- A
Find an alternative vendor and place an order
Why wrong: Finding a vendor without assessing the impact on schedule and cost may be premature.
- B
Review the risk register for the identified risk and implement the planned response
The vendor issue was likely a known risk. The PM should follow the planned response from the risk register.
- C
Ask the team to work overtime to make up for the delay
Why wrong: Working overtime may not be sufficient and does not address the root cause.
- D
Immediately inform the sponsor and steering committee
Why wrong: Communicating is important, but the PM should first analyze impact to provide informed updates.
Quick Answer
The answer is to review the risk register for the identified risk and implement the planned response. This is correct because the Project Management Professional PMP exam emphasizes that when a vendor cannot deliver a critical component on time, especially one on the critical path, the project manager’s first action must be to consult the risk register, where such threats should have been pre-identified with a corresponding response strategy. This tests your understanding of the Monitor Risks process and the importance of following established risk management protocols rather than reacting impulsively. A common trap on the exam is choosing to escalate immediately or re-plan the schedule without first checking existing documentation, which wastes time and ignores prior planning. Remember the mnemonic “RRR” — Risk Register first, then Response, then Re-evaluate.
PMP Practice Question: Business Environment: strategy and project benefits
This PMP practice question tests your understanding of business environment: strategy and project benefits. The scenario asks you to isolate a root cause — eliminate options that address a different problem before choosing. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
A key vendor notifies you that they cannot deliver a critical component on time due to a supplier issue. The component is on the critical path. What should the project manager do first?
Clue words in this question
Noticing these words before you look at the options changes how you read each choice.
Clue:
"first"Why it matters: Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
Review the risk register for the identified risk and implement the planned response
Option C is correct because the PM should first assess the impact on the project. Option A escalates without information, option B may be premature, option D ignores the risk.
Key principle: NAT direction and interface roles matter as much as the IP address mapping. Inside/outside designation controls which traffic is translated.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Find an alternative vendor and place an order
Why it's wrong here
Finding a vendor without assessing the impact on schedule and cost may be premature.
- ✓
Review the risk register for the identified risk and implement the planned response
Why this is correct
The vendor issue was likely a known risk. The PM should follow the planned response from the risk register.
Clue confirmation
The clue word "first" in the question point toward this answer.
Related concept
Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
- ✗
Ask the team to work overtime to make up for the delay
Why it's wrong here
Working overtime may not be sufficient and does not address the root cause.
- ✗
Immediately inform the sponsor and steering committee
Why it's wrong here
Communicating is important, but the PM should first analyze impact to provide informed updates.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: NAT rules depend on direction and matching traffic
NAT is not only about the public address. The inside/outside interface roles and the ACL or rule that matches traffic are just as important.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
NAT questions usually test address translation, overload/PAT behaviour, static mappings and whether the right traffic is being translated. Read the interface direction and address terms carefully.
KKey Concepts to Remember
- Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
- PAT allows many inside hosts to share one public address using ports.
- Inside local and inside global describe the private and translated addresses.
- NAT ACLs identify traffic for translation, not always security filtering.
TExam Day Tips
- Identify inside and outside interfaces first.
- Check whether the scenario needs static NAT, dynamic NAT or PAT.
- Do not confuse NAT matching ACLs with normal packet-filtering intent.
Key takeaway
NAT direction and interface roles matter as much as the IP address mapping. Inside/outside designation controls which traffic is translated.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A small business has 20 workstations on the 192.168.1.0/24 network and one public IP from its ISP. The router uses PAT (NAT overload) so all 20 devices share one public address using different source ports. NAT questions test whether you understand the four address terms and which direction each translation applies.
What to study next
Got this wrong? Here's your next step.
Review the four NAT address types (inside local, inside global, outside local, outside global), PAT port overload, and static vs dynamic NAT use cases. Then practise related PMP NAT questions on configuration and troubleshooting.
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Business Environment: strategy and project benefits — study guide chapter
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FAQ
Questions learners often ask
What does this PMP question test?
Business Environment: strategy and project benefits — This question tests Business Environment: strategy and project benefits — Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Review the risk register for the identified risk and implement the planned response — Option C is correct because the PM should first assess the impact on the project. Option A escalates without information, option B may be premature, option D ignores the risk.
What should I do if I get this PMP question wrong?
Review the four NAT address types (inside local, inside global, outside local, outside global), PAT port overload, and static vs dynamic NAT use cases. Then practise related PMP NAT questions on configuration and troubleshooting.
Are there clue words in this question I should notice?
Yes — watch for: "first". Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
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Courseiva creates original exam-style practice questions with explanations and wrong-answer analysis. It does not publish real exam questions, exam dumps, or protected exam content. Learn why practice questions differ from exam dumps →
Same concept, more angles
1 more ways this is tested on PMP
These questions test the same concept from different angles. Work through them to make sure you can recognise it however the exam phrases it.
Variation 1. A key vendor notifies you that they cannot deliver a critical component for another three weeks. This component is on the critical path. You have identified this risk in the risk register with a contingency plan to use a backup supplier. What should you do FIRST?
medium- A.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor immediately
- B.Conduct a new risk assessment for the vendor delay
- C.Add a 3-week buffer to the project schedule to absorb the delay
- ✓ D.Execute the contingency plan by contacting the backup supplier and updating the project schedule and budget accordingly
Why D: Option D is correct because the risk has occurred (an issue), so the PM should implement the contingency plan as per the risk register. Option A is wrong because the PM should follow the plan, not add new buffer unnecessarily. Option B is wrong because starting a new risk assessment delays action. Option C is wrong because escalation is not needed if a plan exists.
Last reviewed: Jun 21, 2026
This PMP practice question is part of Courseiva's free PMI certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PMP exam.
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