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Cisco SCOR / CCNP Security Core 350-701 (350-701) — Questions 376450

978 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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376
MCQeasy

Which Cisco product provides privileged access management (PAM) capabilities such as just-in-time access, session recording, and password vaulting through integration with CyberArk?

A.Cisco AMP for Endpoints
B.Cisco ISE
C.Cisco SecureX
D.Cisco Duo
AnswerC

SecureX integrates with CyberArk for PAM features.

Why this answer

Cisco SecureX integrates with CyberArk to provide PAM capabilities, including just-in-time access, session recording, and password vaulting. SecureX is the Cisco platform for threat response and security analytics.

377
MCQeasy

A company uses a SaaS application for customer relationship management. In the cloud shared responsibility model, which security controls are the customer's primary responsibility?

A.Patching the underlying operating system
B.Physical security of the data center
C.Network security for the application servers
D.Data classification and access policies
AnswerD

Data classification and access policies fall under data and access management, which is customer responsibility in SaaS.

Why this answer

In SaaS, the customer is responsible for managing data and access, while the provider handles the underlying infrastructure, application, and OS.

378
MCQmedium

A security team wants to gain visibility into shadow IT usage of SaaS applications and enforce DLP policies for data shared via cloud apps. Which cloud security solution should they deploy?

A.Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway (SIG)
B.Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)
C.Cloud Workload Protection Platform (CWPP)
D.Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
AnswerD

CASB provides visibility, compliance, and security controls for SaaS applications.

Why this answer

A CASB provides visibility, DLP, and threat detection for SaaS applications, helping control shadow IT and protect data.

379
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are true regarding HTTPS decryption on Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA)? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Decryption can be selectively applied based on URL category.
B.The WSA must generate a unique CA certificate that is distributed to clients.
C.Decryption is transparent to the user and does not require any client configuration.
D.HTTPS decryption is enabled by default for all traffic.
E.Decryption can impact WSA performance due to the cryptographic overhead.
AnswersA, B, E

Administrators can choose categories to decrypt or bypass.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA allows administrators to define decryption policies that selectively decrypt HTTPS traffic based on URL categories (e.g., Social Networking, Finance, Health). This granular control enables organizations to balance security inspection with privacy compliance, decrypting only high-risk categories while bypassing sensitive ones like banking or healthcare.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that HTTPS decryption is transparent or automatic, but the trap is that it always requires client-side trust configuration (e.g., installing the WSA's CA certificate) and is never enabled by default.

380
MCQhard

During a cloud migration, an organization notices increased latency in AWS workloads when using Cisco Firepower for traffic inspection. What is the most likely cause?

A.The Firepower instance is undersized for the traffic volume
B.The VPC routing table is misconfigured, causing traffic to hairpin
C.AWS WAF is conflicting with Firepower rules
D.Firepower is inspecting encrypted traffic without SSL decryption
AnswerA

Undersized instance leads to high CPU and latency.

Why this answer

When using Cisco Firepower for traffic inspection in AWS, the Firepower instance must process all traffic traversing the virtual appliance. If the instance type (e.g., m5.large) is undersized relative to the throughput demands (e.g., exceeding 1 Gbps), packet processing will queue, causing increased latency. This is a common scaling issue in cloud migrations where on-premises traffic patterns are replicated without adjusting instance sizing.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that latency in cloud inspection is always due to routing misconfigurations (Option B), but the real trap is that undersized virtual appliances are the primary cause when traffic volume exceeds instance capacity, not network topology errors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a misconfigured VPC routing table causing hairpinning would result in asymmetric routing or packet loss, not simply increased latency, and the symptom would be connectivity failures rather than gradual latency increase. Option C is wrong because AWS WAF operates at Layer 7 (HTTP/HTTPS) and does not conflict with Firepower's network-layer inspection; they can coexist without causing latency unless explicitly chained. Option D is wrong because inspecting encrypted traffic without SSL decryption means Firepower cannot inspect payloads, which reduces CPU load and would not increase latency; latency from encryption inspection only occurs when decryption is enabled.

381
MCQmedium

An administrator configures a Cisco ASA with the following Modular Policy Framework (MPF) commands: class-map type inspect http match any policy-map type inspect http http_policy parameters protocol-violation action reset service-policy http_policy global What is the result of this configuration?

A.Blocks all HTTP traffic globally
B.Enables HTTP deep inspection and logs all HTTP requests
C.Applies the policy only on the inside interface
D.Creates an HTTP inspection policy that resets connections that violate HTTP protocol
AnswerD

The policy-map with protocol-violation action reset will reset connections that do not conform to HTTP standards.

Why this answer

The MPF configuration applies a protocol violation action to HTTP traffic; when a violation is detected, the ASA sends a TCP reset.

382
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is experiencing an increase in spear-phishing attacks targeting executives. Which TWO Cisco ESA features should be configured to mitigate this threat?

Select 2 answers
A.Anti-spam (SenderBase)
B.BEC impersonation protection
C.DMARC verification
D.DLP policies
E.Outbreak Filters
AnswersB, C

Specifically designed to detect impersonation of executives.

Why this answer

IMPERSONATION PROTECTION (BEC) and DMARC verification help detect spoofed executive emails. Outbreak filters and anti-spam may not catch targeted attacks.

383
MCQmedium

An attacker uses a tool to scan a target network for open ports and running services. Which type of reconnaissance does this represent?

A.Active scanning
B.DNS cache poisoning
C.Social engineering
D.Passive OSINT
AnswerA

Correct answer. Active scanning sends packets to the target to identify open ports and services.

Why this answer

Active reconnaissance involves direct interaction with the target, such as port scanning, to gather information.

384
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are authentication methods used for wired network access in Cisco ISE?

Select 2 answers
A.TACACS+
B.NetFlow
C.RADIUS
D.802.1X
E.MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB)
AnswersD, E

802.1X is a standard authentication method for wired and wireless.

Why this answer

Options D and E are correct because 802.1X and MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB) are the primary authentication methods used for wired network access in Cisco ISE. Option A (TACACS+) is used for device administration, not network access. Option B (NetFlow) is a network monitoring tool.

Option C (RADIUS) is a protocol that underpins authentication methods but is not itself an authentication method.

385
Multi-Selecthard

A company is planning to deploy a Zero Trust architecture. Which two principles are fundamental to Zero Trust?

Select 2 answers
A.Single-factor authentication
B.Perimeter-based security
C.Never trust, always verify
D.Least privilege access
E.Implicit trust for internal networks
AnswersC, D

Every access request must be authenticated and authorized.

Why this answer

Zero Trust is based on 'never trust, always verify' and least privilege access.

386
MCQmedium

A security administrator receives an alert that an email with an attachment was blocked by the Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA). The attachment was identified as malware using cloud lookup. Which technology was used to detect the threat?

A.IronPort SenderBase Reputation Score (SBRS)
B.Outbreak Filters
C.Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies
D.AMP for Email with SHA-256 cloud lookup
AnswerD

AMP for Email uses SHA-256 cloud lookups to detect known malware.

Why this answer

Cisco ESA uses Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Email, which performs SHA-256 cloud lookups to detect known malware.

387
MCQhard

An organization discovers that a man-in-the-middle attack was successfully performed using a forged certificate issued by a trusted CA. The legitimate CA’s private key was compromised. Which PKI component was breached?

A.Certification Authority (CA) private key
B.Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responder
C.Registration Authority (RA)
D.Certificate Revocation List (CRL)
AnswerA

The CA private key is used to sign certificates; its compromise allows forging.

Why this answer

The man-in-the-middle attack succeeded due to a forged certificate issued by a trusted CA, which directly implies that the CA's private key was compromised. The CA's private key is the root of trust in a PKI; if it is stolen, an attacker can sign fraudulent certificates that will be trusted by all clients that trust the CA. Without the private key, the attacker could not have created a valid forged certificate.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between components that issue certificates (CA) versus those that verify or manage status (OCSP, RA, CRL), and the trap here is confusing the CA's signing role with the RA's identity-verification role or the OCSP/CRL's status-checking role.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the OCSP responder provides real-time certificate status (valid, revoked, unknown) but does not issue certificates or hold the CA's signing key; compromising it would not allow forging certificates. Option C is wrong because the Registration Authority (RA) is responsible for verifying identity and forwarding certificate requests to the CA, but it does not hold the CA's private key and cannot sign certificates. Option D is wrong because the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is a published list of revoked certificates; compromising it would not enable an attacker to forge new certificates, only to hide revocations.

388
MCQeasy

Which component in an 802.1X deployment is responsible for relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server?

A.Authenticator (switch/WLC)
B.Supplicant
C.Authentication server (ISE)
D.RADIUS proxy
AnswerA

The authenticator relays EAP frames between the supplicant and the authentication server.

Why this answer

The authenticator (typically a switch or wireless LAN controller) acts as an intermediary, forwarding EAP messages between the supplicant and the authentication server (ISE).

389
MCQhard

A security engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella to enforce web security for remote users. The requirement is to block threats by intercepting DNS requests and only perform SSL decryption on specific high-risk categories. Which Umbrella feature should be used for selective SSL inspection?

A.DNS-layer security
B.Secure Internet Gateway (SIG)
C.Intelligent Proxy
D.Umbrella Roaming Client
AnswerC

Intelligent Proxy allows selective proxying and SSL decryption based on policy.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella's Intelligent Proxy can selectively proxy traffic (including SSL inspection) based on categories, URL groups, or other policies. The roaming client enables off-network protection but does not handle selective SSL inspection. SIG includes firewall and proxy but selective inspection is via Intelligent Proxy.

390
MCQmedium

A company wants to implement privileged access management (PAM) to secure administrative credentials. They need a solution that provides just-in-time access and session recording. Which product integrated with Cisco SecureX can fulfill these requirements?

A.CyberArk
B.Cisco Duo
C.Cisco ISE
D.Cisco AMP for Endpoints
AnswerA

Correct. CyberArk provides just-in-time access and session recording.

Why this answer

CyberArk is a leading PAM solution that provides just-in-time access, session recording, and password vaulting. Cisco SecureX can integrate with CyberArk for unified visibility.

391
MCQhard

An analyst reviews an AMP for Endpoints event where a file was detected as malware but later determined to be a false positive. The analyst wants to prevent this file from being flagged in the future. What is the recommended action?

A.Submit the file to Cisco TALOS for reanalysis.
B.Add the file hash to the custom detection list with action 'Allow' or 'Uncategorized'.
C.Disable AMP detection for that file type globally.
D.Change the AMP policy from 'Detect' to 'Audit' for the endpoint.
AnswerB

Custom exceptions override global dispositions, preventing future false positives without affecting other protections.

Why this answer

The recommended action to prevent a known false positive from being flagged again is to add the file's SHA-256 hash to the custom detection list with an 'Allow' or 'Uncategorized' disposition. This overrides the local or cloud-based verdict for that specific file, ensuring AMP for Endpoints treats it as clean without affecting global detection policies.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between global policy changes (like disabling detection or switching to audit mode) and targeted hash-based overrides, expecting candidates to recognize that the most precise and secure fix is to add the specific file hash to a custom allow list.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because submitting the file to TALOS for reanalysis is appropriate for a potential new malware variant, not for a confirmed false positive that has already been analyzed; TALOS reanalysis would not change the local override needed. Option C is wrong because disabling AMP detection for an entire file type globally would create a massive security gap, allowing all files of that type to bypass inspection, which is an extreme and unnecessary measure. Option D is wrong because changing the AMP policy from 'Detect' to 'Audit' for the endpoint would stop blocking all malware on that endpoint, not just the single false positive, and is not a targeted solution.

392
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO are valid options for configuring a switch port to handle authentication failures in an 802.1X environment? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.authentication event no-response action authorize vlan 100
B.dot1x critical profile
C.authentication event server dead action reinitialize
D.authentication port-control force-authorized
E.authentication event fail action authorize vlan 999
AnswersA, E

This is used when the endpoint does not respond to 802.1X (e.g., non-802.1X device).

Why this answer

The 'authentication event no-response action authorize vlan 100' command configures the switch port to place the endpoint into a restricted VLAN (e.g., VLAN 100) when the supplicant fails to respond to 802.1X authentication requests. This is a valid method for handling authentication failures, specifically a 'no-response' scenario, by authorizing the port with a limited-access VLAN instead of denying all traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'no-response' (supplicant silent) and 'fail' (explicit authentication rejection) events, and candidates may incorrectly assume that only 'fail' actions are valid for handling authentication failures, missing that 'no-response' is also a valid failure scenario.

393
Multi-Selecthard

A financial institution uses Cisco ESA and wants to protect against spear phishing attacks targeting executives. The security team configures DMARC with a 'reject' policy for the corporate domain. Additionally, they want to ensure that emails from external sources claiming to be from the CEO are flagged and quarantined. Which THREE security measures should be implemented?

Select 3 answers
A.Outbreak filters
B.Impersonation protection (display name spoofing detection)
C.Anti-phishing filters with machine learning
D.DMARC reject policy
E.Anti-spam with SenderBase
AnswersB, C, D

Detects when the display name is spoofed even if the domain is legitimate.

Why this answer

DMARC reject policy handles spoofed domains; impersonation protection can catch display name spoofing; and anti-phishing filters with machine learning detect advanced phishing attempts.

394
MCQmedium

An organization uses AWS and Azure. They deploy Cisco Secure Workload to enforce microsegmentation. They discover that after deploying agents on EC2 instances, some traffic is misclassified due to overlapping IPs across multiple VPCs. Which configuration change best resolves this?

A.Reassign unique labels for each workload
B.Enable VRF-like segmentation within Secure Workload
C.Use Cloud Connector to map instance metadata
D.Configure separate enforcement scopes for each VPC
AnswerC

Cloud Connector enriches workload identity with cloud metadata, disambiguating overlapping IPs.

Why this answer

C is correct because Cloud Connector in Cisco Secure Workload (formerly Tetration) integrates with AWS and Azure APIs to retrieve instance metadata, such as VPC ID, subnet, and instance ID. This metadata allows Secure Workload to uniquely identify workloads even when they have overlapping IP addresses across different VPCs, enabling accurate traffic classification and policy enforcement.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that labels or enforcement scopes alone can solve IP overlap issues, but the correct answer requires understanding that cloud-native metadata integration (Cloud Connector) is the designed solution for disambiguating overlapping IPs in multi-cloud environments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reassigning unique labels for each workload does not resolve the underlying issue of overlapping IPs; labels are user-defined tags for grouping, not a mechanism to disambiguate IP address conflicts across VPCs. Option B is wrong because VRF-like segmentation within Secure Workload is not a native feature; Secure Workload uses software-defined segmentation based on labels and metadata, not VRF instances, and enabling such a feature would not directly map overlapping IPs to their correct VPC context. Option D is wrong because configuring separate enforcement scopes for each VPC does not automatically resolve IP overlap; enforcement scopes define policy boundaries but still rely on unique workload identification, which requires metadata mapping to distinguish workloads with identical IPs in different VPCs.

395
MCQhard

A company is deploying Cisco Umbrella with the Intelligent Proxy feature. Under what condition does the Intelligent Proxy perform SSL decryption?

A.For all web traffic from the roaming client
B.Only for traffic to websites with low reputation or in high-risk categories
C.Only for traffic using non-standard ports
D.Only when the user is on-network
AnswerB

Intelligent Proxy decrypts only when risk is high or policy dictates.

Why this answer

Intelligent Proxy selectively decrypts SSL traffic for high-risk categories or domains, based on policy, to inspect content while preserving user privacy for safe sites.

396
MCQmedium

A laptop fails to authenticate via 802.1X on a Cisco switch. The switch logs show: 'Authentication failed for user 'jdoe' on interface GigabitEthernet1/0/24: EAP session timeout.' What is the most likely cause?

A.The supplicant is using an incorrect EAP method.
B.The wired authentication timeout on the switch is too low.
C.The RADIUS server is unreachable.
D.The switch is not configured with a RADIUS server.
AnswerB

Low timeout setting can cause the session to time out before authentication completes.

Why this answer

The 'EAP session timeout' error specifically indicates that the authentication process did not complete within the configured timeout period on the switch. Option A is incorrect because an incorrect EAP method would typically result in an EAP failure or NAK, not a timeout. Option C is incorrect because an unreachable RADIUS server would cause a different error, such as 'RADIUS server timeout' or 'No response from server'.

Option D is incorrect because if the switch had no RADIUS server configured, it would not even attempt 802.1X authentication or would fall back to other methods.

397
MCQhard

A security engineer is configuring Cisco ISE to enforce SGT-based access control. The engineer creates an SGACL on the switch that permits traffic from SGT 10 to SGT 20. However, traffic from SGT 10 to SGT 20 is still being dropped. The engineer verifies that the SGTs are correctly assigned. What is a possible reason for the drop?

A.SXP is not configured
B.The CTRL protocol is not enabled
C.The PAC on the switch is expired
D.There is a deny SGACL with a higher priority that matches the traffic
AnswerD

SGACLs are evaluated in order; a deny rule earlier in the list would override the permit rule.

Why this answer

Cisco ISE enforces SGT-based access control using Security Group ACLs (SGACLs) that are evaluated in priority order. Even if a permit SGACL exists for SGT 10 to SGT 20, a deny SGACL with a higher priority (lower sequence number) that matches the same traffic will take precedence and cause the traffic to be dropped. The engineer must check the full SGACL list and their sequence numbers on the switch to identify conflicting rules.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that SGACLs are processed in priority order (lowest sequence number first) and that a higher-priority deny rule can silently override a lower-priority permit rule, leading candidates to incorrectly assume the issue is with SGT assignment or protocol configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SXP (SGT Exchange Protocol) is used to propagate SGT bindings between network devices, not to enforce SGACL policies; if SGTs are already correctly assigned, SXP is not required for the switch to apply the SGACL. Option B is wrong because the CTRL protocol (Cisco TrustSec Control Protocol) is used for dynamic SGT assignment and environment data download, but the switch can still enforce locally configured SGACLs without it. Option C is wrong because an expired PAC (Protected Access Credential) would prevent the switch from authenticating to ISE or downloading policies, but the engineer has already verified that SGTs are correctly assigned, indicating the switch is already authenticated and has the necessary policies.

398
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to block the download of executable files (.exe) via HTTP using Cisco WSA. Which approach is most effective?

A.Enable Anti-Malware scanning for executables
B.Configure a Web Reputation policy to block low-reputation sites
C.Create a URL filtering policy with action 'Block' for the category 'Executable Files'
D.Use a PAC file to bypass the proxy for executable downloads
AnswerC

WSA's URL filtering can block based on MIME type of file downloads.

Why this answer

Cisco WSA's URL filtering policies include a predefined content category called 'Executable Files' that specifically targets file extensions like .exe, .dll, and .msi. By setting the action to 'Block' for this category, the administrator can prevent HTTP downloads of executable files without affecting other traffic. This is the most direct and effective method as it operates at the application layer, inspecting the URL path for file extensions.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between content filtering (blocking by file type) and security scanning (detecting threats), leading candidates to mistakenly choose Anti-Malware scanning when the goal is to block all executable downloads regardless of maliciousness.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Anti-Malware scanning only detects and blocks malicious executables after the download is initiated, not preventing the download itself; it also requires a license and may allow benign executables through. Option B is wrong because Web Reputation policies score websites based on risk, not file types; a low-reputation site might still host legitimate executables, and a high-reputation site could serve malicious .exe files. Option D is wrong because a PAC file only controls proxy routing (bypassing the proxy for certain destinations) and does not block content; it would allow executable downloads to go directly to the internet without inspection.

399
MCQeasy

An administrator is troubleshooting authentication failures for VPN users. The RADIUS server is reachable via ping, but users receive 'AAA authentication failed'. Which command should be used to test communication with the RADIUS server?

A.aaa new-model
B.show radius server statistics
C.test aaa group radius user password
D.debug radius authentication
AnswerC

This command simulates RADIUS authentication to verify server reachability and credentials.

Why this answer

The 'test aaa group radius user password' command is specifically designed to simulate an authentication attempt against a RADIUS server, allowing the administrator to verify whether the RADIUS server is properly processing credentials. Since the RADIUS server is reachable via ping but users still fail, this command isolates whether the issue lies in the AAA authentication process itself, such as incorrect shared secret, user credentials, or RADIUS attribute mismatches.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse reachability (ping) with successful AAA authentication, or they select 'debug radius authentication' thinking it will test the server, when in fact debug commands only observe traffic and do not initiate a test transaction.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'aaa new-model' enables AAA on the device but does not test existing communication with a RADIUS server; it is a configuration command, not a diagnostic one. Option B is wrong because 'show radius server statistics' displays historical counters for RADIUS transactions (e.g., timeouts, retransmissions) but does not perform a live authentication test to validate credentials or shared secret. Option D is wrong because 'debug radius authentication' enables real-time logging of RADIUS exchanges, which can help observe failures but does not actively test authentication; it requires a live user attempt and can be disruptive in production due to high CPU usage.

400
MCQmedium

Which Cisco product provides advanced malware protection for endpoints, including file analysis and retrospective security?

A.Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE)
B.Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA)
C.Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA)
D.Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP)
AnswerD

AMP provides endpoint protection and file analysis.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Endpoints provides endpoint protection with advanced malware analysis.

401
MCQhard

A Cisco FTD device is configured with an SSL decryption rule using 'Decrypt - Known Key'. In which scenario is this action appropriate?

A.Decrypting traffic to any HTTPS site using a self-signed certificate
B.Decrypting traffic to an external website
C.Decrypting traffic without inspecting the certificate
D.Decrypting traffic to an internal server whose private key is imported
AnswerD

Known Key is used when you have the server's private key.

Why this answer

Decrypt - Known Key is used when the firewall has the server's private key, typically for inbound connections to an internal server.

402
Multi-Selecthard

A security team is investigating an email threat that bypassed the Cisco ESA. The email appears to be from the CFO asking for a wire transfer. Which THREE of the following are characteristics of this attack? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.It is a type of phishing known as Business Email Compromise (BEC).
B.It is easily blocked by anti-spam filters.
C.It impersonates a senior executive to request financial transactions.
D.It relies on social engineering rather than technical exploits.
E.It uses malware attachments to compromise the system.
AnswersA, C, D

BEC is a targeted phishing attack impersonating executives.

Why this answer

This is a Business Email Compromise (BEC) attack, which often involves spoofing, impersonation of executives, and social engineering to request financial transfers.

403
MCQhard

A network administrator is configuring Cisco ISE for posture assessment. A Windows laptop connects to the network and passes 802.1X authentication. ISE then checks if the antivirus software is running and if the OS patches are up to date. If the posture check fails, ISE should dynamically restrict the endpoint to a remediation VLAN. Which mechanism allows ISE to change the VLAN assignment after authentication without requiring the user to reauthenticate?

A.Change of Authorization (CoA)
B.802.1X reauthentication
C.MAB reauthentication
D.RADIUS Disconnect
AnswerA

CoA enables dynamic change of authorization attributes like VLAN or ACL after authentication.

Why this answer

Change of Authorization (CoA) allows ISE to dynamically change the authorization state (e.g., VLAN or ACL) on the network device after the initial authentication. This is used to enforce posture policies without requiring the endpoint to reauthenticate.

404
MCQmedium

A company is deploying Cisco Secure Web (WSA) and wants to integrate with Active Directory for user-based policies. The proxy is in transparent mode. Which technology allows the WSA to identify users transparently without requiring client configuration?

A.Explicit proxy configuration on browsers
B.WCCP redirect
C.Transparent user identification (TUI)
D.Kerberos authentication proxy
AnswerC

TUI allows the WSA to identify users transparently via AD integration.

Why this answer

Transparent user identification (TUI) on the WSA uses technologies like NTLM authentication or LDAP to identify users without explicit proxy configuration. It can leverage Active Directory and transparently capture user credentials via HTTP authentication or other means.

405
MCQeasy

Which Snort rule action causes the FTD to drop a packet and generate an alert?

A.reject
B.alert
C.drop
D.pass
AnswerC

Correct; drop action drops the packet and generates an alert.

Why this answer

The 'alert' action generates an alert but does not drop; 'drop' drops and alerts; 'reject' drops and sends TCP RST; 'pass' ignores the packet.

406
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common security objectives of the Cisco TrustSec solution? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Microsegmentation of network traffic
B.VPN termination for remote users
C.End-to-end data encryption
D.Network topology discovery
E.Role-based access control using security group tags (SGTs)
AnswersA, E

TrustSec allows granular segmentation based on security groups.

Why this answer

Cisco TrustSec uses Security Group Tags (SGTs) to enforce microsegmentation by classifying traffic based on user, device, or role rather than IP addresses. This allows granular policy enforcement at the access layer, reducing lateral movement within the network. Microsegmentation is a core security objective of TrustSec, enabling dynamic, identity-based access control.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between TrustSec's microsegmentation (using SGTs) and encryption (e.g., IPsec or MACsec), so the trap here is assuming that TrustSec provides end-to-end encryption when it actually focuses on access control and segmentation, not data confidentiality.

407
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are recommended best practices for configuring Cisco AMP for Endpoints to minimize false positives while maintaining strong detection?

Select 3 answers
A.Set scan level to maximum for all file types
B.Enable file reputation scanning with cloud lookups
C.Use application blocking with a whitelist of approved software
D.Disable exploit prevention to reduce false positives
E.Configure exclusions for directories where trusted software is installed
AnswersB, C, E

File reputation scanning leverages cloud intelligence to classify files, reducing false positives from known good files.

Why this answer

Options B, C, and E are correct. Option B (File reputation scanning with cloud lookups) validates files against cloud intelligence, allowing known good files to reduce false positives. Option C (Application blocking with a whitelist of approved software) ensures only trusted applications run, minimizing false alerts.

Option E (Exclusions for directories where trusted software is installed) prevents scanning of benign files, lowering false positives while maintaining detection for unknowns. Option A is incorrect because setting scan level to maximum for all file types increases false positives without significant detection gain. Option D is incorrect because disabling exploit prevention weakens security and is not recommended.

408
Multi-Selecthard

An organization uses Cisco Firepower NGFW to enforce content security policies. The security team wants to block all social media traffic during business hours but allow access during lunch breaks. Additionally, they want to detect and alert on any SSL connections to unknown destinations that might indicate data exfiltration. Which THREE capabilities of the NGFW should be combined to achieve these objectives?

Select 3 answers
A.Intrusion prevention system (IPS)
B.URL filtering based on time schedules
C.Application control
D.TLS server identity discovery
E.AMP file scanning
AnswersB, C, D

Allows blocking social media categories during specific hours.

Why this answer

URL filtering blocks categories by time, application control enforces policies per app, and TLS server identity discovery detects unknown destinations in encrypted traffic.

409
MCQhard

A security architect is designing a zero-trust model for cloud access. Which of the following is a core principle of zero trust in the cloud?

A.Identity is the new perimeter
B.All traffic must be inspected by a next-generation firewall
C.Network segmentation is the primary security control
D.VPNs are required for all cloud access
AnswerA

Zero trust treats identity as the primary security boundary.

Why this answer

Zero trust assumes no implicit trust and requires identity verification for every access request, using identity as the primary perimeter.

410
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO are common causes for CoA (Change of Authorization) failures in a Cisco ISE deployment? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The switch does not support the CoA protocol.
B.The ISE node serving the CoA is not in the same subnet as the switch.
C.The RADIUS shared secret between ISE and switch is mismatched.
D.The switch port is configured with 'authentication periodic'.
E.The endpoint is connected through a wireless controller that proxies RADIUS.
AnswersA, C

Correct. The switch must support CoA (RFC 3576) for CoA packets to be processed. If it does not, CoA operations will fail.

Why this answer

Options A and C are correct. The switch must support CoA (RFC 3576) for the protocol to work, and the RADIUS shared secret between ISE and the switch must match for CoA packets to be accepted. Option B is not a common cause because ISE and the switch can be in different subnets as long as network connectivity exists.

Option D is incorrect because 'authentication periodic' is a feature that triggers reauthentication, not a cause of CoA failure. Option E is incorrect because a wireless controller that proxies RADIUS can still forward CoA packets.

411
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees that the file invoice_2024.exe was blocked by both Cisco AMP and ESA. However, a user claims the attachment was delivered. What is the most likely cause?

A.The ESA was not configured to use AMP for file reputation.
B.The ESA was configured to 'Deliver then alert' for malware detected by AMP.
C.The AMP file reputation check was not performed due to an ACL misconfiguration.
D.The file was whitelisted in the AMP policy.
AnswerB

In 'Deliver then alert' mode, the email is delivered and an alert is sent, explaining why the user received it.

Why this answer

When Cisco ESA is configured with 'Deliver then alert' for malware detected by AMP, the email is delivered to the user before the AMP file reputation analysis completes. The ESA sends the file to AMP for analysis, but if the policy is set to deliver first and alert later, the user receives the attachment even if AMP later determines it is malicious. This explains why the administrator sees the block in both AMP and ESA logs, yet the user claims delivery.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Deliver then alert' and 'Block' or 'Deliver and alert' modes in ESA AMP integration, where candidates mistakenly assume that a block in AMP logs means the file was never delivered, but the 'Deliver then alert' policy allows delivery before the block verdict is received.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the ESA were not configured to use AMP for file reputation, the file would not have been blocked by AMP at all, but the exhibit shows it was blocked by both AMP and ESA, indicating AMP integration is active. Option C is wrong because an ACL misconfiguration would prevent the file from being sent to AMP for reputation check, resulting in no AMP block event, but the exhibit shows AMP did block the file, so the check was performed. Option D is wrong because if the file were whitelisted in the AMP policy, AMP would not have blocked it, contradicting the exhibit showing a block by AMP.

412
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to configure a site-to-site IPsec VPN on a Cisco ASA into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

IKE policy defines Phase 1 parameters, then pre-shared key is set, interesting traffic is defined via ACL, crypto map binds Phase 2 parameters, and it is applied to the interface.

413
MCQhard

An organization uses Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN with DTLS enabled. What is the primary benefit of DTLS?

A.It provides stronger encryption than TLS.
B.It is required for DAP policies.
C.It uses UDP to avoid TCP-over-TCP issues and improve performance.
D.It allows split tunneling without configuration.
AnswerC

Correct; DTLS uses UDP, avoiding TCP meltdown.

Why this answer

DTLS provides UDP-based transport for VPN traffic, reducing latency and improving performance for real-time applications compared to TCP-based TLS.

414
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of a digital signature?

A.Compress the data
B.Verify the sender's identity and ensure message integrity
C.Prevent replay attacks
D.Encrypt the message
AnswerB

Signatures authenticate the sender and detect tampering.

Why this answer

A digital signature provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation.

415
MCQeasy

An engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco ASA firewall and notices that traffic from a specific subnet is being dropped. The engineer wants to verify if the drop is due to an access control list (ACL) or an inspection policy. Which command should be used to see the reason for packet drops?

A.show access-list
B.show asp drop
C.show conn
D.show service-policy
AnswerB

Displays packet drop counters with reasons, including ACL and inspection drops.

Why this answer

The 'show asp drop' command displays packet drop statistics from the Accelerated Security Path (ASP) on a Cisco ASA. It provides a detailed breakdown of why packets are dropped, including drops due to ACLs, inspection policies, or other security checks. This makes it the correct tool to differentiate between ACL and inspection policy drops.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between commands that show configuration or active connections versus commands that show drop reasons, leading candidates to mistakenly choose 'show access-list' or 'show service-policy' because they think hit counts or policy statistics will reveal the drop cause.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'show access-list' only displays the configured ACL entries and their hit counts, but does not show the specific reason for packet drops or differentiate between ACL and inspection policy drops. Option C is wrong because 'show conn' shows active connections in the connection table, not dropped packets or the reason for drops. Option D is wrong because 'show service-policy' displays the configuration and statistics of service policies (e.g., inspection policies), but does not show the specific reason for packet drops or provide drop counters.

416
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is deploying Cisco ESA and wants to protect against malware delivered via email attachments. Which TWO features can be used together to provide both signature-based detection and behavioral analysis?

Select 2 answers
A.SHA-256 cloud lookup
B.Outbreak filters
C.DLP policies
D.File sandboxing
E.Anti-spam with SenderBase
AnswersA, D

This provides signature-based detection by comparing file hashes against known malware.

Why this answer

AMP for Email uses SHA-256 cloud lookup for known malware and file sandboxing for unknown files to detect malicious behavior.

417
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid methods for authenticating VPN users in a Cisco AnyConnect deployment?

Select 2 answers
A.TACACS+
B.OSPF
C.RADIUS
D.LDAP
E.SNMP
AnswersC, D

RADIUS is commonly used for VPN authentication.

Why this answer

Cisco AnyConnect VPN authentication can be performed using RADIUS, which is a widely supported AAA protocol. RADIUS enables centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for VPN users, and it is natively integrated with Cisco ASA and Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) appliances for remote access VPNs.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between AAA protocols for device administration (TACACS+) versus user authentication (RADIUS/LDAP), and the trap here is that TACACS+ is a valid AAA protocol but is not used for VPN user authentication in AnyConnect.

418
MCQeasy

An organization is implementing privileged access management (PAM) using Cisco SecureX and CyberArk. Which PAM capability provides temporary elevated access that is automatically revoked after a set period?

A.Role-based access control
B.Just-in-time access
C.Session recording
D.Password vaulting
AnswerB

JIT access is temporary and automatically revoked.

Why this answer

Just-in-time (JIT) access grants temporary privileges that expire after the task is completed, reducing standing privileges.

419
MCQmedium

An enterprise uses multiple IaaS providers (AWS, Azure, GCP). They need a single solution to enforce consistent security policies across all cloud environments. Which Cisco product provides multi-cloud security posture management?

A.Cisco Defense Orchestrator
B.Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics
C.Cisco ISE
D.Cisco Firepower NGFW
AnswerB

Provides multi-cloud monitoring and policy enforcement.

Why this answer

Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics (formerly Stealthwatch Cloud) is the correct answer because it provides multi-cloud security posture management by ingesting flow logs, API telemetry, and configuration data from AWS, Azure, and GCP to detect misconfigurations, anomalous behavior, and compliance violations. It uses machine learning to establish baselines and alert on deviations, enabling consistent policy enforcement across heterogeneous cloud environments without requiring agents or changes to existing infrastructure.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'policy orchestration' (Defense Orchestrator) and 'posture management' (Secure Cloud Analytics), so the trap here is assuming that a firewall management tool can also perform multi-cloud security posture assessment without native cloud API integrations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco Defense Orchestrator is a centralized policy management tool for on-premises and cloud firewalls (e.g., FTD, ASA, Meraki), but it does not provide multi-cloud security posture management or analyze cloud-native telemetry from AWS, Azure, and GCP. Option C is wrong because Cisco ISE is a network access control (NAC) and identity management platform for on-premises wired/wireless networks, not designed to ingest cloud API logs or assess cloud security posture. Option D is wrong because Cisco Firepower NGFW is a next-generation firewall appliance for perimeter and data center traffic inspection, lacking the cloud-native API integrations and multi-cloud visibility required for posture management across IaaS providers.

420
MCQmedium

A network engineer is deploying TrustSec using SGT over VXLAN in a data center fabric. The fabric switches are configured as VXLAN Tunnel Endpoints (VTEPs). The engineer must ensure that SGT information is propagated from the border leaves to the spine. Which mechanism should be used?

A.LISP (Locator/ID Separation Protocol)
B.VXLAN Group Policy Option (GPO) in the VXLAN header
C.SXP (SGT Exchange Protocol) between VTEPs
D.IS-IS protocol extensions for SGT
AnswerB

The VXLAN header includes a Group Policy ID field that carries the SGT.

Why this answer

VXLAN Group Policy Option (GPO) is the correct mechanism because it embeds the SGT directly into the VXLAN header (in the Group Policy ID field, bits 24-31 of the VXLAN Network Identifier). This allows the spine switches, which are also VTEPs, to receive and forward the SGT information without needing a separate control plane protocol. The border leaf encodes the SGT in the VXLAN encapsulation, and the spine decodes it from the header, ensuring end-to-end SGT propagation across the fabric.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SXP (a control-plane protocol for SGT binding exchange) with the data-plane encapsulation mechanism needed to carry SGTs inside VXLAN packets, leading them to select SXP instead of VXLAN GPO.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because LISP is a control plane protocol for endpoint location and identity separation, not a mechanism for embedding SGTs in VXLAN headers; it is used in some Cisco SD-Access fabrics but not for SGT propagation over VXLAN. Option C is wrong because SXP is a TCP-based protocol used to exchange SGT-to-IP bindings between network devices, but it operates at Layer 3 and is not designed to carry SGTs inside VXLAN encapsulation between VTEPs. Option D is wrong because IS-IS protocol extensions for SGT do not exist; IS-IS is a routing protocol and has no standardized extension to carry SGT information in VXLAN headers.

421
MCQmedium

A security administrator is configuring a Cisco FTD device using FMC. The goal is to block traffic from a specific country and allow all other traffic. Which action should be taken in the access control policy?

A.Create a pre-filter rule that blocks traffic from the country.
B.Create an intrusion rule with a block action for the country.
C.Create a file policy that blocks traffic from the country.
D.Create an access control rule with source country set to the country and action Block.
AnswerD

Access control rules can match on geolocation and block traffic.

Why this answer

Geolocation filtering is configured under access control rules; a rule with block action for the country should be placed before any allow rules.

422
MCQmedium

An organization is using Cisco Firepower NGFW to enforce content filtering. They want to block social media applications like Facebook and Twitter but allow LinkedIn for business purposes. Which feature should be used to differentiate between these applications?

A.URL filtering based on categories
B.Intrusion policy
C.Application control with application filters
D.TLS server identity discovery
AnswerC

Application control allows blocking specific applications or subcategories, providing granularity.

Why this answer

Firepower NGFW uses application control to identify and block specific applications. By creating a rule that blocks the 'Social Networking' category but then allows 'LinkedIn' specifically (or blocks Facebook and Twitter by application), the administrator can achieve granular control.

423
MCQmedium

A security engineer is tuning an IPS to reduce false positives. They notice that legitimate traffic is triggering a signature for a worm that uses a specific HTTP GET request. The engineer wants to disable the signature for that specific traffic pattern but keep it enabled for other traffic. What is the best approach?

A.Increase the signature threshold.
B.Disable the signature globally.
C.Create a rule suppression for the specific source/destination.
D.Change the action to 'alert' instead of 'drop'.
AnswerC

Correct. Suppression allows you to disable the rule for specific conditions.

Why this answer

In Snort-based IPS, you can create a rule suppression or use a pass rule with a higher priority to skip inspection for that traffic. Alternatively, you can modify the rule to add a 'pcre' condition or use 'tag', but the simplest is to create a suppression or use a rule override to disable the specific signature for that source/destination.

424
Multi-Selecthard

A SOC analyst is investigating a BEC attack. Which three indicators should be examined in the email headers to detect the spoofing? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.DKIM result
B.SPF result
C.Subject line
D.DMARC result
E.Message body content
AnswersA, B, D

DKIM fail means signature invalid.

Why this answer

SPF, DKIM, and DMARC results indicate authentication status and potential spoofing.

425
MCQeasy

Which security concept involves creating multiple layers of defense so that if one layer is breached, subsequent layers still provide protection?

A.Zero Trust
B.Defense in depth
C.Separation of duties
D.Least privilege
AnswerB

Layered security approach.

Why this answer

Defense in depth is a security architecture strategy that layers independent defensive mechanisms (e.g., firewalls, IDS/IPS, endpoint protection, encryption) so that if one layer is compromised, subsequent layers continue to protect the asset. This concept is fundamental to the 350-701 exam as it underpins Cisco's SecureX and integrated security fabric approach, where multiple controls (like ASA, Firepower, and Umbrella) work together to provide resilience against breaches.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Defense in depth and Zero Trust by presenting a scenario where multiple security controls are used, and candidates mistakenly choose Zero Trust because they associate 'multiple layers' with 'never trust, always verify,' but Zero Trust is about identity verification and micro-segmentation, not the layered stacking of independent defenses.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no implicit trust and requires continuous verification of every access request, but it does not inherently describe the layered stacking of defenses; it focuses on identity and context-based access control rather than multiple independent layers. Option C is wrong because Separation of duties is an administrative control that prevents a single individual from having excessive privileges or performing conflicting tasks (e.g., one person approves changes, another implements them); it does not create multiple technical defense layers. Option D is wrong because Least privilege is a principle that grants users only the minimum permissions needed to perform their job functions; it reduces the attack surface but does not involve stacking multiple defensive technologies to protect against successive breaches.

426
MCQeasy

Which Cisco technology uses SenderBase reputation scores (SBRS) to evaluate incoming email?

A.Cisco ESA anti-spam
B.Cisco Firepower intrusion prevention
C.Cisco WSA URL filtering
D.Cisco Umbrella DNS security
AnswerA

SenderBase is the anti-spam technology in ESA.

Why this answer

Cisco ESA uses IronPort SenderBase reputation to assign a score (-10 to +10) to senders to determine spam likelihood.

427
MCQmedium

An attacker performs a DNS cache poisoning attack on a recursive DNS server. What is the primary impact of this attack?

A.Encryption of DNS queries
B.Exposure of DNS server credentials
C.Redirection of traffic to malicious servers
D.Denial of service to the DNS server
AnswerC

The injected records redirect traffic to attacker-controlled servers.

Why this answer

DNS cache poisoning injects false DNS records, causing users to be redirected to malicious sites when they attempt to access legitimate domains.

428
MCQmedium

A company is deploying Cisco TrustSec to enforce micro-segmentation between data center servers. Security team wants to use Security Group Tags (SGTs) assigned dynamically via ISE. Which method should the engineer use to propagate SGTs to the access switches that connect the servers, assuming the network uses Cisco Nexus 9000 switches and ISE as the policy server?

A.Deploy SXP (SGT Exchange Protocol) between ISE and the Nexus switches
B.Configure ISE as a RADIUS server to send CoA with SGT
C.Enable SGT inline tagging on all interswitch links
D.Use a dedicated VLAN per security group
AnswerA

SXP is designed to exchange IP-to-SGT mappings between ISE (policy server) and network devices like Nexus switches.

Why this answer

For dynamic SGT propagation from ISE to network devices, SXP (SGT Exchange Protocol) is the standard method. It carries IP-to-SGT mappings from ISE to the Nexus switches, enabling the switches to enforce policies without requiring inline tagging on every link. Option B (CoA) is used for reauthentication and session changes, not for bulk SGT propagation.

Option C (SGT inline tagging) is a hardware-based method for carrying SGTs on frame headers between switches, but it does not propagate the bindings from ISE; it requires all links to support tagging. Option D (dedicated VLAN per security group) is a traditional segmentation method, not related to Cisco TrustSec SGTs. Therefore, A is correct.

429
MCQhard

A company uses Cisco ISE for network access control. They want to authenticate users connecting via VPN using multi-factor authentication. Which solution integrates with ISE to provide MFA for AnyConnect VPN?

A.Cisco AMP for Endpoints
B.Cisco SecureX
C.CyberArk
D.Cisco Duo
AnswerD

Duo provides MFA capabilities and integrates with AnyConnect and ISE for secure VPN authentication.

Why this answer

Cisco Duo integrates with ISE and AnyConnect to provide multi-factor authentication for VPN access.

430
MCQmedium

An engineer is configuring an access control policy on Cisco FMC for FTD. The policy must allow HTTP traffic from the inside zone to the outside zone, but block all other traffic. Which rule configuration is correct?

A.Rule 1: Trust HTTP from inside to outside; Rule 2: Block all traffic.
B.Rule 1: Permit HTTP from inside to outside; Rule 2: Block all traffic.
C.Rule 1: Block all traffic; Rule 2: Allow HTTP from inside to outside.
D.Rule 1: Allow HTTP from inside to outside; no default rule.
AnswerB

Correct; permit allows HTTP with inspection, and the default deny blocks everything else.

Why this answer

Access control rules are processed top-down; a trust rule bypasses further inspection but still allows traffic; a permit rule allows traffic with inspection. The scenario requires allowing HTTP only, so a permit rule for HTTP with a default deny rule after is correct.

431
MCQmedium

A multinational corporation uses Cisco AMP for Endpoints with cloud-based file reputation. The security team notices that a file that was previously determined to be clean (disposition: clean) is now reported as malicious by a threat intelligence feed. However, AMP has not taken any action on endpoints that already executed the file. The administrator confirms that retrospective security is enabled. What should the administrator check first to ensure that the file is remediated on all affected endpoints?

A.Verify that the file is not excluded from scanning due to an anti-virus exclusion list.
B.Confirm that the endpoints have internet connectivity to the AMP cloud.
C.Check that the policy assigned to the endpoints has the 'Remediate Now' option enabled for files with changed dispositions.
D.Ensure that the file is being analyzed by the local AMP engine for accurate detection.
AnswerC

Requires explicit setting.

Why this answer

When a file's disposition changes from clean to malicious in the AMP cloud, the 'Remediate Now' policy setting controls whether AMP automatically triggers remediation actions (such as quarantine or deletion) on endpoints that have already executed the file. Even with retrospective security enabled, the administrator must ensure that the policy assigned to the endpoints has this option enabled; otherwise, the cloud will send the updated disposition but the endpoint will not automatically act on it.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'retrospective security' being enabled (which allows the cloud to send updated dispositions) and the 'Remediate Now' policy setting (which controls whether the endpoint automatically acts on those updates), leading candidates to incorrectly assume that enabling retrospective security alone is sufficient for automatic remediation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because antivirus exclusion lists affect real-time or on-access scanning, not the retrospective remediation of a file whose disposition has changed in the cloud; exclusions would prevent initial detection but do not block cloud-triggered remediation. Option B is wrong because endpoints must have internet connectivity to receive the updated disposition from the AMP cloud, but the question states that the administrator confirms retrospective security is enabled, implying connectivity is already present; the issue is the lack of automatic remediation action, not connectivity. Option D is wrong because the local AMP engine handles initial file analysis and detection, but the file was previously determined clean by the cloud; the local engine does not re-analyze files for retrospective disposition changes—that is a cloud-driven function.

432
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE features are available in Cisco Umbrella to protect against DNS-based threats? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.IP-layer enforcement
B.Application control
C.DNS-layer security
D.Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
E.Anti-virus scanning
AnswersA, B, C

Blocks traffic to malicious IP addresses.

Why this answer

Cisco Umbrella provides DNS-layer security (option C) as its core function, intercepting DNS queries to block requests to malicious domains before a connection is established. IP-layer enforcement (option A) extends protection by applying policies based on the destination IP address, blocking traffic to known malicious IPs even if DNS resolution is bypassed. Application control (option B) allows administrators to permit or block specific cloud applications (e.g., Dropbox, Facebook) at the DNS level, preventing data exfiltration or unauthorized usage through DNS-based application identification.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DNS-layer security (which blocks at the query level) and IP-layer enforcement (which blocks at the network layer), and candidates mistakenly think DLP or anti-virus are part of Umbrella because they confuse it with other Cisco security products like WSA or Secure Endpoint.

433
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE capabilities are provided by Cisco ISE's visibility services within the Secure Network Access domain? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Endpoint profiling and classification (including IoT)
B.802.1X authentication for wired and wireless
C.Security group access control enforcement
D.Guest user registration and sponsor workflows
E.Passive identity monitoring and contextual data collection
AnswersA, D, E

ISE profiles endpoints based on attributes like MAC OUI, DHCP options.

Why this answer

Cisco ISE visibility services focus on identifying and profiling endpoints, managing guest access, and collecting contextual data. Option A (Endpoint profiling and classification, including IoT) is correct because ISE uses profiling probes to classify devices. Option D (Guest user registration and sponsor workflows) is correct as ISE provides a guest portal for registration and sponsor approval.

Option E (Passive identity monitoring and contextual data collection) is correct as ISE can monitor network traffic passively via integrations like pxGrid to collect identity and context. Options B and C are incorrect: 802.1X authentication is an enforcement mechanism, not a visibility service, and Security Group Access (SGA) enforcement is a policy enforcement feature, not visibility.

434
MCQhard

A security administrator is evaluating symmetric encryption algorithms for a new VPN deployment. Which algorithm uses a 128-bit block size and supports key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits?

A.3DES
B.AES
C.RSA
D.MD5
AnswerB

Correct answer. AES meets the described parameters.

Why this answer

AES is a symmetric block cipher with a fixed block size of 128 bits and key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits.

435
MCQeasy

Which type of firewall is best suited to inspect application-layer traffic and protect against exploits like SQL injection?

A.Stateful firewall
B.Application proxy firewall
C.Packet-filtering firewall
D.Next-generation firewall with IPS and application visibility
AnswerD

Provides application-layer inspection and protection.

Why this answer

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) with IPS and application visibility is best suited to inspect application-layer traffic and protect against exploits like SQL injection because it combines deep packet inspection (DPI), signature-based IPS, and application-level awareness. Unlike simpler firewalls, an NGFW can decode HTTP/HTTPS payloads, match patterns against SQL injection signatures (e.g., ' OR 1=1 --), and block malicious traffic at Layer 7 while maintaining stateful inspection.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a stateful firewall is sufficient for application-layer threats, but the trap here is that stateful firewalls only inspect up to Layer 4 and cannot detect payload-based exploits like SQL injection, which require Layer 7 inspection and IPS capabilities.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a stateful firewall only tracks connection state (TCP handshake, sequence numbers) and inspects up to Layer 4, lacking the ability to parse application-layer payloads for SQL injection patterns. Option B is wrong because an application proxy firewall (a dedicated proxy) can inspect application traffic but is often slower, less scalable, and lacks integrated IPS signatures; the question asks for the 'best suited' modern solution, which is an NGFW with IPS and application visibility. Option C is wrong because a packet-filtering firewall operates only at Layers 3 and 4, filtering based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols, with no application-layer inspection to detect SQL injection.

436
MCQeasy

A company wants to block social media access for employees during work hours. Which Cisco Firepower NGFW feature should be used to achieve this?

A.DLP Policies
B.URL Filtering
C.TLS Server Identity Discovery
D.Application Control
AnswerD

Application control can block social media applications regardless of URL.

Why this answer

Firepower NGFW application control can block specific application categories such as social media.

437
MCQmedium

A company deploys Cisco Duo for multi-factor authentication to protect VPN access. Employees use AnyConnect to connect to the corporate network. After entering their credentials, they receive a push notification on their mobile device. Which Duo authentication method is being used?

A.Duo Push
B.Bypass code
C.TOTP (Time-based One-Time Password)
D.Hardware token
AnswerA

Duo Push sends a push notification to the Duo Mobile app for approval.

Why this answer

Duo Push sends a push notification to the user's enrolled mobile device, which they can approve or deny. This is the most common method for VPN MFA with AnyConnect.

438
MCQmedium

A security engineer is deploying Cisco AMP for Endpoints and wants to ensure that the client can detect and block memory injection attacks. Which AMP feature should be enabled to provide this protection?

A.Device Trajectory
B.Endpoint IOC scanning
C.File quarantine
D.Exploit Prevention
AnswerD

Exploit Prevention specifically protects against memory injection and exploit techniques.

Why this answer

Exploit Prevention in Cisco AMP focuses on detecting and blocking memory injection attacks, such as buffer overflows and code injection, by monitoring process behavior.

439
MCQhard

A security engineer is configuring Cisco ISE for 802.1X authentication using EAP-TLS. What must be deployed on the endpoints to support this authentication method?

A.A username and password
B.A client certificate
C.A TOTP token
D.A shared secret
AnswerB

Correct. EAP-TLS uses certificate-based authentication.

Why this answer

EAP-TLS requires a client certificate on the supplicant for mutual authentication.

440
MCQeasy

On a Cisco ASA, which command applies a policy-map globally to all interfaces?

A.class-map
B.service-policy
C.policy-map
D.access-group
AnswerB

service-policy applies the policy globally.

Why this answer

The service-policy command applies the policy-map globally.

441
MCQhard

A university is using Cisco WSA to filter web traffic for its students and staff. The WSA is configured with transparent proxy mode and uses Active Directory for authentication. Recently, the IT department received complaints that some users cannot access certain educational websites that are correctly categorized as 'Education'. The WSA policy has a default rule that blocks all categories except those explicitly allowed. The 'Education' category is set to 'Allow'. However, affected users are shown a block page with the reason 'Web Reputation: Low Reputation'. The Web Reputation threshold is set to -5.0. The IT team checked the reputation scores of the blocked sites and found they are around -4.5. What is the most likely reason for the block?

A.The Web Reputation action is set to 'Block' for scores below 0, overriding the URL filtering allow
B.The 'Education' category is not included in the allowed list for the specific identification profile
C.The users are not authenticated properly and are assigned a default policy that blocks education
D.The HTTPS decryption is failing for those sites, causing a block
AnswerA

Reputation actions can override URL filtering, blocking sites with low reputation even if the category is allowed.

Why this answer

The Web Reputation action configured in the WSA policy overrides the URL category-based allow rule. Even though the 'Education' category is set to 'Allow', the Web Reputation threshold is set to -5.0, and the blocked sites have a reputation score of -4.5 (which is below the threshold, meaning worse reputation). The WSA applies the most restrictive action: if Web Reputation is set to 'Block' for scores below 0, it will block traffic regardless of the category allow action, resulting in the block page showing 'Web Reputation: Low Reputation'.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that Web Reputation actions can override URL category allow rules, leading candidates to mistakenly focus on category misconfiguration or authentication issues when the block page explicitly indicates reputation as the reason.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the question states the 'Education' category is set to 'Allow' in the WSA policy, and the block page explicitly cites 'Web Reputation: Low Reputation', not a category mismatch. Option C is wrong because the block page reason is reputation-based, not authentication-related; if users were unauthenticated, they would likely see a different block message or be redirected to a login page, not a reputation block. Option D is wrong because HTTPS decryption failure would typically result in a certificate error or a 'decryption failed' block page, not a 'Web Reputation: Low Reputation' message; reputation scoring is independent of decryption status.

442
MCQmedium

A network engineer is designing a multi-cloud architecture with AWS and Azure. The company needs consistent security policies across both cloud providers and on-premises data centers. Which Cisco solution should the engineer recommend?

A.Cisco Umbrella SIG.
B.Cisco Firepower NGFW.
C.Cisco Tetration.
D.Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise.
AnswerC

Correct: Tetration provides micro-segmentation and consistent policies across hybrid/multi-cloud.

Why this answer

Cisco Tetration is the correct recommendation because it provides a multi-cloud workload protection platform that enforces consistent security policies across AWS, Azure, and on-premises environments using a software-based agent and a centralized policy engine. It leverages micro-segmentation and behavioral analytics to automatically generate and enforce whitelist-based policies based on actual traffic flows, ensuring uniform security regardless of the underlying cloud provider.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between visibility-only tools (Stealthwatch) and enforcement-capable platforms (Tetration), leading candidates to choose Stealthwatch because they associate it with 'security analytics' without realizing the question explicitly requires 'consistent security policies' across clouds.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cisco Umbrella SIG is a cloud-delivered secure internet gateway (SIG) focused on DNS-layer security, web filtering, and cloud access security broker (CASB) functions, not on enforcing consistent security policies across multi-cloud workloads and on-premises data centers. Option B is wrong because Cisco Firepower NGFW is a physical or virtual firewall that provides network-layer inspection and segmentation, but it lacks the native multi-cloud policy orchestration and workload-level micro-segmentation capabilities required for consistent policy enforcement across AWS, Azure, and on-premises. Option D is wrong because Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise is a network visibility and analytics tool that uses NetFlow/IPFIX for traffic analysis and threat detection, but it does not provide policy enforcement or multi-cloud workload protection like Tetration does.

443
MCQhard

A hospital is deploying Cisco ISE for network access control. They have a mix of employee laptops, medical devices (e.g., infusion pumps), and guest smartphones. The network uses Cisco Catalyst 9300 switches and Aironet 3700 series access points. For medical devices, the policy must use Machine Authentication (MAB) since they are 802.1X incapable. The ISE policy authenticates via MAB and then assigns the device to a specific VLAN for medical devices. During a pilot, the network team notices that some infusion pumps (MAC: 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E) are failing MAB authentication. The switch logs show 'Authentication failed for MAC 001a.2b3c.4d5e on interface GigabitEthernet1/0/10'. ISE logs show 'Authentication failed - RADIUS server rejected - Reason: Invalid Endpoint ID'. The engineer has verified the MAC address is in the ISE endpoint repository with correct identity group. What should the engineer check next to resolve this issue?

A.Verify that the switch port is configured with 'authentication port-control auto'
B.Check the MAC address format in the ISE endpoint identity store (such as using lowercase with a hyphen separator)
C.Confirm that the ISE policy for MAB allows the device to authenticate
D.Ensure the RADIUS shared secret is correct on the switch and ISE
AnswerB

The switch sends MAC in form '001a.2b3c.4d5e' (no delimiter) or '00-1a-2b-3c-4d-5e'? ISE expects a specific format; mismatch causes 'Invalid Endpoint ID'.

Why this answer

The error 'Invalid Endpoint ID' typically indicates that the username/password used for MAB is not matching. For MAB, the switch sends the MAC address as both username and password. If the ISE repository has the MAC but the authentication profile expects a different format (e.g., lowercase, colon-separated), it can fail.

Option B is correct because the switch might be sending the MAC in different case (upper vs lower) or without dashes. Option A would cause different error. Option C would prevent any auth.

Option D would cause other services to fail, not specific to MAB.

444
MCQmedium

An organization wants to connect its on-premises data center to an AWS VPC privately, avoiding the public internet. Which AWS service provides a dedicated, private connection?

A.AWS Site-to-Site VPN
B.AWS Direct Connect
C.AWS PrivateLink
D.AWS NAT Gateway
AnswerB

Dedicated Interconnect provides a private, dedicated connection.

Why this answer

AWS Direct Connect provides a dedicated private connection from an on-premises data center to AWS, bypassing the public internet. Site-to-Site VPN uses the internet, PrivateLink is for accessing services privately across VPCs and on-premises, and NAT Gateway is for outbound internet access.

445
MCQmedium

An organization is using Cisco ESA to protect against email-borne threats. They notice that some phishing emails are not being caught by the anti-spam engine. The emails contain malicious URLs that are rewritten by the ESA. Which feature should be verified to ensure the rewritten URLs are properly analyzed?

A.Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies
B.URL filtering and analysis settings
C.Anti-Virus scanning engine
D.Encryption policies
AnswerB

This ensures rewritten URLs are analyzed for malicious content.

Why this answer

B is correct because the URL filtering and analysis settings control how the Cisco ESA rewrites and subsequently analyzes malicious URLs. When a phishing email contains a malicious URL, the ESA can rewrite the URL to point to its own proxy for real-time analysis. If this feature is not properly configured or if the analysis settings (such as reputation scoring or time-of-click verification) are disabled, the rewritten URLs may not be inspected, allowing the threat to bypass detection.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between features that inspect content (anti-spam, anti-virus) versus features that analyze URLs at the time of click, leading candidates to mistakenly choose anti-virus or anti-spam options when the question specifically involves rewritten URLs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are designed to prevent sensitive data from leaving the organization, not to analyze rewritten URLs for malicious content. Option C is wrong because the Anti-Virus scanning engine focuses on detecting malware in attachments or body content, not on analyzing rewritten URLs or their destinations. Option D is wrong because encryption policies govern the use of TLS or S/MIME for secure email transmission, not the inspection or analysis of rewritten URLs.

446
MCQmedium

A security engineer notices that several endpoints in the HR department have been infected with ransomware despite having Cisco AMP for Endpoints deployed. The AMP policy is set to 'Detect' for all file types. What is the most likely reason the ransomware was not blocked?

A.The endpoints had process exclusions that allowed the ransomware process.
B.The AMP policy was set to 'Detect' and not 'Block' or 'Quarantine'.
C.The AMP cloud was unreachable during the infection attempt.
D.The file was too large for cloud analysis and AMP timed out.
AnswerB

The 'Detect' mode only generates alerts without taking preventive action.

Why this answer

Cisco AMP for Endpoints policies have three primary actions: 'Detect', 'Block', and 'Quarantine'. When a policy is set to 'Detect', the endpoint will alert on malicious files but will not prevent execution. Since the ransomware was allowed to run, the most likely cause is that the policy was configured to 'Detect' only, rather than a more restrictive action like 'Block' or 'Quarantine'.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'Detect' and 'Block' actions in AMP policies, as candidates may assume that any detection capability automatically prevents execution, but 'Detect' is purely alerting without enforcement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because process exclusions in AMP are used to bypass scanning for legitimate processes, but the question states the ransomware was not blocked due to the policy setting, not due to an exclusion list. Option C is wrong because while cloud connectivity issues can affect retrospective analysis and file reputation lookups, AMP for Endpoints uses local TETRA (Traps Engine for Threat Recognition and Analysis) and Spero engine to block known malware even without cloud access; the 'Detect' policy would still allow execution regardless of cloud reachability. Option D is wrong because file size limits for cloud analysis (typically 8 MB for full upload) would cause AMP to fall back to local analysis or allow the file if it cannot be analyzed, but the core issue remains the policy action being set to 'Detect' rather than 'Block'.

447
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is deploying Cisco Cloud Workload Protection (CWP) in AWS. Which THREE of the following components are part of a standard CWP architecture?

Select 3 answers
A.Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) scanner
B.Workload sensor (agent or agentless)
C.Policy enforcement point (e.g., network enforcement)
D.Cisco Umbrella DNS connector
E.Centralized aggregation and analysis server
AnswersB, C, E

Sensors collect telemetry from workloads.

Why this answer

The workload sensor (agent or agentless) is a core component of Cisco Cloud Workload Protection (CWP) because it provides visibility into workload activity, including process execution, network connections, and file integrity. This sensor collects telemetry data from workloads running in AWS and forwards it to the centralized analysis engine for threat detection and policy enforcement.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between CWP's workload-specific components (sensor, enforcement point, analysis server) and other Cisco cloud security products like CSPM or Umbrella, so candidates mistakenly include CSPM or DNS connectors as part of CWP.

448
MCQhard

An email administrator receives reports of a targeted phishing campaign where attackers impersonate the CEO to request wire transfers. Which Cisco ESA feature provides the best defense against this Business Email Compromise (BEC) attack?

A.Outbreak Filters
B.Anti-spam with SenderBase reputation
C.DMARC verification
D.DLP policies
AnswerC

DMARC uses SPF and DKIM to authenticate the sender's domain and reject spoofed emails.

Why this answer

DMARC can detect and block spoofed emails from the CEO's domain by verifying SPF and DKIM alignment.

449
Multi-Selecteasy

A network engineer is configuring site-to-site IPsec VPN on a Cisco ASA using IKEv2. Which two components are required for IKEv2 configuration? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.IKEv2 proposal
B.ISAKMP policy
C.Group policy
D.Transform set
E.Dynamic crypto map
AnswersA, D

IKEv2 proposal defines phase 1 parameters.

Why this answer

IKEv2 requires an IKEv2 proposal (or policy) defining encryption and authentication for phase 1, and a transform set for IPsec phase 2. Also, a crypto map binds the configuration to an interface. ISAKMP policy is for IKEv1.

450
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are components of Cisco TrustSec?

Select 2 answers
A.802.1X
B.Security Group Tag (SGT)
C.Security Group Access Control List (SGACL)
D.MACsec
E.IPsec
AnswersB, C

SGTs carry group membership information in packets.

Why this answer

Cisco TrustSec uses Security Group Tags (SGTs) to classify traffic based on identity and enforce access control policies. SGTs are 16-bit values assigned to users or devices, and they are carried in the packet header (e.g., via Cisco Metadata or inline tagging) to allow policy enforcement at the network layer.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between authentication/encryption protocols (802.1X, MACsec, IPsec) and the actual policy enforcement components (SGT and SGACL) of TrustSec, leading candidates to select 802.1X or MACsec as TrustSec components when they are merely supporting technologies.

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