

246
MCQmedium

A company uses Cisco AMP for Endpoints and wants to deploy it on mobile devices running iOS and Android. Which deployment method is supported for these platforms?

A.Group Policy Object (GPO)
B.SCCM
C.JAMF Pro
D.App Store or Google Play
AnswerD

Correct. AMP for Endpoints mobile app is available via app stores.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Endpoints is available for iOS and Android via the respective app stores (MDM is also possible, but the question implies direct deployment).

247
MCQeasy

An engineer is configuring a Cisco ASA to allow traffic from the inside (security level 100) to the outside (security level 0). They create an access list permitting HTTP traffic from inside to outside and apply it to the inside interface inbound. What is the expected behavior?

A.The traffic will be blocked because the ACL is applied inbound on the inside interface.
B.The traffic will be blocked because the ACL should be applied outbound on the outside interface.
C.The traffic will be allowed only if a NAT rule exists.
D.The traffic will be allowed because the ACL permits it.
AnswerD

Correct. The ACL explicitly permits HTTP, so it is allowed.

Why this answer

On Cisco ASA, when an ACL is applied inbound on the higher security interface (inside), traffic is evaluated before the stateful inspection. Since traffic from higher to lower security is implicitly allowed by default (based on security levels), the ACL does not need to explicitly permit it; however, applying an ACL inbound on the higher interface can restrict traffic. The ACL as described permits HTTP, so the traffic will be allowed.

248
MCQmedium

A network administrator wants to deploy Cisco WSA as a transparent proxy using WCCP. Which traffic redirection method does WCCP use?

A.GRE tunneling
B.WCCP redirects traffic from the router to the WSA
C.DNS redirection
D.PAC file configuration on clients
AnswerB

WCCP enables the router to redirect specified traffic to the WSA.

Why this answer

WCCP allows routers to redirect web traffic to the WSA transparently without client configuration.

249
MCQmedium

A company is deploying Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN and wants to enforce different access policies based on the endpoint's antivirus status. Which feature should be used?

A.Dynamic Access Policy (DAP)
B.Group Policy
C.Split Tunneling
D.Network Access Control (NAC)
AnswerA

DAP evaluates endpoint attributes like antivirus to assign access.

Why this answer

Dynamic Access Policy (DAP) allows granular access control based on endpoint attributes such as antivirus status, OS, registry keys, etc. Group policies provide basic settings but not dynamic evaluation.

250
MCQhard

In a Cisco TrustSec deployment, security group tags (SGTs) are used to represent user and device roles. These tags must be propagated across the network. Which protocol is used to carry SGT information in Ethernet frames?

A.MPLS
B.VXLAN
C.GRE
D.IEEE 802.1Q with SGT encapsulation (Cisco proprietary)
AnswerD

Cisco TrustSec uses SGT over 802.1Q or other L2 methods.

Why this answer

Cisco TrustSec uses SGTs to enforce role-based access control. To propagate SGT information across the network, Cisco developed a proprietary extension to IEEE 802.1Q that embeds the SGT into the Ethernet frame header, specifically using the CMD (Cisco MetaData) field. This allows switches and routers to enforce security policies based on the SGT without requiring additional encapsulation overhead.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between standard 802.1Q and the proprietary SGT extension, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse VXLAN's Group Policy ID (GPID) with the native Ethernet frame method, or assume MPLS or GRE are used for SGT transport because they are common encapsulation protocols.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a label-switching mechanism used for traffic engineering and VPNs, not for carrying SGT information in Ethernet frames; TrustSec does not use MPLS for SGT propagation. Option B is wrong because VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) is a network virtualization overlay protocol that encapsulates Layer 2 frames in UDP, but it is not the native method for carrying SGTs in Ethernet frames; while VXLAN can carry group policy information via the Group Policy ID (GPID) field, the question specifically asks for the protocol used in Ethernet frames, which is the Cisco proprietary 802.1Q extension. Option C is wrong because GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) is a tunneling protocol used to encapsulate packets for transport across IP networks, but it is not designed to carry SGT metadata within Ethernet frames.

251
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are valid methods for deploying Cisco Web Security Appliance in a network? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Explicit proxy mode
B.VPN concentrator mode
C.DNS proxy mode
D.Transparent proxy mode
E.Bridge mode
AnswersA, D

Clients are configured to use the WSA as proxy.

Why this answer

Explicit proxy mode requires clients to be manually configured to send web traffic directly to the WSA's IP address and port (typically 3128 or 8080). This gives the administrator granular control over which devices use the proxy and allows for authentication at the proxy layer, making it a valid deployment method for the Cisco Web Security Appliance.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'transparent proxy mode' and 'bridge mode' — candidates mistakenly think the WSA can be deployed as a Layer 2 bridge, but the correct term for inline, non-explicit interception is transparent proxy mode, which relies on traffic redirection rather than bridging.

252
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid detection methods used by Cisco AMP for Endpoints to identify malicious activity?

Select 2 answers
A.Exploit Prevention using vulnerability-based rules
B.Heuristic analysis of unknown files
C.File Reputation via cloud lookups
D.Anomaly-based behavioral detection
E.Signature-based IPS scanning
AnswersA, C

AMP Exploit Prevention blocks exploitation techniques.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Endpoints includes Exploit Prevention, which uses vulnerability-based rules to detect and block exploit attempts targeting specific software vulnerabilities. These rules are tailored to the exploit technique rather than the malware file itself, allowing protection against zero-day exploits that leverage known vulnerabilities.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between AMP for Endpoints and other Cisco security products (like Firepower IPS), leading candidates to incorrectly select signature-based IPS scanning as an AMP detection method.

253
MCQeasy

In the shared responsibility model for cloud services, which layer is the customer responsible for managing in an IaaS environment?

A.Virtual machines and storage only
B.Only data and access policies
C.Operating system, applications, and data
D.Physical servers and networking
AnswerC

Correct. The customer manages everything above the hypervisor.

Why this answer

In IaaS, the cloud provider manages the physical infrastructure, while the customer manages the OS, applications, and data.

254
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are correct about Cisco Umbrella's multi-layered security approach? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Firewall as a Service
B.DNS-layer security
C.IP reputation filtering
D.Proxy-based web inspection
E.Sandboxing for malicious file analysis
AnswersB, D

First layer of defense by blocking requests to malicious domains.

Why this answer

DNS-layer security is a core component of Cisco Umbrella's multi-layered approach. It blocks requests to malicious domains at the earliest stage of the connection, before any IP address resolution occurs, by inspecting DNS queries against threat intelligence feeds. This prevents users from reaching known phishing, malware, or command-and-control (C2) domains.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the core layers of Umbrella's multi-layered security (DNS-layer and proxy-based web inspection) and additional integrated features like sandboxing or IP reputation, which are not considered separate layers in the official architecture.

255
MCQeasy

A security engineer is configuring Cisco WSA to block access to a new social media site that is not in any predefined URL category. Which action should the engineer take to ensure the site is blocked for all users?

A.Disable the URL filtering engine and use only web reputation.
B.Add the URL to the existing Social Networking category.
C.Create a custom URL category with the site and apply a block action in the access policy.
D.Enable Dynamic Content Analysis to detect and block the site.
AnswerC

This directly blocks the site via policy.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA allows administrators to create custom URL categories for sites not covered by predefined categories. By adding the URL to a custom category and applying a block action in the access policy, the engineer ensures the site is blocked for all users, as access policies evaluate custom categories before predefined ones.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that predefined categories are editable or that Dynamic Content Analysis can be used for URL blocking, when in fact custom categories are the only way to handle uncategorized sites in access policies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling the URL filtering engine and relying solely on web reputation would not block a specific URL; web reputation scores traffic based on risk, not content categories, and cannot enforce a block for a particular social media site. Option B is wrong because the Social Networking category is a predefined, read-only category in Cisco WSA; you cannot add custom URLs to it, and attempting to do so would require modifying the category definition, which is not supported. Option D is wrong because Dynamic Content Analysis (DCA) inspects web content for malicious patterns, not for blocking specific social media sites; it is designed for threat detection, not URL-based access control.

256
MCQmedium

An organization uses Cisco AMP for Endpoints and wants to perform a remote investigation on an infected endpoint. The security analyst needs to isolate the endpoint from the network while collecting forensic data. Which AMP feature should be used?

A.Device Trajectory
B.File Quarantine
C.Orbital Advanced Search
D.Endpoint Isolation and Remote Shell
AnswerD

Correct. This feature enables network isolation and remote command execution for investigation.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Endpoints provides endpoint isolation and remote shell capabilities, allowing analysts to isolate a compromised endpoint from the network and perform forensic investigation remotely.

257
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are required to configure a site-to-site IPsec VPN on a Cisco IOS router?

Select 2 answers
A.ISAKMP policy
B.ACL to define interesting traffic
C.NAT exemption for VPN traffic
D.AAA new-model
E.DHCP pool for remote clients
AnswersA, B

ISAKMP policy is required for IKE phase 1 negotiation.

Why this answer

ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) policy is required to define the parameters for Phase 1 of an IPsec VPN, including encryption, authentication, Diffie-Hellman group, and lifetime. Without an ISAKMP policy, the router cannot establish the secure management tunnel needed to negotiate IPsec Security Associations (SAs).

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between mandatory and optional components, so the trap here is that candidates may think NAT exemption or AAA is always required, when in fact they are only needed in specific scenarios (e.g., overlapping subnets or centralized authentication).

258
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are features of Cisco TrustSec? (Choose TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol (SXP)
B.Security Group Tag (SGT) assignment
C.IPsec VPN
D.Network Access Control (NAC)
E.802.1X authentication
AnswersA, B

SXP propagates SGTs across network devices.

Why this answer

Security Group Tag Exchange Protocol (SXP) is a Cisco TrustSec feature that propagates Security Group Tag (SGT) bindings between network devices without requiring inline tagging on every packet. It allows devices that do not natively support SGT in hardware to participate in TrustSec by exchanging IP-to-SGT mappings over TCP, enabling consistent policy enforcement across heterogeneous environments.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between TrustSec features (SGT assignment and SXP) and supporting technologies like 802.1X or NAC, leading candidates to mistakenly select authentication or access control mechanisms as core TrustSec components.

259
MCQhard

An organization uses AWS WAF to protect its web application. They need to block requests from a specific geographic region. What should they configure?

A.CloudFront geo restriction
B.AWS WAF geo match rule
C.Security group with IP-based deny rule
D.Network ACL with IP deny rule
AnswerB

AWS WAF has a geo match condition to block or allow traffic based on country.

Why this answer

AWS WAF allows creating rules based on geographic location (geo match) to allow or block requests from specific countries.

260
MCQmedium

A university IT team manages 1,000 macOS laptops for students using Cisco AMP for Endpoints. They receive reports that some students' laptops are running slowly and fans are spinning constantly. The team checks the AMP console and sees that these endpoints are performing constant file scans on user directories. The team suspects that the AMP scanning is causing high CPU usage. They want to optimize performance without compromising security. The laptops use the default AMP policy with real-time scanning enabled. What should the team do?

A.Reduce the number of alert notifications to limit AMP's background activity.
B.Increase the file scanning interval to every 30 seconds instead of real-time.
C.Add exclusions for common user data directories in the AMP policy.
D.Disable real-time scanning and rely on scheduled scans.
AnswerC

Reduces scanning of trusted files, lowering CPU usage.

Why this answer

Adding exclusions for common user data directories (e.g., Documents, Downloads) reduces unnecessary scanning of files that are unlikely to be malicious, thereby lowering CPU usage without compromising security. Real-time scanning remains enabled for all other locations. Option A (reducing alert notifications) does not affect scanning frequency or CPU usage.

Option B (increasing scanning interval) is not applicable to real-time scanning, which continuously monitors file operations. Option D (disabling real-time scanning) would leave endpoints vulnerable to real-time threats.

261
MCQhard

During an incident response, a forensic analyst finds that an attacker used a script to modify ARP tables, enabling them to intercept and modify traffic between two hosts. Which attack technique was used?

A.Man-in-the-middle
B.Pass-the-hash
C.Replay attack
D.DNS tunneling
AnswerA

MITM attacks intercept and potentially alter communications.

Why this answer

Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks, such as ARP spoofing, allow interception and modification of traffic between two parties.

262
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) device is not applying file policies to detect malware in HTTP traffic. The access control policy has an HTTPS decryption rule that decrypts traffic from external sources. The file policy is associated with the same rule. What is the missing configuration?

A.The file policy is set to 'Detect' but not 'Block' for malware.
B.The HTTP inspection is not enabled in the access control policy's advanced settings.
C.SSL decryption is not configured for the internal network.
D.The URL category is not defined in the file policy.
AnswerB

File policies require the HTTP inspector to be enabled to scan files in HTTP streams.

Why this answer

File policies in Firepower require the appropriate inspection engine to be enabled for the traffic type. For HTTP traffic, the FTD must have HTTP inspection enabled in the access control policy's advanced settings. Without this, the file policy will not be applied to HTTP traffic even if decryption is configured.

Option B is correct because enabling HTTP inspection allows the file policy to inspect decrypted HTTP traffic. Option A is incorrect because the file policy action (Detect vs. Block) does not prevent detection.

Option C is incorrect because decryption is already in place for external sources. Option D is incorrect because file policies work independently of URL categories.

263
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator reviews the ISE live log for a successful 802.1X authentication. After authentication, the user is unable to make VoIP calls. What is the most likely cause?

A.The user's phone is not configured for 802.1X.
B.The RADIUS attribute 'device-traffic-class=voice' is incorrect.
C.The switch port is not configured with 'authentication host-mode multi-domain'.
D.The authorization profile does not include a voice VLAN.
AnswerD

VoIP requires a dedicated voice VLAN; without it, the phone cannot communicate with the call manager.

Why this answer

The authorization profile applied to the user does not include a voice VLAN assignment, which is required for VoIP traffic. Even though the RADIUS attribute 'device-traffic-class=voice' is present, this only marks the traffic for QoS and does not assign a VLAN. Without a voice VLAN configured in the authorization profile, the phone cannot obtain the necessary VLAN for voice services.

Option A is incorrect because whether the phone is configured for 802.1X is irrelevant; the issue is about VLAN assignment. Option B is incorrect because the RADIUS attribute 'device-traffic-class=voice' is correctly formatted for QoS marking, not for VLAN assignment. Option C is incorrect because multi-domain mode is used for scenarios with a phone behind a PC, but here the user's phone is authenticating directly and the problem is the lack of voice VLAN in the authorization profile.

264
MCQhard

A SOC analyst notices that a user downloaded a malicious file from a website. The Cisco WSA is configured with AMP file scanning. However, the file was not blocked. Which scenario best explains why AMP failed to detect the file?

A.The file was a zero-day malware not yet analyzed by AMP
B.The file was cached from a previous scan
C.The file was less than 10 KB
D.SSL decryption was disabled
AnswerA

Correct. Zero-day files may not have a known reputation and could be allowed.

Why this answer

AMP uses SHA-256 cloud lookup and sandboxing. If the file is new and unknown (zero-day), the cloud may not have a disposition, and if sandboxing is not enabled or the file type is not analyzed, it could be allowed.

265
MCQeasy

A government agency is deploying Cisco ISE with a posture agent to ensure endpoints comply with security policies before accessing the network. The posture policy requires that all Windows computers have antivirus (AV) software running. The engineer configures a condition 'AV installed and running' and binds it to an authorization profile that grants full access if compliant, or quarantine if not. During testing, a computer that has AV installed and running (verified manually) is placed in quarantine. ISE logs show 'Posture - AV condition not satisfied'. The engineer checks the ISE posture configuration: the AV condition uses a default Cisco AV dictionary. What is the most likely cause?

A.The AV vendor is not supported by the ISE default posture dictionary
B.The posture policy is configured to require the AV version as well
C.The client's ISE posture agent is not installed
D.The client's firewall is blocking communication with ISE
AnswerA

ISE's default dictionary includes common AVs; if the vendor is unsupported, the condition cannot be evaluated correctly.

Why this answer

The posture condition uses a dictionary that maps known AV products. If the specific AV brand is not in the Cisco default dictionary, the condition will fail even if AV is running. Option A is correct.

Option B is incorrect because the condition does not require the AV version. Option C would cause other issues like no posture assessment. Option D is possible but less likely.

266
MCQeasy

Which Cisco security product provides multi-factor authentication through push notifications, TOTP, and hardware tokens?

A.Cisco AnyConnect
B.Cisco Duo
C.Cisco ISE
D.Cisco AMP for Endpoints
AnswerB

Duo is the dedicated MFA product offering push, TOTP, and hardware tokens.

Why this answer

Cisco Duo is a multi-factor authentication solution that offers various methods including push notifications, time-based one-time passwords (TOTP), and hardware tokens.

267
MCQmedium

An organization uses Cisco Umbrella to block malicious domains. What is the primary security benefit of DNS-layer security?

A.It performs deep packet inspection on all traffic
B.It blocks malicious domains before a connection is made
C.It provides SSL decryption for all web traffic
D.It encrypts all DNS traffic to prevent eavesdropping
AnswerB

DNS-layer security stops connections to malicious domains at the initial DNS request.

Why this answer

DNS-layer security blocks requests to malicious domains at the DNS level, preventing the connection from being established.

268
MCQhard

A security engineer needs to prevent secrets (e.g., API keys) from being stored in code repositories. Which DevSecOps practice should be implemented?

A.Implement secrets management using a tool like Vault
B.Use a SAST scanner to find secrets in code
C.Encrypt the code repository
D.Use a DAST tool to test for secrets
AnswerA

Vault securely stores and rotates secrets, preventing hardcoding.

Why this answer

Secrets management tools like HashiCorp Vault securely store and manage secrets, avoiding hardcoding in code.

269
MCQmedium

A user in the marketing group reports that they cannot access twitter.com. The access policy summary is shown in the exhibit. What is the most likely reason?

A.The default policy is blocking the site because Marketing-Policy is set to Monitor only.
B.The access policy has a time-based restriction that blocks social media during work hours.
C.The marketing group is not assigned to the Marketing-Policy.
D.The Social Networking category is set to Block in the Marketing-Policy.
AnswerD

The block action overrides the Monitor action for that category.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows that the Marketing-Policy has the Social Networking category set to Block. Since twitter.com is classified under Social Networking, this action explicitly denies access for users assigned to that policy, overriding any other settings.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a Monitor action in a policy allows traffic, when in fact Monitor only logs traffic without blocking it, but a Block action in the same or a more specific category overrides Monitor for that category.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the default policy only applies when no other policy matches; here the Marketing-Policy matches the marketing group, so the default policy is not evaluated. Option B is wrong because the exhibit does not show any time-based restriction; the policy summary lists only category-based actions. Option C is wrong because the question states the user is in the marketing group, and the exhibit implies the Marketing-Policy is applied to that group; if the group were not assigned, the user would fall through to the default policy, not be blocked by a specific category action.

270
MCQmedium

A large enterprise has deployed Cisco ISE for network access control. The network consists of multiple access switches and wireless LAN controllers. The security team wants to enforce that only domain-joined Windows computers with up-to-date antivirus can access the corporate network. Non-compliant devices should be placed in a quarantine VLAN with limited access to remediation servers. The ISE policies are configured with posture assessment. However, during a test, a non-compliant Windows computer is granted full network access instead of being quarantined. The ISE logs show that the posture assessment passed, but the computer's antivirus is outdated. What is the most likely reason for this behavior?

A.The authorization policy is matching before the posture policy is evaluated.
B.The posture policy is configured with 'continue' action for non-compliant status, allowing the user to proceed to authorization.
C.The posture agent is not installed on the endpoint, so the assessment is skipped.
D.The posture requirement is set to 'mandatory' but the agent is set to 'any', allowing non-compliant devices.
AnswerB

The 'continue' action does not enforce remediation; it passes the user to authorization.

Why this answer

In Cisco ISE, when a posture policy is configured with a 'continue' action for non-compliant status, the session does not terminate; instead, it proceeds to the authorization policy. This means the endpoint is evaluated by authorization rules, which may grant full network access if no quarantine rule is matched. The logs show the posture assessment passed because the 'continue' action treats non-compliance as a passing state for policy flow, not a failure.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between posture policy actions ('continue' vs. 'block') and authorization policy conditions, trapping candidates who assume non-compliance always results in quarantine without considering the policy flow.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ISE evaluates posture policies before authorization policies; the authorization policy cannot match before posture is assessed. Option C is wrong because if the posture agent were not installed, the posture assessment would typically result in an 'unknown' or 'not applicable' status, not a 'passed' status, and the logs would reflect that. Option D is wrong because a 'mandatory' posture requirement with an 'any' agent setting would still enforce posture checks; the issue is the action taken on non-compliance, not the requirement or agent type.

271
MCQhard

A global company uses Cisco Umbrella to enforce security policies across roaming users. Recently, a user reported that they could not access a legitimate business application while connected to a guest Wi-Fi at an airport. The application is categorized as 'Productivity' in Umbrella. Other users outside the office can access it. What is the most likely reason?

A.The user's Umbrella roaming client is unable to authenticate, so the request uses the default policy which blocks the category.
B.The application's category is blocked globally in the Umbrella policy.
C.The user is in a different geographic location with a stricter policy.
D.The guest Wi-Fi's public IP address is on a block list.
AnswerA

Identity not resolved, fallback policy applies.

Why this answer

When the Umbrella roaming client fails to authenticate, the user's DNS requests fall back to the default policy, which may block categories like 'Productivity' that are allowed under the authenticated user's policy. This explains why the user cannot access the application while other users outside the office can, as they are likely authenticated and subject to a permissive policy.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that Umbrella policies are applied based on source IP or location, when in reality the roaming client's authentication status determines which policy is enforced for roaming users.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if the application's category were blocked globally, all users (including those outside the office) would be unable to access it, contradicting the scenario. Option C is wrong because Umbrella policies are identity-based, not location-based; geographic location does not automatically apply a stricter policy unless explicitly configured via policy rules, which is not indicated. Option D is wrong because the guest Wi-Fi's public IP being on a block list would affect all users on that network, not just this specific user, and the issue is isolated to a single user.

272
MCQeasy

Which component of the CIA triad ensures that data is not altered by unauthorized entities during transmission?

A.Non-repudiation
B.Integrity
C.Availability
D.Confidentiality
AnswerB

Correct answer. Integrity ensures data has not been tampered with by unauthorized parties.

Why this answer

Integrity ensures that data remains accurate and unaltered during storage or transmission, preventing unauthorized modifications.

273
Multi-Selecthard

A cloud security team is deploying Cisco Tetration (Secure Workload) in a hybrid cloud environment. Which three are prerequisites for workload discovery and policy enforcement? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Configuration of flow export from network devices
B.Deployment of sensors on all workloads
C.Integration with cloud provider APIs
D.Setup of global enforcement scopes
E.Registration with Cisco Smart Licensing
AnswersB, C, D

Sensors collect flow and process data needed for discovery and enforcement.

Why this answer

B is correct because Cisco Tetration (Secure Workload) relies on sensors installed on each workload to collect granular telemetry, including process, network, and flow data. Without sensors, the platform cannot discover workload dependencies or enforce micro-segmentation policies, as sensors are the primary data source for the agent-based architecture.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that flow export from network devices is a core requirement for Tetration, but the platform's sensor-based architecture makes workload-level telemetry the mandatory foundation, with network device exports being optional and supplementary.

274
MCQmedium

A network team is configuring Cisco FTD for a new branch office. They want to allow outbound web traffic but block all inbound traffic except for a specific public server. Which policy type should be used to allow the return traffic for outbound connections?

A.A stateless ACL
B.A stateful access rule
C.A NAT rule
D.SSL decryption
AnswerB

Stateful inspection tracks connections and allows return traffic automatically.

Why this answer

Cisco FTD uses a stateful firewall engine that tracks the state of outbound connections. When a stateful access rule permits outbound web traffic, the firewall automatically creates a dynamic pinhole for the return traffic, eliminating the need for explicit inbound rules. This is the correct policy type because it maintains session state and allows only related return packets, aligning with the requirement to block all other inbound traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a stateless ACL can handle return traffic for outbound connections, but candidates forget that stateless firewalls require explicit inbound permit rules for return packets, whereas stateful firewalls automatically manage this via connection state tracking.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a stateless ACL evaluates each packet independently without tracking connection state, requiring explicit inbound rules for return traffic, which would violate the requirement to block all inbound traffic except for a specific public server. Option C is wrong because a NAT rule translates IP addresses but does not inherently permit or deny traffic; it must be paired with an access rule to control flow, and it does not handle stateful return traffic on its own. Option D is wrong because SSL decryption is used to inspect encrypted traffic for threats, not to allow return traffic for outbound connections; it operates on the application layer and does not manage firewall state.

275
MCQeasy

An administrator configures a Cisco ASA with a DMZ interface at security level 50. Traffic from the inside (level 100) to the DMZ (level 50) is allowed by default. What additional configuration is needed to allow traffic from the DMZ to the inside?

A.An ACL applied to the DMZ interface permitting traffic to inside.
B.A NAT rule is required.
C.An ACL applied to the inside interface permitting traffic from DMZ.
D.No additional configuration; it is allowed by default.
AnswerA

Correct; ACL on DMZ (lower level) permits traffic to inside (higher level).

Why this answer

Traffic from lower to higher security level is blocked by default; an ACL must be applied to the lower security interface (DMZ) to permit traffic to the inside (higher).

276
MCQmedium

An organization needs to inspect traffic between two internal zones (e.g., HR and IT) on a Cisco FTD. Which deployment mode is appropriate?

A.Switchport mode
B.Routed mode without any policy
C.Inline mode with an access control policy
D.Passive mode with an intrusion policy
AnswerC

Correct; inline mode enables active inspection and blocking.

Why this answer

Inline mode allows the FTD to actively inspect and block traffic. Passive mode only monitors. The requirement to inspect implies inline for enforcement.

277
MCQmedium

An organization wants to implement privileged access management (PAM) for critical servers. They require just-in-time access and session recording. Which solution integrates with Cisco SecureX to provide these capabilities?

A.Cisco Duo
B.CyberArk
C.Cisco AMP for Endpoints
D.Cisco ISE
AnswerB

CyberArk is a PAM solution that integrates with SecureX for just-in-time access and session recording.

Why this answer

CyberArk is a leading PAM solution that integrates with Cisco SecureX to provide just-in-time access, session recording, and password vaulting.

278
Matchingmedium

Match each security technology to its primary function.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Detect and block malicious traffic inline

Monitor and alert on suspicious activity

Control access based on rules

Protect web applications from attacks

Encrypt traffic over public networks

Why these pairings

Firewall filters traffic based on rules; IDS/IPS monitors for threats; VPN provides secure tunnels; NAC enforces compliance. Common mistakes include confusing IDS/IPS with firewall and NAC with VPN.

279
MCQeasy

Which Cisco email security feature uses SHA-256 hash lookups to detect known malware in email attachments?

A.Outbreak filters
B.AMP for Email
C.Anti-spam
D.DLP policies
AnswerB

AMP for Email performs SHA-256 cloud lookups and file sandboxing.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Email uses SHA-256 hashing to compare file hashes against a cloud database of known malware. If a match is found, the email is blocked or quarantined.

280
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions can be taken on a malicious file detected by Cisco AMP for Endpoints?

Select 2 answers
A.Allow the file after a scan
B.Block execution of the file
C.Encrypt the file to prevent harm
D.Delete the file
E.Quarantine the file into a safe location
AnswersB, E

Block prevents the file from running.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Endpoints uses a combination of signature-based and behavioral analysis to detect malicious files. When a file is determined to be malicious, the administrator can choose to block execution of the file, which prevents the process from running on the endpoint. Additionally, the file can be quarantined into a safe location, isolating it from the system to prevent further harm while retaining the file for analysis.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Block execution' and 'Quarantine' as the only two direct actions available for malicious files, tricking candidates into selecting 'Delete' or 'Allow' which are not supported actions in the AMP for Endpoints console.

281
MCQmedium

Which type of malware is characterized by encrypting files on a victim's system and demanding payment for the decryption key?

A.RAT
B.Keylogger
C.Ransomware
D.Botnet
AnswerC

Ransomware encrypts files for ransom.

Why this answer

Ransomware encrypts data and demands ransom.

282
MCQeasy

Cisco ISE uses profiling to identify the type of device connecting to the network. Which probe helps ISE identify a device by analyzing the DHCP requests it sends?

A.HTTP probe
B.Device Sensor
C.SNMP probe
D.DHCP probe
AnswerD

DHCP probe analyzes DHCP packets to extract device information.

Why this answer

The DHCP probe captures DHCP request options to identify the device type.

283
MCQmedium

An engineer wants to block traffic from a specific country on a Cisco FTD. Which feature should be used in the access control policy?

A.Intrusion policy
B.Geolocation filtering
C.Application visibility and control (AVC)
D.URL filtering
AnswerB

Correct. Geolocation filtering uses source/destination country to permit or deny.

Why this answer

Geolocation filtering allows blocking or allowing traffic based on source or destination country. It is configured as a condition in access control rules.

284
MCQeasy

An organization wants to enforce granular data loss prevention (DLP) policies for SaaS applications like Google Drive and Salesforce. Which Cisco product provides cloud access security broker (CASB) functionality with DLP capabilities?

A.Cisco Firepower Threat Defense
B.Cisco Umbrella
C.Cisco Stealthwatch
D.Cisco Cloudlock
AnswerD

Cloudlock is a CASB that offers DLP for SaaS apps.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock is the correct answer because it is a cloud access security broker (CASB) that provides granular data loss prevention (DLP) for SaaS applications like Google Drive and Salesforce. It uses API-based inspection to scan data at rest and in motion, applying policies to prevent unauthorized sharing or leakage of sensitive information.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse network-based security tools (like FTD or Umbrella) with cloud-native CASB solutions, assuming that any Cisco security product can enforce DLP for SaaS apps, but only Cloudlock provides the necessary API-level integration for granular control.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) is a next-generation firewall (NGFW) that focuses on network traffic inspection and intrusion prevention, not on API-based DLP for SaaS applications. Option B is wrong because Cisco Umbrella is a DNS-layer security solution for web filtering and threat intelligence, lacking the deep content inspection and DLP capabilities for cloud applications. Option C is wrong because Cisco Stealthwatch is a network visibility and analytics tool that uses NetFlow and behavioral analysis for threat detection, not a CASB with DLP for SaaS data.

285
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are capabilities of Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) for content filtering? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
B.Anti-spam filtering
C.Zero-day malware protection using sandboxing
D.Anti-virus scanning
E.Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
AnswersB, D, E

ESA uses Cisco's and third-party anti-spam engines.

Why this answer

B is correct because Cisco ESA includes a sophisticated anti-spam filtering engine that uses multiple techniques such as SenderBase reputation, contextual analysis, and signature-based detection to identify and block unwanted email messages. This is a core content security capability of the ESA, operating at the email gateway to filter inbound and outbound traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between native ESA capabilities (like anti-spam, anti-virus, and DLP) and optional integrated features (like sandboxing), leading candidates to mistakenly select sandboxing as a core content filtering function.

286
MCQmedium

In Cisco ASA modular policy framework, what is the function of a class-map?

A.Apply the policy to an interface
B.Classify traffic into different flows
C.Configure NAT rules
D.Define the action to take on traffic
AnswerB

Class-map matches traffic for classification.

Why this answer

Class-maps identify traffic based on match criteria (e.g., ACL, protocol).

287
MCQmedium

A company uses a Cisco FMC to manage multiple FTD devices. They want to decrypt SSL/TLS traffic from internal users to external websites using a known private key. Which SSL decryption method should they use?

A.Bypass decryption
B.Decrypt-resign
C.Decrypt-known-key
D.Decrypt-unknown-key
AnswerB

Correct. Decrypt-resign is used for outbound inspection, where the firewall re-signs certificates with a CA.

Why this answer

Decrypt-known-key is used when the firewall has the server's private key (e.g., for internal servers), but for outbound traffic, decrypt-resign is typically used to re-sign certificates. However, the question specifies 'using a known private key', which implies the server's key is known, but for outbound inspection, the firewall generates a new cert. The correct method for outbound inspection with a known key is not standard; actually, decrypt-resign uses a CA to re-sign.

The best answer is decrypt-resign because decrypt-known-key is for inbound traffic to servers where the key is known.

288
MCQeasy

A network administrator wants to block access to a specific URL category on the Cisco WSA but allow access to all other categories. Which action should be taken in the Access Policy?

A.Set the action to 'Monitor' for the category
B.Set the action to 'Redirect' for the category
C.Set the action to 'Warn' for the category
D.Set the action to 'Block' for the category
AnswerD

Block denies access to the category.

Why this answer

To block access to a specific URL category while allowing all others, the Access Policy must set the action for that category to 'Block'. The Cisco WSA evaluates URL categories in order of precedence, and a 'Block' action explicitly denies HTTP/HTTPS requests matching that category, while all other categories default to 'Allow' unless otherwise configured.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Block' and 'Warn' actions, where candidates mistakenly think 'Warn' denies access, but it actually allows access after user acknowledgment, making 'Block' the only true denial action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Monitor' logs the traffic but does not block it, allowing access to the category. Option B is wrong because 'Redirect' sends the user to a different URL (e.g., a block page or authentication portal) but does not inherently block access; it can be bypassed or still permit the request depending on configuration. Option C is wrong because 'Warn' displays a warning message to the user but still permits access to the category after the user acknowledges the warning.

289
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a Business Email Compromise (BEC) attack. Which two indicators are commonly associated with BEC attacks? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Spoofed email address resembling a legitimate executive
B.Malicious attachment with ransomware
C.Presence of a phishing URL
D.Encrypted ZIP file attachment
E.Urgent request for wire transfer or gift cards
AnswersA, E

Correct. BEC uses spoofing to impersonate executives.

Why this answer

BEC attacks often involve spoofed email addresses (domain lookalikes) and urgent requests for wire transfers or sensitive data.

290
MCQmedium

Which VPN technology allows Cisco AnyConnect clients to use UDP for transport to avoid TCP overhead and improve performance?

A.IPsec
B.L2TP
C.IKEv2
D.DTLS
AnswerD

Correct. DTLS provides UDP-based encryption for AnyConnect.

Why this answer

DTLS (Datagram Transport Layer Security) is used by AnyConnect to provide a UDP-based SSL VPN, reducing latency compared to TCP.

291
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common challenges when securing multi-cloud environments? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Limited storage capacity in public clouds
B.Reducing cloud infrastructure costs
C.Meeting compliance requirements across jurisdictions
D.Lack of unified visibility across cloud providers
E.Inconsistent security policies between clouds
AnswersC, D, E

Compliance across clouds is a significant challenge.

Why this answer

Multi-cloud environments span multiple jurisdictions with differing data protection laws (e.g., GDPR, CCPA, LGPD). Meeting compliance requirements becomes a challenge as each cloud provider may have different compliance certifications and data residency controls, requiring careful mapping of data flows and contractual agreements to avoid legal penalties.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between security challenges and operational/financial challenges, so candidates mistakenly pick options like 'reducing costs' or 'storage capacity' because they sound like common cloud problems, but they are not security-specific.

292
MCQmedium

A company is deploying Cisco ISE for guest access. They want to provide a self-service portal where guests can register their devices and receive a temporary username and password. Which ISE component is used to accomplish this?

A.BYOD Portal
B.Mobile Device Management (MDM)
C.Guest Portal
D.Profiler Service
AnswerC

Guest Portal provides self-service registration and temporary credentials for guests.

Why this answer

C is correct because the Guest Portal in Cisco ISE is specifically designed to provide a self-service registration page where guests can create their own accounts, receive temporary credentials, and gain network access. This portal handles the entire guest lifecycle, including sponsor approval if required, and can deliver the username/password via SMS, email, or on-screen display.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between BYOD and Guest portals, and the trap here is that candidates confuse the BYOD Portal (which handles device onboarding with certificates) with the Guest Portal (which handles temporary user credentials for non-employees).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the BYOD Portal is used for employees to onboard their personal devices into the corporate network with certificate-based authentication, not for guest self-registration. Option B is wrong because Mobile Device Management (MDM) is an external system that enforces policies on enrolled devices (e.g., compliance checks, remote wipe) and is not a self-service portal for guest credential provisioning. Option D is wrong because the Profiler Service uses passive and active probing techniques (e.g., DHCP, HTTP, SNMP) to identify device attributes like OS or vendor, but it does not provide any user-facing portal for registration or credential delivery.

293
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that a file initially deemed 'unknown' by Cisco AMP for Endpoints was later reclassified as 'malicious'. The analyst needs to investigate the propagation of this file across endpoints. Which Cisco AMP feature provides a timeline view of file activity and spread?

A.Device Trajectory
B.SHA-256 disposition
C.Exploit Prevention
D.IOC scanning
AnswerA

Device Trajectory shows a chronological sequence of events related to a file, including its movement and impact.

Why this answer

Device Trajectory is the correct feature because it provides a timeline view of a file's activity across endpoints, including its origin, propagation, and subsequent actions. When Cisco AMP for Endpoints reclassifies a file from 'unknown' to 'malicious', Device Trajectory allows the analyst to trace the file's spread and interactions on each affected endpoint, enabling a thorough investigation of the infection chain.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a static file attribute (SHA-256 disposition) and a dynamic forensic tool (Device Trajectory), leading candidates to confuse the file's classification with the ability to track its spread over time.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (SHA-256 disposition) is wrong because it is a static classification (e.g., clean, malicious, unknown) assigned to a file based on its hash, not a timeline or propagation view. Option C (Exploit Prevention) is wrong because it is a protection feature that blocks exploit techniques (e.g., buffer overflows) at runtime, not a forensic tool for tracking file spread. Option D (IOC scanning) is wrong because it checks endpoints against predefined indicators of compromise (e.g., hashes, IPs) to detect threats, but it does not provide a chronological timeline of file activity across endpoints.

294
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are indicators of compromise (IOCs) that can be detected by Cisco AMP for Endpoints?

Select 2 answers
A.The endpoint's last login time
B.The version of the operating system
C.MD5 hash of a malicious file
D.IP address of a command-and-control server
E.The username of the logged-in user
AnswersC, D

File hashes are common IOCs.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Endpoints uses file reputation analysis based on cryptographic hashes, including MD5, to identify known malicious files. When an endpoint attempts to execute or download a file, AMP computes its MD5 hash and compares it against a cloud-based threat intelligence database; a match indicates a known malware sample and is a clear indicator of compromise.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between static system information (like OS version or usernames) and dynamic threat indicators (like file hashes and C2 IPs) to see if candidates understand that AMP for Endpoints is a threat detection tool, not a system inventory or authentication monitor.

295
MCQeasy

A network administrator wants to implement 802.1X authentication on a switch port that connects a printer. The printer does not support 802.1X, so the administrator configures MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB) as a fallback method. Which command must be included in the switch port configuration to ensure MAB is attempted after 802.1X times out?

A.authentication priority dot1x mab
B.authentication order dot1x mab
C.dot1x timeout tx-period 30
D.authentication port-control auto
AnswerB

This configures the switch to attempt 802.1X first, and if it fails, fall back to MAB.

Why this answer

The 'authentication order dot1x mab' command explicitly defines the sequence in which authentication methods are attempted on a switch port. When 802.1X times out (e.g., because the printer does not respond to EAPOL frames), the switch then falls back to MAB. This command ensures MAB is attempted only after 802.1X fails, which matches the requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'authentication priority' with 'authentication order' — candidates often pick 'priority' thinking it controls the fallback sequence, but 'priority' only resolves conflicts when multiple methods succeed simultaneously, not the order of attempts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'authentication priority dot1x mab' sets the priority for which method is preferred when multiple methods succeed, not the order of fallback; it does not control the sequence of attempts. Option B is the correct answer. Option C is wrong because 'dot1x timeout tx-period 30' adjusts the interval between EAPOL retransmissions (default 30 seconds), but it does not enable or sequence MAB as a fallback method.

Option D is wrong because 'authentication port-control auto' is required to enable 802.1X authentication on the port, but it alone does not define the fallback order to MAB; it must be combined with the 'authentication order' command.

296
MCQmedium

A company is deploying a new remote access solution for teleworkers. They need to ensure that only company-owned devices can connect, and that the devices meet security posture requirements. Which combination of technologies should be used?

A.Cisco AnyConnect VPN with posture assessment
B.IPsec VPN with pre-shared keys
C.DMVPN
D.SSL VPN without client
AnswerA

AnyConnect integrates with ISE for posture checks to enforce compliance.

Why this answer

Cisco AnyConnect VPN with posture assessment is correct because it provides both device authentication (ensuring only company-owned devices connect) and security posture checks (e.g., OS patch level, antivirus status, firewall enabled) via the Cisco Secure Client (formerly AnyConnect) and ISE (Identity Services Engine). This combination enforces compliance before granting network access, meeting the requirement for teleworker remote access.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between user authentication and device posture assessment, where candidates mistakenly assume any VPN technology (like IPsec or SSL VPN) inherently provides device compliance checking, but only a client-based solution with posture assessment (e.g., AnyConnect + ISE) can enforce both device identity and security posture.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because IPsec VPN with pre-shared keys only authenticates the VPN gateway or user, not the device itself, and lacks any posture assessment capability to verify security compliance. Option C is wrong because DMVPN is a dynamic multipoint VPN technology designed for site-to-site connectivity, not for teleworker remote access with device posture enforcement. Option D is wrong because SSL VPN without a client (clientless VPN) typically uses a web browser and cannot perform deep posture assessment or enforce device ownership policies, as it lacks the endpoint visibility and control that a full VPN client provides.

297
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods can be used to propagate SGT information between devices that do not support SGT inline tagging?

Select 2 answers
A.NetFlow
B.CDP
C.LLDP
D.SXP
E.VRF-lite
AnswersB, D

CDP can advertise SGTs in its TLVs.

Why this answer

The correct methods are CDP and SXP. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) can propagate SGT information between devices that do not support inline tagging, particularly in Cisco environments. SXP (SGT Exchange Protocol) is the primary protocol used to exchange SGT mappings between devices that do not have inline SGT support.

NetFlow does not propagate SGTs; it is used for traffic flow monitoring. LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol) does not support SGT. VRF-lite is not related to SGT propagation.

298
MCQeasy

During a ransomware attack, an endpoint protected by AMP for Endpoints successfully blocked the ransomware file. Which AMP policy action was likely applied?

A.Allow
B.Quarantine
C.Detect
D.Block
AnswerD

Block prevents the file from executing, stopping ransomware.

Why this answer

When AMP for Endpoints successfully blocks a ransomware file, the 'Block' policy action is applied. This action prevents the file from executing on the endpoint by terminating the process and quarantining the file in the local quarantine, ensuring the threat is neutralized immediately. The 'Block' action is the most restrictive and is designed to stop known malware, including ransomware, from causing harm.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Detect' and 'Block' actions, where candidates mistakenly think 'Detect' can stop an attack, but it only generates alerts without preventing execution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Allow' would permit the file to execute, which contradicts the scenario where the ransomware was successfully blocked. Option B is wrong because 'Quarantine' is not a standalone AMP policy action; it is a consequence of the 'Block' action, where the file is moved to quarantine after being blocked. Option C is wrong because 'Detect' only logs and alerts on the file without preventing its execution, which would not stop a ransomware attack.

299
MCQhard

An attacker intercepts traffic between a client and a server and modifies the communication without either party knowing. Which type of attack is being performed?

A.Phishing
B.Man-in-the-middle attack
C.Replay attack
D.Denial of service
AnswerB

MITM allows interception and modification.

Why this answer

A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack involves interception and potential modification of communications.

300
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is using Cisco WSA with transparent proxy via WCCP. The security team wants to identify which users are accessing banned websites and also enforce bandwidth limits for video streaming. Which TWO features should be configured on the WSA?

Select 2 answers
A.Identity-based policies with AD integration
B.AMP file scanning
C.Bandwidth controls
D.SSL/TLS decryption
E.URL filtering categories
AnswersA, C

Allows mapping web traffic to specific users for logging and policy enforcement.

Why this answer

Identity-based policies allow user identification via AD, and bandwidth controls can limit traffic per user or group.

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