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Cisco SCOR / CCNP Security Core 350-701 (350-701) — Questions 451525

978 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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451
MCQhard

An endpoint running Cisco AMP for Endpoints is suspected of being compromised. The security analyst needs to isolate the process and perform a live investigation. Which EDR capability should the analyst use?

A.Remote shell investigation
B.Process isolation
C.IOC scanning
D.File quarantine
AnswerA

Remote shell allows analysts to run commands and investigate live on the endpoint.

Why this answer

Remote shell investigation allows analysts to perform live forensics on endpoints via a secure shell.

452
MCQeasy

Which cryptographic algorithm is a symmetric block cipher commonly used in modern VPNs and is considered secure?

A.AES
B.ECC
C.RSA
D.3DES
AnswerA

AES is the standard symmetric cipher for secure communications.

Why this answer

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a widely used symmetric block cipher with key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits.

453
MCQeasy

Which Cisco cloud-based security solution provides DNS-layer security to block requests to malicious domains?

A.Cisco Umbrella SIG
B.Cisco Firepower NGFW
C.Cisco WSA
D.Cisco ESA
AnswerA

Umbrella SIG provides DNS-layer security as a cloud service.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella SIG (Security Internet Gateway) is a cloud-delivered security solution that provides DNS-layer security by intercepting and analyzing DNS queries. When a user attempts to resolve a domain, Umbrella checks the request against its threat intelligence database and blocks the resolution if the domain is known to be malicious, preventing the connection before it is established.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DNS-layer security (Umbrella) and proxy-based security (WSA), so the trap here is that candidates may confuse Cisco WSA's URL filtering with Umbrella's DNS-layer blocking, not realizing that WSA operates at the application layer after the DNS resolution has already occurred.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Cisco Firepower NGFW is a next-generation firewall that provides stateful inspection, intrusion prevention, and application visibility, but it does not offer cloud-based DNS-layer security as its primary function; it relies on local or cloud-based URL filtering via Cisco Talos, not DNS-layer blocking. Option C is wrong because Cisco WSA (Web Security Appliance) is an on-premises or cloud-based proxy that filters HTTP/HTTPS traffic at the application layer, but it does not operate at the DNS layer to block malicious domain requests before the connection is made. Option D is wrong because Cisco ESA (Email Security Appliance) is designed to protect against email-borne threats such as spam, phishing, and malware, and it does not provide DNS-layer security for general web traffic.

454
MCQmedium

A security analyst is tuning Snort rules to reduce false positives. The analyst identifies a rule that triggers on a common benign application. Which action should be taken to suppress alerts for that specific traffic without disabling the rule entirely?

A.Delete the rule from the policy.
B.Change the rule action to 'alert'
C.Add a 'threshold' rule to limit the number of alerts.
D.Set the rule to 'drop' action.
AnswerC

Threshold can limit alerts per time interval, reducing noise.

Why this answer

Snort allows using 'threshold' or 'suppress' options to limit alerts. The 'suppress' keyword can suppress alerts for specific source/destination IPs. Alternatively, creating a pass rule in the local policy could bypass inspection for that traffic.

However, directly modifying the rule's action to 'pass' is not standard; using threshold is common.

455
MCQeasy

Which Cisco technology provides visibility into the performance of SaaS applications such as Microsoft 365?

A.Cisco WSA
B.Cisco ESA
C.Cisco ThousandEyes
D.Cisco Umbrella SIG
AnswerC

Correct. ThousandEyes monitors SaaS performance.

Why this answer

Cisco ThousandEyes is correct because it provides end-to-end visibility into the performance of SaaS applications like Microsoft 365 by using cloud-based agents and enterprise agents to monitor network paths, application latency, and packet loss. It specifically measures the user experience for SaaS services through synthetic testing and real-user monitoring, identifying issues such as ISP throttling or routing problems that affect Microsoft 365 performance.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between security-focused tools (WSA, ESA, Umbrella) and performance/visibility tools (ThousandEyes), so the trap here is assuming that a security gateway like Umbrella SIG can also provide application performance monitoring, when in fact it only provides security policy enforcement and not deep performance analytics.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco WSA (Web Security Appliance) is a proxy-based web security gateway that enforces URL filtering and malware protection, but it does not provide performance visibility into SaaS applications. Option B is wrong because Cisco ESA (Email Security Appliance) focuses on email security, including spam and phishing detection, and has no capability to monitor SaaS application performance. Option D is wrong because Cisco Umbrella SIG (Secure Internet Gateway) is a cloud-delivered security solution that provides DNS-layer security and web filtering, but it does not offer the deep, agent-based performance monitoring and path analysis that ThousandEyes provides for SaaS applications.

456
MCQeasy

A company is deploying cloud workload protection for their Azure VMs. They want to ensure that security policies are automatically adjusted based on workload changes. Which technology should they implement?

A.Cisco Firepower NGFW
B.Cisco Secure Workload
C.Cisco Umbrella
D.Cisco Stealthwatch
AnswerB

Provides automatic policy adjustment based on workload changes.

Why this answer

Cisco Secure Workload (formerly Tetration) is the correct choice because it provides workload protection for Azure VMs with automatic policy adjustment based on workload changes. It uses agent-based and agentless sensors to collect telemetry, builds a dependency map, and enforces micro-segmentation policies that dynamically adapt as workloads scale, migrate, or change, meeting the requirement for automated security policy adjustment.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Cisco Secure Workload with Cisco Stealthwatch, assuming both provide similar workload visibility, but Stealthwatch lacks the automated policy enforcement and micro-segmentation capabilities that Secure Workload offers for dynamic cloud environments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco Firepower NGFW is a network firewall that provides perimeter and east-west traffic inspection but does not natively integrate with Azure VM workload changes to automatically adjust security policies; it requires manual policy updates or external orchestration. Option C is wrong because Cisco Umbrella is a cloud-delivered DNS-layer security and secure web gateway (SWG) that protects against internet threats but does not provide workload-level policy automation or micro-segmentation for Azure VMs. Option D is wrong because Cisco Stealthwatch is a network traffic analysis and visibility tool that uses NetFlow/IPFIX for anomaly detection but does not automatically adjust security policies based on workload changes; it focuses on monitoring rather than enforcement.

457
Multi-Selecthard

An organization wants to implement Privileged Access Management (PAM) using Cisco SecureX and CyberArk. Which THREE capabilities are typically associated with PAM solutions? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Endpoint isolation
B.Password vaulting
C.Just-in-time access
D.Session recording
E.File quarantine
AnswersB, C, D

Correct. PAM stores and manages privileged passwords.

Why this answer

Password vaulting (B) is a core PAM capability because it securely stores privileged credentials in an encrypted repository, enforcing policies for checkout, rotation, and access control. CyberArk's Vault, for example, uses AES-256 encryption and integrates with Cisco SecureX to provide centralized credential management, ensuring that passwords are never exposed in plaintext.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between PAM-specific features (password vaulting, JIT access, session recording) and general endpoint security controls (isolation, quarantine), so candidates mistakenly select options that sound security-related but are not part of privileged access management.

458
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are best practices when configuring Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) anti-spam filters? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Rely solely on IP reputation lists for spam detection.
B.Adjust threshold levels per sender group to reduce false positives.
C.Use a combination of Cisco Anti-Spam and a third-party anti-spam engine.
D.Set the anti-spam action to 'Delete' for high-scoring messages.
E.Enable all available anti-spam engines to ensure maximum detection.
AnswersB, C

Different sender groups may require different sensitivity.

Why this answer

Adjusting threshold levels per sender group allows administrators to fine-tune the sensitivity of anti-spam filters based on the trustworthiness of the sender, reducing false positives for legitimate email while maintaining high detection for spam. Using a combination of Cisco Anti-Spam and a third-party anti-spam engine provides defense-in-depth, leveraging different detection algorithms and signature databases to catch a wider range of spam variants.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that more engines or stricter actions (like 'Delete') always improve security, when in fact they can increase false positives or degrade performance; the correct approach is layered detection with per-group tuning and quarantine for review.

459
MCQhard

An organization is implementing email authentication to prevent domain spoofing. They have deployed SPF and DKIM. Which additional record should they publish to instruct receiving mail servers on how to handle emails that fail SPF or DKIM checks?

A.CNAME record for DKIM
B.TXT record with v=spf1
C.MX record with priority 0
D.DMARC TXT record
AnswerD

DMARC defines policy for handling authentication failures.

Why this answer

DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) tells receiving servers how to handle emails that fail SPF/DKIM (e.g., reject or quarantine).

460
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a characteristic of a zero trust security model?

A.Implicit trust for internal users
B.Never trust, always verify
C.Trust but verify
D.Trust based on network location
AnswerB

Correct answer. This is the core principle of zero trust.

Why this answer

Zero trust assumes no implicit trust; every request must be verified regardless of source.

461
MCQhard

An attacker sends a flood of SYN packets with spoofed IP addresses to a server, causing it to allocate resources for half-open connections until it can no longer accept legitimate traffic. This is which type of DDoS attack?

A.Protocol DDoS
B.Application layer DDoS
C.Volumetric DDoS
D.Amplification DDoS
AnswerA

SYN flood targets protocol weaknesses (TCP handshake).

Why this answer

SYN flood is a protocol-based DDoS attack that exploits the TCP handshake.

462
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring Dynamic Access Policies (DAP) on a Cisco ASA for AnyConnect VPN. Which two attributes can be used to create DAP rules? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Client IP address
B.Anti-virus software version
C.VPN tunnel group
D.Certificate issuer
E.Time of day
AnswersB, C

Correct; endpoint posture attribute.

Why this answer

DAP can use endpoint attributes like antivirus status, registry entries, or connection attributes like group policy. Certificate issuer is not a standard DAP attribute.

463
MCQeasy

A security administrator is implementing Cisco AMP for Endpoints and wants to identify files that were initially allowed but later determined to be malicious. Which feature allows the administrator to see the propagation of such a file across the environment?

A.Exploit Prevention
B.IOC Scanning
C.Device Trajectory
D.SHA-256 Disposition
AnswerC

Device Trajectory shows the timeline and spread of a file across endpoints, enabling retrospective analysis.

Why this answer

Device Trajectory in Cisco AMP for Endpoints provides a timeline of file activity, showing where a file originated and how it spread, which is critical for retrospective security analysis.

464
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are benefits of using Cisco Cloudlock for cloud security? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Shadow IT discovery
B.DDoS protection
C.Network firewall capabilities
D.Identity and access management
E.Data loss prevention for cloud apps
AnswersA, E

Cloudlock can discover unsanctioned cloud applications.

Why this answer

Cisco Cloudlock is a cloud access security broker (CASB) that provides visibility into cloud application usage. Option A is correct because Cloudlock's Shadow IT discovery feature identifies unauthorized cloud applications being used by employees, allowing administrators to assess risk and enforce policies. This is a core CASB function that discovers and categorizes cloud apps based on user traffic patterns.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between CASB functions (Shadow IT, DLP) and traditional network security functions (firewall, DDoS), leading candidates to mistakenly associate Cloudlock with network-layer protections.

465
MCQeasy

A company wants to allow employees to access webmail services but block any upload of attachments that contain malware. Which feature of Cisco WSA should be configured?

A.Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy
B.Application Visibility and Control (AVC)
C.URL filtering policy
D.Malware scanning with DVS engine
AnswerD

DVS engine scans files for malware, including uploads.

Why this answer

The Dynamic Vectoring and Scoring (DVS) engine in Cisco WSA provides advanced malware detection by analyzing file attachments in real time, including webmail uploads. It uses multiple scanning techniques, such as reputation analysis and file-type identification, to block malware before it reaches the user. This directly addresses the requirement to prevent malware-laden attachments in webmail traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DLP (data loss prevention) and malware scanning, leading candidates to mistakenly choose DLP when the question is about blocking malicious content rather than preventing data leakage.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are designed to prevent sensitive data from leaving the network (e.g., credit card numbers, PII), not to detect or block malware in attachments. Option B is wrong because Application Visibility and Control (AVC) focuses on identifying and controlling application traffic (e.g., blocking or shaping webmail apps), not on scanning file content for malware. Option C is wrong because URL filtering policies control access based on web categories or reputation, not on the content of uploaded attachments; they cannot inspect or block malware within files.

466
MCQeasy

In the shared responsibility model, which is the customer's responsibility in a SaaS model?

A.Network security
B.Physical data center security
C.Data classification and access control
D.Application security patches
AnswerC

Customer manages data and who can access it.

Why this answer

In SaaS, the provider manages the application, runtime, OS, and infrastructure. The customer is responsible for data and access management.

467
MCQeasy

A company is implementing Cisco Umbrella to provide DNS-layer security. They want to block access to known malicious domains while allowing all other traffic. Which policy configuration should be used?

A.Create a block list with known malicious domains
B.Enable selective proxy for all traffic
C.Create an allow list with only safe domains
D.Use a custom policy with both allow and block lists
AnswerA

Block list allows all traffic except specified malicious domains.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella's DNS-layer security operates by intercepting DNS queries and comparing them against policy-defined lists. A block list containing known malicious domains is the correct approach because Umbrella will block DNS resolution for those domains while allowing all other traffic to pass through normally. This aligns with the requirement to block only malicious destinations without affecting access to legitimate sites.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DNS-layer security (which uses block lists for domain resolution) and proxy-based security (which inspects full HTTP/HTTPS traffic), leading candidates to mistakenly select proxy options like selective proxy when only DNS-layer blocking is needed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because enabling selective proxy for all traffic would route all web traffic through Umbrella's proxy, which is unnecessary for DNS-layer blocking and could introduce latency or break non-HTTP traffic. Option C is wrong because an allow list with only safe domains would block all traffic except those explicitly allowed, which is the opposite of the requirement to allow all other traffic. Option D is wrong because while custom policies can combine allow and block lists, the requirement specifically calls for blocking known malicious domains while allowing everything else, making a simple block list the most direct and correct configuration.

468
MCQhard

In a Cisco TrustSec deployment, you want to dynamically assign SGTs based on user authentication. Which mechanism should you use?

A.CTS SXP
B.CTS RBACL
C.CTS device classification
D.CTS identity-based networking (IBNS) with RADIUS CoA
AnswerD

IBNS with CoA can dynamically assign SGTs via RADIUS attributes.

Why this answer

Identity-Based Networking Services (IBNS) with RADIUS Change of Authorization (CoA) allows dynamic assignment of SGTs during authentication. Option A (CTS SXP) propagates SGTs but doesn't assign dynamically. Option B (CTS RBACL) is for role-based access control, not SGT assignment.

Option C (CTS device classification) is for static assignment.

469
MCQmedium

An ASA firewall is configured as shown. A web server is behind the ASA with IP 10.1.1.100. Which additional configuration is required to allow HTTPS traffic from the internet to the web server?

A.Add a route to the web server's subnet
B.Configure static NAT for the web server
C.Increase the security level of the inside interface
D.Apply the access-group to the inside interface
AnswerB

Static NAT is necessary to map the public IP to the internal server.

Why this answer

The ASA firewall requires static NAT to translate the public IP address (typically the ASA's outside interface IP or a dedicated public IP) to the private IP address of the web server (10.1.1.100). Without static NAT, the ASA will not perform the necessary destination address translation for inbound HTTPS traffic, and the web server's private IP is not routable on the internet.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a route or security level adjustment is sufficient, but Cisco specifically tests that NAT is mandatory for translating private addresses to public addresses in ASA firewall configurations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because adding a route to the web server's subnet is unnecessary; the ASA already has a directly connected route to the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet via its inside interface. Option C is wrong because increasing the security level of the inside interface does not affect inbound traffic from a lower-security interface (outside) to a higher-security interface (inside); security levels control default traffic flow direction, not NAT or access control. Option D is wrong because applying the access-group to the inside interface would filter traffic exiting the inside interface, not inbound traffic from the internet; the access-group must be applied to the outside interface to permit HTTPS traffic inbound.

470
MCQeasy

A company uses Cisco Umbrella to block malicious domains. An endpoint user reports that they cannot access a legitimate business website. The website resolves to a domain that is not on any block list. What is the most likely cause?

A.The domain is listed in a custom Destination List with 'Block' action.
B.The domain is part of a content category that is blocked in the Umbrella policy.
C.The Umbrella policy has Application Settings enabled for 'Web Browsing' with block action.
D.The Umbrella roaming client is using an invalid API token.
AnswerB

Umbrella's content category filtering can block entire categories of websites, even if the domain is not individually listed.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella enforces security policies based on content categories, not just individual domains. Even if a domain is not explicitly blocked, it may belong to a content category (e.g., 'Newly Seen Domains', 'Pornography', 'Hacking') that has been set to 'Block' in the Umbrella policy. This is a common cause of legitimate sites being blocked, as Umbrella evaluates the domain against all applicable categories before allowing access.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between explicit block lists (Destination Lists) and policy-based category blocking, leading candidates to assume that only explicitly listed domains can be blocked, when in fact content categories are a primary enforcement mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the domain were in a custom Destination List with 'Block' action, it would be explicitly listed and easily identified; the question states the domain is not on any block list, ruling this out. Option C is wrong because Application Settings for 'Web Browsing' with block action would block the entire web browsing application (e.g., Chrome, Edge) from making any HTTP/HTTPS requests, not selectively block a specific domain; this would prevent all web access, not just one site. Option D is wrong because an invalid API token would cause the Umbrella roaming client to fail to connect to the cloud service entirely, resulting in no policy enforcement (allow all or block all depending on fail-open/fail-closed settings), not a selective block of a single domain.

471
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is using Cisco Umbrella for cloud security. Which two features are part of the Secure Internet Gateway (SIG) functionality? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.CASB functionality
B.CSPM capabilities
C.Cloud-delivered firewall
D.DNS-layer security
E.Web proxy
AnswersC, E

SIG includes cloud firewall.

Why this answer

Secure Internet Gateway (SIG) functionality in Cisco Umbrella includes cloud-delivered firewall and web proxy. DNS-layer security is a separate core Umbrella feature, not part of SIG.

472
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. The crypto map is applied to an interface. Which additional configuration is necessary for IPsec to function correctly?

A.Define an extended access list for interesting traffic
B.Create a tunnel interface and apply the crypto map to it
C.Create a transform-set with the same parameters as the proposal
D.Configure an ISAKMP policy (IKE phase 1) with pre-shared key or certificate
AnswerD

IKE phase 1 must be configured to establish a secure channel before IPsec can work.

Why this answer

IPsec requires both IKE Phase 1 (ISAKMP) and Phase 2 to be configured. The crypto map references a transform-set and an access list, but without an ISAKMP policy defining authentication (pre-shared key or certificate) and encryption/hash parameters, IKE cannot establish a secure control channel. Option D is correct because the ISAKMP policy is mandatory for IKE Phase 1 negotiation before IPsec SAs can be created.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a crypto map alone is sufficient for IPsec, hiding the fact that IKE Phase 1 (ISAKMP policy) is a prerequisite that must be configured separately, leading candidates to overlook it when other options like transform-sets or access lists are already present.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an extended access list for interesting traffic is already referenced in the crypto map (as shown in the exhibit), so it is not missing. Option B is wrong because a tunnel interface is not required for site-to-site IPsec; the crypto map is applied directly to the physical or sub-interface, and creating a tunnel interface would be an unnecessary overlay. Option C is wrong because a transform-set is already defined and referenced in the crypto map; creating another with the same parameters would be redundant and not address the missing IKE Phase 1 configuration.

473
MCQeasy

In the shared responsibility model for PaaS, which component is the customer responsible for managing?

A.Network infrastructure
B.Hypervisor
C.Operating system
D.Data and applications
AnswerD

Customer is responsible for data and applications in PaaS.

Why this answer

In PaaS, the customer manages applications and data, while the provider manages the runtime, infrastructure, and OS.

474
MCQhard

An administrator is configuring a site-to-site IKEv2 VPN between two Cisco ASAs. Which configuration component defines the encryption and authentication algorithms for the IPsec SA?

A.Crypto map
B.IPsec profile
C.ISAKMP policy
D.Transform set
AnswerD

Correct; transform set defines the IPsec security protocols and algorithms.

Why this answer

The transform set specifies the IPsec SA parameters (encryption, authentication, etc.). IKEv2 uses proposals and transforms within the transform set.

475
MCQeasy

Which of the following is the primary function of a Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) tool?

A.Block malicious domains at the DNS layer
B.Protect workloads from malware
C.Monitor and remediate cloud misconfigurations against benchmarks
D.Provide DLP for SaaS applications
AnswerC

CSPM checks configurations against standards like CIS.

Why this answer

CSPM tools continuously monitor cloud infrastructure for compliance with security best practices and benchmarks (e.g., CIS). They identify misconfigurations but do not typically enforce DLP, block threats, or protect workloads directly.

476
MCQhard

An administrator configures Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) with an outbreak filter to handle a new ransomware variant. The outbreak filter is set to 'Quarantine' for messages with a threat score above 70. After deployment, some legitimate emails with a threat score of 75 are quarantined. The administrator wants to reduce false positives without compromising security. Which configuration change should be made?

A.Disable the outbreak filter temporarily to allow all emails.
B.Increase the threat score threshold to 80 or higher.
C.Create a content filter to bypass outbreak filtering for known good senders.
D.Configure the outbreak filter to 'Analyze' instead of 'Quarantine' for scores between 70 and 80.
AnswerD

Analysis allows the ESA to gather more intelligence and possibly release the email if it's determined safe, reducing false positives.

Why this answer

It allows the administrator to apply a graduated response: messages with threat scores between 70 and 80 are analyzed (e.g., delivered with a warning or delayed) rather than quarantined, reducing false positives while still providing security. The outbreak filter in Cisco ESA supports multiple actions per score range, enabling a tiered policy that avoids an all-or-nothing approach. This maintains protection against truly high-risk messages (score >80) while sparing borderline legitimate traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between outbreak filter actions (Quarantine, Analyze, Deliver) and the misconception that content filters can override outbreak filter verdicts, when in reality outbreak filters are evaluated first and content filters cannot bypass them.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling the outbreak filter entirely removes all protection against the ransomware variant, which compromises security. Option B is wrong because increasing the threshold to 80 or higher would still quarantine legitimate emails with a score of 75, failing to address the false positive issue; it merely shifts the cutoff without resolving the underlying problem of borderline scores. Option C is wrong because content filters operate independently from outbreak filters and cannot bypass outbreak filtering; outbreak filters evaluate messages based on threat scores from Talos/Sophos, and a content filter cannot override that action unless the message is already allowed through the outbreak filter.

477
MCQmedium

A network security engineer is deploying Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) in a data center. The requirement is to inspect traffic between two internal VLANs while allowing the firewall to enforce access control policies based on source and destination zones. Which deployment mode should the engineer use?

A.Routed mode
B.Inline mode
C.Transparent mode
D.Hybrid mode
AnswerC

Transparent mode operates at layer 2, allowing inspection between VLANs without IP renumbering.

Why this answer

Transparent mode (Layer 2 mode) is correct because the requirement specifies inspecting traffic between two internal VLANs without routing. In transparent mode, the FTD acts as a bridge, forwarding frames based on MAC addresses while enforcing access control policies based on source and destination zones. This allows the firewall to inspect inter-VLAN traffic without requiring IP address changes or acting as a default gateway.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'transparent mode' and 'inline mode'—the trap here is that candidates confuse 'inline' (a deployment topology for IPS sensors) with 'transparent' (a Layer 2 firewall mode), leading them to incorrectly select inline mode when the question asks about firewall deployment modes for FTD.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because routed mode operates at Layer 3, requiring the FTD to be the next-hop gateway for each VLAN, which would change the network topology and introduce routing decisions not needed for internal VLAN-to-VLAN inspection. Option B is wrong because inline mode is a deployment method for IPS/IDS sensors (e.g., passive or inline tap), not a firewall mode; the FTD does not have an 'inline mode' as a standalone deployment mode—it is either routed, transparent, or hybrid. Option D is wrong because hybrid mode is not a standard deployment mode for FTD; the FTD supports routed and transparent modes, and while it can run multiple virtual firewalls in different modes, 'hybrid mode' is not a selectable deployment mode for a single FTD device.

478
Multi-Selecthard

An organization wants to implement EDR capabilities for endpoints. Which three actions are typically associated with EDR? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Multi-factor authentication
B.Process isolation
C.Remote shell investigation
D.Application whitelisting
E.File quarantine
AnswersB, C, E

Isolating a process prevents it from causing further harm.

Why this answer

File quarantine, process isolation, and remote shell investigation are EDR actions. Application whitelisting is a hardening technique, and MFA is authentication.

479
Multi-Selecteasy

A company wants to implement Zero Trust principles in their cloud environment. Which THREE of the following are key Zero Trust tenets?

Select 3 answers
A.Assume breach (minimize blast radius)
B.Implement multifactor authentication (MFA) everywhere
C.Use least privilege access
D.Verify explicitly (authenticate and authorize every request)
E.Assume that the perimeter is secure
AnswersA, C, D

Design with the expectation that breach will occur, and segment accordingly.

Why this answer

'Assume breach' is a core Zero Trust tenet that minimizes the blast radius by segmenting access and continuously monitoring for threats, even within the cloud environment. This principle assumes that an attacker may already be present, so it enforces micro-segmentation and real-time analytics to limit lateral movement, aligning with NIST SP 800-207 Zero Trust Architecture guidelines.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'security controls' (like MFA) and 'core tenets' (like verify explicitly), leading candidates to incorrectly select MFA as a tenet rather than recognizing it as an implementation tool.

480
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is adopting zero trust principles for cloud access. Which THREE components should be implemented to enforce identity as the new perimeter?

Select 3 answers
A.Network segmentation via VLANs
B.Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all cloud access
C.Privileged Identity Management (PIM) for just-in-time access
D.Conditional access policies based on user and device context
E.Firewall rules based on source IP
AnswersB, C, D

MFA is essential to verify identity.

Why this answer

MFA ensures strong authentication, PIM manages privileged access, and conditional access policies enforce context-based controls.

481
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting device tracking on a Cisco switch. The output shows two devices in VLAN 100. The switch is configured with IPv6 first-hop security features. The administrator notices that the device with MAC address aaaa.bbbb.cccc is not receiving RA guard protection. What is the most likely reason?

A.The interface Gi0/1/1 is not configured as a trusted interface for RA guard.
B.The device is not in the same VLAN as the RA guard policy.
C.The device tracking entry for aaaa.bbbb.cccc is invalid.
D.The device tracking table has reached its limit.
AnswerA

RA guard only applies to trusted interfaces.

Why this answer

RA Guard protection is applied per interface based on trust configuration. The exhibit shows the device with MAC aaaa.bbbb.cccc is reachable via Gi0/1/1, but if that interface is not explicitly configured as trusted for RA Guard (e.g., using `ipv6 nd raguard trust`), the switch will not apply RA Guard filtering to RAs received on that port. This allows rogue RA messages from that device to bypass protection, making A the correct answer.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between device tracking entries being present and the interface trust configuration being applied, leading candidates to incorrectly assume a valid tracking entry implies protection is active.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the device is in VLAN 100, and the RA Guard policy is applied to that VLAN (as shown in the exhibit), so the VLAN mismatch is not the issue. Option C is wrong because the device tracking entry for aaaa.bbbb.cccc is listed as valid (state REACHABLE), so it is not invalid. Option D is wrong because the device tracking table shows only two entries, far below typical limits (e.g., 4096 or more), so the table is not full.

482
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements about Cisco Umbrella SIG are true?

Select 2 answers
A.It only protects traffic that goes through a VPN
B.It can enforce URL filtering policies via a cloud proxy
C.It operates as a DNS resolver that blocks malicious domain requests
D.It requires on-premises hardware for deployment
E.It does not provide reporting or analytics
AnswersB, C

Umbrella SIG includes a cloud proxy that can apply URL filtering.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella SIG provides cloud-based security including DNS-layer filtering and a cloud proxy. It can enforce URL filtering and blocks threats before connection. It does not require on-premises hardware and can be used with any internet connection.

483
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of a passive reconnaissance technique?

A.Port scanning
B.Social engineering
C.Vulnerability scanning
D.OSINT gathering from public websites
AnswerD

OSINT uses publicly available information without direct engagement.

Why this answer

Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information without directly interacting with the target, such as through public sources.

484
MCQmedium

A company deploys Cisco ASA with clientless SSL VPN to provide remote access to internal web-based applications. Users connect via a web browser and authenticate using RADIUS. The security policy requires that users re-authenticate after 15 minutes of inactivity. The administrator configures the group-policy with 'vpn-idle-timeout 15' and 'vpn-session-timeout 60'. After testing, the administrator finds that users can still access the internal web applications even after the VPN session has timed out. The administrator checks the ASA logs and confirms that the VPN session is indeed terminated. The web applications are standard HTTP-based and do not have their own session timeout mechanisms. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The web applications use persistent cookies that do not require re-authentication.
B.The clientless SSL VPN portal uses 'application-specific' timeout settings.
C.The RADIUS server is sending the 'Session-Timeout' attribute that overrides the ASA configuration.
D.The ASA is configured with 'webvpn' and 'cache' enabled, which caches the application pages.
AnswerA

Persistent cookies maintain the application session independently of the VPN session.

Why this answer

Clientless SSL VPN uses a web portal that relies on cookies to maintain the user's authenticated state. When the VPN session times out, the ASA terminates the VPN tunnel, but the web browser still holds the authentication cookie for the internal web application. Since the web application itself has no session timeout, the cookie remains valid, allowing the user to continue accessing the application without re-authentication.

The ASA's vpn-idle-timeout and vpn-session-timeout only control the VPN tunnel, not the application-layer cookies.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between VPN-layer timeouts and application-layer session persistence, trapping candidates who assume that terminating the VPN tunnel automatically invalidates all application access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'application-specific' timeout settings in clientless SSL VPN are not a standard feature; the ASA does not have per-application timeout configurations that override the group-policy timeouts. Option C is wrong because the RADIUS 'Session-Timeout' attribute, if sent, would override the ASA's vpn-session-timeout, but the issue is that users can still access applications after the VPN session ends, which is not caused by an override—it's a cookie persistence problem. Option D is wrong because the 'webvpn cache' feature caches static content like images and CSS to improve performance, not authentication tokens or session state; it does not allow continued access after session termination.

485
MCQmedium

A network engineer is troubleshooting an issue where users on VLAN 10 cannot access the internet, but they can reach internal resources. The firewall is configured with a default route pointing to the ISP router. The engineer notices that NAT is configured but traffic is not being translated. Which configuration is most likely missing?

A.An ACL to match the traffic to be translated
B.A NAT pool with available public IP addresses
C.Port Address Translation (PAT) configuration
D.A route map to apply NAT based on destination
AnswerA

The ACL defines interesting traffic for NAT; without it, no packets are matched for translation.

Why this answer

For NAT to translate traffic, the firewall must know which traffic to translate. An ACL is used to match the source IP addresses (or networks) that should be translated. Without an ACL applied to the NAT rule, the firewall has no criteria to identify traffic from VLAN 10 for translation, so packets are forwarded without NAT, causing internet access to fail while internal routing works.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that simply enabling NAT or PAT is enough, but the ACL is the critical component that defines the traffic to be translated, and candidates may overlook it because they assume NAT applies to all traffic by default.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a NAT pool is only needed for dynamic NAT with a range of public IPs; for typical PAT (overload) to a single interface IP, no pool is required. Option C is wrong because PAT is a type of NAT (often configured with 'overload'), but the core missing piece is the ACL to define which traffic is translated; PAT configuration alone does not specify the traffic. Option D is wrong because a route map for NAT based on destination is an advanced feature (e.g., policy NAT) and is not required for basic source NAT; the standard approach uses an ACL to match source addresses.

486
MCQeasy

An organization wants to prevent employees from accessing social media websites during work hours. Which Cisco WSA feature should be used to enforce this policy?

A.SSL/TLS decryption
B.AMP file scanning
C.AVC (Application Visibility and Control)
D.URL filtering
AnswerD

Correct. URL filtering blocks or allows access based on categories like social media.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA URL filtering uses categories (e.g., social media) to allow or block access based on policy.

487
MCQhard

A company is using Cisco WSA with explicit proxy mode. The security team wants to enforce HTTPS inspection for all web traffic from the finance department to detect malicious content in encrypted connections. However, they want to exclude traffic to financial institutions' websites due to compliance reasons. Which configuration approach should be used to achieve this?

A.Configure a policy for the finance department with HTTPS inspection enabled and add a bypass rule for the Financial Services URL category.
B.Disable HTTPS inspection globally and enable it only for the finance department using a custom policy.
C.Configure SSL/TLS decryption on the firewall instead of the WSA.
D.Use transparent proxy mode with WCCP redirect to bypass inspection for financial sites.
AnswerA

This allows inspection for the finance department while bypassing for financial institutions.

Why this answer

In WSA, you can configure bypass rules for specific URL categories or destinations to exclude them from HTTPS inspection while still inspecting other traffic.

488
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO Cisco solutions provide virtual firewall capabilities in public cloud environments? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco ASAv
B.Cisco DNA Center
C.Cisco Umbrella
D.Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) for AWS
E.Cisco ISE
AnswersA, D

ASAv is the virtual ASA firewall, available in AWS, Azure, GCP.

Why this answer

Cisco ASAv (Adaptive Security Virtual Appliance) is a virtualized version of the Cisco ASA firewall that can be deployed in public cloud environments such as AWS, Azure, and GCP. It provides stateful firewall, VPN, and threat defense capabilities natively within the cloud infrastructure. Option A is correct because ASAv is explicitly designed for virtual firewall functions in public clouds.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between cloud-delivered security services (like Umbrella) and virtualized network security appliances (like ASAv/FTDv), causing candidates to mistakenly select Umbrella as a virtual firewall when it is actually a cloud-based security service.

489
MCQhard

A security engineer is evaluating Cisco solutions to detect and respond to network anomalies, including potential insider threats, by analyzing NetFlow data and behavioral patterns. Which Cisco product is best suited?

A.Cisco ISE
B.Cisco Firepower
C.Cisco Stealthwatch
D.Cisco ASA
AnswerC

Stealthwatch provides network visibility and behavioral detection using NetFlow.

Why this answer

Cisco Stealthwatch uses NetFlow and behavioral analytics to detect network threats and anomalies.

490
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are capabilities of Cisco Orbital?

Select 2 answers
A.Real-time file reputation checking
B.Running live queries across all endpoints
C.Scheduled forensic data collection tasks
D.Pre-execution sandboxing of unknown files
E.Automated endpoint isolation via ISE
AnswersB, C

Orbital allows queries in real-time across managed endpoints.

Why this answer

Cisco Orbital is a cloud-based endpoint query and response tool that uses the osquery framework to allow security teams to run live SQL-like queries across all endpoints in real time. It also supports scheduled forensic data collection tasks, enabling continuous monitoring and historical analysis of endpoint state without requiring persistent agents or heavy infrastructure.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Orbital's query and data collection capabilities versus AMP's prevention and reputation features, leading candidates to confuse Orbital with AMP's file analysis or sandboxing functions.

491
MCQmedium

A security team is implementing secure access for remote users connecting from untrusted networks. They want to enforce DNS-layer security even when users are off the corporate network. Which Cisco Umbrella feature should be deployed on the endpoints?

A.Secure Internet Gateway (SIG)
B.Umbrella Roaming Client
C.Intelligent Proxy
D.Virtual Appliance
AnswerB

The roaming client provides DNS-layer security on endpoints everywhere.

Why this answer

The Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client provides DNS-layer security for endpoints regardless of their network location, including off-network protection.

492
MCQeasy

An organization wants to enforce endpoint posture compliance before granting network access. In Cisco ISE, which component performs the actual checks on the endpoint to verify antivirus status and patch levels?

A.Network Access Device (switch/WLC)
B.Posture Agent
C.ISE Policy Service Node
D.Profiling Probe
AnswerB

Correct. The posture agent runs on the endpoint and reports compliance status.

Why this answer

The posture agent (Cisco AnyConnect Posture Module or ISE Posture Agent) runs on the endpoint and performs checks for required software, updates, and configurations, then reports back to ISE.

493
MCQhard

You are a security engineer for a multinational corporation with 5,000 employees. The company uses Cisco Umbrella for DNS-layer security, Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) for proxy services in the data center, and Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) for email security. Recently, the security team has received multiple reports of users receiving phishing emails that bypass the ESA. The emails contain links to malicious websites that are also not blocked by Umbrella or WSA. Upon investigation, you find that the phishing emails use newly registered domains (less than 24 hours old) and the malicious websites are hosted on cloud infrastructure with frequently changing IP addresses. The company's current security policies rely on signature-based detection and static blocklists. Which action should you take to most effectively mitigate these threats?

A.Deploy Cisco Threat Response to enable automated threat hunting and blocking across all security products.
B.Configure the WSA to block all domains registered within the last 30 days.
C.Enable Data Loss Prevention (DLP) on the ESA to scan email content for sensitive data.
D.Increase the frequency of signature updates on the ESA and WSA to every hour.
AnswerA

Cisco Threat Response uses real-time intelligence to block emerging threats across the entire security stack.

Why this answer

Cisco Threat Response (CTR) provides integrated threat hunting and automated blocking across Cisco security products, including Umbrella, WSA, and ESA. This enables the security team to correlate indicators of compromise (IoCs) from phishing emails and newly registered domains, then automatically block them across all layers, addressing the dynamic nature of the threat (fast-flux hosting and newly registered domains) that signature-based and static blocklists cannot handle.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that increasing signature update frequency or using broad domain-blocking rules can effectively stop zero-day or rapidly changing threats, when in fact integrated threat intelligence and automated response (like CTR) are required to address dynamic attacks that bypass signature-based and static defenses.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because blocking all domains registered within the last 30 days is overly aggressive and would cause massive false positives, as many legitimate domains (e.g., for marketing campaigns or new business sites) are registered daily; it also does not leverage the integrated threat intelligence needed to dynamically identify malicious new domains. Option C is wrong because DLP on the ESA focuses on preventing data exfiltration by scanning for sensitive content (e.g., credit card numbers, PII), not on detecting or blocking phishing emails with malicious links; it does not address the core issue of bypassing email and web security. Option D is wrong because increasing signature update frequency on ESA and WSA still relies on signature-based detection, which cannot protect against zero-day or rapidly changing threats like newly registered domains and fast-flux IP addresses; signatures are reactive and require time to be created and distributed.

494
MCQhard

A Cisco FTD administrator is configuring SSL/TLS inspection. They want to inspect encrypted traffic to an external website that uses a certificate signed by a public CA. Which SSL/TLS inspection action should be used to decrypt this traffic?

A.Decrypt-resign
B.Do not decrypt
C.Decrypt-known-key
D.Block
AnswerA

Correct. Decrypt-resign decrypts, inspects, and re-encrypts using a custom CA certificate trusted by clients.

Why this answer

For traffic to external sites with public certificates, the FTD can use 'decrypt-resign' where it re-encrypts the traffic with a custom CA certificate installed on the client. 'Decrypt-known-key' is for traffic where the private key is known (e.g., internal servers).

495
MCQhard

A security engineer needs to choose a hashing algorithm for storing passwords. Which of the following should be avoided due to known collision vulnerabilities?

A.RIPEMD-160
B.SHA-3
C.SHA-256
D.MD5
AnswerD

MD5 is vulnerable to collisions and should be avoided.

Why this answer

MD5 has known collision attacks and should not be used. SHA-256 and SHA-3 are secure. SHA-1 is also deprecated but not an option.

496
MCQhard

A global enterprise with over 20,000 endpoints has been using Cisco AMP for Endpoints for two years. They recently migrated to a new SIEM and want to forward AMP events in near real-time. The security operations team notices that the SIEM is receiving duplicate events for the same file execution, causing alert fatigue. The AMP console shows that the 'Send to Syslog' action is enabled on two different policies, and both policies are applied to the same groups of endpoints. The team also uses the AMP APIs to pull data. The network engineer wants to eliminate duplicate events without losing any critical alerts. Which course of action should the engineer take?

A.Disable the AMP API to stop duplicates from multiple data sources.
B.Increase the event detection interval to reduce the number of events generated.
C.Remove the 'Send to Syslog' action from one of the two policies.
D.Review the group hierarchy and ensure each endpoint is assigned to a single policy that includes the syslog action.
AnswerD

Eliminates duplicate policy application.

Why this answer

Duplicate events occur because the same set of endpoints is covered by two different policies both with the 'Send to Syslog' action enabled. By reviewing the group hierarchy and ensuring each endpoint is assigned to a single policy that includes the syslog action, you eliminate duplicates while still forwarding all events. Option A (disable API) does not affect syslog duplicates; the API is a separate data source.

Option B (increase detection interval) would not deduplicate events; it only changes the rate of detection. Option C (remove syslog action from one policy) might still cause duplicates if the other policy still applies to the same endpoints, and it could also affect other security settings in that policy. The proper approach is to maintain a clean policy assignment hierarchy.

497
MCQhard

A financial services company uses a multi-cloud strategy with workloads in AWS and Azure. They must comply with PCI DSS, which requires encryption of cardholder data at rest and in transit. The security team has implemented the following: 1) AWS S3 buckets use server-side encryption with AWS KMS (SSE-KMS). 2) Azure Blob Storage uses Azure Storage Service Encryption (SSE) with Azure Key Vault. 3) All traffic between VPCs and VNets uses IPsec VPN tunnels. During an audit, the assessor notes that data stored in AWS S3 is encrypted with a key that is also used for a development environment. Additionally, logs from Azure Blob Storage are accessible to a group of developers with read-only permissions. Which action should the security team take to address the compliance gaps?

A.Change the encryption method to AWS S3 SSE-C and Azure client-side encryption to maintain separate keys.
B.Implement a cloud DLP solution to monitor access to encrypted data and alert on unauthorized use.
C.Use a third-party VPN appliance to ensure encryption in transit between all cloud environments.
D.Create separate KMS keys for production and development in AWS, and restrict Azure Blob Storage log access to only authorized security auditors.
AnswerD

Separate keys satisfy PCI DSS requirement for key separation; restricting log access meets access control requirements.

Why this answer

PCI DSS requires strict separation of cryptographic keys between production and non-production environments, and logging access must be restricted to authorized personnel. Using the same KMS key for production S3 data and a development environment violates this requirement, and granting developers read-only access to Azure Blob Storage logs exposes sensitive audit data. Creating separate KMS keys for production and development in AWS ensures key isolation, while restricting Azure Blob Storage log access to only authorized security auditors enforces the principle of least privilege required by PCI DSS.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between encryption methods (SSE-S3, SSE-KMS, SSE-C) and key management controls, leading candidates to focus on encryption algorithms rather than the PCI DSS requirement for key separation and access control to audit logs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing to SSE-C or client-side encryption does not address the key reuse issue (the same key could still be used) and introduces key management complexity without solving the access control problem for logs. Option B is wrong because a cloud DLP solution monitors data patterns but does not enforce cryptographic key separation or restrict log access; it is a detective control, not a corrective one for the specific compliance gaps. Option C is wrong because the existing IPsec VPN tunnels already provide encryption in transit between VPCs and VNets; the audit findings are about key reuse and log access, not about the encryption method for data in transit.

498
MCQmedium

Which Cisco Umbrella feature provides protection against malicious domains by blocking DNS requests to known bad sites?

A.Cloud Proxy
B.DNS Security
C.Secure Web Gateway
D.ThousandEyes
AnswerB

DNS security is the core of Umbrella's protection, blocking malicious domains at the DNS layer.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella SIG uses DNS security to block requests to malicious domains.

499
Matchingmedium

Match each Cisco security solution to its primary use case.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Next-generation firewall and IPS

DNS-layer security and web filtering

Endpoint threat detection and response

Network access control and policy enforcement

Network traffic analysis and anomaly detection

Why these pairings

Cisco ASA is a firewall/VPN solution, Firepower is NGFW/IPS, and ISE handles network access control. Common confusions involve mixing ASA with ISE or Firepower with Umbrella.

500
MCQhard

A security engineer is configuring Cisco WSA in explicit proxy mode. Which traffic interception method is being used when each endpoint browser is configured with the proxy address?

A.WCCP redirect
B.Policy-Based Routing
C.Explicit proxy
D.Transparent proxy
AnswerC

Explicit proxy requires the client to be configured to use the proxy.

Why this answer

Explicit proxy requires manual browser configuration; transparent proxy uses WCCP or PBR.

501
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are core components of the Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) for policy enforcement?

Select 2 answers
A.Active Directory Integration
B.EAP-TLS
C.Policy Service Node (PSN)
D.Firepower Threat Defense
E.Network Access Device (NAD)
AnswersA, C

ISE integrates with Active Directory to retrieve user and group information for policy.

Why this answer

The Policy Service Node (PSN) is responsible for policy decision and enforcement, and Active Directory integration is a key component for identity mapping. NAD (Network Access Device) is an external device that ISE controls, not a component of ISE itself. EAP-TLS is an authentication protocol, and Firepower is a separate security product.

502
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are true about MACsec?

Select 2 answers
A.It requires a PKI
B.It uses IEEE 802.1AE standard
C.It provides data confidentiality only
D.It is used for WLAN security
E.It operates at Layer 2
AnswersB, E

MACsec is defined by IEEE 802.1AE.

Why this answer

MACsec is defined by the IEEE 802.1AE standard, which specifies a security protocol for providing data confidentiality, integrity, and origin authenticity at Layer 2. It operates directly on Ethernet frames, encrypting the payload while preserving the frame header for transparent forwarding. This makes option B correct because the standard is the foundational reference for MACsec.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that MACsec is a Layer 3 or application-layer security protocol, but the trap here is that candidates confuse it with IPsec (Layer 3) or WLAN security (Layer 2 but wireless), when MACsec is strictly a Layer 2 wired Ethernet security standard.

503
MCQeasy

Which Cisco Firepower management option allows direct device management without a separate server, using a web interface on the FTD itself?

A.ASDM
B.CLI
C.FDM
D.FMC
AnswerC

Correct. FDM provides on-box management via a web interface.

Why this answer

FDM (Firepower Device Manager) is the on-box management solution for FTD, running directly on the device.

504
MCQhard

An engineer is implementing Cisco ISE posture assessment for corporate Windows laptops. The requirement: endpoints that are missing critical Microsoft security patches must be quarantined in a remediation VLAN. The ISE posture policy uses an 'Application Condition' to check for the patch. However, some laptops with missing patches are still allowed access. During testing, the engineer notices that the posture agent reports 'NAC Agent: Posture Unknown' for those laptops. What is the most likely cause?

A.The posture agent software is outdated
B.The missing patches are not on the ISE patch list
C.The ISE server is unreachable from the client VLAN
D.The authorization policy does not include a posture profile
AnswerD

Without a posture profile in the authorization result, the client does not receive instructions to perform posture assessment, leading to 'Posture Unknown'.

Why this answer

Posture Unknown indicates that the posture assessment did not complete. This often occurs when the authorization policy does not include a posture profile, so ISE does not issue a posture requirement to the agent, and the agent remains in an unknown state. Option D correctly identifies this cause.

Option A (outdated agent) could cause other issues but typically not Posture Unknown. Option B (patches not on ISE list) would lead to non-compliance, not unknown. Option C (ISE unreachable) would cause authentication failure entirely.

505
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are key components of Cisco's Cloud Security architecture? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Cisco Duo
B.Cisco Catalyst switches
C.Cisco Secure Firewall (virtual)
D.Cisco Meraki access points
E.Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics (Stealthwatch Cloud)
AnswersA, C, E

Duo provides multi-factor authentication for cloud access.

Why this answer

Cisco Duo is a key component of Cisco's Cloud Security architecture because it provides multi-factor authentication (MFA) as a cloud-delivered service, enforcing zero-trust access policies for users connecting to cloud applications and resources. It integrates with various identity providers and applications via SAML, RADIUS, and OAuth, ensuring that only authenticated and authorized users gain access, which is fundamental to securing cloud environments.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between cloud-managed hardware (like Meraki APs) and actual cloud security architecture components, so candidates mistakenly select Meraki access points because they are 'cloud-managed,' but they are not part of the cloud security architecture—they are endpoint connectivity devices.

506
Multi-Selectmedium

A company deploys Cisco ISE for network access control. They need to allow guests to access the internet via a self-registration portal. Which two components must be configured? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.EAP-TLS authentication
B.Self-registration portal
C.Guest VLAN on the authenticator
D.Posture assessment for guests
E.MAB for guest devices
AnswersB, C

Self-registration portal allows guests to create their own credentials.

Why this answer

Guest access in ISE requires a sponsor portal (for approval) or self-registration portal, and integration with the network devices (switches/WLCs) for guest VLAN assignment.

507
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring Cisco ESA to protect against Business Email Compromise (BEC) attacks. Which TWO of the following features are most effective in detecting and mitigating BEC?

Select 2 answers
A.Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
B.DMARC verification
C.SenderBase reputation
D.Outbreak filters
E.AMP for Email
AnswersA, B

DLP can detect and block sensitive data sent to unauthorized recipients, a common BEC goal.

Why this answer

BEC attacks often involve spoofed or compromised accounts. DMARC helps prevent domain spoofing, and DLP can detect sensitive data being sent to unauthorized recipients. FTL (Forged Email Detection) is also relevant, but DMARC and DLP are standard ESA features for BEC.

508
Multi-Selectmedium

Which two controls are considered part of a zero-trust architecture for cloud access? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Multi-factor authentication for all cloud access
B.Static firewall rules based on IP addresses
C.Permanent privileged role assignments
D.Network-based VPN for all users
E.Conditional access policies based on user and device
AnswersA, E

MFA is a key zero-trust control.

Why this answer

Zero trust relies on identity verification (MFA) and granular access policies (conditional access) rather than network location.

509
MCQmedium

A company deploys a Cisco ASAv in AWS for VPN termination. They need to enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA) for remote access VPN users. Which Cisco solution integrates with ASAv to provide MFA?

A.Cisco Duo
B.Cisco Umbrella
C.Cisco ISE
D.Cisco Cloudlock
AnswerA

Duo integrates with ASAv for MFA via RADIUS or other methods.

Why this answer

Cisco Duo is the correct solution because it is a cloud-based MFA platform that integrates directly with the Cisco ASAv via the AnyConnect VPN client or the ASA's authentication proxy. Duo acts as a RADIUS or LDAP proxy, intercepting authentication requests and prompting users for a second factor (e.g., push notification, OTP) after primary credentials are validated. This provides the required multi-factor authentication for remote access VPN users without requiring additional on-premises infrastructure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Cisco ISE's ability to enforce MFA policies with it being a native MFA provider, when in fact ISE requires an external MFA solution like Duo to actually generate and validate second-factor tokens.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Cisco Umbrella) is wrong because it is a cloud-delivered DNS security and web filtering solution, not an MFA platform; it does not provide second-factor authentication for VPN logins. Option C (Cisco ISE) is wrong because while ISE can enforce MFA via integration with Duo or other identity providers, it is a policy and access control platform that requires significant on-premises deployment and does not natively provide MFA itself—it relies on external MFA services. Option D (Cisco Cloudlock) is wrong because it is a cloud access security broker (CASB) focused on protecting cloud applications and data, not on authenticating VPN users with multi-factor authentication.

510
MCQeasy

A small business uses Cisco Umbrella to protect its 50 employees. One employee reports that they cannot access a specific website (www.example.com) that is required for their work. The administrator checks the Umbrella dashboard and sees that the domain is categorized as 'Social Networking' and is blocked by the company's policy. However, the employee argues that the website is actually a business tool. The administrator verifies that the website is indeed legitimate. What is the best course of action to restore access while maintaining security?

A.Contact Cisco Umbrella support to re-categorize the domain.
B.Disable the 'Social Networking' category blocking policy.
C.Create a policy override to allow the specific domain while keeping the category blocked.
D.Remove the user from the Umbrella policy entirely.
AnswerC

Targeted exception.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella allows administrators to create per-domain policy overrides that bypass the category-based block for a specific domain while keeping the broader category (e.g., 'Social Networking') blocked for all other domains. This approach restores access to the legitimate business tool without weakening the overall security posture by disabling the entire category or removing the user from policy enforcement.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that category-based blocking can be fine-tuned with per-domain overrides rather than requiring category reclassification or disabling the entire category, tempting candidates to choose the simpler but less secure options like disabling the category or removing the user from policy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because contacting Cisco Umbrella support to re-categorize the domain is unnecessary and time-consuming; the domain is correctly categorized as 'Social Networking' based on its content, and the issue is a false positive for this specific business need, not a categorization error. Option B is wrong because disabling the entire 'Social Networking' category blocking policy would allow access to all social networking sites, significantly increasing the attack surface and violating the company's security policy. Option D is wrong because removing the user from the Umbrella policy entirely would strip all web filtering protection for that employee, exposing them to malicious sites and defeating the purpose of using Umbrella.

511
MCQeasy

A hospital uses Cisco ESA for email security. The compliance team requires that all emails containing protected health information (PHI) be encrypted before leaving the organization. The administrator has configured a content filter that matches emails containing patterns like 'Patient ID: [0-9]{9}' and sends them to the encryption service. However, some encrypted emails are being rejected by the recipient's mail server because the encryption is applied after the email has already been processed. What is the most likely reason for this issue?

A.The encryption action is configured as 'deliver then encrypt' instead of 'encrypt then deliver'.
B.The content filter is only applied to incoming emails, not outgoing.
C.The recipient's mail server does not support the encryption protocol used.
D.The email exceeds the maximum size limit for encryption.
AnswerA

Order of actions matters.

Why this answer

Cisco ESA processes emails through a series of mail policies and content filters before delivery. If the encryption action is configured as 'deliver then encrypt', the email is first sent to the recipient's mail server, and then encryption is attempted as a separate, asynchronous action. This means the email leaves the organization unencrypted, and the recipient's server may reject it if it expects encryption from the start.

The correct configuration should be 'encrypt then deliver', which ensures the email is encrypted before it is queued for delivery, preventing rejection due to unencrypted content.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'deliver then encrypt' and 'encrypt then deliver' as a common misconfiguration, where candidates assume encryption is always applied before delivery without checking the order of actions in the content filter or mail policy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because content filters in Cisco ESA are applied based on the mail policy (incoming or outgoing), and the scenario explicitly states the requirement is for emails leaving the organization, so the filter would be applied to outgoing emails, not incoming. Option C is wrong because the issue described is that encryption is applied after the email has already been processed, not that the recipient's server lacks support for the encryption protocol; if the protocol were unsupported, the rejection would occur regardless of timing. Option D is wrong because Cisco ESA does not have a maximum size limit for encryption that would cause rejection after processing; size limits typically trigger a different action (e.g., bounce or skip) before delivery, not a post-processing rejection.

512
MCQmedium

An engineer wants to configure NAT on a Cisco ASA such that multiple internal hosts share a single public IP address when accessing the internet. Which NAT type should be used?

A.Static NAT
B.Dynamic NAT
C.Identity NAT
D.PAT (overload)
AnswerD

PAT overloads a single IP address using port numbers.

Why this answer

PAT (Port Address Translation) or NAT overload allows multiple internal hosts to share a single public IP by using unique port numbers.

513
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid approaches to mitigate ARP spoofing attacks on a switched network?

Select 2 answers
A.Enable BPDU Guard on all switchports
B.Enable Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on VLANs
C.Enable IP Source Guard on untrusted ports
D.Enable Port Security on all access ports
E.Enable DHCP Snooping globally
AnswersB, C

DAI validates ARP packets and drops invalid ones.

Why this answer

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network. It relies on a DHCP snooping binding database to map IP addresses to MAC addresses, and it drops ARP packets that have invalid IP-to-MAC bindings, thereby preventing ARP spoofing attacks on a switched network.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the dependency chain: candidates may think DHCP Snooping alone mitigates ARP spoofing, but it only provides the database; DAI is the feature that actually enforces ARP validation.

514
MCQmedium

An organization uses Cisco ISE for guest access. They want to allow guests to create their own accounts through a web portal while requiring approval from a sponsor before network access is granted. Which guest access method should be configured?

A.Hotspot guest access
B.Self-registration with sponsor approval
C.Self-registration without approval
D.Sponsor portal
AnswerB

This allows guests to register themselves and then requires sponsor approval.

Why this answer

Self-registration with sponsor approval allows guests to create accounts, but access is only granted after a sponsor approves the request. This is a common guest access scenario in ISE.

515
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential intrusion and suspects that the IPS is missing some attacks (false negatives). Which two factors can contribute to false negatives in signature-based IPS? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The attack uses a new exploit for which no signature exists.
B.The IPS is in inline mode and blocks malicious traffic.
C.The traffic is encrypted and the IPS cannot inspect the payload.
D.The signature threshold is set too low.
E.The IPS is configured to drop packets that match a signature.
AnswersA, C

Correct. Signature-based detection cannot detect unknown attacks without a matching signature.

Why this answer

False negatives occur when the IPS fails to detect an actual attack. Common causes include outdated signatures, encrypted traffic that cannot be inspected, and evasion techniques like fragmentation or encoding that the IPS cannot reassemble. Also, if the sensor is in passive mode and misses traffic due to asymmetric routing, it can cause false negatives.

516
MCQeasy

A company is moving its data to AWS and wants to use Cisco Cloudlock for cloud access security broker (CASB) capabilities. Which deployment mode is required for Cloudlock to inspect traffic for shadow IT discovery?

A.Proxy-based (forward proxy)
B.API-based
C.Log collection
D.Reverse proxy
AnswerB

Cloudlock uses API connections to cloud providers to scan data at rest for shadow IT.

Why this answer

For shadow IT discovery, Cloudlock uses an API-based deployment mode to connect directly to cloud service providers (e.g., AWS, Office 365) via their APIs. This allows Cloudlock to pull metadata, user activity logs, and application usage data without requiring traffic redirection, enabling identification of unsanctioned cloud applications. Proxy-based modes are not used for shadow IT discovery because they require traffic to be routed through the proxy, which is not feasible for cloud-to-cloud traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that proxy-based modes are required for all CASB functions, but for shadow IT discovery, the API-based mode is specifically designed to work without traffic interception by querying cloud provider APIs directly.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because proxy-based (forward proxy) deployment requires traffic to be explicitly routed through the proxy, which is impractical for discovering shadow IT in cloud environments where traffic may not traverse the corporate network. Option C is wrong because log collection relies on ingesting logs from existing infrastructure (e.g., firewalls, web proxies) and does not provide the direct API integration needed for real-time shadow IT discovery across multiple cloud providers. Option D is wrong because reverse proxy is used to protect and inspect traffic to sanctioned applications (e.g., as a web application firewall), not for discovering unsanctioned cloud services.

517
MCQhard

An organization uses Azure for its cloud workloads. To protect web applications from common exploits like SQL injection and cross-site scripting, they need to deploy a web application firewall (WAF) that integrates with Azure Application Gateway. Which Azure WAF SKU should they choose?

A.Azure Firewall Premium
B.Azure DDoS Protection
C.Azure Application Gateway WAF_v2
D.Azure WAF on Azure Front Door
AnswerC

WAF_v2 SKU of Application Gateway includes WAF capabilities.

Why this answer

Azure WAF can be deployed with Application Gateway (WAF_v2 SKU) or Front Door. The WAF_v2 SKU of Application Gateway provides integrated WAF capabilities.

518
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is deploying Cisco Umbrella SIG to protect against malware and phishing. The security team wants to ensure that even if a user clicks on a malicious link in an email, the traffic is inspected and blocked if needed. Which TWO features of Umbrella can be used to provide this protection?

Select 2 answers
A.SSL/TLS decryption on the proxy
B.ThousandEyes agents
C.Cloud proxy with URL filtering
D.DNS security layer
E.AMP for mobile devices
AnswersC, D

Inspects web traffic and can block malicious URLs even if the domain is not blocked by DNS.

Why this answer

DNS security blocks malicious domains at the DNS lookup stage, and cloud proxy can inspect HTTP/HTTPS traffic to block malicious content even if DNS is bypassed.

519
Multi-Selecthard

A Cisco FTD is configured with an access control policy that includes a rule to allow traffic from a specific source subnet. However, traffic is being blocked. Which TWO possible causes should be checked?

Select 2 answers
A.The intrusion policy is set to 'No Inspection'.
B.The default action is set to 'Allow'.
C.The source subnet is not correctly defined in the network object.
D.The allow rule is placed after a block rule that matches the same traffic.
E.The rule has a destination port that is incorrect.
AnswersC, D

If the object is incorrect, the rule may not match.

Why this answer

Rule order matters (first match wins) and if an earlier rule blocks the traffic, the allow rule never applies. Also, intrusion policy could block if set to drop.

520
MCQeasy

A Cisco ASA is configured with a site-to-site VPN using IKEv2. Which component defines the encryption and authentication algorithms for the IPsec tunnel?

A.Transform set
B.ISAKMP policy
C.IKEv2 proposal
D.Crypto map
AnswerA

Transform set defines IPsec encryption and authentication.

Why this answer

A transform set specifies the encryption (e.g., AES) and authentication (e.g., SHA) algorithms for IPsec. ISAKMP policy is for IKE phase 1, and crypto map binds the policy to an interface.

521
MCQeasy

A network engineer is troubleshooting an 802.1X deployment where some Windows 10 endpoints fail to authenticate. Logs show that the client sends an EAPoL-Start but never receives an EAP-Request/Identity. The switch port configuration is: interface GigabitEthernet0/1 switchport mode access authentication port-control auto dot1x pae authenticator Which additional command is most likely needed?

A.dot1x reauthentication
B.dot1x system-auth-control
C.spanning-tree portfast
D.dot1x timeout tx-period 3
AnswerB

This global command enables 802.1X authentication on the switch, which is required for the port to process EAPoL messages.

Why this answer

The switch interface is configured for 802.1X with 'authentication port-control auto', but this alone is insufficient. The global command 'dot1x system-auth-control' must be enabled to activate the 802.1X feature on the switch. Without it, the switch ignores EAPoL-Start messages and does not send EAP-Request/Identity.

Option B is correct.

522
Matchingmedium

Match each Cisco ASA feature to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Modular Policy Framework for traffic inspection

High availability with active/standby or active/active

Graphical management interface

Command-line interface for configuration

VPN client for remote access

Why these pairings

The correct matches are: Cut-Through Proxy (user authentication), Failover (high availability), ASDM (web GUI), and Packet Tracer (traffic simulation). Common confusions include mistaking Cut-Through Proxy for application inspection and Failover for multiple contexts.

523
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are required for successful registration of an AMP for Endpoints connector with the cloud?

Select 2 answers
A.A locally installed SQL database for event storage.
B.A proxy server configured in the connector settings.
C.Outbound HTTPS access to the AMP cloud backend servers.
D.A valid registration token obtained from the AMP console.
E.An inbound firewall rule allowing connections from the AMP cloud.
AnswersC, D

The connector communicates with the cloud over HTTPS (port 443).

Why this answer

The AMP for Endpoints connector must establish an outbound HTTPS (TCP/443) connection to the AMP cloud backend servers to communicate telemetry, receive policy updates, and perform health checks. Without this outbound access, the connector cannot register or maintain its connection to the cloud.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that inbound firewall rules are needed for cloud-based security products, but AMP for Endpoints uses a purely outbound model, so candidates mistakenly select option E thinking the cloud must 'push' data to the endpoint.

524
MCQhard

A security analyst is investigating an alert from Cisco Secure Endpoint indicating that an endpoint has been infected with ransomware. The analyst wants to determine the initial infection vector. Which feature of Cisco Secure Endpoint should the analyst use to trace the chain of events leading to the infection?

A.Orbital Advanced Search
B.TETRA traffic analysis
C.Windows Event Viewer integration
D.Device Flow Correlation
AnswerA

Orbital Advanced Search provides retrospective analysis to trace the attack chain.

Why this answer

Orbital Advanced Search is the correct feature because it provides deep forensic visibility into endpoint activity, allowing the analyst to perform advanced queries across files, processes, registry keys, and network connections. This enables tracing the chain of events—such as a malicious email attachment, exploit, or drive-by download—that led to the ransomware infection, by correlating timestamps and process parent-child relationships.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between network-level analysis (TETRA, Device Flow Correlation) and endpoint-level forensic investigation (Orbital), leading candidates to confuse traffic analysis with host-based event chain reconstruction.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because TETRA traffic analysis is a network-based traffic analysis tool used for detecting anomalies in network flows, not for tracing endpoint-level event chains or initial infection vectors. Option C is wrong because Windows Event Viewer integration is a basic log collection method that lacks the advanced querying, cross-system correlation, and forensic depth needed to reconstruct a multi-step attack chain within Cisco Secure Endpoint. Option D is wrong because Device Flow Correlation focuses on correlating network flows between devices to identify lateral movement or C2 communication, not on tracing the initial infection vector on a single endpoint.

525
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE are recommended best practices for deploying Cisco AMP for Endpoints in a large enterprise?

Select 3 answers
A.Configure the policy to block all files with disposition 'Unknown' to prevent zero-day attacks.
B.Deploy the AMP connector to all endpoints, including servers and desktops.
C.Create separate groups for different operating systems and applications to apply tailored policies.
D.Start with 'Audit' or 'Detect' mode to baseline and adjust before enforcing blocks.
E.Set the default policy action to 'Block' for all file types to maximize security from day one.
AnswersB, C, D

Comprehensive coverage is key for endpoint protection.

Why this answer

Deploying the AMP connector to all endpoints, including servers and desktops, ensures comprehensive visibility and protection across the entire enterprise attack surface. Cisco AMP for Endpoints relies on a connector installed on each device to perform file analysis, retrospective detection, and telemetry collection; leaving any endpoint unmonitored creates a blind spot that attackers can exploit. This is a foundational best practice for large-scale deployments to achieve consistent security coverage.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that aggressive blocking (e.g., blocking all 'Unknown' files or setting 'Block' as the default action) is a best practice, when in reality, a phased approach starting with 'Audit' or 'Detect' mode is recommended to avoid breaking production systems and to fine-tune policies based on actual traffic patterns.

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